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Question 1
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A 39-year-old man comes to his GP complaining of sudden headaches accompanied by sweating and palpitations. Upon examination, the patient appears anxious and has a pale complexion. His blood pressure measures 240/200 mmHg, and a 24-hour urine collection shows increased levels of catecholamines. What is the probable cause of this man's hypertension?
Your Answer: Phaeochromocytoma
Explanation:Differentiating Causes of Hypertension: A Brief Overview
Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common medical condition that affects millions of people worldwide. While there are many possible causes of hypertension, some are more common than others. In this article, we will discuss some of the most common causes of hypertension and how to differentiate them.
Phaeochromocytoma is a tumour of the adrenal gland that can cause hypertension, headache, sweating, and anxiety. It is often associated with the 10% rule, which states that 10% of cases are extramedullary, 10% are malignant, 10% are familial, and 10% are bilateral.
Conn syndrome, or primary aldosteronism, is characterized by hypertension, hypokalaemia, and metabolic alkalosis. The most common causes are aldosterone-producing adenomas and bilateral adrenal hyperplasia.
Renal artery stenosis (RAS) is a major cause of renovascular hypertension. However, it is not associated with elevated catecholamines or the symptoms described.
Polycystic kidney disease (PKD) is a genetic disorder that can cause hypertension due to progressive kidney enlargement. However, patients with PKD do not have elevated catecholamine levels.
Cushing syndrome is caused by prolonged hypercortisolism and can cause centripetal obesity, secondary hypertension, glucose intolerance, proximal myopathy, and hirsutism. Sweating, palpitations, and elevated catecholamines are not typical of hypercortisolism.
In conclusion, hypertension can have many different causes, and it is important to differentiate them to provide appropriate treatment. By understanding the characteristic features of each condition, healthcare professionals can make an accurate diagnosis and provide effective management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 2
Correct
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In the field of pharmacology, what is the term used to describe a ligand that binds to a receptor and induces a biological response by altering the receptor state, usually resulting in an increase in receptor activity?
Your Answer: Agonist
Explanation:An agonist is a drug that binds to a receptor and causes an increase in receptor activity. The effects of an agonist are determined by efficacy of agonism and degree of receptor occupancy. An antagonist is a ligand that binds to a receptor and reduces or inhibits receptor activity, causing no biological response. The effects of an antagonist are determined by degree of receptor occupancy, affinity to the receptor, and efficacy. A competitive antagonist has a similar structure to an agonist and will bind to the same site on the same receptor. A non-competitive antagonist has a different structure to the agonist and may cause an alteration in the receptor structure or the interaction of the receptor with downstream effects in the cell.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 52-year-old woman presents with persistent generalized itching and yellowing of the skin for the past 4 weeks. The symptoms have been gradually worsening. She has no significant medical history and is postmenopausal. She lives with her husband and has a monogamous sexual relationship. Vital signs are normal, but her skin and sclera are yellowish. There is mild enlargement of the liver and spleen. Her serum alanine aminotransferase (ALT) level is 250 iu/l, aspartate transaminase (AST) level 320 iu/l, alkaline phosphatase level 2500 iu/l, γ-glutamyl transpeptidase level 125 iu/l, total bilirubin level 51.3 μmol/l and direct bilirubin level 35.9 μmol/l. Hepatitis B and C serologic tests are negative, but her serum titre of anti-mitochondrial antibody is elevated. What medication would be most effective for long-term treatment of this patient?
Your Answer: Lamivudine
Correct Answer: Ursodeoxycholic acid
Explanation:Ursodeoxycholic acid is a medication that can slow down the progression of liver failure in patients with primary biliary cholangitis (PBC). PBC is characterized by symptoms such as general itching, elevated levels of alkaline phosphatase and direct hyperbilirubinemia, and high levels of anti-mitochondrial antibodies. Ursodeoxycholic acid is a synthetic secondary bile acid that reduces the synthesis of cholesterol and bile acids in the liver, which helps to reduce the total bile acid pool and prevent hepatotoxicity caused by the accumulation of bile acids.
Corticosteroids are commonly used to treat autoimmune hepatitis.
Etanercept is a medication that inhibits tumour necrosis factor and is used to treat conditions such as rheumatoid arthritis, psoriasis, psoriatic arthritis, and ankylosing spondylitis.
Lamivudine is a nucleoside analogue that can inhibit viral reverse transcriptase and is used to treat infections caused by HIV or HBV.
Cholestyramine is a medication that binds to bile acids in the intestinal lumen, preventing their reabsorption. It is used to treat conditions such as hypercholesterolemia, pruritus, and diarrhea.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 4
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A 5-year-old girl is brought to the hospital with a suspected fracture of her left femur. Her parents are unsure how this happened and deny any injury. During the examination, you observe extensive dental decay, a bluish hue to the whites of her eyes, and on X-ray, multiple fractures at different stages of healing are noted.
What is the probable diagnosis in this scenario?Your Answer: Osteogenesis imperfecta
Explanation:Osteogenesis imperfecta is a collagen disorder that is identified by blue sclera, multiple fractures during childhood, dental caries, and deafness due to otosclerosis. It is often mistaken for child abuse or neglect, but the presence of blue sclera is a crucial indicator of osteogenesis imperfecta. In contrast, rickets is more likely to cause growth stunting and deformities rather than multiple fractures.
Osteogenesis imperfecta, also known as brittle bone disease, is a group of disorders that affect collagen metabolism, leading to bone fragility and fractures. The most common type of osteogenesis imperfecta is type 1, which is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner and is caused by a decrease in the synthesis of pro-alpha 1 or pro-alpha 2 collagen polypeptides. This condition typically presents in childhood and is characterized by fractures that occur following minor trauma, as well as blue sclera, dental imperfections, and deafness due to otosclerosis.
When investigating osteogenesis imperfecta, it is important to note that adjusted calcium, phosphate, parathyroid hormone, and ALP results are usually normal. This condition can have a significant impact on a person’s quality of life, as it can lead to frequent fractures and other complications. However, with proper management and support, individuals with osteogenesis imperfecta can lead fulfilling lives.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old female patient comes to the clinic complaining of lower abdominal pain on both sides and experiencing deep pain during intercourse. She confesses to having unprotected sex while on vacation in Spain. During the examination, her temperature is found to be 37.9°C. Bimanual examination reveals adnexal tenderness, and speculum examination shows mucopurulent cervical discharge. What is the best choice of antibiotic treatment?
Your Answer: Oral metronidazole, doxycycline and co-amoxiclav
Correct Answer: Ceftriaxone IM then oral metronidazole and doxycycline
Explanation:Pelvic Inflammatory Disease and its Causes
Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is a condition that is consistent with the patient’s history. According to guidelines from the British Association for Sexual Health and HIV (BASHH), triple antibiotic therapy is the recommended treatment for PID. However, in pregnant patients, doxycycline is contraindicated and is substituted with erythromycin.
There are several possible causes of PID, including endogenous vaginal flora, aerobic Streptococci, C. trachomatis, and N. gonorrhoeae. These microorganisms can cause inflammation of the female reproductive organs, leading to PID. It is important to identify the cause of PID to ensure appropriate treatment and prevent complications such as infertility and chronic pelvic pain. By the causes of PID, healthcare providers can take steps to prevent its occurrence and provide effective treatment to those affected.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 2-day-old male is brought to the neonatal unit due to bilious vomiting and decreased feeding. He was delivered without complications at 32 weeks gestation. An abdominal X-ray reveals intramural gas, prompting the cessation of oral feeding and initiation of broad-spectrum antibiotics. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Intussusception
Correct Answer: Necrotising enterocolitis
Explanation:Necrotising enterocolitis can be identified by the presence of pneumatosis intestinalis on an abdominal X-ray.
Understanding Necrotising Enterocolitis
Necrotising enterocolitis is a serious condition that is responsible for a significant number of premature infant deaths. The condition is characterized by symptoms such as feeding intolerance, abdominal distension, and bloody stools. If left untreated, these symptoms can quickly progress to more severe symptoms such as abdominal discolouration, perforation, and peritonitis.
To diagnose necrotising enterocolitis, doctors often use abdominal x-rays. These x-rays can reveal a number of important indicators of the condition, including dilated bowel loops, bowel wall oedema, and intramural gas. Other signs that may be visible on an x-ray include portal venous gas, pneumoperitoneum resulting from perforation, and air both inside and outside of the bowel wall. In some cases, an x-ray may also reveal air outlining the falciform ligament, which is known as the football sign.
Overall, understanding the symptoms and diagnostic indicators of necrotising enterocolitis is crucial for early detection and treatment of this serious condition. By working closely with healthcare professionals and following recommended screening protocols, parents and caregivers can help ensure the best possible outcomes for premature infants at risk for this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 7
Correct
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As a GP, you come across a 42-year-old man who had an incidental discovery of hyperlipidaemia during a recent insurance medical examination at work. His test results showed cholesterol levels of 22 mmol/L (ideal <5 mmol/L) with triglycerides of 18 mmol/L (<1.5 mmol/L). He is generally healthy but has low albumin and peripheral oedema. Upon conducting a urinalysis, the results are as follows:
Haemoglobin: Negative
Urobilinogen: Negative
Bilirubin: Negative
Protein: +++
Glucose: Negative
Nitrites: Negative
Leucocytes: Negative
Ketones: +
What could be the possible explanation for these findings?Your Answer: Nephrotic syndrome
Explanation:Nephrotic Syndrome
Nephrotic syndrome is a condition characterized by excessive protein loss in the urine, low levels of serum albumin, and peripheral edema. Patients with this condition often have severe hyperlipidemia, with total cholesterol levels exceeding 10 mmol/L. Additionally, the loss of natural anticoagulants in the urine can lead to altered clotting, which requires treatment with antiplatelet agents and/or low molecular weight heparin.
It is important to note that in the early stages of nephrotic syndrome, the levels of urea and creatinine may appear normal despite underlying renal pathology. Therefore, it is crucial to monitor patients with marked hyperlipidemia and proteinuria on urinalysis for signs of nephrotic syndrome. If diagnosed, patients should be referred to a local renal team for management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 8
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A 72-year-old man presents for review, complaining of pain in his knees. There is also stiffness in his fingers and he finds it difficult to use his computer. There is a history of hypertension, for which he takes amlodipine 10 mg, and type II diabetes, for which he takes metformin. He had been given a diagnosis of ulcerative colitis some years ago but has had no recent symptoms. On examination, he has a body mass index (BMI) of 34; blood pressure is 150/90 mmHg, and he has swelling and bony deformity of both knees. There is crepitus and anterior knee pain on flexion. Examination of the hands reveals Heberden’s nodes.
Investigations:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin 120 g/dl 115–155 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 5.8 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Platelets 240 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate 12 mm/h 0–10mm in the 1st hour
Rheumatoid factor Negative
Sodium (Na+) 142 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 4.7 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Creatinine 130 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
X-ray of both knees reveals reduced joint space, subchondral sclerosis and cyst formation and osteophytes within the joint space.
Which of the following fits best with the diagnosis?Your Answer: Osteoarthritis
Explanation:The woman in the picture appears to have osteoarthritis, which is commonly seen in overweight individuals affecting weight-bearing joints like the knees. The changes in her hands also suggest osteoarthritis. Treatment options include weight reduction, pain relief medication like paracetamol or non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), physiotherapy, or knee replacement surgery. Rheumatoid arthritis is unlikely as her ESR and rheumatoid factor are normal. Seronegative arthritis is also unlikely as it is associated with raised inflammatory markers, which are not present in this case. Enteropathic arthropathy is unlikely as there are no recent symptoms of inflammatory bowel disease. Osteoporosis is not a likely diagnosis as it does not cause knee or finger pain, but rather presents following a fracture.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 9
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As the foundation year doctor in general surgery, you are called to assess a patient who has suddenly become unresponsive at 4 am. The patient is a 45-year-old female who has been admitted for an elective cholecystectomy scheduled for 8 am.
Upon examination, the patient appears sweaty and clammy and is hypoventilating. She is only responsive to painful stimuli.
The patient's vital signs are as follows: heart rate of 115, blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg, respiratory rate of 8, oxygen saturation of 99%, and blood glucose level of 1.1.
What would be your next step in initiating drug therapy?Your Answer: Dextrose 20% 100 ml IV
Explanation:Hypoglycaemia: The Importance of Early Recognition and Management
Clinicians should always consider hypoglycaemia as a potential cause of acute unresponsiveness in patients. The diagnosis of hypoglycaemia is made when there is evidence of low blood sugar, associated symptoms, and resolution of symptoms with correction of hypoglycaemia. The management of hypoglycaemia should be prompt and involves administering 100 ml of 20% dextrose, as opposed to 50%, which can be too irritating to the veins. Repeat blood sugar measurements should be taken to ensure that levels remain above 3.0.
In patients who are fasting overnight for surgery, intravenous fluids should be prescribed with close monitoring of blood sugars to determine whether slow 5% dextrose is required to maintain an acceptable blood sugar level. Glucagon and Hypostop are alternative therapies used to increase glucose levels, but they are not rapid rescue drugs for the correction of low sugars in symptomatic patients.
To identify the cause of hypoglycaemia, the acronym EXPLAIN is used. This stands for Exogenous insulin administration, Pituitary insufficiency, Liver failure, Alcohol/Autoimmune/Addison’s, Insulinoma, and Neoplasia. All episodes of hypoglycaemia require an explanation, and further endocrine workup may be necessary if no cause is identified.
In conclusion, early recognition and management of hypoglycaemia is crucial in preventing further deterioration of the patient’s condition. Clinicians should always consider hypoglycaemia as a potential cause of acute unresponsiveness and promptly administer appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man is scheduled for colorectal carcinoma resection and has type 2 diabetes. He is currently well-controlled on 5 mg glibenclamide daily. What is the best pre-operative plan for managing his blood sugar levels?
Your Answer: Continue glibenclamide at current dose
Correct Answer: Stop glibenclamide on the morning of surgery and commence insulin by intravenous infusion
Explanation:Management of Glibenclamide in a Patient Undergoing Major Surgery
During major surgery, it is crucial to maintain optimal glycaemic control in patients with diabetes. In the case of a patient taking glibenclamide, the most appropriate course of action is to discontinue the medication on the morning of surgery. Instead, the patient should be started on intravenous (IV) insulin and dextrose with potassium. This approach allows for frequent blood glucose measurements and adjustment of the insulin infusion rate as needed.
By stopping glibenclamide, the risk of hypoglycaemia during surgery is reduced. IV insulin and dextrose with potassium provide a more controlled and predictable method of glycaemic control during the stress of surgery. This approach ensures that the patient’s blood glucose levels remain within a safe range, reducing the risk of complications such as infection, delayed wound healing, and poor surgical outcomes.
In summary, the management of glibenclamide in a patient undergoing major surgery involves discontinuing the medication on the morning of surgery and starting the patient on IV insulin and dextrose with potassium. This approach allows for optimal glycaemic control during the stress of surgery and reduces the risk of complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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