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Question 1
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A 58-year-old man undergoes routine screening tests as part of his NHS health check. His results show an HbA1C level of 52 mmol/mol (<42), eGFR of >90 ml/min (>90), blood pressure of 130/84 mmHg, and a QRISK-3 score of 24.3%. After a repeat measurement, he is diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) and decides to make lifestyle changes and take medication. However, he experiences significant gastrointestinal side effects with metformin, even after switching to a modified-release preparation.
What would be the most appropriate class of drug to switch to?Your Answer: SGLT-2 inhibitor
Explanation:A suitable medication would have been a DDP-4 inhibitor, glitazone, or sulfonylurea. The use of GLP-1 receptor agonists is not appropriate, as it is only recommended when triple therapy with metformin and two other oral drugs has failed.
NICE updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022, reflecting advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. The first-line drug of choice remains metformin, which should be titrated up slowly to minimize gastrointestinal upset. HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients and checked every 3-6 months until stable, with consideration for relaxing targets on a case-by-case basis. Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates and controlling intake of foods containing saturated fats and trans fatty acids. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease. Only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin, with atorvastatin 20mg as the first-line choice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 2
Correct
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A 49-year-old man presents to his GP complaining of difficulty walking. He describes experiencing pain in both calves and feet after walking around 400m, which gradually worsens and eventually causes his legs to give out. The pain disappears completely after sitting and resting for a few minutes, and he has found that leaning forward helps him walk further before the pain returns. The patient has no prior medical history, and a physical examination of his lower limbs reveals no abnormalities. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Lumbar spinal stenosis
Explanation:Lumbar spinal canal stenosis is often indicated by a history of progressive painful neurological deficit that improves when resting or leaning forward. This condition causes nerve root ischaemia due to inadequate microvascular blood flow to the spinal nerve roots, resulting in bilateral neuropathic pain and progressive deficit affecting the dermatomes and myotomes below the affected level. Leaning forward widens the canal, providing relief, while resting reduces the oxygen requirement of the nerve roots, allowing the ischaemia to slowly resolve. Neurological examination of the legs usually shows no abnormal findings as the symptoms are only brought on by consistent use of the nerve roots.
Osteoarthritis, on the other hand, is a degenerative arthropathy that typically affects large weight-bearing joints in the lower limbs, causing pain that rarely improves with rest and is not associated with a neurological deficit. It is usually unilateral and does not cause symmetrical symptoms.
Peripheral neuropathy can produce similar symptoms to spinal stenosis, but the pathology is not related to nerve use, and a deficit (usually sensory) would be detected on examination. The absence of such findings indicates that peripheral neuropathy is not the cause.
Peripheral vascular disease is the most likely differential for patients with spinal stenosis and symptoms of progressive leg pain that is relieved by rest. However, evidence of vascular insufficiency, such as absent distal pulses, ulceration or skin changes, would be present on examination if the condition were severe enough to cause symptoms after relatively short distances of walking. Additionally, leaning forward does not improve symptoms in peripheral vascular disease, only rest does.
Lumbar spinal stenosis is a condition where the central canal in the lower back is narrowed due to degenerative changes, such as a tumor or disk prolapse. Patients may experience back pain, neuropathic pain, and symptoms similar to claudication. However, one distinguishing factor is that the pain is positional, with sitting being more comfortable than standing, and walking uphill being easier than downhill. Degenerative disease is the most common cause, starting with changes in the intervertebral disk that lead to disk bulging and collapse. This puts stress on the facet joints, causing cartilage degeneration, hypertrophy, and osteophyte formation, which narrows the spinal canal and compresses the nerve roots of the cauda equina. MRI scanning is the best way to diagnose lumbar spinal stenosis, and treatment may involve a laminectomy.
Overall, lumbar spinal stenosis is a condition that affects the lower back and can cause a range of symptoms, including pain and discomfort. It is often caused by degenerative changes in the intervertebral disk, which can lead to narrowing of the spinal canal and compression of the nerve roots. Diagnosis is typically done through MRI scanning, and treatment may involve a laminectomy. It is important to note that the pain associated with lumbar spinal stenosis is positional, with sitting being more comfortable than standing, and walking uphill being easier than downhill.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 3
Correct
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A 52-year-old woman visits her doctor seeking guidance on managing recurrent episodes of urinary incontinence that occur during laughter or coughing. She reports no symptoms of dysuria, frequency, or urgency. Additionally, she has been experiencing night sweats and irregular periods for the past year. The patient's medical history includes hypertension and depression. A urine dipstick and examination of the vulva/vagina reveal no abnormalities. What is the recommended initial treatment?
Your Answer: Pelvic floor muscle exercises
Explanation:The primary treatment for stress incontinence is pelvic floor muscle training.
Understanding Urinary Incontinence: Causes, Classification, and Management
Urinary incontinence (UI) is a common condition that affects around 4-5% of the population, with elderly females being more susceptible. Several risk factors contribute to UI, including advancing age, previous pregnancy and childbirth, high body mass index, hysterectomy, and family history. UI can be classified into different types, such as overactive bladder (OAB)/urge incontinence, stress incontinence, mixed incontinence, overflow incontinence, and functional incontinence.
Initial investigation of UI involves completing bladder diaries for at least three days, vaginal examination, urine dipstick and culture, and urodynamic studies. Management of UI depends on the predominant type of incontinence. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining and bladder stabilizing drugs such as antimuscarinics are recommended. For stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training and surgical procedures such as retropubic mid-urethral tape procedures may be offered. Duloxetine, a combined noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor, may also be used as an alternative to surgery.
In summary, understanding the causes, classification, and management of UI is crucial in providing appropriate care for patients. Early diagnosis and intervention can significantly improve the quality of life for those affected by this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 4
Correct
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A 60-year-old man had a left mastectomy three years ago for breast cancer. He has now presented with a 4-month history of progressive ataxia and dysarthria. On examination, there is gaze-evoked nystagmus, dysarthria, upper limb ataxia and gait ataxia. Power, tone, reflexes and sensation are normal. Plantar response is flexor bilaterally. Computerised tomography (CT) and magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the brain and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) microscopy are normal.
Which one of the following is the most likely cause of his ataxia?Your Answer: Paraneoplastic cerebellum syndrome
Explanation:Differential diagnosis for a patient with subacute cerebellar dysfunction and normal imaging
Paraneoplastic cerebellum syndrome, multiple sclerosis, cerebellar metastasis, malignant meningitis, and Wernicke’s encephalopathy are among the possible diagnoses for a patient presenting with subacute onset of cerebellar signs and normal imaging.
Paraneoplastic cerebellum syndrome is a rare immune-mediated complication of many cancers, which may be diagnosed before the underlying tumour. Symptoms develop rapidly and include dizziness, nausea, vertigo, nystagmus, ataxia, oscillopsia, dysarthria, tremor, dysphagia, and blurry vision. MRI may be normal, but CSF may show raised protein and anti-neuronal antibodies.
Multiple sclerosis is more common in women and usually presents with transient episodes of visual change or limb weakness/paraesthesiae, as well as bladder and cerebellar dysfunction. MRI may visualise plaques of demyelination, and CSF shows oligoclonal bands.
Cerebellar metastasis could occur in breast cancer, but it would be visualised on MRI.
Malignant meningitis occurs when cancer spreads to the meninges and presents with confusion, headaches, and weakness. Imaging and CSF would be abnormal.
Wernicke’s encephalopathy is due to thiamine deficiency, typically seen in alcoholics, and presents with acute confusional state, ophthalmoplegia, and gait ataxia. Dysarthria is not usually a feature. Thiamine deficiency is not suggested by this patient’s history.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old student presents with four days of right otalgia, discharge and reduced hearing. There is no significant past medical history, and she is systemically well. She never had any similar symptoms before.
On examination, there is an inflamed auditory canal and a small amount of debris, the tympanic membrane appears to be normal.
What is the best initial management for this patient?Your Answer: Take an ear swab and start topical antibiotic
Correct Answer: Start topical antibiotic and steroid
Explanation:Management of Otitis Externa: Recommended Actions and Guidelines
Otitis externa is a common condition that affects the outer ear canal. The management of this condition depends on the severity of the inflammation and the presence of other symptoms. Here are some recommended actions and guidelines for managing otitis externa:
1. Start topical antibiotic and steroid: This is recommended for patients with acute otitis externa who present with more severe inflammation. The treatment should last for seven days.
2. Start topical acetic acid 2% spray: This is recommended for patients with mild otitis externa who do not have hearing loss or discharge.
3. Refer to ENT urgently: This is not part of initial management but should be considered for patients with chronic diffuse otitis externa when treatment is prolonged beyond two to three months.
4. Start oral amoxicillin: Oral antibiotics are rarely indicated for otitis externa. They should only be considered for patients with severe infection or at high risk of severe infection.
5. Take an ear swab and start topical antibiotic: Ear swab is not recommended as first-line management. It should only be done if there is no response to initial treatment or in recurrent infections.
In summary, the management of otitis externa depends on the severity of the inflammation and the presence of other symptoms. Following these recommended actions and guidelines can help improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 6
Incorrect
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As a junior doctor in General Practice, you come across a 27-year-old woman who is worried about her declining work performance. Her boss has labeled her as 'neurotic' due to her frequent missing of deadlines. She identifies herself as a 'perfectionist' and is unable to comprehend why this is happening. She has always found solace in keeping her workspace clean and organized and struggles to handle situations where she is not in control, especially at work. She recalls being an anxious child but has never sought help from a psychiatrist. What is the most probable cause of her difficulties?
Your Answer: Generalised anxiety disorder
Correct Answer: Obsessive compulsive personality disorder
Explanation:The individual in question is exhibiting symptoms of anankastic personality disorder, also known as obsessive-compulsive personality disorder (OCPD). This disorder is characterized by a preoccupation with orderliness, perfectionism, and an excessive focus on details, as well as a need for control over one’s environment and interpersonal relationships. However, this often comes at the expense of flexibility, openness to new experiences, and efficiency. Unlike obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD), where thoughts and behaviors are seen as unwanted and unhealthy, those with OCPD view their behaviors as rational and desirable. This can lead to difficulty completing tasks, as the individual becomes overly focused on perfectionism and attention to detail. Generalized anxiety disorder is less likely to be the diagnosis in this case, as the individual’s worries are specific to work-related issues. Schizoid personality disorder, on the other hand, is characterized by a lack of interest in forming close relationships with others and a preference for solitude. These individuals may appear cold and uninterested in intimacy or pleasure from life.
Personality disorders are a set of personality traits that are maladaptive and interfere with normal functioning in life. It is estimated that around 1 in 20 people have a personality disorder, which are typically categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes Odd or Eccentric disorders such as Paranoid, Schizoid, and Schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes Dramatic, Emotional, or Erratic disorders such as Antisocial, Borderline (Emotionally Unstable), Histrionic, and Narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes Anxious and Fearful disorders such as Obsessive-Compulsive, Avoidant, and Dependent.
Paranoid individuals exhibit hypersensitivity and an unforgiving attitude when insulted, a reluctance to confide in others, and a preoccupation with conspirational beliefs and hidden meanings. Schizoid individuals show indifference to praise and criticism, a preference for solitary activities, and emotional coldness. Schizotypal individuals exhibit odd beliefs and magical thinking, unusual perceptual disturbances, and inappropriate affect. Antisocial individuals fail to conform to social norms, deceive others, and exhibit impulsiveness, irritability, and aggressiveness. Borderline individuals exhibit unstable interpersonal relationships, impulsivity, and affective instability. Histrionic individuals exhibit inappropriate sexual seductiveness, a need to be the center of attention, and self-dramatization. Narcissistic individuals exhibit a grandiose sense of self-importance, lack of empathy, and excessive need for admiration. Obsessive-compulsive individuals are occupied with details, rules, and organization to the point of hampering completion of tasks. Avoidant individuals avoid interpersonal contact due to fears of criticism or rejection, while dependent individuals have difficulty making decisions without excessive reassurance from others.
Personality disorders are difficult to treat, but a number of approaches have been shown to help patients, including psychological therapies such as dialectical behavior therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 7
Correct
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A 72-year-old man is being investigated for unexplained weight loss. He reports experiencing abdominal pain, dyspepsia, and nausea. He has a history of pernicious anaemia. What is the probable diagnosis based on these symptoms?
Your Answer: Stomach cancer
Explanation:Dyspepsia, abdominal pain, nausea, and anorexia are among the early signs of stomach cancer. This type of cancer is uncommon and is more likely to occur in individuals over the age of 50, particularly those with pernicious anemia. Pancreatic cancer is linked to the onset of diabetes. Bone pain is a typical symptom of myeloma. Recurrent infections, bleeding, and bruising are common symptoms of acute leukemia.
Management of Dyspepsia and Referral for Possible Cancer
Dyspepsia is a common symptom that can be caused by various factors, including medication and lifestyle choices. However, it can also be a sign of underlying conditions such as stomach or oesophageal cancer. The 2015 NICE guidelines provide updated advice on when urgent referral for endoscopy is necessary. Patients with dysphagia or an upper abdominal mass consistent with stomach cancer should be referred urgently. Patients aged 55 years or older with weight loss and upper abdominal pain, reflux, or dyspepsia should also be referred urgently. Non-urgent referrals include patients with haematemesis or those with treatment-resistant dyspepsia, upper abdominal pain with low haemoglobin levels, or raised platelet count with other symptoms.
For patients with undiagnosed dyspepsia, a step-wise approach is recommended. First, medications should be reviewed for possible causes. Lifestyle advice should also be given. If symptoms persist, a trial of full-dose proton pump inhibitor for one month or a ‘test and treat’ approach for H. pylori can be tried. If symptoms persist after either approach, the alternative should be attempted. Testing for H. pylori infection can be done using a carbon-13 urea breath test, stool antigen test, or laboratory-based serology. If symptoms resolve following test and treat, there is no need to check for H. pylori eradication. However, if repeat testing is required, a carbon-13 urea breath test should be used.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 8
Correct
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A 30-year-old pregnant woman comes to you with complaints of weakness in her right hand and tingling and paraesthesia in the lateral three digits. You notice that the sensory symptoms are replicated when you flex her wrist passively and hold it in that position. Can you identify the name of this sign?
Your Answer: Phalen's sign
Explanation:The patient has symptoms of median nerve palsy, which can be caused by carpal tunnel syndrome, a known risk factor during pregnancy. Tinel’s sign and Phalen’s sign can reproduce the symptoms, and Froment’s sign is associated with ulnar nerve palsies.
Understanding Carpal Tunnel Syndrome
Carpal tunnel syndrome is a condition that occurs when the median nerve in the carpal tunnel is compressed. Patients with this condition typically experience pain or pins and needles in their thumb, index, and middle fingers. In some cases, the symptoms may even ascend proximally. Patients often shake their hand to obtain relief, especially at night.
During an examination, doctors may observe weakness of thumb abduction and wasting of the thenar eminence (not the hypothenar). Tapping on the affected area may cause paraesthesia, which is known as Tinel’s sign. Flexion of the wrist may also cause symptoms, which is known as Phalen’s sign.
Carpal tunnel syndrome can be caused by a variety of factors, including idiopathic reasons, pregnancy, oedema (such as heart failure), lunate fracture, and rheumatoid arthritis. Electrophysiology tests may show prolongation of the action potential in both motor and sensory nerves.
Treatment for carpal tunnel syndrome may include a 6-week trial of conservative treatments, such as corticosteroid injections and wrist splints at night. If symptoms persist or are severe, surgical decompression (flexor retinaculum division) may be necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 9
Correct
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A 59-year-old man visits his doctor with a complaint of hearing difficulties. He reports that he can no longer hear the television from his couch and struggles to hear his wife when she speaks from another room. Upon examination, his ears appear normal and otoscopy reveals no abnormalities. He denies experiencing any other symptoms. The patient has a complicated medical history, including chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, hypertension, heart failure, and diabetes mellitus. Which medication is the most probable cause of his hearing impairment?
Your Answer: Bumetanide
Explanation:Bumetanide is the only medication among the options that may cause ototoxicity, marked by hearing loss. This loop diuretic is used to manage heart failure by inhibiting the Na+-K+-Cl- cotransporter in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle, reducing the absorption of NaCl. However, at high levels, it may also inhibit the Na+-K+-Cl- cotransporter in the inner ear, damaging the hair cells and decreasing endolymph. Amlodipine, bisoprolol, and ramipril are not known to cause ototoxicity and are used to manage hypertension and heart failure.
Loop Diuretics: Mechanism of Action and Indications
Loop diuretics, such as furosemide and bumetanide, are medications that inhibit the Na-K-Cl cotransporter (NKCC) in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle. This reduces the absorption of NaCl and increases the excretion of water and electrolytes, making them effective in treating conditions such as heart failure and resistant hypertension. Loop diuretics act on NKCC2, which is more prevalent in the kidneys.
As loop diuretics work on the apical membrane, they must first be filtered into the tubules by the glomerulus before they can have an effect. This means that patients with poor renal function may require higher doses to achieve a sufficient concentration within the tubules.
Loop diuretics are commonly used in the treatment of heart failure, both acutely (usually intravenously) and chronically (usually orally). They are also effective in treating resistant hypertension, particularly in patients with renal impairment.
However, loop diuretics can have adverse effects, including hypotension, hyponatremia, hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia, hypochloremic alkalosis, ototoxicity, hypocalcemia, renal impairment (from dehydration and direct toxic effect), hyperglycemia (less common than with thiazides), and gout.
In summary, loop diuretics are effective medications for treating heart failure and resistant hypertension, but their use should be carefully monitored due to potential adverse effects. Patients with poor renal function may require higher doses to achieve therapeutic effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 10
Correct
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A 26-year-old female contact lens wearer arrives at the emergency department complaining of eye pain. She reports experiencing severe pain, watery eyes, and sensitivity to light in her left eye. Upon examination, her left eye appears red, but her pupil seems normal. After applying fluorescein dye, you observe a distinct area of green fluorescence under a blue light. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Corneal ulcer
Explanation:If there is corneal uptake of fluorescein, along with symptoms of ocular pain, tearing, and photophobia, it is likely that the individual has a corneal ulcer. Fluorescein, an orange dye, is applied to the surface of the eye and will appear green/yellow under a blue light if it is taken up by the corneal epithelium. While dry eye can also cause fluorescence, it typically appears as a diffuse, speckled pattern known as superficial punctate staining.
Understanding Corneal Ulcers
A corneal ulcer is a condition that occurs when there is a defect in the cornea, which is usually caused by an infection. It is important to note that corneal abrasions, on the other hand, are typically caused by physical trauma. There are several risk factors that can increase the likelihood of developing a corneal ulcer, including contact lens use and vitamin A deficiency, which is particularly common in developing countries.
The pathophysiology of corneal ulcers can vary depending on the underlying cause. Bacterial, fungal, and viral infections can all lead to the development of a corneal ulcer. In some cases, contact lens use can also be associated with a type of infection called Acanthamoeba keratitis.
Symptoms of a corneal ulcer typically include eye pain, sensitivity to light, and excessive tearing. Additionally, a focal fluorescein staining of the cornea may be present.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 11
Correct
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An infant is noted to have a cleft palate, aortic arch abnormality and absent thymus on chest radiograph. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Deletion of 22q11
Explanation:DiGeorge’s syndrome, also known as 22q11.2 deletion syndrome, is caused by a small deletion on chromosome 22 and can result in a variety of features in different individuals. Common characteristics include cardiac defects such as tetralogy of Fallot, interrupted aortic arch, truncus arteriosus, and ventricular septal defect, as well as cleft palate and distinct facial features. Pulmonary defects like tracheo-oesophageal fistula and laryngomalacia may also be present, along with a risk of recurrent infections due to defects in the T-cell-mediated immune response. Hypocalcaemia/hypoparathyroidism may be diagnosed after birth. Fetal alcohol syndrome, Prader-Willi syndrome, fetal valproate syndrome, and trisomy 13 are other conditions with distinct features that differ from those of DiGeorge’s syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman presents with a 7-day history of mucopurulent anal discharge, bloody stool and pain during defecation. She denies any recent travel and has not experienced any vomiting episodes.
Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Crohn’s disease
Correct Answer: Gonorrhoea
Explanation:Sexually Transmitted Infections: Differential Diagnosis
Sexually transmitted infections (STIs) are a common cause of morbidity worldwide. When evaluating a patient with symptoms suggestive of an STI, it is important to consider a broad differential diagnosis. Here are some common STIs and their clinical presentations:
Gonorrhoea: This is a purulent infection of the mucous membranes caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae. In men, symptoms include urethritis, acute epididymitis, and rectal infection. A diagnosis can be made by identifying typical Gram-negative intracellular diplococci after a Gram stain.
Crohn’s disease: This is an inflammatory bowel disease that presents with prolonged diarrhea, abdominal pain, anorexia, and weight loss. It is not consistent with a typical STI presentation.
Candidiasis: This is a fungal infection caused by yeasts from the genus Candida. It is associated with balanitis, presenting with penile pruritus and whitish patches on the penis.
Salmonella infection: This is often transmitted orally via contaminated food or beverages. Symptoms include a severe non-specific febrile illness, which can be confused with typhoid fever. There is nothing in this clinical scenario to suggest Salmonella infection.
Chancroid: This is a bacterial STI caused by Haemophilus ducreyi. It is characterised by painful necrotising genital ulcers and inguinal lymphadenopathy.
In summary, a thorough differential diagnosis is important when evaluating patients with symptoms suggestive of an STI.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 13
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman experiences a significant postpartum bleeding following the birth of her twins. The obstetrician in charge examines her and suspects that uterine atony is the underlying cause. The standard protocol for managing major PPH is initiated, but bimanual uterine compression proves ineffective in controlling the bleeding. What medication would be a suitable next step in treating uterine atony?
Your Answer: Intravenous oxytocin
Explanation:Postpartum haemorrhage caused by uterine atony can be treated with various medical options such as oxytocin, ergometrine, carboprost and misoprostol.
Uterine atony is the primary cause of postpartum haemorrhage, which occurs when the uterus fails to contract fully after the delivery of the placenta, leading to difficulty in achieving haemostasis. This condition is often associated with overdistension, which can be caused by multiple gestation, macrosomia, polyhydramnios or other factors.
In addition to the standard approach for managing PPH, including an ABC approach for unstable patients, the following steps should be taken in sequence:
1. Bimanual uterine compression to stimulate contraction manually
2. Intravenous oxytocin and/or ergometrine
3. Intramuscular carboprost
4. Intramyometrial carboprost
5. Rectal misoprostol
6. Surgical intervention such as balloon tamponade(RCOG Green-top Guideline No. 52)
Understanding Postpartum Haemorrhage
Postpartum haemorrhage (PPH) is a condition where a woman experiences blood loss of more than 500 ml after giving birth vaginally. It can be classified as primary or secondary. Primary PPH occurs within 24 hours after delivery and is caused by the 4 Ts: tone, trauma, tissue, and thrombin. The most common cause is uterine atony. Risk factors for primary PPH include previous PPH, prolonged labour, pre-eclampsia, increased maternal age, emergency Caesarean section, and placenta praevia.
In managing PPH, it is important to involve senior staff immediately and follow the ABC approach. This includes two peripheral cannulae, lying the woman flat, blood tests, and commencing a warmed crystalloid infusion. Mechanical interventions such as rubbing up the fundus and catheterisation are also done. Medical interventions include IV oxytocin, ergometrine, carboprost, and misoprostol. Surgical options such as intrauterine balloon tamponade, B-Lynch suture, ligation of uterine arteries, and hysterectomy may be considered if medical options fail to control the bleeding.
Secondary PPH occurs between 24 hours to 6 weeks after delivery and is typically due to retained placental tissue or endometritis. It is important to understand the causes and risk factors of PPH to prevent and manage this life-threatening emergency effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 14
Correct
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A 6-week-old baby is seen in surgery with decreased feeding and a temperature of 38.8°C.
Which of the following is the appropriate action?Your Answer: Refer to the paediatric on-call team
Explanation:Management of Fever in a High-Risk Child
When managing a child with fever, it is important to consider their age and any accompanying symptoms. According to the NICE guideline on ‘Fever in under 5s’, children aged <3 months with a temperature of 38°C are at high risk for serious illness. In such cases, it is recommended to refer the child urgently to a paediatric specialist. Encouraging fluids may be useful, but it should not be relied upon to rule out serious underlying illness. Similarly, antipyretics may be given before the child is seen by the paediatric team, but it is important to consult the NICE guideline for appropriate dosages. Blind prescription of oral antibiotics or IM benzylpenicillin is not recommended without a clear source of infection and discussion with the on-call paediatric team. Therefore, it is crucial to refer high-risk children to the paediatric on-call team for further management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 15
Correct
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A 25-year-old male has been diagnosed with nasal polyps. Which medication sensitivity is commonly linked to this condition?
Your Answer: Aspirin
Explanation:Understanding Nasal Polyps
Nasal polyps are a relatively uncommon condition affecting around 1% of adults in the UK. They are more commonly seen in men and are not typically found in children or the elderly. There are several associations with nasal polyps, including asthma (particularly late-onset asthma), aspirin sensitivity, infective sinusitis, cystic fibrosis, Kartagener’s syndrome, and Churg-Strauss syndrome. When asthma, aspirin sensitivity, and nasal polyposis occur together, it is known as Samter’s triad.
The symptoms of nasal polyps include nasal obstruction, rhinorrhoea, sneezing, and a poor sense of taste and smell. It is important to note that any unusual symptoms, such as unilateral symptoms or bleeding, require further investigation. If nasal polyps are suspected, patients should be referred to an ear, nose, and throat (ENT) specialist for a full examination.
The management of nasal polyps typically involves the use of topical corticosteroids, which can shrink polyp size in around 80% of patients. Overall, understanding nasal polyps and their associations can help with early detection and appropriate management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 16
Correct
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A 30-year-old woman has been diagnosed with Graves disease and has been prescribed carbimazole. What is the most severe side effect of carbimazole?
Your Answer: Reversible agranulocytosis
Explanation:Carbimazole: Side Effects and Mechanism of Action
Carbimazole is a medication used to treat hyperthyroidism by inhibiting the production of thyroid hormones. However, it can also cause several side effects that patients should be aware of.
The most serious side effect is bone marrow suppression, which can lead to neutropenia and agranulocytosis. Patients should report any symptoms of infection immediately, as routine monitoring of white cell count is not useful. Cholestatic jaundice and drug-induced hepatitis are also possible side effects, but usually reversible upon discontinuation of the drug. Hypoprothrombinaemia, a rare side effect, can increase the risk of bleeding in patients on anticoagulant therapy.
Carbimazole works by inhibiting the enzyme thyroperoxidase, which is responsible for the synthesis of thyroid hormones. However, its onset of clinical effects is slow because it takes time to deplete the large store of pre-formed thyroid hormones in the thyroid gland.
In addition to its anti-thyroid effect, carbimazole also has a modest immunosuppressive activity, reduces the serum level of thyroid-stimulating hormone antibody, and can cause a reduction in clotting factor prothrombin. However, these effects are not thought to contribute significantly to its efficacy.
Overall, patients taking carbimazole should be aware of its potential side effects and report any symptoms to their healthcare provider promptly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man comes to the clinic with a facial droop. Upon examination, he displays a crooked smile that droops on the right side. He is unable to close his right eye or wrinkle the right side of his forehead. There are no signs of weakness or sensory changes in his upper or lower limbs. What is the probable cause of this presentation?
Your Answer: Right cranial nerve VII lower motor neuron lesion
Correct Answer: Left cranial nerve VII lower motor neuron lesion
Explanation:Bell’s palsy affects the lower motor neurons and results in weakness of the entire side of the face. A left cranial nerve VII lower motor neuron lesion would cause left-sided facial weakness without forehead sparing. However, lateral medullary syndrome, caused by ischemia to the lateral medulla oblongata, would present with vertigo, dizziness, nystagmus, ataxia, nausea and vomiting, and dysphagia. A left cranial nerve VII upper motor neuron lesion would result in right-sided facial weakness with forehead sparing, while a right cranial nerve VII lower motor neuron lesion would cause right-sided facial weakness without forehead sparing.
Understanding Bell’s Palsy
Bell’s palsy is a sudden, one-sided facial nerve paralysis of unknown cause. It is more common in individuals aged 20-40 years and pregnant women. The condition is characterized by lower motor neuron facial nerve palsy, which affects the forehead. Unlike upper motor neuron lesions, the upper face is spared. Patients may also experience post-auricular pain, altered taste, dry eyes, and hyperacusis.
The management of Bell’s palsy has been a subject of debate. However, it is now widely accepted that all patients should receive oral prednisolone within 72 hours of onset. The addition of antiviral medications is still a matter of discussion, but it may be beneficial for severe facial palsy. Eye care is also crucial to prevent exposure keratopathy, and patients should be prescribed artificial tears and eye lubricants. If they are unable to close their eyes at bedtime, they should tape them closed using microporous tape.
If the paralysis shows no sign of improvement after three weeks, an urgent referral to ENT is necessary. Patients with long-standing weakness may require a referral to plastic surgery. The prognosis for Bell’s palsy is generally good, with most patients making a full recovery within 3-4 months. However, untreated patients may experience permanent moderate to severe weakness in around 15% of cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 18
Correct
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A 45-year-old man with type 2 diabetes mellitus presents with fatigue. He is currently taking metformin and gliclazide, but may need to discontinue the latter due to his obesity. After conducting several blood tests, the following results were obtained:
- HbA1c: 66 mmol/mol (< 48)
- Ferritin: 204 ng/mL (25 - 350)
- Bilirubin: 23 µmol/L (3 - 17)
- ALP: 162 u/L (30 - 100)
- ALT: 120 u/L (3 - 40)
- AST: 109 u/L (3 - 40)
Upon further discussion, the patient denies consuming alcohol. What is the most likely explanation for these abnormal findings?Your Answer: Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease
Explanation:When a patient with type 2 diabetes and obesity presents with abnormal liver function tests, the most probable diagnosis is non-alcoholic fatty liver disease. To confirm this diagnosis, the patient will need to undergo a liver screen, ultrasound, and liver biopsy. While haemochromatosis should be considered in patients with both abnormal LFTs and diabetes, a normal ferritin level makes this diagnosis less likely.
Non-Alcoholic Fatty Liver Disease: Causes, Features, and Management
Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD) is a prevalent liver disease in developed countries, primarily caused by obesity. It encompasses a range of conditions, from simple steatosis (fat accumulation in the liver) to steatohepatitis (fat with inflammation) and may progress to fibrosis and liver cirrhosis. Insulin resistance is believed to be the primary mechanism leading to steatosis, making NAFLD a hepatic manifestation of metabolic syndrome. Non-alcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH) is a type of liver damage similar to alcoholic hepatitis but occurs in the absence of alcohol abuse. It affects around 3-4% of the general population and may be responsible for some cases of cryptogenic cirrhosis.
NAFLD is usually asymptomatic, but hepatomegaly, increased echogenicity on ultrasound, and elevated ALT levels are common features. The enhanced liver fibrosis (ELF) blood test is recommended by NICE to check for advanced fibrosis in patients with incidental NAFLD. If the ELF blood test is not available, non-invasive tests such as the FIB4 score or NAFLD fibrosis score, in combination with a FibroScan, may be used to assess the severity of fibrosis. Patients with advanced fibrosis should be referred to a liver specialist for further evaluation, which may include a liver biopsy to stage the disease more accurately.
The mainstay of NAFLD treatment is lifestyle changes, particularly weight loss, and monitoring. Research is ongoing into the role of gastric banding and insulin-sensitizing drugs such as metformin and pioglitazone. While there is no evidence to support screening for NAFLD in adults, NICE guidelines recommend the management of incidental NAFLD findings.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man presents to the emergency department in the middle of the night with worsening pain in his left leg. The pain began at rest approximately 2 hours ago and has now become severe. The patient has a history of peripheral arterial disease and continues to smoke 10 cigarettes per day. Upon examination, the left lower limb appears pale and feels cold with no signs of edema or trauma. The dorsalis pedis and posterior tibial pulses are absent on palpation and inaudible on a doppler exam, while the right lower limb pulses are palpable. The patient has received IV morphine. What is the most appropriate initial management for this individual?
Your Answer: Low molecular weight heparin, ankle-brachial pressure index, and CT lower limb angiography
Correct Answer: IV unfractionated heparin and urgent vascular review
Explanation:The appropriate initial management for acute limb ischaemia involves urgent vascular review and administration of IV unfractionated heparin for anticoagulation. The patient’s sudden onset of symptoms and absence of pulses on Doppler examination suggest arterial thrombosis, which is a surgical emergency. Low molecular weight heparin and a lower limb venous ultrasound scan are not indicated, as the thrombus is likely arterial. Similarly, ankle-brachial pressure index and imaging studies such as CT or lower limb arterial Doppler ultrasound should not delay urgent vascular review in this critical situation.
Peripheral arterial disease can present in three main ways: intermittent claudication, critical limb ischaemia, and acute limb-threatening ischaemia. The latter is characterized by one or more of the 6 P’s: pale, pulseless, painful, paralysed, paraesthetic, and perishing with cold. Initial investigations include a handheld arterial Doppler examination and an ankle-brachial pressure index (ABI) if Doppler signals are present. It is important to determine whether the ischaemia is due to a thrombus or embolus, as this will guide management. Thrombus is suggested by pre-existing claudication with sudden deterioration, reduced or absent pulses in the contralateral limb, and evidence of widespread vascular disease. Embolus is suggested by a sudden onset of painful leg (<24 hours), no history of claudication, clinically obvious source of embolus, and no evidence of peripheral vascular disease. Initial management includes an ABC approach, analgesia, intravenous unfractionated heparin, and vascular review. Definitive management options include intra-arterial thrombolysis, surgical embolectomy, angioplasty, bypass surgery, or amputation for irreversible ischaemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 20
Correct
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A 43-year-old woman is diagnosed with premature ovarian failure and prescribed HRT for symptom relief and bone health. What other medical condition is she at a higher risk for?
Your Answer: Ischaemic heart disease
Explanation:Premature menopause is linked to higher mortality rates, including an increased risk of osteoporosis and cardiovascular disease, specifically ischaemic heart disease. Oestrogen is known to have protective effects on bone health and cardiovascular disease, making the increased risks associated with premature menopause particularly concerning. Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is often recommended until the normal age of menopause, with a discussion of the risks and benefits of continuing HRT beyond that point. A 2015 NICE review found that the baseline risk of coronary heart disease and stroke for menopausal women varies based on individual cardiovascular risk factors. HRT with oestrogen alone is associated with no or reduced risk of coronary heart disease, while HRT with oestrogen and progestogen is linked to little or no increase in the risk of coronary heart disease. However, taking oral (but not transdermal) oestrogen is associated with a small increase in the risk of stroke.
Premature Ovarian Insufficiency: Causes and Management
Premature ovarian insufficiency is a condition where menopausal symptoms and elevated gonadotrophin levels occur before the age of 40. It affects approximately 1 in 100 women and can be caused by various factors such as idiopathic reasons, family history, bilateral oophorectomy, radiotherapy, chemotherapy, infection, autoimmune disorders, and resistant ovary syndrome. The symptoms of premature ovarian insufficiency are similar to those of normal menopause, including hot flushes, night sweats, infertility, secondary amenorrhoea, raised FSH and LH levels, and low oestradiol.
Management of premature ovarian insufficiency involves hormone replacement therapy (HRT) or a combined oral contraceptive pill until the age of the average menopause, which is 51 years. It is important to note that HRT does not provide contraception in case spontaneous ovarian activity resumes. Early diagnosis and management of premature ovarian insufficiency can help alleviate symptoms and improve quality of life for affected women.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 21
Correct
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A 6-month-old boy is brought to the emergency department with a 24-hour history of cough and wheeze, following a week of mild fever and coryzal symptoms. The infant appears otherwise healthy and has no significant medical history. Upon respiratory examination, diffuse wheezing is noted. Vital signs reveal:
Respiratory rate 52/min
Blood pressure 92/54 mmHg
Temperature 38.2ºC
Heart rate 120 bpm
Oxygen saturation 96% on room air
What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this infant's symptoms?Your Answer: Supportive management only
Explanation:If the patient’s respiratory distress worsened or their feeding was impacted, they would be admitted. It is important to note that amoxicillin is not effective in treating bronchiolitis, but may be used for uncomplicated community-acquired pneumonia or acute otitis media. Dexamethasone is commonly used for croup, but this diagnosis is unlikely as the patient does not have a barking cough, hoarse voice, or inspiratory stridor. Inhaled racemic adrenaline is also used for croup. Nebulised salbutamol is not necessary for this patient as they are stable and require only supportive management.
Bronchiolitis is a condition where the bronchioles become inflamed, and it is most commonly caused by respiratory syncytial virus (RSV). This virus is responsible for 75-80% of cases, with other causes including mycoplasma and adenoviruses. Bronchiolitis is most prevalent in infants under one year old, with 90% of cases occurring in those aged 1-9 months. The condition is more serious in premature babies, those with congenital heart disease or cystic fibrosis. Symptoms include coryzal symptoms, dry cough, increasing breathlessness, and wheezing. Hospital admission is often necessary due to feeding difficulties associated with increasing dyspnoea.
Immediate referral is recommended if the child has apnoea, looks seriously unwell, has severe respiratory distress, central cyanosis, or persistent oxygen saturation of less than 92% when breathing air. Clinicians should consider referral if the child has a respiratory rate of over 60 breaths/minute, difficulty with breastfeeding or inadequate oral fluid intake, or clinical dehydration. Immunofluorescence of nasopharyngeal secretions may show RSV, and management is largely supportive. Humidified oxygen is given via a head box if oxygen saturations are persistently low, and nasogastric feeding may be necessary if children cannot take enough fluid/feed by mouth. Suction may also be used for excessive upper airway secretions. NICE released guidelines on bronchiolitis in 2015 for more information.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 22
Correct
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A 65-year-old male visits the clinic with watery diarrhoea. He was recently treated with triple therapy for a duodenal ulcer and has a medical history of GORD, bipolar syndrome, and a previous heart attack. What factor in his medical history increases his susceptibility to a Clostridium difficile infection (CDI)?
Your Answer: Omeprazole use
Explanation:C. difficile infection (CDI) is caused by disruptions in the normal gut flora, which leads to increased colonization of C. difficile and the release of toxins that cause inflammation. Established risk factors for CDI include the use of antibiotics, protein pump inhibitors, antidepressants, and conditions that affect the immune system or decrease gastric acid secretion. Bowel and early emergency surgery have also been associated with higher rates of CDI, while there is no established link between CDI and extraintestinal surgery. GORD, T2DM, and lithium are not specifically linked to higher rates of CDI, but obesity, which can be linked to many conditions and medications, is a known risk factor. Interestingly, studies have shown that statins may have a protective effect against CDI, possibly through alterations in the microbiota or reduction of inflammation in endothelial cells.
Clostridioides difficile is a type of bacteria that is commonly found in hospitals. It is a Gram positive rod that produces an exotoxin which can cause damage to the intestines, leading to a condition called pseudomembranous colitis. This bacteria usually develops when the normal gut flora is suppressed by broad-spectrum antibiotics, with second and third generation cephalosporins being the leading cause of C. difficile. Other risk factors include proton pump inhibitors. Symptoms of C. difficile include diarrhea, abdominal pain, and a raised white blood cell count. The severity of the infection can be determined using the Public Health England severity scale, which ranges from mild to life-threatening.
To diagnose C. difficile, a stool sample is tested for the presence of C. difficile toxin (CDT). Treatment for a first episode of C. difficile infection typically involves oral vancomycin for 10 days, with fidaxomicin or a combination of oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole being used as second and third-line therapies. Recurrent infections occur in around 20% of patients, increasing to 50% after their second episode. In such cases, oral fidaxomicin is recommended within 12 weeks of symptom resolution, while oral vancomycin or fidaxomicin can be used after 12 weeks. For life-threatening C. difficile infections, oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole are used, and surgery may be considered with specialist advice. Other therapies, such as bezlotoxumab and fecal microbiota transplant, may also be considered for preventing recurrences in certain cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 23
Correct
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During a routine General Practitioner (GP) clinic, a mother attends with her 8-year-old daughter who has worsening dry, itchy skin, mainly affecting the flexor surfaces, particularly on the legs. She has tried regular liberal use emollient cream with limited success.
What would be the most appropriate next step in the management of the child’s eczema?Your Answer: Prescribe hydrocortisone cream 1%
Explanation:Managing Eczema in Children: Treatment Options and Considerations
Eczema is a common condition in children that can be effectively managed with the right treatment approach. When a child presents with eczema symptoms, the first step is often to use emollient cream to moisturize the affected area. However, if the symptoms persist or worsen, a topical corticosteroid cream may be prescribed to help manage the flare-up. It is important to use this medication sparingly and in conjunction with emollients.
If the eczema symptoms continue to be troublesome despite these measures, it may be appropriate to refer the child to a dermatology clinic. However, it is important to note that oral corticosteroids should be used with caution in children and only under the direction of a dermatologist.
While emollient creams are often effective, in some cases, an emollient ointment may be more moisturizing and helpful. However, if the eczema flare-up is not resolving with emollients alone, a short course of topical corticosteroid is likely necessary.
Watchful waiting is not appropriate in this situation, as the child has already presented to the GP and symptoms are worsening despite reasonable management by the mother. By understanding the various treatment options and considerations for managing eczema in children, healthcare providers can help ensure the best possible outcomes for their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man presents to the GP with a swelling in his scrotum. He is feeling well otherwise. Upon examination, there is a soft swelling on the right side of the scrotum that is painless and illuminates brightly with a pen torch. The swelling is localized to the scrotum, and the rest of the scrotum can be palpated above the mass. The testicle is palpable with no apparent mass. The patient is particularly concerned about the possibility of having testicular cancer.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Epididymal cyst
Correct Answer: Hydrocele
Explanation:Scrotal swelling caused by an accumulation of fluid in the tunica vaginalis is known as a hydrocele. This condition can be identified by its ability to transilluminate brightly with a pen torch and is confined to the scrotum. While epididymo-orchitis can also cause unilateral swelling, it is typically tender and accompanied by systemic symptoms. Testicular cancer may lead to a hydrocele, but if the testis is palpable and normal, it is less likely to be the cause of the swelling. In cases where the testis is not palpable, patients should be referred for a testicular ultrasound.
Common Scrotal Problems and Their Features
Epididymal cysts, hydroceles, and varicoceles are the most common scrotal problems seen in primary care. Epididymal cysts are usually found posterior to the testicle and are separate from the body of the testicle. They may be associated with conditions such as polycystic kidney disease, cystic fibrosis, and von Hippel-Lindau syndrome. Diagnosis is confirmed by ultrasound, and management is usually supportive, although surgical removal or sclerotherapy may be attempted for larger or symptomatic cysts.
Hydroceles, on the other hand, describe the accumulation of fluid within the tunica vaginalis. They may be communicating or non-communicating, and may develop secondary to conditions such as epididymo-orchitis, testicular torsion, or testicular tumors. Hydroceles are usually soft, non-tender swellings of the hemi-scrotum that transilluminate with a pen torch. Diagnosis may be clinical, but ultrasound is required if there is any doubt about the diagnosis or if the underlying testis cannot be palpated. Management depends on the severity of the presentation, with infantile hydroceles generally repaired if they do not resolve spontaneously by the age of 1-2 years.
Varicoceles, on the other hand, are abnormal enlargements of the testicular veins that are usually asymptomatic but may be associated with subfertility. They are much more common on the left side and are classically described as a bag of worms. Diagnosis is confirmed by ultrasound with Doppler studies, and management is usually conservative, although surgery may be required if the patient is troubled by pain. There is ongoing debate regarding the effectiveness of surgery to treat infertility.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 25
Correct
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A 42-year-old man visits his doctor, reporting crusting of both eyelids that is more severe in the morning and accompanied by an itchy feeling. He states that he has not experienced any changes in his vision.
During the eyelid examination, the doctor observes crusting at the eyelid margins, which are inflamed and red. The conjunctivae seem normal, and the pupils react equally to light.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Blepharitis
Explanation:Common Eye Conditions and Their Symptoms
Blepharitis: This condition presents with crusting of both eyelids, redness, swelling, and itching. It can be treated with eyelid hygiene and warm compress. If necessary, chloramphenicol ointment can be used.
Conjunctivitis: Patients with conjunctivitis have watery/discharging eyes, a gritty sensation, and conjunctival erythema. Most cases resolve on their own, but some may require topical antibiotics.
Chalazion: A painless swelling or lump on the eyelid caused by a blocked gland. Patients report a red, swollen, and painless area on the eyelid that settles within a few days but leaves behind a firm, painless swelling. Warm compresses and gentle massaging can help with drainage.
Entropion: The margin of the eyelid turns inwards towards the surface of the eye, causing irritation. It is more common in elderly patients and requires surgical treatment.
Hordeolum: An acute-onset localised swelling of the eyelid margin that is painful. It is usually localised around an eyelash follicle, and plucking the affected eyelash can aid drainage. Styes are usually self-limiting, but eyelid hygiene and warm compress can help with resolution.
Understanding Common Eye Conditions and Their Symptoms
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old nulliparous woman presents to the labour suite at 40+6 weeks gestation. She has expressed her desire for a vaginal delivery throughout her pregnancy. On cervical examination, the cervix is found to be in an intermediate position with a firm consistency. Cervical effacement is estimated to be around 30%, and the cervical dilatation is less than 1cm. The fetal head is palpable at the level of the ischial spines, and her bishop score is 3/10. The midwife has already performed a membrane sweep. What is the next step in management?
Your Answer: Book for emergency caesarean section
Correct Answer: Vaginal prostaglandin E2
Explanation:Vaginal PGE2 is the preferred method of induction of labour, with other options such as emergency caesarean section, maternal oxytocin infusion, amniotomy, and cervical ripening balloon being considered only in certain situations. Women undergoing vaginal PGE2 should be aware of the risk of uterine hyperstimulation and may require additional analgesia. The cervix should be reassessed before considering oxytocin infusion. Amniotomy may be used in combination with oxytocin infusion in patients with a ripe cervix. Cervical ripening balloon should not be used as the primary method for induction of labour due to its potential pain, bleeding, and infection risks.
Induction of Labour: Reasons, Methods, and Complications
Induction of labour is a medical process that involves starting labour artificially. It is necessary in about 20% of pregnancies due to various reasons such as prolonged pregnancy, prelabour premature rupture of the membranes, diabetes, pre-eclampsia, and rhesus incompatibility. The Bishop score is used to assess whether induction of labour is required, which takes into account cervical position, consistency, effacement, dilation, and fetal station. A score of less than 5 indicates that labour is unlikely to start without induction, while a score of 8 or more indicates that the cervix is ripe and there is a high chance of spontaneous labour or response to interventions made to induce labour.
There are several methods of induction of labour, including membrane sweep, vaginal prostaglandin E2, maternal oxytocin infusion, amniotomy, and cervical ripening balloon. Membrane sweeping involves separating the chorionic membrane from the decidua by rotating the examining finger against the wall of the uterus. Vaginal prostaglandin E2 is the preferred method of induction of labour, unless there are specific clinical reasons for not using it. Uterine hyperstimulation is the main complication of induction of labour, which refers to prolonged and frequent uterine contractions that can cause fetal hypoxemia and acidemia. In rare cases, uterine rupture may occur, which requires removing the vaginal prostaglandins and stopping the oxytocin infusion if one has been started, and tocolysis with terbutaline.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 6-month-old infant is presented to the emergency department by their caregiver. The infant is exhibiting a fever, lethargy, and decreased muscle tone. Additionally, a non-blanching rash is observed on the right arm of the infant. What is the best course of treatment?
Your Answer: IV cefuroxime
Correct Answer: IV ceftriaxone
Explanation:For an unwell child with suspected meningitis who is over 3 months old, the recommended initial empirical therapy is IV 3rd generation cephalosporin, such as ceftriaxone. IV cefuroxime, a 2nd generation cephalosporin, is not recommended for this purpose. IV cefotaxime + amoxicillin is recommended for babies at risk of jaundice, but as the child in this case is 4 months old, this is not necessary. IV co-amoxiclav and piperacillin do not provide adequate coverage for meningitis and are not suitable for central nervous system infections.
Investigation and Management of Meningitis in Children
Meningitis is a serious condition that can affect children. When investigating meningitis, it is important to note any contraindications to lumbar puncture, such as signs of raised intracranial pressure, focal neurological signs, papilloedema, significant bulging of the fontanelle, disseminated intravascular coagulation, or signs of cerebral herniation. For patients with meningococcal septicaemia, a lumbar puncture is contraindicated, and blood cultures and PCR for meningococcus should be obtained instead.
The management of meningitis in children involves administering antibiotics, such as IV amoxicillin (or ampicillin) and IV cefotaxime for children under three months, and IV cefotaxime (or ceftriaxone) for children over three months. Steroids should be considered if the lumbar puncture reveals certain findings, such as purulent cerebrospinal fluid, a high white blood cell count, or bacteria on Gram stain. Fluids should be administered to treat shock, and cerebral monitoring should be conducted, including mechanical ventilation if necessary.
It is also important to notify public health authorities and administer antibiotic prophylaxis to contacts. Ciprofloxacin is now preferred over rifampicin for this purpose. Overall, prompt and appropriate management of meningitis in children is crucial for ensuring the best possible outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 28
Correct
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A middle-aged woman comes to you with concerns about skin lesions on her chest. Upon examination, you notice two small red papules with visible fine vessels surrounding them. The lesions blanch when pressure is applied. What commonly used medication could be causing these lesions?
Your Answer: Combined oral contraceptive
Explanation:Spider naevi are a type of skin angioma that are typically found in the distribution of the superior vena cava. While they can occur without any apparent cause, the presence of multiple lesions may indicate an excess of oestrogen in the body. This is often associated with liver cirrhosis, as the liver is responsible for processing oestrogens. However, it can also occur during pregnancy or as a side effect of oestrogen-containing medications.
Understanding Spider Naevi
Spider naevi, also known as spider angiomas, are characterized by a central red papule surrounded by capillaries. These lesions can be identified by their ability to blanch upon pressure. Spider naevi are typically found on the upper part of the body and are more common in childhood, affecting around 10-15% of people.
To differentiate spider naevi from telangiectasia, one can press on the lesion and observe how it fills. Spider naevi fill from the center, while telangiectasia fills from the edge. It is important to note that spider naevi may be associated with liver disease, pregnancy, and the use of combined oral contraceptive pills.
In summary, understanding spider naevi is important for proper diagnosis and management. By recognizing their distinct characteristics and potential associations, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate care for their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old woman comes to her doctor after finishing her hepatitis B vaccination series and wants to verify her immunity status. What is the best test to confirm her status?
Your Answer: Immunoglobulin M (IgM) anti-hepatitis B core antigen (anti-HBc)
Correct Answer: Antibody to hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg; anti-HBs)
Explanation:Hepatitis B Markers: Understanding Their Significance
Hepatitis B is a viral infection that affects the liver. There are several markers used to diagnose and monitor the disease, including antibody to hepatitis B surface antigen (anti-HBs), hepatitis B envelope antigen (HBeAg), anti-hepatitis B envelope antibody (anti-HBe), hepatitis B virus (HBV) DNA, and immunoglobulin M (IgM) anti-hepatitis B core antigen (anti-HBc).
Anti-HBs is produced after a resolved infection or effective vaccination and is the only HBV antibody marker present after vaccination. High-risk individuals should have their anti-HBs level checked after completing their primary course of vaccination.
HBeAg is a marker of infectivity and can serve as a marker of active replication in chronic hepatitis. It is not present following vaccination. Anti-HBe is a predictor of long-term clearance of HBV in patients undergoing antiviral therapy and indicates lower levels of HBV and, therefore, lower infectivity. Both HBeAg and anti-HBe remain negative following vaccination.
HBV DNA is used to quantify viral load in a patient with proven acute or chronic hepatitis B infection. A positive result suggests not only the likelihood of active hepatitis but also that the disease is much more infectious as the virus is actively replicating. HBV DNA remains negative following vaccination.
The presence of IgM anti-HBc is diagnostic of an acute or recently acquired infection. It remains negative following vaccination.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology/Allergy
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 82-year-old man is admitted to the stroke unit with a left sided infarct. After receiving thrombolysis, he is now stable on the ward. The medical team wants to initiate regular antiplatelet therapy, but the patient has allergies to both aspirin and clopidogrel. What alternative medication can be prescribed for him?
Your Answer: Rivaroxaban
Correct Answer: Dipyridamole
Explanation:If aspirin and clopidogrel cannot be used after an ischaemic stroke, MR dipyridamole may be administered as the sole antiplatelet option. Warfarin and rivaroxaban may be considered, but are more suitable for patients with AF. Bisoprolol and enoxaparin are not antiplatelet medications.
The Royal College of Physicians (RCP) and NICE have published guidelines on the diagnosis and management of patients following a stroke. The management of acute stroke includes maintaining normal levels of blood glucose, hydration, oxygen saturation, and temperature. Blood pressure should not be lowered in the acute phase unless there are complications. Aspirin should be given as soon as possible if a haemorrhagic stroke has been excluded. Anticoagulants should not be started until brain imaging has excluded haemorrhage. Thrombolysis with alteplase should only be given if administered within 4.5 hours of onset of stroke symptoms and haemorrhage has been definitively excluded. Mechanical thrombectomy is a new treatment option for patients with an acute ischaemic stroke. NICE recommends thrombectomy for people who have acute ischaemic stroke and confirmed occlusion of the proximal anterior circulation demonstrated by computed tomographic angiography or magnetic resonance angiography. Secondary prevention includes the use of clopidogrel and dipyridamole. Carotid artery endarterectomy should only be considered if carotid stenosis is greater than 70% according to ECST criteria or greater than 50% according to NASCET criteria.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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