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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old woman comes to your clinic for a routine check-up regarding her migraines. She reports experiencing these headaches twice a week for the past few months and has been managing them with sumatriptan. During her last visit, your colleague suggested trying a prophylactic medication if her symptoms do not improve. The patient mentions that she and her partner are considering starting a family soon but are not currently using any long-term contraception.
Which of the following treatments should be avoided?Your Answer: Amitriptyline
Correct Answer: Topiramate
Explanation:Pregnant women are advised to avoid all pharmacological migraine prophylactics, but topiramate is particularly linked to foetal malformations. Women who take topiramate and are of reproductive age should use a reliable long-term contraception method. Although topiramate is also used to treat epilepsy, its use during pregnancy should be carefully monitored by a neurologist and an obstetrician. Propranolol and amitriptyline are licensed as migraine prophylactics, but their use during pregnancy should only be considered under the guidance of a neurologist. Acupuncture is recommended in the NICE guidelines for migraine as an alternative for women who cannot use pharmacological prophylaxis, but it is not generally available on the NHS.
Topiramate: Mechanisms of Action and Contraceptive Considerations
Topiramate is a medication primarily used to treat seizures. It can be used alone or in combination with other drugs. The drug has multiple mechanisms of action, including blocking voltage-gated Na+ channels, increasing GABA action, and inhibiting carbonic anhydrase. The latter effect results in a decrease in urinary citrate excretion and the formation of alkaline urine, which favors the creation of calcium phosphate stones.
Topiramate is known to induce the P450 enzyme CYP3A4, which can reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. Therefore, the Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Health (FSRH) recommends that patients taking topiramate consider alternative forms of contraception. For example, the combined oral contraceptive pill and progestogen-only pill are not recommended, while the implant is generally considered safe.
Topiramate can cause several side effects, including reduced appetite and weight loss, dizziness, paraesthesia, lethargy, and poor concentration. However, the most significant risk associated with topiramate is the potential for fetal malformations. Additionally, rare but important side effects include acute myopia and secondary angle-closure glaucoma. Overall, topiramate is a useful medication for treating seizures, but patients should be aware of its potential side effects and contraceptive considerations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old woman visits her doctor after missing her last two Microgynon 30 pills, which she has been taking for the past 4 years. She is currently 11 days into a new packet of pills and had not missed any prior to this. During intercourse with a new partner last night, the condom broke. What is the appropriate course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Advise condom use for next 7 days
Explanation:The FSRH has updated its guidance on missed contraceptive pills. If a woman misses two or more pills, she should continue taking the rest of the pack as usual and use an additional form of contraception for the next seven days. Condoms should be used or sexual activity avoided until seven consecutive active pills have been taken. This advice may be overly cautious in the second and third weeks, but it serves as a backup in case more pills are missed. If the woman has a new partner, it is recommended to consider STI screening after a suitable period. For more information, refer to the FSRH guidelines.
The Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH) has updated their advice for women taking a combined oral contraceptive (COC) pill containing 30-35 micrograms of ethinylestradiol. If one pill is missed at any time during the cycle, the woman should take the last pill, even if it means taking two pills in one day, and then continue taking pills daily, one each day. No additional contraceptive protection is needed. However, if two or more pills are missed, the woman should take the last pill, leave any earlier missed pills, and then continue taking pills daily, one each day. She should use condoms or abstain from sex until she has taken pills for seven days in a row. If pills are missed in week one, emergency contraception should be considered if she had unprotected sex in the pill-free interval or in week one. If pills are missed in week two, after seven consecutive days of taking the COC, there is no need for emergency contraception. If pills are missed in week three, she should finish the pills in her current pack and start a new pack the next day, thus omitting the pill-free interval. Theoretically, women would be protected if they took the COC in a pattern of seven days on, seven days off.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman presents to you for contraceptive advice. She is 30 days postpartum and has not engaged in sexual activity since giving birth. She had an uncomplicated vaginal delivery following a routine antenatal period. She has no significant medical history, is a non-smoker, and has no notable family history. On examination, her blood pressure is 106/80, and her body mass index is 23. She is currently breastfeeding her baby. Which of the following contraceptive options should she not start using right away?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Combined hormonal contraceptive
Explanation:Initiation of Combined Hormonal Contraception Postpartum
Combined hormonal contraception can be safely started by eligible women 21 days after giving birth, provided they have no other risk factors for venous thromboembolism and are not breastfeeding. However, women who breastfeed and want to use combined hormonal contraception should wait until six weeks postpartum, regardless of whether they have additional risk factors for VTE. Studies have shown conflicting effects of combined oral contraception on breastfeeding, with some indicating less weight gain in infants of users compared to non-users when started at or before six weeks postpartum. No study has demonstrated an effect on infant weight gain when initiated after six weeks postpartum. It is important for healthcare providers to consider individual patient factors and preferences when discussing contraceptive options postpartum.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 4
Incorrect
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You are reviewing a 4-week old baby girl who is brought in by her parents. Lily was born vaginally at term at the local hospital. She became unwell straight after birth and was treated for neonatal sepsis in the neonatal intensive care unit. Thankfully, she recovered well and was discharged after 7 days.
What is the most common cause of sepsis in newborns?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Group B Streptococcus
Explanation:Neonatal sepsis is primarily caused by GBS, with preterm and very low birthweight infants being at a higher risk. Coagulase-negative Staphylococci, Staphylococcus aureus, and Escherichia coli are also frequently identified as causative agents. Listeria monocytogenes and Streptococcus pneumoniae are also significant pathogens.
Understanding Group B Streptococcus (GBS) Infection in Neonates
Group B Streptococcus (GBS) is a common cause of severe infection in newborns during the early stages of life. It is estimated that 20-40% of mothers carry GBS in their bowel flora, making them potential carriers of the bacteria. Infants can be exposed to GBS during labor and delivery, which can lead to serious infections. Prematurity, prolonged rupture of the membranes, previous sibling GBS infection, and maternal pyrexia are all risk factors for GBS infection.
The Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (RCOG) has published guidelines on GBS management. The guidelines state that universal screening for GBS should not be offered to all women, and a maternal request is not an indication for screening. Women who have had GBS detected in a previous pregnancy should be informed that their risk of maternal GBS carriage in this pregnancy is 50%. They should be offered intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis (IAP) or testing in late pregnancy and then antibiotics if still positive. If women are to have swabs for GBS, this should be offered at 35-37 weeks or 3-5 weeks prior to the anticipated delivery date. IAP should be offered to women with a previous baby with early- or late-onset GBS disease, women in preterm labor regardless of their GBS status, and women with a pyrexia during labor (>38ºC). Benzylpenicillin is the antibiotic of choice for GBS prophylaxis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old girl presents at the antenatal clinic.
She is approximately six weeks pregnant and the pregnancy was unplanned. She has a two year history of grand mal epilepsy for which she takes carbamazepine. She has had no fits for approximately six months. She wants to continue with her pregnancy if it is safe to do so.
She is worried about the anticonvulsant therapy and its effects on the baby. She asks how she should be managed.
Which of the following management plans is the most appropriate in this case?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Stop carbamazepine until the second trimester
Explanation:Managing Epilepsy in Pregnancy
During pregnancy, it is important to manage epilepsy carefully to ensure the safety of both the patient and fetus. Uncontrolled seizures pose a greater risk than any potential teratogenic effect of the therapy. However, total plasma concentrations of anticonvulsants may fall during pregnancy, so the dose may need to be increased. It is important to explain the potential teratogenic effects of carbamazepine, particularly neural tube defects, and provide the patient with folate supplements to reduce this risk. Screening with alpha fetoprotein (AFP) and second trimester ultrasound are also required. Prior to delivery, the mother should receive vitamin K. Switching therapies is not recommended as it could precipitate seizures in an otherwise stable patient. It is important to note that both phenytoin and valproate are also associated with teratogenic effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman who is taking the 20 microgram ethinyloestrodiol combined pill contacts the clinic to report that she has missed a dose. She is currently on day 10 of her pack and it has been 24 hours since she was supposed to take her previous day's pill. What is the most suitable guidance to give her?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: She should take the missed pill with today's and carry on with the pack
Explanation:Missed Birth Control Pills
When it comes to missed birth control pills, most of the advice and evidence is based on studies of the 35 mcg oestrogen combined pill. However, it’s important to note that the risk of pregnancy with a missed 20 mcg pill may be higher than with a larger dose pill. Despite this, the Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (RCOG) recommends that women take the missed pill and continue with the pack. Additional contraception is not required in this case.
If two or more pills are missed, it’s recommended to use barrier contraception for around seven days. It’s important to follow the instructions provided with your specific type of birth control pill and to speak with your healthcare provider if you have any concerns or questions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old female attends surgery requesting a sterilisation because she has completed her family.
You discuss the advantages and disadvantages of the procedure with her fully.
Which of the following pieces of information would you give?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Overall failure rates of the procedure are approximately 1 in 200
Explanation:Sterilisation as a Permanent Contraceptive Method
Sterilisation is a permanent contraceptive method with an overall failure rate of approximately 1 per 200. However, the individual failure rate may be lower depending on the method used. It is important to note that sterilisation should be considered permanent, even though reversal is possible. This is because it is an operation performed with the intention of being permanent and reversal cannot be guaranteed.
The proportion of women expressing regret after undergoing sterilisation varies between different studies and different countries but tends to range from 3% to 10% in the United Kingdom. Sterilisation is usually done laparoscopically, although methods involving a vaginal approach are possible.
It is crucial to counsel patients about the effectiveness of other contraceptive methods that are as effective as sterilisation. Patients may not be aware of this, and it may alter their decision. For some, a long-acting form of contraception such as the intrauterine system (Mirena) may be more acceptable and preferable. Therefore, it is essential to discuss all available options with patients to help them make an informed decision about their contraceptive choices.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 8
Incorrect
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What are the current antenatal screening tests recommended for Down's syndrome in the UK for pregnant women?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Nuchal translucency + B-HCG + pregnancy associated plasma protein A
Explanation:NICE updated guidelines on antenatal care in 2021, recommending the combined test for screening for Down’s syndrome between 11-13+6 weeks. The quadruple test should be offered between 15-20 weeks for women who book later in pregnancy. Results of both tests return either a ‘lower chance’ or ‘higher chance’ result. If a woman receives a ‘higher chance’ result, she will be offered a second screening test (NIPT) or a diagnostic test. NIPT analyzes cell-free fetal DNA from placental cells in the mother’s blood and has high sensitivity and specificity for detecting chromosomal abnormalities, with private companies offering screening from 10 weeks gestation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman presents to the clinic seeking emergency contraception. She had unprotected sexual intercourse 20 hours ago and has not had any other instances of unprotected sex. She is not currently using any form of regular contraception and her last menstrual period was 10 days ago, with a regular 30-day cycle. The patient has a history of asthma. She expresses interest in taking levonorgestrel.
Her weight is 80 kg and her blood pressure is 120/70 mmHg. What is the next appropriate step in managing this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Offer the patient levonorgestrel 3 mg. Advice the patient to perform a pregnancy test within 3 weeks
Explanation:If a person has a BMI over 26 kg/m2 or weighs over 70 kg, the recommended dose of levonorgestrel should be doubled from 1.5 mg to 3 mg, not 6 mg. Ulipristal acetate is contraindicated for those with brittle asthma that is controlled with glucocorticoids. It would be incorrect to inform the patient that she is not at risk of pregnancy as she is still at risk.
Emergency contraception is available in the UK through two methods: emergency hormonal contraception and intrauterine device (IUD). Emergency hormonal contraception includes two types of pills: levonorgestrel and ulipristal. Levonorgestrel works by stopping ovulation and inhibiting implantation, and should be taken as soon as possible after unprotected sexual intercourse (UPSI) for maximum efficacy. The single dose of levonorgestrel is 1.5mg, but should be doubled for those with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg. It is safe and well-tolerated, but may cause vomiting in around 1% of women. Ulipristal, on the other hand, is a selective progesterone receptor modulator that inhibits ovulation. It should be taken within 120 hours after intercourse, and may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The most effective method of emergency contraception is the copper IUD, which may inhibit fertilization or implantation. It must be inserted within 5 days of UPSI, or up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date. Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if the patient is at high-risk of sexually transmitted infection. The IUD is 99% effective regardless of where it is used in the cycle, and may be left in-situ for long-term contraception.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman has come to see you to discuss the results of her smear test.
Unfortunately, the sample was inadequate and needs to be repeated.
How soon after the initial smear should she have the repeat smear taken?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 3 months
Explanation:Importance of Waiting for Cervical Epithelium Regeneration and Antimicrobial Treatment
It is crucial to wait for at least three months for the regeneration of the cervical epithelium after a screening test. This is because the epithelium needs time to heal and regenerate before another test is conducted. Rushing to re-sample before the regeneration of the epithelium can lead to inaccurate results, which can be detrimental to the patient’s health.
Moreover, if there is any suspicion of infection, antimicrobial treatment should be administered before re-sampling. This is because an infection can interfere with the accuracy of the test results, leading to false positives or false negatives. Therefore, it is essential to wait for the regeneration of the cervical epithelium and treat any suspected infection before conducting another screening test.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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