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  • Question 1 - A 32-year-old woman presents with a 15-month history of dysphagia. She has had...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman presents with a 15-month history of dysphagia. She has had difficulty with both liquids and solids from the onset. She reports no weight loss and there no past medical history of note. Investigation with a barium swallow demonstrates a dilated oesophagus with a ‘bird’s beak’ tapering of the distal oesophagus.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Achalasia

      Explanation:

      Understanding Achalasia: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Differential Diagnosis

      Achalasia is a motility disorder that affects the lower esophageal sphincter, causing difficulty swallowing both liquids and solids. This condition is characterized by the failure of the sphincter to relax in response to peristalsis during swallowing, which can lead to chest pain after eating and regurgitation of food. The cause of achalasia is unknown, but it is thought to be due to degeneration of the myenteric plexus.

      To diagnose achalasia, a barium swallow may reveal a dilated esophagus with a bird’s beak tapering of the distal esophagus. Manometry can confirm the high-pressure, non-relaxing lower esophageal sphincter. Endoscopy should also be carried out to exclude malignancy.

      Differential diagnosis for achalasia includes oesophageal carcinoma, pharyngeal pouch, benign oesophageal stricture, and caustic stricture. Oesophageal carcinoma is less likely in a relatively young patient without history of weight loss, and the barium swallow findings are more suggestive of achalasia than malignancy. A pharyngeal pouch would be visualized on a barium swallow, while a benign oesophageal stricture is more common in older people with a history of gastro-oesophageal reflux disease. Caustic stricture would also be visualized on a barium swallow, but there is no history of caustic damage in this case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      7.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - An older man comes in with a severe headache, nausea, vomiting and a...

    Incorrect

    • An older man comes in with a severe headache, nausea, vomiting and a painful, red right eye. He has reduced visual acuity in the right eye and normal visual acuity in the left eye. During the examination, he had a stony hard eye with marked pericorneal reddening and a hazy corneal reflex. Tonometry revealed a raised intraocular pressure. The patient reports that he has recently been prescribed a new medication by his general practitioner.
      What medication could be responsible for this sudden onset of symptoms?

      Your Answer: Bisoprolol

      Correct Answer: Ipratropium nebuliser

      Explanation:

      Understanding Acute Closed Angle Glaucoma and its Treatment Options

      Acute closed angle glaucoma is a serious eye condition that can cause sudden vision loss, severe eye pain, and nausea. It occurs when the angle between the iris and cornea is reduced, leading to a blockage of the aqueous humour flow and increased intraocular pressure. Risk factors include female sex, Asian ethnicity, and hypermetropia.

      Certain drugs, such as nebulised ipratropium and tricyclic antidepressants, can induce angle closure due to their antimuscarinic effects. Other antimuscarinic drug side-effects include dry eyes, xerostomia, bronchodilation, decreased gut motility, urinary outflow obstruction, and hallucinations.

      Acetazolamide is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor that is given intravenously to treat acute closed angle glaucoma. It helps to reduce intraocular pressure and prevent damage to the optic nerve. Bisoprolol is a β-blocker that does not precipitate an episode of acute closed angle glaucoma, while montelukast is used in the long-term management of asthma and does not increase the risk of acute closed angle glaucoma.

      Topical pilocarpine is a miotic that is used to treat acute angle closure glaucoma by constricting the pupil and promoting aqueous humour flow. It is important to understand the causes and treatment options for acute closed angle glaucoma to prevent vision loss and other serious complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      11.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - What is the mechanism of action of goserelin in treating prostate cancer in...

    Incorrect

    • What is the mechanism of action of goserelin in treating prostate cancer in elderly patients?

      Your Answer: Androgen receptor antagonist

      Correct Answer: GnRH agonist

      Explanation:

      Zoladex (Goserelin) is an artificial GnRH agonist that delivers negative feedback to the anterior pituitary.

      Management of Prostate Cancer

      Localised prostate cancer (T1/T2) can be managed through various treatment options depending on the patient’s life expectancy and preference. Conservative approaches such as active monitoring and watchful waiting can be considered, as well as radical prostatectomy and radiotherapy (external beam and brachytherapy). On the other hand, localised advanced prostate cancer (T3/T4) may require hormonal therapy, radical prostatectomy, or radiotherapy. However, patients who undergo radiotherapy may develop proctitis and are at a higher risk of bladder, colon, and rectal cancer.

      For metastatic prostate cancer, the primary goal is to reduce androgen levels. A combination of approaches is often used, including anti-androgen therapy, synthetic GnRH agonist or antagonists, bicalutamide, cyproterone acetate, abiraterone, and bilateral orchidectomy. GnRH agonists such as Goserelin (Zoladex) may result in lower LH levels longer term by causing overstimulation, which disrupts endogenous hormonal feedback systems. This may cause a rise in testosterone initially for around 2-3 weeks before falling to castration levels. To prevent a rise in testosterone, anti-androgen therapy is often used initially. However, this may result in a tumour flare, which stimulates prostate cancer growth and may cause bone pain, bladder obstruction, and other symptoms. GnRH antagonists such as degarelix are being evaluated to suppress testosterone while avoiding the flare phenomenon. Chemotherapy with docetaxel may also be an option for the treatment of hormone-relapsed metastatic prostate cancer in patients who have no or mild symptoms after androgen deprivation therapy has failed, and before chemotherapy is indicated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      5.6
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 56-year-old male presents to the general practitioner (GP) with worries about his...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old male presents to the general practitioner (GP) with worries about his facial appearance, which he believes has changed significantly over the past five years. He also reports that his shoes no longer fit properly, and that his hands seem larger. The GP suspects that he may be suffering from acromegaly, and the patient is referred to the Endocrinology Department for further evaluation and treatment.

      Regarding acromegaly, which of the following statements is accurate?

      Your Answer: There is an increased risk of colon cancer

      Explanation:

      Understanding Acromegaly: Symptoms, Causes, and Risks

      Acromegaly is a rare hormonal disorder that results from excess growth hormone (GH) in adulthood. This condition is typically caused by a pituitary tumour, which secretes GH and insulin growth factor 1 (IGF-1), leading to increased cellular growth and turnover. Unfortunately, this increased cellular activity also increases the risk of colon cancer.

      While an enlarged upper jaw is often associated with acromegaly, it is actually the lower jaw that is more commonly affected, resulting in the classic underbite seen in these patients. Additionally, untreated acromegaly can lead to osteoarthritis, which is associated with excessive cartilage and connective tissue growth, but not autoimmune destruction of the joint.

      It is important to recognize the symptoms of acromegaly, such as enlarged hands and feet, thickened skin, and deepening of the voice, as early diagnosis and treatment can prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      17
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 70-year-old man has been experiencing increasing fatigue and difficulty with mobility for...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man has been experiencing increasing fatigue and difficulty with mobility for the past three days. He denies any chest or abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, sweating, or fever. The patient is known to be a private individual and can be cantankerous at times. He has no family except for a son whom he has not spoken to in 15 years. Upon arrival at his home, he is able to provide a detailed medical history.

      During the physical examination, the patient appears pale and mildly short of breath but is oriented. His blood pressure is 130/75 mm Hg while sitting and 122/68 mmHg while standing. Crackles are heard at both lung bases, and there is an intermittent ventricular gallop. The patient has marked joint deformities in both knees and mild ankle edema. Neurological examination is normal.

      Investigations reveal the following results:
      - Haemoglobin: 92 g/L (115-165)
      - Plasma glucose: 5.5 mmol/L (3.0-6.0)
      - Urea: 6.5 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
      - Serum creatinine: 95 µmol/L (60-110)
      - Sodium: 137 mmol/L (137-144)
      - Potassium: 4.2 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)
      - Bicarbonate: 23 mmol/L (20-28)

      Despite understanding the recommendation for hospital admission, the patient adamantly refuses and requests that his son not be contacted.

      What is the best course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer: Call a psychiatrist for advice

      Correct Answer: Prescribe furosemide, 40 mg orally, and visit her again the next day

      Explanation:

      Respectful Management of Heart Failure Related Peripheral Oedema in Primary Care

      Managing heart failure related peripheral oedema in primary care requires a respectful approach towards the patient’s wishes and needs. Even if a patient is unable to perform certain tasks, it does not necessarily mean that they are incompetent. It is important to listen to their wishes and respect them accordingly. For instance, if a patient asks not to be contacted by a certain person, their request should be honored.

      Physical examination is crucial in determining the cause of heart failure related peripheral oedema. In most cases, anaemia contributes to the condition. The most appropriate initial therapy for this condition is diuretics. However, it is important to closely monitor the patient’s response to the medication.

      In some cases, hospitalization may be necessary. In such situations, it is important to communicate with the patient and try to win them over to this approach. Ultimately, the goal is to provide the best possible care for the patient while respecting their wishes and needs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Miscellaneous
      35.9
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - An 80-year-old woman has been referred to a Gastroenterologist by her General Practitioner...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old woman has been referred to a Gastroenterologist by her General Practitioner due to epigastric discomfort and the development of jaundice over several months. The patient reports no pain but has experienced unintentional weight loss. During examination, no abdominal tenderness or mass is detected. Serology results indicate that the patient has recently been diagnosed with diabetes. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pancreatic carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Differentiating between Gastrointestinal Conditions

      When presented with a patient experiencing symptoms such as weight loss, jaundice, and epigastric discomfort, it is important to consider various gastrointestinal conditions that may be causing these symptoms. One possible diagnosis is pancreatic carcinoma, which is often associated with painless jaundice and the development of diabetes. Hepatitis, caused by viral infection or excessive alcohol intake, can also lead to liver cancer. Chronic pancreatitis, typically caused by alcohol misuse, can result in pain and dysfunction of the pancreas. Gastritis, on the other hand, is often caused by prolonged use of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs or infection with Helicobacter pylori, and can lead to gastric ulcers and bleeding. Finally, hepatocellular carcinoma can be caused by chronic hepatitis B or C, or chronic excessive alcohol intake. Proper diagnosis and treatment of these conditions is crucial for the patient’s health and well-being.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      23.5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 30-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner with a complaint of a thick,...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner with a complaint of a thick, cottage-cheese like vaginal discharge that has a yellowish hue. The patient reports that the discharge began two days ago. She denies any presence of blood in the discharge, but does experience pain while urinating. Upon physical examination, the patient does not exhibit any pain and there are no palpable masses.
      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Candida albicans

      Explanation:

      Common Vaginal Infections and Their Symptoms

      Vaginal infections can be caused by various organisms and can present with different symptoms. Here are some common vaginal infections and their symptoms:

      1. Candida albicans: This fungal infection can cause candidiasis, which presents with a thick, cottage-cheese yellowish discharge and pain upon urination. Treatment involves antifungal medication.

      2. Normal discharge: A normal vaginal discharge is clear and mucoid, without smell or other concerning symptoms.

      3. gonorrhoeae: This sexually transmitted infection caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae can cause a thick green-yellow discharge, painful urination, and bleeding between periods.

      4. Chlamydia: This common sexually transmitted infection is often asymptomatic but can eventually cause pain upon urination, vaginal/penile discharge, and bleeding between periods.

      5. Bacterial vaginosis: This infection is caused by an overgrowth of bacteria in the vagina and presents with a grey, watery discharge with a fishy odor. Treatment involves antibiotics and topical gels or creams.

      It is important to seek medical attention if you experience any concerning symptoms or suspect a vaginal infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      7.3
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A General Practice is conducting an audit on the number of elderly patients...

    Correct

    • A General Practice is conducting an audit on the number of elderly patients with gastrointestinal symptoms who were referred for endoscopy without a clear clinical indication.
      Which of the following intestinal diseases necessitates blood tests and small intestinal biopsy for precise diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Coeliac disease

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Biopsy Findings for Various Intestinal Conditions

      When conducting a biopsy of the small intestine, various changes may be observed that can indicate the presence of certain conditions. However, it is important to note that these changes are not always specific to a particular disease and may be found in other conditions as well. Therefore, additional diagnostic tests may be necessary to confirm a diagnosis.

      Coeliac disease is one condition that can be suggested by biopsy findings, which may include infiltration by lymphocytes and plasma cells, villous atrophy, and crypt hyperplasia. However, positive serology for anti-endomysial or anti-gliadin antibodies is also needed to confirm gluten sensitivity.

      Abetalipoproteinemia, Mycobacterium avium infection, Whipple’s disease, and intestinal lymphangiectasia are other conditions that can be diagnosed based on biopsy findings alone. Abetalipoproteinemia is characterized by clear enterocytes due to lipid accumulation, while Mycobacterium avium infection is identified by the presence of foamy macrophages containing acid-fast bacilli. In Whipple’s disease, macrophages are swollen and contain PAS-positive granules due to the glycogen content of bacterial cell walls. Finally, primary intestinal lymphangiectasia is diagnosed by the dilation of lymphatics in the intestinal mucosa without any evidence of inflammation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      23.8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 26-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with confusion and decreased consciousness....

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with confusion and decreased consciousness. Upon examination, she has a respiratory rate of 30/min and is tachypnoeic. Oxygen saturations are 98%. Urgent blood gases reveal a pH of 7.04, pO2 16.0 kPa, pCO2 2.6 kPa, HCO3- 3 mmol/l. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)

      Explanation:

      Causes of Metabolic Acidosis and Alkalosis

      Metabolic acidosis is a condition characterized by low pH, low carbon dioxide, and low bicarbonate levels. One of the most common causes of metabolic acidosis is diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), which can lead to confusion and reduced consciousness. Treatment for DKA involves an insulin infusion and intravenous fluids.

      On the other hand, respiratory alkalosis is characterized by high pH and low carbon dioxide levels. Asthma and pulmonary embolism are two conditions that can cause tachypnea and respiratory alkalosis due to increased minute volume and blowing off carbon dioxide.

      In contrast, metabolic alkalosis is characterized by high pH and high bicarbonate levels. Conn’s syndrome, also known as hyperaldosteronism, is a condition that typically causes hypertension and metabolic alkalosis.

      Lastly, diazepam overdose can cause hypoventilation and respiratory acidosis, which is characterized by low pH and high carbon dioxide levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      52.7
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 70-year-old man presents to his GP with a complaint of difficulty swallowing...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old man presents to his GP with a complaint of difficulty swallowing that has been occurring for the past four weeks. He reports that solid foods are particularly problematic and feel as though they are getting stuck. The patient has a medical history of hypertension and osteoarthritis of the knees, for which he takes amlodipine 5 mg OD and paracetamol 1 g as required respectively. He has a 20-pack year smoking history but does not consume alcohol. On examination, the patient appears well at rest and has a normal body habitus. Abdominal examination is largely unremarkable, except for some mild epigastric discomfort. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

      Your Answer: Refer to gastroenterology for OGD (oesophago-gastro-duodenoscopy) under the 2-week wait criteria

      Explanation:

      Recognizing Red Flags for Oesophageal Cancer: Referring for OGD under the 2-Week Wait Criteria

      When a patient presents with subacute and first-onset dysphagia limited to solids, it suggests a new mass obstructing the oesophagus. This symptom is a red flag for oesophageal cancer, and a 2-week wait referral for OGD is necessary to prevent a delay in diagnosis. If abnormal tissue is found during the OGD, biopsies will be taken for histological analysis to confirm the diagnosis.

      PPI therapy and review in a month is not appropriate for dysphagia, as it may delay a potential cancer diagnosis. Emergency hospital admission is unnecessary, as the patient is not acutely unstable. Routine outpatient gastrointestinal appointment is appropriate, but it must be performed within two weeks in accordance with the UK’s referral guidelines for potential cancer diagnoses. Acute specialist care of the elderly clinic referral is not necessary, as the patient’s age alone does not indicate a need for geriatric care.

      It is important to explain to the patient that while cancer is a possibility, there may be other explanations as well. Encouraging a step-by-step approach and informing the patient that the specialist who conducts the OGD will explain things in more detail when consenting them for the procedure is appropriate. The full criteria for a 2-week wait referral for OGD includes new-onset dysphagia at any age, and additional criteria for patients over 55 years old with weight loss, epigastric abdominal pain, dyspepsia, reflux, or a history of Barrett’s oesophagus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      22.1
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 63-year-old man presents to his primary care physician with complaints of feeling...

    Correct

    • A 63-year-old man presents to his primary care physician with complaints of feeling tired and dizzy upon standing up. His family members are worried because they have noticed a change in his facial appearance. Upon further investigation, the following laboratory results were obtained:
      Serum:
      Na+ 128 mmol/l (135–145 mmol/l)
      K+ 6.1 mmol/l (3.5–5 mmol/l)
      Short adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) stimulation test:
      Plasma cortisol:
      0900 h 150 nmol/l (140–690 nmol/l)
      30 min after ACTH: 155 nmol/l
      60 min after ACTH: 155 nmol/l
      0900 h ACTH: 6 ng/l (normal <50 ng/l)
      What condition is consistent with these findings?

      Your Answer: Abrupt withdrawal of corticosteroid therapy

      Explanation:

      Causes of Adrenal Hypofunction: Understanding the Biochemistry

      Adrenal hypofunction can occur due to various reasons, and understanding the underlying biochemistry can help in identifying the cause. The following are some of the common causes of adrenal hypofunction and their associated biochemical changes:

      Abrupt Withdrawal of Corticosteroid Therapy: The most common cause of adrenal hypofunction is the suppression of the pituitary-adrenal axis due to therapeutic corticosteroid therapy. During therapy, patients may present with Cushing’s syndrome, which causes a moon face. However, if therapy is withdrawn abruptly or demand for cortisol increases without a concomitant dosage increase, symptoms and signs of adrenal hypofunction can occur. This results in the loss of Na+ and retention of K+. Prolonged suppression of the adrenals means that output of cortisol cannot increase in response to the ACTH stimulation test until function has recovered. Additionally, patients will classically become hypotensive.

      Adrenal Metastases: Adrenal metastases cause adrenal failure through destruction of the gland tissue. So the same biochemistry will occur as in abrupt withdrawal of corticosteroid therapy, but ACTH levels would be expected to be high, owing to lack of negative feedback.

      Conn’s Syndrome: In Conn’s syndrome (primary hyperaldosteronism), the high aldosterone levels result in hypernatraemia and hypokalaemia, unlike what is seen in patients with adrenal hypofunction.

      Hypopituitarism: This results in secondary adrenal failure, so Na+ is lost and K+ retained.

      Cushing’s Disease: Cushing’s disease resulting from overproduction of cortisol results in hypernatraemia and hypokalaemia because cortisol has some mineralocorticoid activity.

      In conclusion, understanding the biochemistry of adrenal hypofunction can help in identifying the underlying cause and guiding appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      48.1
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 45-year-old man comes to the eye clinic complaining of bilateral redness around...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old man comes to the eye clinic complaining of bilateral redness around the corneal limbus. He has been experiencing this for one day and is in a lot of pain, particularly when reading the newspaper. He also reports sensitivity to light and blurry vision. Additionally, he has a headache that is affecting his entire head and back pain that is more severe in the morning but improves throughout the day.

      During the examination, the patient's pupils are fixed and small, with an oval shape. There is no hypopyon, but his eyes are very watery.

      What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Steroid and cycloplegic eye drops

      Explanation:

      The recommended treatment for anterior uveitis is a combination of steroid and cycloplegic (mydriatic) eye drops. This patient exhibits typical symptoms of anterior uveitis, which may be caused by a systemic condition like ankylosing spondylitis. The patient experiences pain, redness, watering, blurry vision, and small, fixed, oval-shaped pupils in both eyes around the corneal limbus. Although hypopyon may not always be present, the patient’s back pain that improves throughout the day may suggest ankylosing spondylitis. Steroid and cycloplegic eye drops are the appropriate treatment options. Cyclopentolate helps relieve pain caused by muscle spasms controlling the pupil and prevents the formation of synechiae that may affect the pupils function. Steroids help treat the underlying inflammation. Bilateral laser iridotomy is not suitable for this patient, as it is most appropriate for acute closed-angle glaucoma. High flow oxygen and sumatriptan may seem like a possible treatment for cluster headaches due to the patient’s lacrimation, red eyes, and headache, but this presentation is more consistent with anterior uveitis. Topical sodium cromoglicate is not appropriate for this patient, as it is used to treat allergic conjunctivitis, which typically presents with watery, red, itchy eyes in patients with a history of atopy.

      Anterior uveitis, also known as iritis, is a type of inflammation that affects the iris and ciliary body in the front part of the uvea. It is a common cause of red eye and is associated with HLA-B27, which may also be linked to other conditions. Symptoms of anterior uveitis include sudden onset of eye discomfort and pain, small or irregular pupils, intense sensitivity to light, blurred vision, redness, tearing, and the presence of pus and inflammatory cells in the front part of the eye. This condition may be associated with ankylosing spondylitis, reactive arthritis, ulcerative colitis, Crohn’s disease, Behcet’s disease, and sarcoidosis. Urgent review by an ophthalmologist is necessary, and treatment may involve the use of cycloplegics and steroid eye drops.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      38.8
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A client's family purchases the ward a box of chocolates but presents you...

    Correct

    • A client's family purchases the ward a box of chocolates but presents you with a separate card containing a £50 voucher for all your assistance. What is the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer: Give the voucher back to the family and thank them

      Explanation:

      Appropriate Actions for Accepting Monetary Gifts from Patients’ Families

      It is common for patients’ families to express gratitude towards healthcare professionals for their services. However, accepting monetary gifts can raise ethical concerns and is generally frowned upon by other staff members. Here are some appropriate actions to take when faced with such situations:

      Appropriate Actions for Accepting Monetary Gifts from Patients’ Families

      1. Give the voucher back to the family and thank them. This is the most appropriate action as it avoids any ethical concerns and maintains the professional relationship between the healthcare professional and the patient’s family.

      2. Share the voucher with the ward. While it may seem like a good idea to share the gift with colleagues, it is still not recommended to accept monetary gifts. It is best to return the gift to the family.

      3. Say nothing, you deserve it. This is not an appropriate action as accepting monetary gifts can create ethical concerns and impact the doctor-patient relationship.

      4. Donate the voucher to charity. While donating the gift to charity may seem like a good idea, it is still not recommended to accept monetary gifts. It is best to return the gift to the family.

      5. Ask the family for a bigger voucher, as £50 is not enough. This is highly unprofessional and should never be considered. Accepting monetary gifts of any amount is not recommended.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ethics And Legal
      7.7
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 76-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital feeling generally unwell. She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 76-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital feeling generally unwell. She has also developed a fever and diffuse erythematous rash over the last few days. Urinalysis is positive for blood and protein, and blood tests show raised eosinophils and creatinine. Her General Practitioner started her on a new medication two weeks ago, but she cannot remember the name or what it was for.
      Which of the following drugs would be safe to continue at present, given the suspected diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Allopurinol

      Correct Answer: Prednisolone

      Explanation:

      Drug-Induced Acute Tubulointerstitial Nephritis: Common Culprits and Management Options

      Acute tubulointerstitial nephritis is a condition characterized by fever, rash, and abnormalities on urinalysis. It can be caused by various drugs, including non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), beta-lactam antibiotics, allopurinol, and proton pump inhibitors (PPIs). In this case, the patient’s raised eosinophil count suggests drug-induced acute tubulointerstitial nephritis.

      Prednisolone, a steroid commonly used to manage this condition, is safe to continue. However, NSAIDs like diclofenac should be stopped as they can inhibit prostaglandins that maintain the glomerular filtration rate. Allopurinol may also need to be withdrawn to determine if it is contributing to the symptoms. Beta-lactam antibiotics like amoxicillin are another common cause and may need to be stopped. PPIs like omeprazole are a relatively rare but known trigger and should be withdrawn promptly. It is important to remember that steroids should not be suddenly stopped in most patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal
      28
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A first-year medical student is participating in a bedside teaching session and is...

    Correct

    • A first-year medical student is participating in a bedside teaching session and is instructed to listen to the patient's heart. The student places the stethoscope over the patient's fourth left intercostal space just lateral to the sternum.
      What heart valve's normal sounds would be best detected with the stethoscope positioned as described?

      Your Answer: Tricuspid

      Explanation:

      Auscultation of Heart Valves: Locations and Sounds

      The human heart has four valves that regulate blood flow. These valves can be heard through auscultation, a medical technique that involves listening to the sounds produced by the heart using a stethoscope. Here are the locations and sounds of each valve:

      Tricuspid Valve: This valve is located on the right side of the heart and can be heard at the left sternal border in the fourth intercostal space. The sound produced by this valve is a low-pitched, rumbling noise.

      Aortic Valve: The aortic valve is located on the left side of the heart and can be heard over the right sternal border at the second intercostal space. The sound produced by this valve is a high-pitched, clicking noise.

      Pulmonary Valve: This valve is located on the right side of the heart and can be heard over the left sternal border at the second intercostal space. The sound produced by this valve is a high-pitched, clicking noise.

      Thebesian Valve: The Thebesian valve is located in the coronary sinus and its closure cannot be auscultated.

      Mitral Valve: This valve is located on the left side of the heart and can be heard by listening at the apex, in the left mid-clavicular line in the fifth intercostal space. The sound produced by this valve is a low-pitched, rumbling noise.

      In summary, auscultation of heart valves is an important diagnostic tool that can help healthcare professionals identify potential heart problems. By knowing the locations and sounds of each valve, healthcare professionals can accurately diagnose and treat heart conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      11.7
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 30-year-old man is being evaluated by his physician for possible issues with...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man is being evaluated by his physician for possible issues with his hypothalamic-pituitary-thyroid axis. The following findings were recorded:
      Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) 5.5 mu/l (0.4-4.0 mu/l)
      fT3 3.5 pmol/l (3.0-9.0 pmol/l)
      What condition is indicated by these results?

      Your Answer: Primary hypothyroidism

      Correct Answer: Need more information

      Explanation:

      The Importance of fT4 in Thyroid Diagnosis

      When diagnosing thyroid conditions, the fT4 level is a crucial piece of information that cannot be overlooked. A patient with high TSH could be hyperthyroid, hypothyroid, or euthyroid with this TSH level, and the fT4 level is needed to determine the correct diagnosis. While a normal fT3 level can rule out hyperthyroidism, it cannot exclude the diagnosis if the fT4 level is high. Similarly, fT3 levels are of no use in diagnosing hypothyroidism, as they can be normal in a hypothyroid patient due to increased T4 to T3 conversion. Without the fT4 level, a diagnosis of primary or secondary hypothyroidism or a TSH-secreting tumor cannot be made. Therefore, it is crucial to obtain the fT4 level when evaluating thyroid function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      15.7
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 43-year-old man is suspected of having a renal calculus. He has some...

    Incorrect

    • A 43-year-old man is suspected of having a renal calculus. He has some investigations carried out by the general practitioner to monitor the effects of his medication. The following results are obtained:
      Plasma
      Na+ 138 mmol/l (135–145 mmol/l)
      K+ 3.1 mmol/l (3.5–5 mmol/l)
      24-hour urine sample:
      Ca2+ 40 mg/day (100–300 mg/day)
      Given the results above, which one of the following is the patient most likely taking?

      Your Answer: Furosemide

      Correct Answer: Bendroflumethiazide

      Explanation:

      Overview of Different Types of Diuretics and Their Effects on Electrolytes and Renal Calculi Formation

      Diuretics are medications that increase urine output and are commonly used to treat conditions such as hypertension and edema. However, different types of diuretics have varying effects on electrolyte balance and renal calculi formation.

      Thiazide diuretics, such as bendroflumethiazide, work in the distal tubule of the nephron and result in sodium and potassium loss in urine, with calcium resorption. This makes them useful in controlling chronic renal calculi formation. However, they can also cause hypokalemia and hypercalcemia.

      Loop diuretics, such as furosemide, work in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle and result in sodium, potassium, and calcium loss in urine. This can increase the risk of renal calculi formation.

      Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors, such as acetazolamide, work in the proximal convoluted tubule and produce alkaline urine rich in bicarbonate. Continued use can lead to metabolic acidosis and an increased risk of renal calculi formation.

      Aldosterone antagonists, such as spironolactone, work in the distal part of the distal tubule and collecting tubules and inhibit aldosterone-mediated sodium absorption and potassium excretion. This can result in hyperkalemia.

      Mannitol, a osmotic diuretic, may cause hyponatremia but does not usually affect plasma potassium or urinary calcium excretion.

      Overall, understanding the different types of diuretics and their effects on electrolyte balance and renal calculi formation is important in selecting the appropriate medication for a patient’s specific needs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal
      33.7
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  • Question 18 - A 25-year-old woman comes to the clinic seeking family planning options that won't...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman comes to the clinic seeking family planning options that won't affect her sexual activity and can be reversed if needed. She reports experiencing irregular, painful, and heavy menstrual periods, but is in good health otherwise. The healthcare provider recommends starting the COCP as it is safe for her and may alleviate her symptoms. What other health advantages could this medication offer?

      Your Answer: Decreased risk of cervical cancer

      Correct Answer: Decreased risk of endometrial cancer

      Explanation:

      The combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) is a highly effective birth control method that contains both oestrogen and progesterone. Studies have shown that the use of COCP can increase or decrease the risk of certain cancers. It has been found that the use of COCP can decrease the risk of endometrial cancer by suppressing the growth of endometrial cells. However, prolonged use of COCP has been associated with an increased risk of breast cancer, as synthetic hormones in the pill may stimulate the growth of breast cancer cells. Similarly, the use of COCP has been linked to an increased risk of cervical cancer, as it may make cervical cells more susceptible to human papillomavirus infections. It is important to note that COCP does not provide protection against sexually transmitted infections. Additionally, the use of oestrogen-containing contraception has been associated with an increased risk of strokes and ischaemic heart disease, particularly in patients with additional risk factors such as smoking and diabetes. The exact mechanism for this increased risk is not yet clear, but it may be due to increased blood pressure and/or hypercoagulation.

      Pros and Cons of the Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill

      The combined oral contraceptive pill is a highly effective method of birth control with a failure rate of less than 1 per 100 woman years. It does not interfere with sexual activity and its contraceptive effects are reversible upon stopping. Additionally, it can make periods regular, lighter, and less painful, and may reduce the risk of ovarian, endometrial, and colorectal cancer. It may also protect against pelvic inflammatory disease, ovarian cysts, benign breast disease, and acne vulgaris.

      However, there are also some disadvantages to the combined oral contraceptive pill. One of the main issues is that people may forget to take it, which can reduce its effectiveness. It also offers no protection against sexually transmitted infections. There is an increased risk of venous thromboembolic disease, breast and cervical cancer, stroke, and ischaemic heart disease, especially in smokers. Temporary side-effects such as headache, nausea, and breast tenderness may also be experienced.

      It is important to weigh the pros and cons of the combined oral contraceptive pill before deciding if it is the right method of birth control for you. While some users report weight gain while taking the pill, a Cochrane review did not support a causal relationship. Overall, the combined oral contraceptive pill can be an effective and convenient method of birth control, but it is important to discuss any concerns or potential risks with a healthcare provider.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      25.1
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  • Question 19 - A 65-year-old patient presents to their GP with a general feeling of unwellness....

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old patient presents to their GP with a general feeling of unwellness. The following blood results are obtained:

      - Adjusted calcium 2.1 mmol/L (2.2-2.4)
      - Phosphate 0.7 mmol/L (0.7-1.0)
      - PTH 15.21 pmol/L (1.05-6.83)
      - Urea 4.6 mmol/L (2.5-7.8)
      - Creatinine 81 µmol/L (60-120)
      - 25 OH Vit D 12 nmol/L (optimal >75)

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Vitamin D deficiency

      Explanation:

      Vitamin D Deficiency and its Effects on the Body

      Vitamin D deficiency is a common condition that can be caused by a lack of dietary vitamin D or insufficient exposure to sunlight. This deficiency is more common in certain populations, such as the elderly, institutionalized patients, and ethnic groups with dark skin tones. Additionally, reduced sunlight exposure due to cultural dress codes, poor intake of dairy foods, and malabsorption states affecting fat-soluble vitamins can also contribute to vitamin D deficiency.

      When the kidneys are functioning normally, they activate vitamin D through the 1-alpha hydroxylase mechanism. The actions of 1,25(OH)2 Vitamin D have various effects on the body. It has a direct effect on the gut, increasing the absorption of calcium and phosphate. It also has a direct effect on the kidney, inhibiting its own synthesis by reducing 1-alpha hydroxylase activity. Furthermore, it has a direct effect on the parathyroids, inhibiting PTH synthesis. At high concentrations, activated vitamin D increases osteoclastic activity, promoting bone resorption.

      In conclusion, the risk factors and effects of vitamin D deficiency is crucial for maintaining overall health and preventing related conditions. Adequate exposure to sunlight and a balanced diet can help prevent vitamin D deficiency.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      17.2
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  • Question 20 - An 80-year-old man arrives at the emergency department complaining of sudden pain in...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old man arrives at the emergency department complaining of sudden pain in his left leg that has developed over the past two hours. During examination, the leg appears pale and the patient is unable to move it. The leg is also tender to the touch. The left foot is absent of dorsalis pedis and posterior tibial pulses, while the right foot has a palpable dorsalis pedis pulse. The patient's medical history includes atrial fibrillation, and he mentions being less active in recent months. He has a family history of his father dying from a pulmonary embolus.

      What is the initial management that should be taken for this patient's most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Paracetamol, codeine, IV heparin, and vascular review

      Explanation:

      The appropriate management for acute limb ischaemia involves administering analgesia, IV heparin, and requesting a vascular review. Paracetamol and codeine should not be given as the patient’s condition requires urgent attention to prevent fatal consequences for the limb. IV heparin is necessary to prevent thrombus propagation, and the patient must be seen by the vascular team for potential definitive management, such as intra-arterial thrombolysis or surgical embolectomy. Paracetamol, iloprost, and atorvastatin are not suitable for this condition as they are used to manage Raynaud’s phenomenon. Requesting a vascular review alone is not enough as analgesia is also required to alleviate pain.

      Peripheral arterial disease can present in three main ways: intermittent claudication, critical limb ischaemia, and acute limb-threatening ischaemia. The latter is characterized by one or more of the 6 P’s: pale, pulseless, painful, paralysed, paraesthetic, and perishing with cold. Initial investigations include a handheld arterial Doppler examination and an ankle-brachial pressure index (ABI) if Doppler signals are present. It is important to determine whether the ischaemia is due to a thrombus or embolus, as this will guide management. Thrombus is suggested by pre-existing claudication with sudden deterioration, reduced or absent pulses in the contralateral limb, and evidence of widespread vascular disease. Embolus is suggested by a sudden onset of painful leg (<24 hours), no history of claudication, clinically obvious source of embolus, and no evidence of peripheral vascular disease. Initial management includes an ABC approach, analgesia, intravenous unfractionated heparin, and vascular review. Definitive management options include intra-arterial thrombolysis, surgical embolectomy, angioplasty, bypass surgery, or amputation for irreversible ischaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      17.3
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  • Question 21 - A 24-year-old woman is attending her first appointment with her GP. She reports...

    Correct

    • A 24-year-old woman is attending her first appointment with her GP. She reports feeling healthy and has no current health concerns. However, when asked about her family medical history, she mentions that her mother and grandfather have both been diagnosed with glaucoma.

      As her GP, what advice would you give her regarding glaucoma?

      Your Answer: He should get annual screening from age 40 years

      Explanation:

      Individuals who have a positive family history of glaucoma are recommended to undergo annual screening from the age of 40. This is because glaucoma has a strong genetic component, and having a first-degree relative with the condition increases one’s risk. The NHS offers free examinations for those who meet this criteria. It is important to note that glaucoma often has no symptoms in its early stages, making regular screening crucial in detecting and treating the condition before it causes significant visual impairment. Opticians can typically perform these screenings.

      Glaucoma is a condition where the optic nerve is damaged due to increased pressure in the eye. Primary open-angle glaucoma (POAG) is a type of glaucoma where the peripheral iris is clear of the trabecular meshwork, which is important in draining aqueous humour from the eye. POAG is more common in older individuals and those with a family history of the condition. It may present insidiously with symptoms such as peripheral visual field loss, decreased visual acuity, and optic disc cupping. Diagnosis is made through a series of investigations including automated perimetry, slit lamp examination, applanation tonometry, central corneal thickness measurement, and gonioscopy. It is important to assess the risk of future visual impairment based on factors such as IOP, CCT, family history, and life expectancy. Referral to an ophthalmologist is typically done through a GP.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      13.3
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  • Question 22 - A 65-year-old cancer survivor visits the GP complaining of back pain that began...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old cancer survivor visits the GP complaining of back pain that began after playing golf last week. The pain intensifies when lying flat on the back at night, and taking paracetamol has provided little relief. The patient denies experiencing any bowel or bladder issues. During the examination, the doctor notes that the back pain is most prominent in the thoracic area, but there are no signs of neurological impairment. What is the most appropriate course of action for this individual?

      Your Answer: Request spine X-ray

      Correct Answer: Refer urgently to hospital for further investigation

      Explanation:

      When a patient with a history of cancer complains of back pain, it is important to investigate further. Even if the pain seems to be caused by a simple musculoskeletal injury, there may be underlying issues related to the patient’s cancer history. In this case, the patient has three red flags that require urgent attention in a hospital setting: a history of cancer, thoracic back pain, and worsening pain when lying down (which could indicate pressure on a growth or tumor). The concern is that the back pain may be caused by spinal metastases, which can lead to cord compromise.

      Performing a digital rectal exam (DRE) is not necessary in this case, as the patient does not exhibit symptoms of cauda equina syndrome or cord compromise. DRE is typically used to assess for reduced anal tone and saddle anesthesia, which are signs of cauda equina syndrome. This condition can cause sciatic-like lower back and leg pain.

      While prescribing stronger pain medication may help alleviate the patient’s symptoms, the priority in managing this case is to rule out any serious underlying causes of the back pain. Physiotherapy may be helpful in managing musculoskeletal back pain, but it is important to first rule out the possibility of spinal metastases due to cancer recurrence.

      An X-ray of the spine may not be sensitive enough to detect small lytic lesions or assess for canal compromise. It is typically only considered if there has been recent significant trauma or suspicion of osteoporotic vertebral collapse. In cases where metastases are suspected, an MRI or CT scan is preferred.

      Lower back pain is a common issue that is often caused by muscular strain. However, it is important to be aware of potential underlying causes that may require specific treatment. Certain red flags should be considered, such as age under 20 or over 50, a history of cancer, night pain, trauma, or systemic illness. There are also specific causes of lower back pain that should be kept in mind. Facet joint pain may be acute or chronic, worse in the morning and on standing, and typically worsens with back extension. Spinal stenosis may cause leg pain, numbness, and weakness that is worse on walking and relieved by sitting or leaning forward. Ankylosing spondylitis is more common in young men and causes stiffness that is worse in the morning and improves with activity. Peripheral arterial disease may cause pain on walking and weak foot pulses. It is important to consider these potential causes and seek appropriate diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      30.7
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  • Question 23 - A 42-year-old male accountant suddenly collapsed at work, complaining of a severe headache...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old male accountant suddenly collapsed at work, complaining of a severe headache and nausea. He had been feeling fine in the days leading up to this incident. He had a medical history of hypertension and took regular medication for it. He did not smoke or drink alcohol.

      Upon arrival at the Emergency department, the patient had a Glasgow coma scale score of 12/15 (motor 6, vocal 3, eyes 3) and nuchal rigidity. His blood pressure was 145/85 mmHg, pulse was 90 beats per minute and regular, and temperature was 37.1°C. Heart sounds were normal and the chest appeared clear.

      During cranial nerve examination, a left dilated unreactive pupil with oculoparesis of the left medial rectus was observed. Fundoscopy showed no abnormalities. There were no obvious focal neurological signs on examining the peripheral nervous system, although both plantar responses were extensor.

      A lumbar puncture was performed, revealing straw-colored fluid with the following results:
      - Opening pressure: 15 cmH2O (normal range: 6-18)
      - CSF white cell count: 6 cells per ml (normal range: <5)
      - CSF red cell count: 1450 cells per ml (normal range: <5)
      - CSF protein: 0.46 g/L (normal range: 0.15-0.45)
      - Cytospin: Negative for cells

      What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Retro-orbital tumour with leptomeningeal spread

      Correct Answer: Posterior communicating artery aneurysm

      Explanation:

      The Oculomotor Nerve and its Effects on Eye Movement and Pupil Size

      The oculomotor nerve nucleus complex is located in the midbrain and is responsible for controlling the movement of several eye muscles. Motor neurons from this complex project to the ipsilateral medial rectus, inferior rectus, and inferior oblique muscles, as well as the contralateral superior rectus. Additionally, a central nucleus innervates the levator palpebrae superioris bilaterally, so damage to this area can result in bilateral ptosis.

      If the oculomotor nerve is damaged during its course, it can result in ipsilateral ptosis and restrict movement of the eye in certain directions. The effect on the pupil can vary depending on the location of the lesion. However, compression of the nerve, such as by a tumor or aneurysm, can result in an acute total third nerve palsy with a dilated unreactive pupil. This is because the parasympathetic nerve fibers that innervate the iris are carried on the outside of the nerve bundle, causing pupillary dilation early on.

      Interestingly, third nerve lesions caused by infarction in patients over 50 years old with diabetes or hypertension often spare the pupil. This means that the pupil remains reactive despite the damage to the nerve. the effects of oculomotor nerve damage can help diagnose and treat various eye conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      95.2
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  • Question 24 - A mother brings her 5-day old daughter to see you as she is...

    Correct

    • A mother brings her 5-day old daughter to see you as she is worried about her daughter's weight loss. The baby was born at term without any complications. She is exclusively breastfed and has had a normal amount of wet nappies today. The baby is not showing any signs of distress and all observations are within normal limits. However, her birth weight was 3200g and today she weighs 2900g. What would be the best course of action to manage this infant's weight loss?

      Your Answer: Referral to midwife-led breastfeeding clinic

      Explanation:

      If the baby loses more than 10% of his birth weight in the first week, immediate measures must be taken to ensure proper feeding.

      Breastfeeding Problems and Their Management

      Breastfeeding is a natural process, but it can come with its own set of challenges. Some of the minor problems that breastfeeding mothers may encounter include frequent feeding, nipple pain, blocked ducts, and nipple candidiasis. These issues can be managed by seeking advice on proper positioning, trying breast massage, and using appropriate medication.

      Mastitis is a more serious problem that affects around 1 in 10 breastfeeding women. It is characterized by symptoms such as fever, nipple fissure, and persistent pain. Treatment involves the use of antibiotics, such as flucloxacillin, for 10-14 days. Breastfeeding or expressing milk should continue during treatment to prevent complications such as breast abscess.

      Breast engorgement is another common problem that causes breast pain in breastfeeding women. It occurs in the first few days after birth and affects both breasts. Hand expression of milk can help relieve the discomfort of engorgement. Raynaud’s disease of the nipple is a less common problem that causes nipple pain and blanching. Treatment involves minimizing exposure to cold, using heat packs, and avoiding caffeine and smoking.

      If a breastfed baby loses more than 10% of their birth weight in the first week of life, it may be a sign of poor weight gain. This should prompt consideration of the above breastfeeding problems and an expert review of feeding. Monitoring of weight should continue until weight gain is satisfactory.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      16.1
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  • Question 25 - A 70-year-old woman with a long history of arthritis presents with worsening difficulty...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old woman with a long history of arthritis presents with worsening difficulty walking. Upon examination, she displays several neurological abnormalities in her lower limbs. However, her upper limbs and cranial nerves appear normal. An MRI scan reveals a ruptured intervertebral disc at the L3-4 level. The diagnosis is cauda equina syndrome.
      What is a characteristic of this syndrome?

      Your Answer: Urinary incontinence

      Explanation:

      Understanding Cauda Equina Syndrome: Symptoms and Signs

      Cauda equina syndrome is a condition that affects the bundle of nerves at the lower end of the spinal cord. It is important to recognize the symptoms and signs of this syndrome to ensure prompt diagnosis and treatment.

      One of the key features of cauda equina syndrome is bladder and bowel dysfunction due to autonomic nerve involvement. This can result in urinary incontinence, which is often one of the first symptoms to appear. However, it is important to note that a lesion at the L3-4 level would not be associated with upper motor neuron signs.

      Another potential symptom of cauda equina syndrome is bradycardia, which is a slow heart rate. This is typically only seen in cases where the spinal cord injury is located in the cervical or high thoracic region.

      While cauda equina syndrome can cause weakness and sensory loss in the lower limbs, it is important to note that this is due to a lower motor neuron lesion, not an upper motor neuron lesion. Similarly, a lesion in the upper limbs would have to be higher to cause neurological symptoms and signs.

      Finally, it is worth noting that a positive Babinski reflex is not typically associated with cauda equina syndrome. This reflex is a sign of an upper motor neuron lesion, which is not typically seen in this condition.

      Overall, recognizing the symptoms and signs of cauda equina syndrome is crucial for prompt diagnosis and treatment. If you or someone you know is experiencing bladder or bowel dysfunction, weakness or sensory loss in the lower limbs, or other potential symptoms of this condition, it is important to seek medical attention right away.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosurgery
      12
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  • Question 26 - A patient with persistent sinusitis is scheduled for endoscopic surgery to address any...

    Incorrect

    • A patient with persistent sinusitis is scheduled for endoscopic surgery to address any blockages in the drainage pathways and perform balloon catheter dilation of the paranasal sinus openings. During the procedure, the surgeon aims to access the middle meatus of the nasal cavity to insert a cannula into the ostia.
      Which of the paranasal sinuses empties into the sphenoethmoidal recess?

      Your Answer: Anterior ethmoidal sinus

      Correct Answer: Sphenoidal sinus

      Explanation:

      Sinus Drainage Pathways in the Nasal Cavity

      The nasal cavity contains several sinuses that drain into different areas of the cavity. The sphenoidal sinus drains into the sphenoethmoid recess, which is located posterior and superior to the superior concha. The anterior ethmoidal sinus drains into the middle meatus via the semilunar hiatus, as does the maxillary sinus. The frontal sinus, on the other hand, drains into the infundibulum of the middle meatus. Finally, the middle ethmoidal sinus drains to the ethmoid bulla of the middle meatus. Understanding these drainage pathways is important for diagnosing and treating sinus issues.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      24.9
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 56-year-old male visits his general practitioner complaining of a painless red left...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old male visits his general practitioner complaining of a painless red left eye accompanied by tearing for the past three days. He reports no changes in his vision. The patient has a medical history of rheumatoid arthritis. Upon examination, the doctor notes a red left eye but finds nothing else unusual. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Episcleritis

      Explanation:

      Episcleritis is the likely diagnosis for this patient’s painless red left eye of acute onset, which is associated with lacrimation. The absence of pain, visual impairment, or significant examination findings distinguishes it from scleritis. Episcleritis is an inflammation of the episclera that typically resolves within 2-3 weeks.

      Anterior uveitis is not the correct diagnosis as it presents with an acutely painful red eye associated with photophobia and reduced visual acuity, and requires urgent referral to ophthalmology.

      Bacterial conjunctivitis is also unlikely as it is characterized by a sore, red-eye with a purulent discharge, which is not present in this case.

      Scleritis is not the correct diagnosis as it presents with a subacute onset of red-eye associated with pain that is exacerbated by eye movement, and may also have scleral thinning.

      Understanding Scleritis: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Scleritis is a condition that involves inflammation of the sclera, which is the white outer layer of the eye. This condition is typically non-infectious and can cause a red, painful eye. The most common risk factor associated with scleritis is rheumatoid arthritis, but it can also be linked to other conditions such as systemic lupus erythematosus, sarcoidosis, and granulomatosis with polyangiitis.

      Symptoms of scleritis include a red eye, which is often accompanied by pain and discomfort. Patients may also experience watering and photophobia, as well as a gradual decrease in vision.

      Treatment for scleritis typically involves the use of oral NSAIDs as a first-line treatment. In more severe cases, oral glucocorticoids may be used. For resistant cases, immunosuppressive drugs may be necessary, especially if there is an underlying associated disease. With proper treatment, most patients with scleritis can achieve relief from their symptoms and prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      15.3
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  • Question 28 - Which statement about Giardia lamblia is accurate? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement about Giardia lamblia is accurate?

      Your Answer: Often causes a bloody diarrhoea

      Correct Answer: May cause intestinal malabsorption

      Explanation:

      Giardia Lamblia and its Treatment

      Giardia lamblia is a common cause of traveller’s diarrhoea and intestinal malabsorption, along with E. coli. The most effective treatment for this condition is metronidazole. However, detecting cysts and oocysts in stool microscopy is laborious and lacks sensitivity. The current test of choice is the detection of antigens on the surface of the organisms in the stool specimen. A single stool examination can identify about 50% of cases, while three stool samples can identify about 90%. It is important to note that blood loss is not a feature of this condition. HUS, on the other hand, may be caused by E. coli 0157 infection, but not giardiasis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      18.9
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  • Question 29 - A 23-year-old female patient visits her GP complaining of vision abnormalities. She reports...

    Correct

    • A 23-year-old female patient visits her GP complaining of vision abnormalities. She reports seeing a black shadow in her right eye's upper field of vision unilaterally. Additionally, she has been experiencing sudden flashing lights in spindly shapes for a few hours. Upon examination, there are no visible abnormalities in the eye, and both pupils are equal and reactive. The patient has no known medical conditions or allergies. What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Retinal detachment

      Explanation:

      The patient is experiencing painless vision loss with a peripheral curtain over her vision, spider web-like flashing lights, and requires an urgent referral to eye casualty. These symptoms are indicative of a retinal detachment, which is a serious condition that can lead to permanent vision loss if not treated promptly. Other potential causes of vision loss, such as ischemic optic neuropathy, vitreous hemorrhage, and acute optic neuritis, have been ruled out based on the patient’s symptoms and medical history.

      Sudden loss of vision can be a scary symptom for patients, as it may indicate a serious issue or only be temporary. Transient monocular visual loss (TMVL) is a term used to describe a sudden, brief loss of vision that lasts less than 24 hours. The most common causes of sudden, painless loss of vision include ischaemic/vascular issues (such as thrombosis, embolism, and temporal arthritis), vitreous haemorrhage, retinal detachment, and retinal migraine.

      Ischaemic/vascular issues, also known as ‘amaurosis fugax’, have a wide range of potential causes, including large artery disease, small artery occlusive disease, venous disease, and hypoperfusion. Altitudinal field defects are often seen, and ischaemic optic neuropathy can occur due to occlusion of the short posterior ciliary arteries. Central retinal vein occlusion is more common than arterial occlusion and can be caused by glaucoma, polycythaemia, or hypertension. Central retinal artery occlusion is typically caused by thromboembolism or arthritis and may present with an afferent pupillary defect and a ‘cherry red’ spot on a pale retina.

      Vitreous haemorrhage can be caused by diabetes, bleeding disorders, or anticoagulants and may present with sudden visual loss and dark spots. Retinal detachment may be preceded by flashes of light or floaters, which are also common in posterior vitreous detachment. Differentiating between posterior vitreous detachment, retinal detachment, and vitreous haemorrhage can be challenging, but each has distinct features such as photopsia and floaters for posterior vitreous detachment, a dense shadow that progresses towards central vision for retinal detachment, and large bleeds causing sudden visual loss for vitreous haemorrhage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      19.4
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  • Question 30 - A 10-year-old child presented with headaches, vomiting and a staggering gait. A cerebellar...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old child presented with headaches, vomiting and a staggering gait. A cerebellar neoplasm was identified.
      What is the most frequent cerebellar neoplasm in childhood?

      Your Answer: Oligodendroglioma

      Correct Answer: Astrocytoma

      Explanation:

      Overview of Common Brain Tumors in Children and Adults

      Brain tumors can occur in both children and adults, and they can be benign or malignant. Here are some of the most common types of brain tumors:

      Cerebellar Astrocytoma: This is a type of glioma that originates from astrocytes, a type of glial cell. It is most commonly found in children and can be benign or malignant. Symptoms include headache, vomiting, and gait disturbances. Diagnosis is made through imaging tests such as CT or MRI scans, and treatment may include radiotherapy, chemotherapy, and surgery.

      Glioblastoma Multiforme: This is the most common intracranial tumor in adults and is an aggressive astrocytoma with a poor prognosis. It is resistant to therapy, making treatment difficult.

      Ependymoma: This is a glial tumor that arises within the ventricular system or spinal cord. It is the second most common type of pediatric intracranial tumor and is most commonly found in the posterior intracranial fossa. Symptoms depend on the location of the tumor and may include headache, lethargy, nausea, vomiting, nerve palsies, and cerebellar symptoms. Treatment may include surgery and radiotherapy.

      Neuroblastoma: This is the most common extracranial tumor in children and is most commonly found in the adrenal glands. Symptoms may include abdominal pain, vomiting, and fatigue. Treatment may include surgery.

      Oligodendroglioma: This type of tumor arises in the cerebral white matter and is most commonly found in middle-aged patients. It is rare in children, accounting for only 6% of intracranial pediatric tumors.

      In conclusion, brain tumors can present with a variety of symptoms and require prompt diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      13.2
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Gastroenterology (4/5) 80%
Ophthalmology (4/5) 80%
Surgery (1/2) 50%
Endocrinology (3/4) 75%
Miscellaneous (0/1) 0%
Gynaecology (1/2) 50%
Ethics And Legal (1/1) 100%
Renal (0/2) 0%
Cardiology (1/1) 100%
Nephrology (1/1) 100%
Musculoskeletal (0/1) 0%
Neurology (0/1) 0%
Obstetrics (1/1) 100%
Neurosurgery (1/1) 100%
ENT (0/1) 0%
Paediatrics (0/1) 0%
Passmed