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Question 1
Correct
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A 48-year-old woman comes to see you to discuss her contraception. She has been using the progestogen-only pill for the past 4 years. She is currently amenorrhoeic. She is not sure how long she should continue to use contraception for and asks your advice.
She was seen two months ago by a colleague who advised her to have her FSH levels checked. This has shown an FSH level of 42 (normal range: less than 30).
What do you advise?Your Answer: Repeat FSH now and if >30, then she can stop contraception in 1 year
Explanation:FSH Testing for Women on Contraception
Current guidance from the Faculty for Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare suggests that women using progestogen-only contraception can have their FSH levels measured, but only if they are over 50 years old. However, a single elevated FSH reading is not enough to determine ovarian failure. If FSH levels are consistently above 30, contraception can be stopped after a year. It’s important to note that amenorrhea alone is not a reliable indicator of ovarian failure in women taking exogenous hormones. Additionally, for women using combined hormones, FSH testing during a hormone-free period is not a reliable indicator of ovarian failure. Proper testing and monitoring are crucial for women on contraception to ensure their reproductive health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 2
Correct
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A 29-year-old woman has recently discovered that she is expecting her first child. She has no significant medical history and is seeking guidance on vitamin D supplementation. What would be the most suitable recommendation to provide?
Your Answer: Offer vitamin D supplementation
Explanation:Pregnant women should steer clear of soft cheese as it may pose a risk of Listeria infection.
Specific Points for Antenatal Care
Antenatal care is an essential aspect of pregnancy, and NICE has issued guidelines on routine care for healthy pregnant women. Some specific points to consider during antenatal care include nausea and vomiting, vitamin D, and alcohol consumption.
For nausea and vomiting, natural remedies such as ginger and acupuncture on the ‘p6’ point are recommended by NICE. However, antihistamines such as promethazine are suggested as first-line treatment in the BNF.
Vitamin D is crucial for the health of both the mother and the baby. NICE recommends that all women should be informed about the importance of maintaining adequate vitamin D stores during pregnancy and breastfeeding. Women may choose to take 10 micrograms of vitamin D per day, as found in the Healthy Start multivitamin supplement. Women at risk, such as those who are Asian, obese, or have a poor diet, should take particular care.
Alcohol consumption during pregnancy can lead to long-term harm to the baby. In 2016, the Chief Medical Officer proposed new guidelines recommending that pregnant women should not drink alcohol at all. The official advice is to keep risks to the baby to a minimum, and the more alcohol consumed, the greater the risk.
In summary, antenatal care should include specific points such as managing nausea and vomiting, maintaining adequate vitamin D levels, and avoiding alcohol consumption during pregnancy. These guidelines aim to ensure the health and well-being of both the mother and the baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 3
Correct
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Olive is 12 weeks pregnant. She has been engaging in unprotected sexual activity with multiple partners for the past 6 months and is concerned about the potential impact of a sexually transmitted infection on her unborn child. Which of the following STIs is typically included in the antenatal screening program in the UK?
Your Answer: Syphilis
Explanation:During the booking visit for prenatal care, healthcare providers typically test for sexually transmitted infections (STIs) that can have serious consequences for the mother and/or the developing fetus. These include syphilis, hepatitis B, and HIV. Testing for hepatitis C is usually only done for women who are at high risk, such as those who use intravenous drugs. Other STIs, such as chlamydia, gonorrhea, trichomonas, bacterial vaginosis, genital herpes, and genital warts, are not routinely tested for during pregnancy unless the patient has symptoms or is considered to be at risk. It is important to identify and treat STIs during pregnancy to prevent adverse outcomes for both the mother and the baby.
Antenatal care is an important aspect of pregnancy, and the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has issued guidelines on routine care for healthy pregnant women. The guidelines recommend 10 antenatal visits for first pregnancies and 7 visits for subsequent pregnancies, provided that the pregnancy is uncomplicated. Women do not need to see a consultant if their pregnancy is uncomplicated.
The timetable for antenatal visits begins with a booking visit between 8-12 weeks, where general information is provided on topics such as diet, alcohol, smoking, folic acid, vitamin D, and antenatal classes. Blood and urine tests are also conducted to check for conditions such as hepatitis B, syphilis, and asymptomatic bacteriuria. An early scan is conducted between 10-13+6 weeks to confirm dates and exclude multiple pregnancies, while Down’s syndrome screening is conducted between 11-13+6 weeks.
At 16 weeks, women receive information on the anomaly and blood results, and if their haemoglobin levels are below 11 g/dl, they may be advised to take iron supplements. Routine care is conducted at 18-20+6 weeks, including an anomaly scan, and at 25, 28, 31, and 34 weeks, where blood pressure, urine dipstick, and symphysis-fundal height (SFH) are checked. Women who are rhesus negative receive anti-D prophylaxis at 28 and 34 weeks.
At 36 weeks, presentation is checked, and external cephalic version may be offered if indicated. Information on breastfeeding, vitamin K, and ‘baby-blues’ is also provided. Routine care is conducted at 38 weeks, and at 40 weeks (for first pregnancies), discussion about options for prolonged pregnancy takes place. At 41 weeks, labour plans and the possibility of induction are discussed. The RCOG advises that either a single-dose or double-dose regime of anti-D prophylaxis can be used, depending on local factors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 4
Correct
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A woman who is 32-weeks pregnant comes for antenatal check-up. She has been healthy and has not experienced any pregnancy-related issues so far. What is not required as part of her regular evaluation?
Your Answer: Auscultation of the fetal heart
Explanation:NICE doesn’t recommend routine auscultation for the fetal heart, but if the mother requests it, it may provide reassurance.
Antenatal care is an important aspect of pregnancy, and the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has issued guidelines on routine care for healthy pregnant women. The guidelines recommend 10 antenatal visits for first pregnancies and 7 visits for subsequent pregnancies, provided that the pregnancy is uncomplicated. Women do not need to see a consultant if their pregnancy is uncomplicated.
The timetable for antenatal visits begins with a booking visit between 8-12 weeks, where general information is provided on topics such as diet, alcohol, smoking, folic acid, vitamin D, and antenatal classes. Blood and urine tests are also conducted to check for conditions such as hepatitis B, syphilis, and asymptomatic bacteriuria. An early scan is conducted between 10-13+6 weeks to confirm dates and exclude multiple pregnancies, while Down’s syndrome screening is conducted between 11-13+6 weeks.
At 16 weeks, women receive information on the anomaly and blood results, and if their haemoglobin levels are below 11 g/dl, they may be advised to take iron supplements. Routine care is conducted at 18-20+6 weeks, including an anomaly scan, and at 25, 28, 31, and 34 weeks, where blood pressure, urine dipstick, and symphysis-fundal height (SFH) are checked. Women who are rhesus negative receive anti-D prophylaxis at 28 and 34 weeks.
At 36 weeks, presentation is checked, and external cephalic version may be offered if indicated. Information on breastfeeding, vitamin K, and ‘baby-blues’ is also provided. Routine care is conducted at 38 weeks, and at 40 weeks (for first pregnancies), discussion about options for prolonged pregnancy takes place. At 41 weeks, labour plans and the possibility of induction are discussed. The RCOG advises that either a single-dose or double-dose regime of anti-D prophylaxis can be used, depending on local factors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 5
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman visits the GP clinic complaining of nausea and vomiting. She is currently 8 weeks pregnant and it is her first pregnancy. She desires an antiemetic to use during the first trimester so she can continue working. She is not experiencing dehydration, has no ketonuria, and can retain fluids. She has no previous medical conditions.
What is the best course of action for managing her symptoms?Your Answer: Prescribe promethazine
Explanation:Promethazine is the recommended medication for nausea and vomiting in pregnancy, as metoclopramide should not be used for more than 5 days due to the risk of extrapyramidal effects. Therefore, prescribing promethazine is the correct option for this patient who is requesting an antiemetic. Advising a trial of ginger and acupressure bands is not appropriate as there is little evidence to support their effectiveness. Additionally, advising the patient to take time off work is not necessary as she has expressed a desire to continue working.
Hyperemesis gravidarum is a severe form of nausea and vomiting that affects around 1% of pregnancies. It is usually experienced between 8 and 12 weeks of pregnancy but can persist up to 20 weeks. The condition is thought to be related to raised beta hCG levels and is more common in women who are obese, nulliparous, or have multiple pregnancies, trophoblastic disease, or hyperthyroidism. Smoking is associated with a decreased incidence of hyperemesis.
The Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists recommend that a woman must have a 5% pre-pregnancy weight loss, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalance before a diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidarum can be made. Validated scoring systems such as the Pregnancy-Unique Quantification of Emesis (PUQE) score can be used to classify the severity of NVP.
Management of hyperemesis gravidarum involves using antihistamines as a first-line treatment, with oral cyclizine or oral promethazine being recommended by Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Oral prochlorperazine is an alternative, while ondansetron and metoclopramide may be used as second-line treatments. Ginger and P6 (wrist) acupressure can be tried, but there is little evidence of benefit. Admission may be needed for IV hydration.
Complications of hyperemesis gravidarum can include Wernicke’s encephalopathy, Mallory-Weiss tear, central pontine myelinolysis, acute tubular necrosis, and fetal growth restriction, preterm birth, and cleft lip/palate (if ondansetron is used during the first trimester). The NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend considering admission if a woman is unable to keep down liquids or oral antiemetics, has ketonuria and/or weight loss (greater than 5% of body weight), or has a confirmed or suspected comorbidity that may be adversely affected by nausea and vomiting.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 6
Correct
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Which one of the following statements regarding uterine fibroids is incorrect?
Your Answer: Undergo malignant change in 1 in 200 cases
Explanation:Most pathologists hold the view that uterine leiomyosarcomas, which may appear as ‘fibroids’ at first, are most likely new growths rather than a conversion of pre-existing fibroids.
Understanding Uterine Fibroids
Uterine fibroids are non-cancerous growths that develop in the uterus. They are more common in black women and are believed to occur in around 20% of white women in their later reproductive years. Fibroids are usually asymptomatic, but they can cause menorrhagia, which can lead to iron-deficiency anaemia. Other symptoms include lower abdominal pain, bloating, and urinary symptoms. Fibroids may also cause subfertility, but this is rare.
Diagnosis is usually done through transvaginal ultrasound. Asymptomatic fibroids do not require treatment, but periodic monitoring is necessary. For menorrhagia, treatment options include the levonorgestrel intrauterine system, NSAIDs, tranexamic acid, oral progestogen, and injectable progestogen. Medical treatment to shrink or remove fibroids includes GnRH agonists and ulipristal acetate, while surgical options include myomectomy, hysteroscopic endometrial ablation, hysterectomy, and uterine artery embolization.
Fibroids generally regress after menopause, and complications such as subfertility and iron-deficiency anaemia have been mentioned previously. Another complication is red degeneration, which is haemorrhage into the tumour and commonly occurs during pregnancy. Understanding uterine fibroids is important for women’s health, and seeking medical attention is necessary if symptoms arise.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 7
Correct
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A 27-year-old woman who is 16-weeks pregnant comes in with acne vulgaris. Which of the following treatments is recognized to be detrimental to the growth of the fetus?
Your Answer: Topical isotretinoin
Explanation:Women using oral or topical isotretinoin must take effective contraception as both forms are highly prohibited during pregnancy.
Prescribing Considerations for Pregnant Patients
When it comes to prescribing medication for pregnant patients, it is important to exercise caution as very few drugs are known to be completely safe during pregnancy. Some countries have developed a grading system to help guide healthcare professionals in their decision-making process. It is important to note that the following drugs are known to be harmful and should be avoided: tetracyclines, aminoglycosides, sulphonamides and trimethoprim, quinolones, ACE inhibitors, angiotensin II receptor antagonists, statins, warfarin, sulfonylureas, retinoids (including topical), and cytotoxic agents.
In addition, the majority of antiepileptics, including valproate, carbamazepine, and phenytoin, are potentially harmful. However, the decision to stop such treatments can be difficult as uncontrolled epilepsy poses its own risks. It is important for healthcare professionals to carefully weigh the potential risks and benefits of any medication before prescribing it to a pregnant patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 8
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman presents with a one-week history of morning sickness. She is 10 weeks pregnant. She can keep down oral fluid but has vomited twice in the previous 24 hours. There are no acid reflux symptoms, abdominal pain, vaginal bleeding or urinary symptoms.
She takes folic acid and is not on any other medications.
On examination, her temperature is 36.8ºC. Blood pressure is 100/60 mmHg and heart rate is 80/min. Her abdomen is soft and non-tender. Urine B-HCG is positive and urine dipstick shows 1+ ketone only. There is no weight loss.
What is the most appropriate management option for this patient?Your Answer: Commence on oral cyclizine
Explanation:The first-line management for nausea and vomiting in pregnancy/hyperemesis gravidarum is antihistamines, specifically oral cyclizine. Second-line options include ondansetron and domperidone. Hospital admission may be necessary if the patient cannot tolerate oral antiemetics or fluids, symptoms are not controlled with primary care management, or hyperemesis gravidarum is suspected. There is no indication for oral omeprazole in this case as the patient has not reported any dyspeptic symptoms.
Hyperemesis gravidarum is a severe form of nausea and vomiting that affects around 1% of pregnancies. It is usually experienced between 8 and 12 weeks of pregnancy but can persist up to 20 weeks. The condition is thought to be related to raised beta hCG levels and is more common in women who are obese, nulliparous, or have multiple pregnancies, trophoblastic disease, or hyperthyroidism. Smoking is associated with a decreased incidence of hyperemesis.
The Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists recommend that a woman must have a 5% pre-pregnancy weight loss, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalance before a diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidarum can be made. Validated scoring systems such as the Pregnancy-Unique Quantification of Emesis (PUQE) score can be used to classify the severity of NVP.
Management of hyperemesis gravidarum involves using antihistamines as a first-line treatment, with oral cyclizine or oral promethazine being recommended by Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Oral prochlorperazine is an alternative, while ondansetron and metoclopramide may be used as second-line treatments. Ginger and P6 (wrist) acupressure can be tried, but there is little evidence of benefit. Admission may be needed for IV hydration.
Complications of hyperemesis gravidarum can include Wernicke’s encephalopathy, Mallory-Weiss tear, central pontine myelinolysis, acute tubular necrosis, and fetal growth restriction, preterm birth, and cleft lip/palate (if ondansetron is used during the first trimester). The NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend considering admission if a woman is unable to keep down liquids or oral antiemetics, has ketonuria and/or weight loss (greater than 5% of body weight), or has a confirmed or suspected comorbidity that may be adversely affected by nausea and vomiting.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 9
Correct
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A 27-year-old female patient comes to you with a query about the Mirena® coil she had inserted during her travels in Australia. She wants to know the duration for which it is licensed.
How long is the IUS licensed for in this case?Your Answer: 3 years
Explanation:The Jaydess IUS is licensed for 3 years and has a smaller frame and less levonorgestrel than the Mirena coil. The Mirena coil is licensed for 5 years, while the Kyleena IUS has 19.5mg LNG and is also licensed for 5 years. The copper IUD is licensed for 5 years.
New intrauterine contraceptive devices include the Jaydess® IUS and Kyleena® IUS. The Jaydess® IUS is licensed for 3 years and has a smaller frame, narrower inserter tube, and less levonorgestrel than the Mirena® coil. The Kyleena® IUS has 19.5mg LNG, is smaller than the Mirena®, and is licensed for 5 years. Both result in lower serum levels of LNG, but the rate of amenorrhoea is less with Kyleena® compared to Mirena®.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 10
Correct
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Samantha is a 28-year-old woman who recently gave birth to a baby girl and wants to discuss contraception options. She used to take the combined pill but prefers not to use any form of contraception if possible. She is not currently breastfeeding. What is the duration after childbirth when she no longer needs contraception?
Your Answer: Up to 21 days
Explanation:Nancy can be advised that she doesn’t need contraception for up to 21 days after giving birth. According to the Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare Guideline on Postnatal Sexual and Reproductive Health, contraceptive protection is not necessary before Day 21 postpartum. However, if Nancy wants to avoid pregnancy after Day 21, she should use a contraceptive method as ovulation may occur as early as Day 28 in non-breastfeeding women. Breastfeeding women who want to prevent pregnancy should also use a contraceptive method, although any method will be more effective due to reduced fertility. Fully breastfeeding women may rely on the lactational amenorrhoea method (LAM) alone until breastfeeding decreases or other LAM criteria are no longer met.
After giving birth, women need to use contraception after 21 days. The Progestogen-only pill (POP) can be started at any time postpartum, according to the FSRH. Additional contraception should be used for the first 2 days after day 21. A small amount of progestogen enters breast milk, but it is not harmful to the infant. On the other hand, the Combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) is absolutely contraindicated (UKMEC 4) if breastfeeding is less than 6 weeks postpartum. If breastfeeding is between 6 weeks to 6 months postpartum, it is UKMEC 2. The COCP may reduce breast milk production in lactating mothers. It should not be used in the first 21 days due to the increased venous thromboembolism risk postpartum. After day 21, additional contraception should be used for the first 7 days.
The intrauterine device or intrauterine system can be inserted within 48 hours of childbirth or after 4 weeks. Meanwhile, the Lactational amenorrhoea method (LAM) is 98% effective if the woman is fully breastfeeding (no supplementary feeds), amenorrhoeic, and less than 6 months postpartum. It is important to note that an inter-pregnancy interval of less than 12 months between childbirth and conceiving again is associated with an increased risk of preterm birth, low birth weight, and small for gestational age babies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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