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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 31-year-old woman is experiencing a skin issue and is curious if using a sunbed could alleviate it. Identify the sole condition that can be positively impacted by exposure to sunlight.
Your Answer: Cutaneous porphyrias
Correct Answer: Psoriasis
Explanation:The Dangers and Benefits of UV Light Therapy for Skin Conditions
UV light therapy, including UVB and PUVA, can effectively treat psoriasis, atopic eczema, cutaneous T-cell lymphoma, and even polymorphic light eruption. However, sunlight can worsen conditions like lupus erythematosus and rosacea, and lead to skin ageing and cancer over time. Tanning, whether from the sun or a sunbed, should only be used under medical supervision for phototherapy. It’s important to weigh the potential benefits and risks of UV light therapy for skin conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man with a 25-year history of chronic plaque psoriasis is being seen in clinic. Despite having severe psoriasis at times, he is currently managing well with only topical therapy. Which of the following conditions is he NOT at an elevated risk for due to his psoriasis history?
Your Answer: Hypertension
Correct Answer: Melanoma
Explanation:The risk of non-melanoma skin cancer is higher in individuals with psoriasis.
Psoriasis is a condition that can have both physical and psychological complications, beyond just psoriatic arthritis. While it may be tempting to focus solely on topical treatments, it’s important to keep in mind the potential risks associated with psoriasis. Patients with this condition are at a higher risk for cardiovascular disease, hypertension, venous thromboembolism, depression, ulcerative colitis and Crohn’s disease, non-melanoma skin cancer, and other types of cancer such as liver, lung, and upper gastrointestinal tract cancers. Therefore, it’s crucial to consider these potential complications when managing a patient with psoriasis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 39-year-old lady presents with a mild cellulitis of the hand. She has no significant medical history and is not taking any regular medication. A finger prick blood glucose test shows a reading of 4.5 mmol/l. There are no complications and she appears to be in good health. You decide to prescribe flucloxacillin 500 mg qds. As per NICE guidelines, what is the standard duration for this course of antibiotics?
Your Answer: 5 to 7 days
Correct Answer: 10 to 14 days
Explanation:NICE Guidance on Cellulitis and Erysipelas Treatment
NICE has recently updated its guidance on the treatment of cellulitis and erysipelas with NG141. According to the new guidelines, Flucloxacillin 500mg qds is the first choice treatment for people over the age of 18. The recommended course of treatment is an oral course for 5 to 7 days. However, if a person is severely unwell or unable to take oral medication, a twice daily course of the intravenous antibiotic may be necessary. Based on clinical assessment, a longer course of up to 14 days may be needed. It is important to note that skin takes time to return to normal, and full resolution at 5 to 7 days is not expected.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 4
Correct
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A 70-year-old ex-farmer has well-controlled congestive cardiac failure and mild dementia. He points to a hard horn-like lesion sticking up from his left pinna for about 0.5 cm. It has a slightly indurated fleshy base.
Select from the list the single most appropriate course of action.Your Answer: Urgent referral to secondary care
Explanation:Cutaneous Horns and the Risk of Squamous Cell Carcinoma
Cutaneous horns are hard, keratin-based growths that often occur on sun-damaged skin. Farmers and other outdoor workers are particularly at risk due to their increased sun exposure. While most cutaneous horns are benign, doctors should be cautious as they can be a sign of squamous cell carcinoma (SCC) at the base of the lesion. SCCs can metastasize, especially if they occur on the ear, so urgent referral for removal is necessary if an SCC is suspected.
Although most cutaneous horns are caused by viral warts or seborrheic keratosis, up to 20% of lesions can be a sign of premalignant actinic keratoses or frank malignancy. Therefore, it is important for doctors to carefully evaluate any cutaneous horn and consider the possibility of SCC. While current guidelines discourage GPs from excising lesions suspected to be SCCs, urgent referral for removal is necessary to prevent metastasis and ensure the best possible outcome for the patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 5
Correct
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A young woman is referred acutely with a sudden onset of erythematous vesicular eruption affecting upper and lower limbs bilaterally also affecting trunk back and face. She had marked oral cavity ulceration, micturition was painful. She had recently been commenced on a new drug (Methotrexate) for rheumatoid arthritis. What is the likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Stevens-Johnson syndrome
Explanation:Stevens-Johnson Syndrome: A Severe Drug Reaction
Stevens-Johnson syndrome (SJS), also known as erythema multiforme major, is a severe and extensive drug reaction that always involves mucous membranes. This condition is characterized by the presence of blisters that tend to become confluent and bullous. One of the diagnostic signs of SJS is Nikolsky’s sign, which is the extension of blisters with gentle sliding pressure.
In addition to skin lesions, patients with SJS may experience systemic symptoms such as fever, prostration, cheilitis, stomatitis, vulvovaginitis, and balanitis. These symptoms can lead to difficulties with micturition. Moreover, SJS can affect the eyes, causing conjunctivitis and keratitis, which carry a risk of scarring and permanent visual impairment.
If there are lesions in the pharynx and larynx, it is important to seek an ENT opinion. SJS is a serious condition that requires prompt medical attention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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Which one of the following statements regarding acne vulgaris is inaccurate?
Your Answer: Acne vulgaris affects at least 80% of teenagers
Correct Answer: Beyond the age of 25 years acne vulgaris is more common in males
Explanation:Females over the age of 25 years are more prone to acne.
Acne vulgaris is a prevalent skin condition that typically affects adolescents, with the face, neck, and upper trunk being the most commonly affected areas. The condition is characterized by the blockage of the pilosebaceous follicle with keratin plugs, leading to the formation of comedones, inflammation, and pustules. It is estimated that around 80-90% of teenagers are affected by acne, with 60% of them seeking medical advice. Moreover, acne may persist beyond adolescence, with 10-15% of females and 5% of males over 25 years old being affected.
The pathophysiology of acne vulgaris is multifactorial, with several factors contributing to its development. One of the primary factors is follicular epidermal hyperproliferation, which leads to the formation of a keratin plug that obstructs the pilosebaceous follicle. Although androgen activity may control the sebaceous glands, levels are often normal in patients with acne. Another factor is the colonization of the anaerobic bacterium Propionibacterium acnes, which contributes to the inflammatory response. Inflammation is also a significant factor in the pathophysiology of acne vulgaris, leading to the formation of papules, pustules, and nodules.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 7
Correct
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A 28-year-old man visits his GP with concerns about 'spots' on the head of his penis. He mentions that they have always been present and have not changed in any way. The patient confirms that he is not sexually active and has never had any sexual partners.
During the examination, the GP observes several flesh-coloured papules on the corona of the penis. The GP diagnoses the patient with pearly penile papules.
What is the most important advice the GP can offer the patient?Your Answer: Pearly penile papules are benign and do not need to be investigated
Explanation:Pearly penile papules are a common and harmless occurrence that do not require any medical intervention. These small bumps, typically measuring 1-2 mm in size, are found around the corona of the penis and are not a cause for concern. Although patients may worry about their appearance, they are asymptomatic and do not indicate any underlying health issues.
It is important to note that pearly penile papules are not caused by any sexually transmitted infections, and therefore, routine sexual health screenings are not necessary. Screening should only be conducted if there is a genuine concern or suspicion of an infection. Typically, sexual health initiatives target individuals between the ages of 18 and 25.
Understanding STI Ulcers
Genital ulcers are a common symptom of several sexually transmitted infections (STIs). One of the most well-known causes is the herpes simplex virus (HSV) type 2, which can cause severe primary attacks with fever and subsequent attacks with multiple painful ulcers. Syphilis, caused by the spirochaete Treponema pallidum, has primary, secondary, and tertiary stages, with a painless ulcer (chancre) appearing in the primary stage. Chancroid, a tropical disease caused by Haemophilus ducreyi, causes painful genital ulcers with a sharply defined, ragged, undermined border and unilateral, painful inguinal lymph node enlargement. Lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV), caused by Chlamydia trachomatis, has three stages, with the first stage showing a small painless pustule that later forms an ulcer, followed by painful inguinal lymphadenopathy in the second stage and proctocolitis in the third stage. LGV is treated with doxycycline. Other causes of genital ulcers include Behcet’s disease, carcinoma, and granuloma inguinale (previously called Calymmatobacterium granulomatis). Understanding the different causes of STI ulcers is crucial in diagnosing and treating these infections.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 8
Correct
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An 80-year-old man presents with a lesion on the right side of his nose that has been gradually increasing in size over the past few months. Upon examination, you notice a raised, circular, flesh-colored lesion with a central depression. The edges of the lesion are rolled and contain some telangiectasia.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Basal cell carcinoma
Explanation:A basal cell carcinoma is a commonly observed type of skin cancer.
Understanding Basal Cell Carcinoma
Basal cell carcinoma (BCC) is a type of skin cancer that is commonly found in the Western world. It is characterized by slow growth and local invasion, with metastases being extremely rare. Lesions are also known as rodent ulcers and are typically found on sun-exposed areas, particularly on the head and neck. The most common type of BCC is nodular BCC, which initially appears as a pearly, flesh-colored papule with telangiectasia. As it progresses, it may ulcerate, leaving a central crater.
If a BCC is suspected, a routine referral should be made. There are several management options available, including surgical removal, curettage, cryotherapy, topical cream such as imiquimod or fluorouracil, and radiotherapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 9
Correct
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A 25-year-old woman has a pigmented lesion on her leg.
Select from the list the single feature that would be most suggestive of malignancy.Your Answer: Recent growth
Explanation:Identifying Suspicious Pigmented Lesions: Signs of Malignancy
When it comes to pigmented lesions, it’s important to approach new or growing ones with caution. While benign melanocytic naevi tend to remain stable over time, malignant lesions may exhibit signs of growth and other concerning features. These may include a size greater than 7mm, irregular pigmentation, asymmetry, and an irregular border or contour. While itching and bleeding may also be indicative of malignancy, they can also be caused by other factors such as trauma or seborrhoeic keratosis. To identify potential melanomas, healthcare professionals may use the Glasgow 7-point checklist or the ABCDE’s of melanoma. By remaining vigilant and aware of these warning signs, we can help ensure early detection and treatment of potentially dangerous pigmented lesions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman comes in with a persistent erythematous rash on her cheeks and a 'red nose'. She reports experiencing occasional facial flushing. During examination, erythematous skin is observed on the nose and cheeks, along with occasional papules. What is the best course of action for management?
Your Answer: Benzyl peroxide
Correct Answer: Topical metronidazole
Explanation:For the treatment of mild rosacea symptoms, the recommended first-line option is topical metronidazole. However, if the symptoms are severe or resistant, oral tetracycline may be necessary.
Rosacea, also known as acne rosacea, is a skin condition that is chronic in nature and its cause is unknown. It typically affects the nose, cheeks, and forehead, and the first symptom is often flushing. Telangiectasia, which are small blood vessels that are visible on the skin, are common, and the condition can progress to persistent erythema with papules and pustules. Rhinophyma, a condition where the nose becomes enlarged and bulbous, can also occur. Ocular involvement, such as blepharitis, can also be present, and sunlight can exacerbate symptoms.
Management of rosacea depends on the severity of the symptoms. For mild symptoms, topical metronidazole may be used, while topical brimonidine gel may be considered for patients with predominant flushing but limited telangiectasia. More severe cases may require systemic antibiotics such as oxytetracycline. It is recommended that patients apply a high-factor sunscreen daily and use camouflage creams to conceal redness. Laser therapy may be appropriate for patients with prominent telangiectasia, and those with rhinophyma should be referred to a dermatologist for further management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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