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  • Question 1 - Roughly what proportion of individuals with psoriasis experience a related arthropathy? ...

    Correct

    • Roughly what proportion of individuals with psoriasis experience a related arthropathy?

      Your Answer: 10-20%

      Explanation:

      Psoriatic arthropathy is a type of inflammatory arthritis that is associated with psoriasis. It is classified as one of the seronegative spondyloarthropathies and is characterized by joint inflammation that often precedes the development of skin lesions. While it affects both males and females equally, only 10-20% of patients with psoriasis develop this condition. The presentation of psoriatic arthropathy can vary, with the most common types being symmetric polyarthritis and asymmetrical oligoarthritis. Other signs include psoriatic skin lesions, periarticular disease, and nail changes. X-rays may show erosive changes and new bone formation, as well as a pencil-in-cup appearance. Treatment is similar to that of rheumatoid arthritis, but mild cases may only require NSAIDs and newer monoclonal antibodies may be used. Overall, psoriatic arthropathy has a better prognosis than RA.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 2 - Which one of the following statements regarding hirsutism is accurate? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding hirsutism is accurate?

      Your Answer: The Ferriman-Gallwey scoring system is used to assess the psychological impact of hirsutism

      Correct Answer: Co-cyprindiol (Dianette) may be a useful treatment for patients moderate-severe hirsutism

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hirsutism and Hypertrichosis

      Hirsutism is a term used to describe excessive hair growth in women that is dependent on androgens, while hypertrichosis refers to hair growth that is not androgen-dependent. Polycystic ovarian syndrome is the most common cause of hirsutism, but other factors such as Cushing’s syndrome, obesity, and certain medications can also contribute to this condition. To assess hirsutism, the Ferriman-Gallwey scoring system is often used, which assigns scores to nine different body areas. Management of hirsutism may involve weight loss, cosmetic techniques, or the use of oral contraceptive pills or topical medications.

      Hypertrichosis, on the other hand, can be caused by a variety of factors such as certain medications, congenital conditions, and even anorexia nervosa. It is important to identify the underlying cause of excessive hair growth in order to determine the most appropriate treatment approach. By understanding the differences between hirsutism and hypertrichosis, individuals can better manage these conditions and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 3 - A 61-year-old man with psoriasis is seeking a review of his skin and...

    Incorrect

    • A 61-year-old man with psoriasis is seeking a review of his skin and topical treatments. He has recently been diagnosed with atrial fibrillation and prescribed warfarin. Which of the following topical treatments, as per the British National Formulary, is most likely to interfere with his anticoagulation and should be excluded?

      Your Answer: Dithrocream (dithranol)

      Correct Answer: Eumovate (clobetasone butyrate)

      Explanation:

      Resources for Further Reading on Miconazole and Warfarin Interaction

      The following links offer valuable resources for those seeking more information on the interaction between miconazole and warfarin. It is important to note that even non-oral preparations of miconazole can greatly affect the International Normalized Ratio (INR) in individuals taking warfarin. Therefore, caution should be exercised when using these medications together. To learn more about this topic, please refer to the following resources.

      – Link 1: [insert link]
      – Link 2: [insert link]
      – Link 3: [insert link]

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 4 - You encounter a 70-year-old man who is experiencing an issue with his penis....

    Incorrect

    • You encounter a 70-year-old man who is experiencing an issue with his penis. He has been unable to retract his foreskin for a few years now, and the tip of his penis is quite sore. He also reports a foul odor. Apart from this, he is in good health. He believes that this problem developed gradually over several years.

      During the examination, you observe that the man is not circumcised, and there is a tight white ring around the tip of his foreskin. The glans penis is barely visible through the end of the foreskin, and it appears to be inflamed.

      What is the specific condition responsible for causing this man's balanitis?

      Your Answer: Zoon's balanitis

      Correct Answer: Lichen sclerosis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Lichen Sclerosus

      Lichen sclerosus, previously known as lichen sclerosus et atrophicus, is an inflammatory condition that commonly affects the genitalia, particularly in elderly females. It is characterized by the formation of white plaques that lead to atrophy of the epidermis. The condition can cause discomfort, with itch being a prominent symptom. Pain during intercourse or urination may also occur.

      Diagnosis of lichen sclerosus is usually based on clinical examination, although a biopsy may be necessary if atypical features are present. Treatment typically involves the use of topical steroids and emollients. However, patients with lichen sclerosus are at an increased risk of developing vulval cancer, so regular follow-up is recommended.

      According to the Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists, skin biopsy is not necessary for diagnosis unless the woman fails to respond to treatment or there is clinical suspicion of cancer. The British Association of Dermatologists also advises that biopsy is not always essential when the clinical features are typical, but it is advisable if there are atypical features or diagnostic uncertainty. Biopsy is mandatory if there is any suspicion of neoplastic change. Patients under routine follow-up will need a biopsy if there is a suspicion of neoplastic change, if the disease fails to respond to treatment, if there is extragenital LS, if there are pigmented areas, or if second-line therapy is to be used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      31
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  • Question 5 - A 45-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a rash and feeling...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a rash and feeling generally unwell. He has a history of epilepsy and was started on phenytoin three weeks ago. One week ago, he developed mouth ulcers, malaise, and a cough. Two days ago, he developed a widespread red rash that has now formed large fluid-filled blisters, covering approximately 30% of his body area. The lesions separate when slight pressure is applied. On examination, his temperature is 38.3ºC and pulse is 126/min. His blood results show:

      - Na+ 144 mmol/l
      - K+ 4.2 mmol/l
      - Bicarbonate 19 mmol/l
      - Urea 13.4 mmol/l
      - Creatinine 121 µmol/l

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Phenytoin-induced neutropaenia

      Correct Answer: Toxic epidermal necrolysis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis

      Toxic epidermal necrolysis (TEN) is a severe skin disorder that can be life-threatening and is often caused by a reaction to certain drugs. The condition causes the skin to appear scalded over a large area and is considered by some to be the most severe form of a range of skin disorders that includes erythema multiforme and Stevens-Johnson syndrome. Symptoms of TEN include feeling unwell, a high temperature, and a rapid heartbeat. Additionally, the skin may separate with mild lateral pressure, a sign known as Nikolsky’s sign.

      Several drugs are known to cause TEN, including phenytoin, sulphonamides, allopurinol, penicillins, carbamazepine, and NSAIDs. If TEN is suspected, the first step is to stop the use of the drug that is causing the reaction. Supportive care is often required, and patients may need to be treated in an intensive care unit. Electrolyte derangement and volume loss are potential complications that need to be monitored. Intravenous immunoglobulin is a commonly used first-line treatment that has been shown to be effective. Other treatment options include immunosuppressive agents such as ciclosporin and cyclophosphamide, as well as plasmapheresis.

      In summary, TEN is a severe skin disorder that can be caused by certain drugs. It is important to recognize the symptoms and stop the use of the drug causing the reaction. Supportive care is often required, and patients may need to be treated in an intensive care unit. Intravenous immunoglobulin is a commonly used first-line treatment, and other options include immunosuppressive agents and plasmapheresis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 6 - A 28-year-old female presents to the clinic with a 4-week history of a...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old female presents to the clinic with a 4-week history of a mild rash on her face. She reports that the rash is highly sensitive to sunlight and has been wearing hats for protection. The patient is six months postpartum and has no significant medical history.

      During the examination, an erythematous rash with superficial pustules is observed on the forehead, nose, and cheeks.

      What is the most effective treatment for the underlying condition?

      Your Answer: Topical metronidazole

      Explanation:

      Acne rosacea is a skin condition that commonly affects fair-skinned individuals over the age of 30, with symptoms appearing on the nose, cheeks, and forehead. Flushing, erythema, and telangiectasia can progress to papules and pustules. Exacerbating factors include sunlight, pregnancy, certain drugs, and food. For mild to moderate cases, NICE recommends metronidazole as a first-line treatment, with other topical agents such as brimonidine, oxymetazoline, benzoyl peroxide, and tretinoin also being effective. Systemic antibiotics like erythromycin and tetracycline can be used for moderate to severe cases. Camouflage creams and sunscreen can help manage symptoms, but do not treat the underlying condition. Steroid creams are not recommended for acne rosacea, while topical calcineurin inhibitors may be used for other skin conditions like seborrheic dermatitis, lichen planus, and vitiligo.

      Rosacea, also known as acne rosacea, is a skin condition that is chronic in nature and its cause is unknown. It typically affects the nose, cheeks, and forehead, and the first symptom is often flushing. Telangiectasia, which are small blood vessels that are visible on the skin, are common, and the condition can progress to persistent erythema with papules and pustules. Rhinophyma, a condition where the nose becomes enlarged and bulbous, can also occur. Ocular involvement, such as blepharitis, can also be present, and sunlight can exacerbate symptoms.

      Management of rosacea depends on the severity of the symptoms. For mild symptoms, topical metronidazole may be used, while topical brimonidine gel may be considered for patients with predominant flushing but limited telangiectasia. More severe cases may require systemic antibiotics such as oxytetracycline. It is recommended that patients apply a high-factor sunscreen daily and use camouflage creams to conceal redness. Laser therapy may be appropriate for patients with prominent telangiectasia, and those with rhinophyma should be referred to a dermatologist for further management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 7 - A 28-year-old woman presents with concerns regarding hair loss.

    She has been noticing patches...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman presents with concerns regarding hair loss.

      She has been noticing patches of hair loss over the past three months without any associated itching. Her medical history includes hypothyroidism, for which she takes 100 micrograms of thyroxine daily, and she takes the combined oral contraceptive for regular withdrawal bleeds.

      During examination, she appears healthy with a BMI of 22 kg/m2 and a blood pressure of 122/72 mmHg. Upon examining her scalp, two distinct patches of hair loss, approximately 2-3 cm in diameter, are visible on the vertex of her head and the left temporo-occipital region.

      What is the most probable cause of her hair loss?

      Your Answer: Alopecia areata

      Correct Answer: Drug induced

      Explanation:

      Hair Loss and Autoimmune Conditions

      This young woman is experiencing hair loss and has been diagnosed with an autoimmune condition and hypothyroidism. Her symptoms are consistent with alopecia areata, a condition where hair loss occurs in discrete patches. While only 1% of cases of alopecia are associated with thyroid disease, it is a possibility in this case. However, scarring alopecia is more typical of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), which is not present in this patient. Androgenic alopecia, which causes thinning at the vertex and temporal areas, is also not consistent with this patient’s symptoms. Over-treatment with thyroxine or the use of oral contraceptives can cause generalised hair loss, but this is not the case for this patient. It is important to properly diagnose the underlying condition causing hair loss in order to provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 8 - A 16-year-old male visits the nearby sexual health clinic with a concern. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old male visits the nearby sexual health clinic with a concern. He has a sizable, keratinised genital wart on the shaft of his penis that has been there for approximately three months. Due to embarrassment, he has delayed seeking medical attention. What is the best initial course of action?

      Your Answer: Topical podophyllum

      Correct Answer: Cryotherapy

      Explanation:

      For the treatment of genital warts, cryotherapy is recommended for solitary, keratinised warts, while topical podophyllum is suggested for multiple, non-keratinised warts. As the wart is keratinised, cryotherapy should be the first choice of treatment.

      Understanding Genital Warts

      Genital warts, also known as condylomata accuminata, are a common reason for visits to genitourinary clinics. These warts are caused by various types of the human papillomavirus (HPV), with types 6 and 11 being the most common. It is important to note that HPV, particularly types 16, 18, and 33, can increase the risk of cervical cancer.

      The warts themselves are small, fleshy growths that are typically 2-5 mm in size and may be slightly pigmented. They can also cause itching or bleeding. Treatment options for genital warts include topical podophyllum or cryotherapy, depending on the location and type of lesion. Topical agents are generally used for multiple, non-keratinised warts, while solitary, keratinised warts respond better to cryotherapy. Imiquimod, a topical cream, is typically used as a second-line treatment. It is important to note that genital warts can be resistant to treatment, and recurrence is common. However, most anogenital HPV infections clear up on their own within 1-2 years without intervention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 9 - Which one of the following statements regarding fungal nail infections is inaccurate? ...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following statements regarding fungal nail infections is inaccurate?

      Your Answer: Treatment is successful in around 90-95% of people

      Explanation:

      Fungal Nail Infections: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Fungal nail infections, also known as onychomycosis, can affect any part of the nail or the entire nail unit. However, toenails are more susceptible to infection than fingernails. The primary cause of fungal nail infections is dermatophytes, with Trichophyton rubrum being the most common. Yeasts, such as Candida, and non-dermatophyte molds can also cause fungal nail infections. Risk factors for developing a fungal nail infection include increasing age, diabetes mellitus, psoriasis, and repeated nail trauma.

      The most common symptom of a fungal nail infection is thickened, rough, and opaque nails. Patients may present with unsightly nails, which can be a source of embarrassment. Differential diagnoses include psoriasis, repeated trauma, lichen planus, and yellow nail syndrome. To confirm a fungal nail infection, nail clippings or scrapings of the affected nail should be examined under a microscope and cultured. However, the false-negative rate for cultures is around 30%, so repeat samples may be necessary if clinical suspicion is high.

      Asymptomatic fungal nail infections do not require treatment unless the patient is bothered by the appearance. Topical treatment with amorolfine 5% nail lacquer is recommended for limited involvement, while oral terbinafine is the first-line treatment for more extensive involvement due to a dermatophyte infection. Fingernail infections require 6 weeks to 3 months of therapy, while toenails should be treated for 3 to 6 months. Oral itraconazole is recommended for more extensive involvement due to a Candida infection, with pulsed weekly therapy being the preferred method.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 10 - A 28-year-old woman presents with a severe flare-up of hand eczema. She has...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman presents with a severe flare-up of hand eczema. She has vesicular lesions on both hands, which are typical of bilateral pompholyx. The patient has been using Eumovate (clobetasone butyrate 0.05%) for a week, but her symptoms have not improved. You decide to prescribe Betnovate (betamethasone valerate 0.1%) for two weeks and then review her condition. According to the BNF guidelines, what is the appropriate amount of Betnovate to prescribe?

      Your Answer: 30 g

      Explanation:

      Topical Steroids for Eczema Treatment

      Eczema is a common skin condition that causes red, itchy, and inflamed skin. Topical steroids are often used to treat eczema, but it is important to use the weakest steroid cream that effectively controls the patient’s symptoms. The potency of topical steroids varies, and the table below shows the different types of topical steroids by potency.

      To determine the appropriate amount of topical steroid to use, the fingertip rule can be applied. One fingertip unit (FTU) is equivalent to 0.5 g and is sufficient to treat an area of skin about twice the size of an adult hand. The table also provides the recommended number of FTUs per dose for different areas of the body.

      The British National Formulary (BNF) recommends specific quantities of topical steroids to be prescribed for a single daily application for two weeks. The recommended amounts vary depending on the area of the body being treated.

      In summary, when using topical steroids for eczema treatment, it is important to use the weakest steroid cream that effectively controls symptoms and to follow the recommended amounts for each area of the body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Dermatology (4/10) 40%
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