-
Question 1
Incorrect
-
A 50-year-old man visits your clinic. He has been suffering from chronic bronchitis for several years and was diagnosed with mesothelioma two months ago. He worked as an electrician for a long time and also worked as a dockworker. He expresses his dissatisfaction with the care he has received from you and the local hospital and wants to file a complaint. He also wants to review his medical records. You assure him that you will take care of it, but he insists on seeing the records right away. What is the legal timeframe for you to comply with his request?
Your Answer: You must give him a copy of the records within 28 days
Correct Answer: You must give him a copy of the records within 10 days
Explanation:Accessing Medical Records
Patients have the right to access their medical records, but it is important to obtain their consent before releasing any information to others, including their relatives. However, parents of young children are entitled to view their children’s records. For children over 16 and those under 16 who understand the significance of allowing others to see their records, their consent must be obtained before releasing any information.
The NHS Choices website provides guidance on how to request access to health records, and it is important to note that GDPR regulations require access to be granted within one calendar month. NHS England advises that access should be granted within 28 days. The British Medical Association also provides a helpful PDF guide on accessing medical records. By following these guidelines, patients can ensure that their medical information is kept confidential and that they have control over who can access their records.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Consulting In General Practice
-
-
Question 2
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old baker is seen complaining of wheezy episodes and a tight chest.
In the past he has used a friend's 'blue' inhaler which helped ease his symptoms. He feels that his symptoms are worse following a run of shifts in work and mentions that when he went on holiday in the summer for two weeks his chest improved significantly.
He has been in work today and on examination he has a mild diffuse wheeze audible throughout his chest.
What is the most appropriate next step?Your Answer: Spirometry
Correct Answer: Serial peak expiratory flow rate measurements
Explanation:Occupational Asthma and its Diagnosis
The history of a patient who works as a baker raises concerns about occupational asthma, which is often caused by sensitizing agents found in plant products. It is estimated that 10-15% of adults with new or recurrent asthma have an occupational element to their symptoms. If a patient reports that their symptoms improve when away from the workplace, occupational asthma should be strongly suspected.
To diagnose occupational asthma, the most useful approach is to have the patient perform serial peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) measurements. The Oxford Handbook of Respiratory Medicine recommends that the patient record a PEFR every two hours from waking to sleep for four weeks, with no changes to their treatment. The patient should document home, work, and holiday periods, and an expert should interpret the results.
If you suspect work-related asthma, it is important to arrange PEFR measurements and refer the patient to a chest physician or occupational physician for assessment and interpretation of the PEFR diary. Early diagnosis and management of occupational asthma can prevent long-term respiratory damage and improve the patient’s quality of life.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Population Health
-
-
Question 3
Incorrect
-
A 42-year-old woman presents to your clinic seeking advice on how to manage her urge incontinence.
What is the initial management strategy for women with urge or mixed urinary incontinence?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bladder training
Explanation:Treatment Options for Urinary Incontinence
Bladder training is a highly effective treatment for urge or mixed incontinence. It has fewer adverse effects and lower relapse rates compared to antimuscarinic drugs, which are the next line of treatment. On the other hand, pelvic floor muscle training is recommended as the first line of treatment for stress incontinence symptoms.
Duloxetine is only recommended for stress incontinence and may be offered as a second-line treatment for women who prefer pharmacological treatment over surgery. However, modification of fluid intake is not routinely recommended. It is only recommended if fluid intake is high or low and in cases of urinary incontinence or overactive bladder.
In summary, there are various treatment options available for urinary incontinence, depending on the type and severity of the symptoms. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional to determine the most appropriate treatment plan.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
-
-
Question 4
Incorrect
-
A 15-year-old girl comes to the clinic complaining of breast pain that has been ongoing for 4 months. She reports a dull ache in both breasts that occurs 1-2 weeks before her period. She has no other medical issues and is not sexually active.
Upon examination, there are no palpable breast lumps or skin changes.
What is the next best course of action in managing this patient's symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Advice on a supportive bra and simple analgesia
Explanation:The initial treatment for cyclical mastalgia is a supportive bra and basic pain relief.
Cyclical breast pain is a common condition that affects up to two-thirds of women, typically beginning two weeks before their menstrual cycle. Breast pain, in the absence of other breast cancer symptoms such as a lump or changes in the nipple or skin, is not linked to breast cancer. Referral to a breast specialist may be considered if the pain is severe enough to impact quality of life or sleep and doesn’t respond to first-line treatment after three months, but there is no need for referral in this case.
Antibiotics are not recommended for the treatment of cyclical breast pain, as there is no evidence to support their use.
According to current NICE CKS guidelines, the combined oral contraceptive pill or progesterone-only pill should not be used to treat cyclical breast pain, as there is limited evidence of their effectiveness compared to a placebo.
The first-line approach to managing cyclical breast pain involves advising patients to wear a supportive bra and take basic pain relief. This is based on expert consensus, which suggests that most cases of cyclical breast pain can be managed conservatively with a watchful-waiting approach, as long as malignancy has been ruled out as a cause.
Cyclical mastalgia is a common cause of breast pain in younger females. It varies in intensity according to the phase of the menstrual cycle and is not usually associated with point tenderness of the chest wall. The underlying cause is difficult to identify, but focal lesions such as cysts may be treated to provide symptomatic relief. Women should be advised to wear a supportive bra and conservative treatments such as standard oral and topical analgesia may be used. Flaxseed oil and evening primrose oil are sometimes used, but neither are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. If the pain persists after 3 months and affects the quality of life or sleep, referral should be considered. Hormonal agents such as bromocriptine and danazol may be more effective, but many women discontinue these therapies due to adverse effects.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
-
-
Question 5
Incorrect
-
A 78-year-old man is being evaluated for his hypertension. He has been taking bendroflumethiazide 2.5mg od for the past 8 years. His current blood pressure is 152/96 mmHg. Upon clinical examination, no significant findings were noted. An echocardiogram from three months ago revealed an ejection fraction of 40% and mild left ventricular hypertrophy. What is the best course of action for managing this patient's condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Add ramipril 1.25 mg od
Explanation:The echocardiogram indicates that there is some level of left ventricular dysfunction. To manage this condition, it is crucial to initiate treatment with an ACE inhibitor. This medication will not only regulate the patient’s blood pressure but also decelerate the decline in her heart’s performance. Additionally, a beta-blocker is recommended as there is evidence of heart failure.
Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.
Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.
Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.
The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.
If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
-
-
Question 6
Incorrect
-
A 26-year-old woman attends her medication review appointment at the clinic. She is currently prescribed sodium valproate for her epilepsy and reports no issues with her medication. She mentions that she is not sexually active but has the progesterone implant (Nexplanon) which is due to expire in 2 years. As per the current guidelines of the valproate pregnancy prevention program, what additional steps should be taken?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ensure the patient has an annual acknowledgement of risk form from her epilepsy specialist for the current year
Explanation:Patients taking sodium valproate must undergo an Annual Acknowledgement of Risk form with a specialist once a year as part of the valproate pregnancy prevention programme. This is crucial as unplanned pregnancies can result in birth defects. To ensure compliance with the programme, the general practitioner should confirm that the patient is using highly effective contraception, have an up-to-date acknowledgement of risk form signed by the specialist and patient, and refer the patient back to the specialist for an annual review. In the event of an unplanned or planned pregnancy, the patient should be urgently referred to the specialist. Highly effective contraception methods include LARC, Cu-IUD, LNG-IUS, IMP, and sterilisation. The progesterone-only implant doesn’t interfere with sodium valproate. Even if the patient is not sexually active, an annual acknowledgement of risk form and highly effective contraception are still required. The form must be signed by the specialist and patient, not the general practitioner or pharmacist.
Sodium Valproate: Uses and Adverse Effects
Sodium valproate is a medication commonly used to manage epilepsy, particularly for generalised seizures. Its mechanism of action involves increasing the activity of GABA in the brain. However, the use of sodium valproate during pregnancy is strongly discouraged due to its teratogenic effects, which can lead to neural tube defects and neurodevelopmental delays in children. Women of childbearing age should only use this medication if it is absolutely necessary and under the guidance of a specialist neurological or psychiatric advisor.
Aside from its teratogenic effects, sodium valproate can also inhibit P450 enzymes, leading to potential drug interactions. It may cause gastrointestinal symptoms such as nausea, as well as weight gain and increased appetite. Alopecia is also a possible side effect, with regrowth often being curly. Ataxia, tremors, and hepatotoxicity are other potential adverse effects. Pancreatitis, thrombocytopaenia, hyponatraemia, and hyperammonemic encephalopathy are also possible, with the latter being treated with L-carnitine.
In summary, while sodium valproate is an effective medication for managing epilepsy, its use during pregnancy is strongly discouraged due to its teratogenic effects. Women of childbearing age should only use this medication if it is absolutely necessary and under the guidance of a specialist neurological or psychiatric advisor. Additionally, potential adverse effects such as gastrointestinal symptoms, weight gain, alopecia, and neurological symptoms should be monitored closely.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
-
-
Question 7
Incorrect
-
The cardiology department is attempting to establish the most effective medication for treating hypertension in patients over the age of 60. They conduct a study to compare the rate of blood pressure reduction in a group of patients (Group A) given medication A versus a group (Group B) given medication B. The systolic blood pressure readings of patients in both groups are recorded.
What is the most appropriate statistical test to determine if there is a significant difference in the effectiveness of the two medications?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chi-squared test
Explanation:The appropriate statistical test to compare the percentage of wound infections developing in groups A and B is the Chi-squared test. This test is used to compare proportions or percentages and is non-parametric. The Mann-Whitney U test, Student’s t-test (paired and unpaired), and Wilcoxon signed-rank test are not appropriate for this scenario as they either measure different types of data or require normally distributed data.
Types of Significance Tests
Significance tests are used to determine whether the results of a study are statistically significant or simply due to chance. The type of significance test used depends on the type of data being analyzed. Parametric tests are used for data that can be measured and are usually normally distributed, while non-parametric tests are used for data that cannot be measured in this way.
Parametric tests include the Student’s t-test, which can be paired or unpaired, and Pearson’s product-moment coefficient, which is used for correlation analysis. Non-parametric tests include the Mann-Whitney U test, which compares ordinal, interval, or ratio scales of unpaired data, and the Wilcoxon signed-rank test, which compares two sets of observations on a single sample. The chi-squared test is used to compare proportions or percentages, while Spearman and Kendall rank are used for correlation analysis.
It is important to choose the appropriate significance test for the type of data being analyzed in order to obtain accurate and reliable results. By understanding the different types of significance tests available, researchers can make informed decisions about which test to use for their particular study.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
-
-
Question 8
Incorrect
-
A 30-year-old woman has a history of recurrent moderately severe depression. She has recently started citalopram and has found it effective. She prefers drug treatment to cognitive behavioural therapy, which she has had in the past. However, she has just become pregnant and is concerned about the risks of fetal malformation due to citalopram.
Select from this list the option that seems most appropriate in these circumstances.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Continue citalopram
Explanation:Managing Depression During Pregnancy: Considerations for Antidepressant Use
Depression affects up to 20% of pregnant women and can have negative impacts on both maternal and fetal health. While concerns about potential harm to the developing fetus may lead some women to discontinue antidepressant medication, doing so can increase the risk of relapse for those with a history of recurrent depression. Additionally, depressed women may engage in behaviors that contribute to poorer obstetric and neonatal outcomes.
Decisions about treating depression during pregnancy should be made on an individual basis, taking into account the severity of depression, past history of affective disorder, and maternal preference. While there are no antidepressants licensed for use during pregnancy, selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are commonly prescribed. While the risks are thought to be low, some severe birth defects have been reported. Tricyclics are considered safer, but carry a greater risk of overdose.
In cases where a woman wishes to discontinue antidepressant medication, a gradual reduction in dose is recommended. Alternative treatments, such as psychological therapy, may also be considered. St. John’s wort should be avoided due to insufficient data on its safety in pregnancy. Ultimately, the decision to continue or discontinue antidepressant medication during pregnancy should be made in consultation with a healthcare provider.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
-
-
Question 9
Incorrect
-
A 38-year-old woman comes to the General Practitioner for an urgent appointment. She has a diffuse headache, which she describes as severe. The headache is acute, having developed within the last three hours. She lost consciousness for a brief period. There is no significant past medical history.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Subarachnoid haemorrhage
Explanation:When a patient presents with a sudden, severe headache, subarachnoid haemorrhage should be considered as a possible cause, with or without loss of consciousness. Menigeal irritation may take some time to appear. In cases of epilepsy, postictal headaches are common, lasting between six and 24 hours. Cluster headaches are characterized by rapid onset and unilateral pain around the eye, temple or forehead, often accompanied by lacrimation or rhinorrhoea. Migraines are also unilateral and may be preceded by an aura, with associated nausea and vomiting. TIAs usually present with focal neurological symptoms, rather than headaches, and loss of consciousness is not typical.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 10
Incorrect
-
A 5-year-old girl is brought to the GP clinic by her mother. She is on day 7 post-tonsillectomy and was recovering well until this morning when her mother noticed a small amount of blood on her pillow and fresh red blood in her mouth. Upon examination, the girl appears to be in good health, but there is a blood clot in her right tonsillar fossa with no active bleeding. Her vital signs are as follows:
Systolic blood pressure: 100 mmHg (normal range: 75-110)
Pulse: 96 bpm (normal range: 80-150)
Temperature: 36.8ºC (normal range: 35.5-37.5)
Respiratory rate: 24/min (normal range: 17-30)
What is the appropriate course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Immediate referral to ENT
Explanation:ENT assessment is necessary for all cases of post-tonsillectomy haemorrhage.
Any haemorrhage occurring more than 24 hours after a tonsillectomy is considered a secondary haemorrhage and can be life-threatening. Therefore, it is crucial that all patients are managed by ENT in a hospital setting. Children may have difficulty quantifying blood loss as they may swallow the blood, making bleeding less noticeable.
It is incorrect to review the patient in 24 hours as this is an emergency situation. Similarly, reassuring the patient or referring them to paediatrics is not appropriate. Although tranexamic acid may be helpful, hospital admission is necessary for this surgical emergency and should be managed by ENT.
Complications after Tonsillectomy
Tonsillectomy is a common surgical procedure that involves the removal of the tonsils. However, like any surgery, it carries some risks and potential complications. One of the most common complications is pain, which can last for up to six days after the procedure.
Another complication that can occur after tonsillectomy is haemorrhage, or bleeding. There are two types of haemorrhage that can occur: primary and secondary. Primary haemorrhage is the most common and occurs within the first 6-8 hours after surgery. It requires immediate medical attention and may require a return to the operating room.
Secondary haemorrhage, on the other hand, occurs between 5 and 10 days after surgery and is often associated with a wound infection. It is less common than primary haemorrhage, occurring in only 1-2% of all tonsillectomies. Treatment for secondary haemorrhage usually involves admission to the hospital and antibiotics, but severe bleeding may require surgery.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
-
-
Question 11
Incorrect
-
A 10-year-old boy is brought in by his mother because of dryness and irritation around the corners of his mouth. He doesn't tend to drink much and licks his lips because they're so dry. On examination he has evidence of angular stomatitis.
How would you treat his angular stomatitis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prescribe aciclovir cream for 1 week
Explanation:Angular Stomatitis and Candida Infection
Angular stomatitis is a common condition that is often caused by dryness, chapping, and licking of the lips. It can also be caused by salivation and drooling, which can lead to irritation. Candida infection is a common cause of angular stomatitis, although secondary infection with staphylococcal aureus should also be considered.
When it comes to treatment, the clinical scenario in this case is more in keeping with candida infection. Miconazole cream is usually the first line of treatment for candida infection, while mild topical corticosteroids can be used to treat dermatitis. If the condition is unresponsive to miconazole alone, hydrocortisone can be added.
It’s important to note that contact dermatitis is often a differential diagnosis for angular stomatitis. Aciclovir cream is used for herpes simplex lesions, while fusidic acid can be used to treat small areas of staphylococcal infection. Hydromol is a simple emollient and will not treat candida infections.
In some cases, no treatment is needed, and angular cheilitis resolves by itself. However, most cases are accompanied by superimposed candida infection.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
-
-
Question 12
Incorrect
-
A 31-year-old woman attends with her partner. Unfortunately the couple suffered a cot death. They would like to try for another child and would like to discuss some of the features of cot death with you. Both smoke heavily.
Which one of the following is true with respect to the risk of cot death in future offspring?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Risk is reduced if parents give up smoking
Explanation:Sudden Unexpected Death in Infancy (SUDI)
Sudden unexpected death in infancy (SUDI), commonly known as cot death, is a condition where infants die without any apparent cause found in their history, clinical examination, or post mortem investigations. This condition is most common in infants under six months of age, with the peak incidence occurring in the second month. SUDI is the leading cause of death in this age group, and premature and low birth weight babies, as well as twins, are at higher risk.
Boys are more susceptible to SUDI than girls, and infants born to young mothers, in low socio-economic class, and households with smokers are also at higher risk. Smoking is a dose-related risk factor. A minor preceding illness in the previous day or so is often reported before the occurrence of SUDI.
Sleeping on their fronts is another factor that increases the risk of SUDI, which is why the back to sleep campaign has significantly reduced the incidence of SUDI. Co-sleeping with parents, especially in families with a history of drug or alcohol misuse, is also a risk factor for SUDI.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Population Health
-
-
Question 13
Incorrect
-
A 42-year-old woman visits her GP with concerns about her bowel habits and a family history of colorectal cancer. She has a known diagnosis of irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) and has previously been investigated for changeable bowel symptoms. Her father, who recently underwent surgery for colon cancer, suggested she get her carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) levels checked. After undergoing tests, she is diagnosed with bowel cancer. What is the most appropriate use of monitoring CEA levels in managing her condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: For postoperative follow-up
Explanation:The Role of Carcinoembryonic Antigen (CEA) in Cancer Management
Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) is a glycoprotein that is primarily produced by cells in the gastrointestinal tract during embryonic development. While its levels are low in adults, CEA is a useful tumour marker for colorectal cancers. In this article, we explore the different ways in which CEA is used in cancer management.
Postoperative Follow-up
CEA levels are expected to fall to normal following successful removal of colorectal cancer. A rising CEA level thereafter may indicate possible progression or recurrence of the cancer. However, temporary rises can occur during chemotherapy and radiotherapy, so changes during treatment may not necessarily indicate cancer progression.Staging
CEA levels are not used in staging as there are many variables that can affect the levels. More reliable investigations are used for staging.Indicator for Operability
While a CEA level at diagnosis higher than 100 ng/ml usually indicates metastatic disease, other investigations are used in the initial assessment of a newly diagnosed cancer to determine suitability for operative management.Screening Method
CEA is not sensitive or specific enough to use for diagnosis or screening. Cancers of the pancreas, stomach, breast, lung, medullary carcinoma of the thyroid, and ovarian cancer may also elevate CEA. Some non-malignant conditions such as cirrhosis, pancreatitis, and inflammatory bowel disease also cause blood levels to rise.Detection of Early Stage
CEA is not used for the diagnosis of colorectal cancers as it is not sufficiently sensitive or specific. Early tumours may not cause significant blood elevations, nor may some advanced tumours. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
-
-
Question 14
Incorrect
-
A 28-year-old woman is seen at home 12 weeks after a successful first pregnancy. She is tearful, has lost her appetite and is very anxious about her infant’s health. There are no features of delirium. She has a history of illicit drug use but denies current use. Her older brother has depression. There are no features to suggest infection and there are no focal neurological signs.
Select from the list the single most likely diagnosis.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: postpartum depression
Explanation:Understanding Postpartum Mental Health: Depression, Psychosis, and Maternity Blues
Postpartum mental health can be a challenging experience for new mothers. Within the first year of pregnancy, postpartum depression can occur, which is similar to major depression at other times of life. However, postpartum psychosis is a severe mental illness that usually occurs suddenly within the first two weeks after delivery and is often associated with confusion and disorientation. While delusions of something being wrong with the baby are relatively common in postpartum psychosis, depression is also associated with anxiety about the baby.
On the other hand, maternity blues is relatively common and occurs within a few days of delivery. It consists of irritability and tearfulness without features of a major depressive episode. It is essential to understand the differences between these conditions to provide appropriate support and treatment for new mothers.
It is worth noting that there is no mention of schizophrenia in this woman’s history or any suggestion of current illicit drug use. By understanding the different types of postpartum mental health conditions, we can better support new mothers and ensure they receive the care they need.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
-
-
Question 15
Incorrect
-
A 4-year-old patient presents with diarrhoea and is examined to reveal dry mucous membranes. The caregiver reports a decrease in wet nappies. The medical team decides to administer oral rehydration therapy. What is the recommended amount to be given over a 4-hour period, in addition to the usual maintenance fluids?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 50 ml/kg
Explanation:Managing Diarrhoea and Vomiting in Children
Diarrhoea and vomiting are common in young children, with rotavirus being the most common cause of gastroenteritis in the UK. The 2009 NICE guidelines provide recommendations for managing these symptoms in children. Diarrhoea typically lasts for 5-7 days and stops within 2 weeks, while vomiting usually lasts for 1-2 days and stops within 3 days. When assessing hydration status, NICE suggests using normal, dehydrated, or shocked categories instead of the traditional mild, moderate, or severe categories.
Children younger than 1 year, especially those younger than 6 months, infants who were of low birth weight, and those who have passed six or more diarrhoeal stools in the past 24 hours or vomited three times or more in the past 24 hours are at an increased risk of dehydration. Infants who have stopped breastfeeding during the illness and children with signs of malnutrition are also at risk. Features suggestive of hypernatraemic dehydration include jittery movements, increased muscle tone, hyperreflexia, convulsions, and drowsiness or coma.
If clinical shock is suspected, children should be admitted for intravenous rehydration. For children with no evidence of dehydration, continue breastfeeding and other milk feeds, encourage fluid intake, and discourage fruit juices and carbonated drinks. If dehydration is suspected, give 50 ml/kg low osmolarity oral rehydration solution (ORS) solution over 4 hours, plus ORS solution for maintenance, often and in small amounts. It is also important to continue breastfeeding and consider supplementing with usual fluids (including milk feeds or water, but not fruit juices or carbonated drinks). Stool culture should be done in certain situations, such as when septicaemia is suspected or there is blood and/or mucous in the stool, or when the child is immunocompromised.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
-
-
Question 16
Incorrect
-
A 32-year-old woman presents with complaints of constant fatigue for the past few months. She reports having missed her period for six months and experiences dizziness in the morning. Addison's disease is being considered as a possible diagnosis.
Which of the following clinical manifestations is the most specific for Addison's disease?
Choose ONE answer only.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pigmentation of the palms
Explanation:Symptoms of Hypoadrenalism and Hypopituitarism
Hypoadrenalism, also known as Addison’s disease, can be caused by autoimmune destruction of the adrenal cortex, granulomatous disorders, tuberculosis, tumours, or infections. Glucocorticoid deficiency, commonly seen in Addison’s disease, can cause pigmentation of the palms due to elevated levels of melanocyte-stimulating hormone (MSH) and adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH).
Hypopituitarism can cause a variety of symptoms, including pallor due to normochromic, normocytic anaemia, postural hypotension related to glucocorticoid deficiency, and visual-field defects from pressure on the optic nerve caused by a pituitary tumour. Lack of body hair and amenorrhoea are also features of hypogonadism in hypopituitarism.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
-
-
Question 17
Incorrect
-
A 38-year-old male is found to have a Hb of 17.8 g/dL. What is the least probable reason for this finding?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Haemochromatosis
Explanation:Polycythaemia is a condition that can be classified as relative, primary (polycythaemia rubra vera), or secondary. Relative polycythaemia can be caused by dehydration or stress, such as in Gaisbock syndrome. Primary polycythaemia rubra vera is a rare blood disorder that causes the bone marrow to produce too many red blood cells. Secondary polycythaemia can be caused by conditions such as COPD, altitude, obstructive sleep apnoea, or excessive erythropoietin production due to certain tumors or growths. To distinguish between true polycythaemia and relative polycythaemia, red cell mass studies may be used. In true polycythaemia, the total red cell mass in males is greater than 35 ml/kg and in women is greater than 32 ml/kg. Uterine fibroids may also cause polycythaemia indirectly by causing menorrhagia, but this is rarely a clinical problem.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
-
-
Question 18
Incorrect
-
A 65-year-old man has been diagnosed with primary open angle glaucoma. He inquires about the potential impact on his vision if the condition is left untreated.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Impairs peripheral visual fields
Explanation:The main impact of glaucoma is on the patient’s visual field, as it causes an optic neuropathy. This typically starts with peripheral vision loss and can progress to tunnel vision if left untreated. While visual acuity may also be affected, it is not as commonly impacted as the visual field.
Glaucoma is a condition where the optic nerve is damaged due to increased intraocular pressure (IOP). Primary open-angle glaucoma (POAG) is a type of glaucoma where the peripheral iris doesn’t cover the trabecular meshwork, which is responsible for draining aqueous humour from the eye. POAG is more common in older individuals, with up to 10% of those over 80 years of age affected. Genetics, Afro-Caribbean ethnicity, myopia, hypertension, diabetes mellitus, and corticosteroid use are all risk factors for POAG. POAG may present with peripheral visual field loss, decreased visual acuity, and optic disc cupping, which can be detected during routine optometry appointments.
Fundoscopy signs of POAG include optic disc cupping, optic disc pallor, bayonetting of vessels, and cup notching. Optic disc cupping occurs when the cup-to-disc ratio is greater than 0.7, indicating a loss of disc substance. Optic disc pallor indicates optic atrophy, while bayonetting of vessels occurs when vessels have breaks as they disappear into the deep cup and reappear at the base. Cup notching usually occurs inferiorly where vessels enter the disc, and disc haemorrhages may also be present.
The diagnosis of POAG is made through a series of investigations, including automated perimetry to assess visual field, slit lamp examination with pupil dilatation to assess optic nerve and fundus for a baseline, applanation tonometry to measure IOP, central corneal thickness measurement, and gonioscopy to assess peripheral anterior chamber configuration and depth. The risk of future visual impairment is assessed using risk factors such as IOP, central corneal thickness (CCT), family history, and life expectancy. If POAG is suspected, referral to an ophthalmologist is necessary for further evaluation and management.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
-
-
Question 19
Incorrect
-
A 26-year-old Vietnamese woman has been feeling unwell for a few days with a sore throat. She visits her general practitioner who conducts a full blood count and finds the following results:
Haemoglobin
125 g/l (normal 115–155 g/l)
White blood cell count (WCC)
19 × 109/l (normal 4.0–11.0 × 109/l)
Neutrophil
14 × 109/l (normal 2.5–7.5 × 109/l)
Platelets
498 × 109/l (normal 150–400 × 109/l)
What is the most probable diagnosis? Choose ONE option only.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acute bacterial infection
Explanation:Understanding Neutrophilia: Causes and Differential Diagnosis
Neutrophilia, an increase in absolute neutrophil count, can be acute or chronic and is often seen as an accompanying feature of various medical conditions. Acute bacterial infections, inflammatory response to shock, gout, vasculitis, and malignancies are some of the common causes of neutrophilia. Additionally, certain drugs, activities, pregnancy, myeloproliferative states, and splenectomy can also increase the neutrophil count.
However, it is important to note that neutrophilia alone cannot provide a definitive diagnosis. A thorough evaluation of the patient’s medical history, symptoms, and other laboratory tests is necessary to determine the underlying cause. For instance, in the case of a sore throat, acute bacterial infection is a likely cause of neutrophilia.
On the other hand, conditions such as cytomegalovirus infection, chronic myeloid leukaemia, pregnancy, and tuberculosis are unlikely to cause neutrophilia as a primary symptom. Instead, they may present with other characteristic features such as atypical lymphocytosis, raised WCC with granulocytes, elevated IgM antibodies, or normocytic anaemia and lymphopenia.
In summary, understanding the various causes and differential diagnosis of neutrophilia is crucial in providing accurate and timely medical care to patients.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
-
-
Question 20
Incorrect
-
A five-year-old girl is brought to the General Practitioner Surgery by her mother who is 32-years-old for a routine check. She was born at 37 weeks’ gestation and weighed 1.7 kg.
On examination, the child’s head circumference is on the 3rd centile, there is a cleft palate, low-set ears and rocker-bottom feet.
Given the likely diagnosis, what is the likelihood of the mother having another child with the same condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 1%
Explanation:Understanding the Probability of Inheriting Genetic Conditions
Trisomy 18, also known as Edwards syndrome, is a genetic condition that is usually inherited randomly and has a prevalence of around 1 in 6000 births in the UK. The condition is characterized by various physical abnormalities, including microcephaly, micrognathia, cleft palate, low-set, deformed ears, and rocker-bottom feet. The risk of trisomy 18 increases with maternal age, with the biggest increase after age 35.
If a couple has had one affected pregnancy, they are slightly more likely to have another affected pregnancy than the general population. In such cases, screening for a balanced translocation is recommended, which would further increase the risk.
The probability of inheriting a genetic condition depends on the type of inheritance pattern. For autosomal-recessive conditions, such as cystic fibrosis, if both parents are affected, there is a 25% chance of having an affected child. For autosomal-dominant conditions, such as Huntington’s disease, there is a 50% chance of inheriting the faulty gene, which will always be expressed if present.
However, in pre-implantation screening of embryos, genetic certainty of a condition being either present or absent can be achieved, resulting in a probability of 100%. It is important to understand the inheritance pattern and seek genetic counseling to assess the risk of passing on genetic conditions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
-
-
Question 21
Incorrect
-
The brother of a 35-year-old woman visits your clinic with concerns about his sister's behavior. He reports that his sister has always had an inflated sense of self-importance and often expresses delusional thoughts about her potential for success as a lawyer, believing she is capable of becoming a partner at a top law firm. She doesn't seem to care about the impact her actions have on others and appears pleased when she talks about others' failures. He recalls that she behaved similarly when they were growing up and was unsympathetic towards him when he struggled with his studies due to a learning disability.
Which personality disorder is being described in this scenario?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Narcissistic personality disorder
Explanation:Individuals with narcissistic personalities exhibit a lack of empathy, a sense of entitlement, and exploit others to fulfill their own needs. This behavior is indicative of narcissistic personality disorder. While the individual’s brother may not meet the criteria for a personality disorder, his behavior aligns with many of the features of narcissistic behavior. Narcissistic individuals have an inflated sense of self-importance and believe they possess unlimited abilities to succeed, become powerful, or appear attractive. They lack empathy and are willing to take advantage of others to achieve their own goals. These symptoms often manifest in childhood and persist into adulthood.
Antisocial personality disorder also involves a lack of empathy and guilt, as well as deceitful behavior to achieve personal goals. However, individuals with this disorder often disregard rules and laws, leading to criminal behavior and a propensity for violence. Therefore, the individual in the scenario is more likely to have narcissistic personality disorder.
Schizoid personality disorder is characterized by a disinterest in sexual relationships, a preference for solitude, and a lack of close friendships. These individuals are indifferent to praise and recognition, making it an unlikely diagnosis for the individual’s brother.
Schizotypal personality disorder involves eccentric beliefs and behaviors, difficulty forming friendships, and paranoid or suspicious thoughts. This disorder doesn’t typically involve a lack of empathy or a sense of entitlement.
Borderline personality disorder is characterized by emotional instability, impulsive behavior, feelings of emptiness, and recurrent self-harm attempts.
Personality disorders are a set of maladaptive personality traits that interfere with normal functioning in life. They are categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes odd or eccentric disorders such as paranoid, schizoid, and schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes dramatic, emotional, or erratic disorders such as antisocial, borderline, histrionic, and narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes anxious and fearful disorders such as obsessive-compulsive, avoidant, and dependent. These disorders affect around 1 in 20 people and can be difficult to treat. However, psychological therapies such as dialectical behaviour therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions have been shown to help patients.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
-
-
Question 22
Incorrect
-
A 63-year-old man initially reported experiencing itching on his back. Subsequently, he began to experience abdominal discomfort, loss of appetite, weight loss, and fatigue. An x-ray was performed, which showed no abnormalities. What would be the gold standard management option?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urgent CT scan
Explanation:Urgent CT Scan for Pancreatic Cancer in Elderly Patients with Red Flag Symptoms
An urgent direct access CT scan is recommended within two weeks for patients aged 60 and over who have experienced weight loss and any of the following symptoms: diarrhoea, back pain, abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, constipation, or new-onset diabetes. CT scan is preferred over ultrasound unless CT is not available. Endoscopy is not necessary as the symptoms do not suggest stomach or oesophageal cancer, which would present with more dysphagia and dyspepsia. While a gastroenterology opinion may be required, it should not be requested routinely as the patient’s red flag symptoms warrant a more urgent approach. Although the patient is currently medically stable, an immediate referral to the medical assessment unit is not necessary.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
-
-
Question 23
Incorrect
-
A 43-year-old woman comes in with a 2-month history of significant fatigue. She had initial blood tests for 'always feeling tired' 3 weeks ago, which showed no abnormalities. Additionally, she reports experiencing tingling sensations in both legs for the past 10 days.
However, what brought her in today was an exacerbation of right-sided eye pain when moving her eye and some loss of color vision.
What is the probable underlying diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Multiple sclerosis
Explanation:Lethargy is a common early symptom of multiple sclerosis, an autoimmune condition that affects the myelin in the brain and spinal cord. The patient’s description of symptoms of optic neuritis is also typical of multiple sclerosis. Lyme disease can sometimes mimic multiple sclerosis, but there is no history of a tick bite. Myasthenia gravis, which causes weakness and fatigue, is not likely to cause paresthesia or optic neuritis. Sarcoidosis, a systemic inflammatory disease that often presents with fatigue, is a potential option, but multiple sclerosis is more likely to cause optic neuritis.
Features of Multiple Sclerosis
Multiple sclerosis (MS) is a condition that can present with nonspecific features, such as significant lethargy in around 75% of patients. Diagnosis is based on two or more relapses and either objective clinical evidence of two or more lesions or objective clinical evidence of one lesion with reasonable historical evidence of a previous relapse.
MS can affect various parts of the body, leading to different symptoms. Visual symptoms include optic neuritis, optic atrophy, Uhthoff’s phenomenon, and internuclear ophthalmoplegia. Sensory symptoms may include pins and needles, numbness, trigeminal neuralgia, and Lhermitte’s syndrome. Motor symptoms may include spastic weakness, which is most commonly seen in the legs. Cerebellar symptoms may include ataxia and tremor. Other symptoms may include urinary incontinence, sexual dysfunction, and intellectual deterioration.
It is important to note that MS symptoms can vary greatly between individuals and may change over time. Therefore, it is crucial for patients to work closely with their healthcare providers to manage their symptoms and receive appropriate treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
-
-
Question 24
Incorrect
-
A 65-year-old man has just been released from the hospital following a heart attack. He has a history of depression and is currently experiencing low mood. What is the antidepressant with the most safety evidence for patients with recent unstable angina or myocardial infarction?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Citalopram
Explanation:Sertraline as the Treatment of Choice for CHD Patients
NICE guidance recommends sertraline as the treatment of choice for patients with coronary heart disease (CHD) due to its safety and efficacy. Sertraline has been found to be cost-effective in a study conducted by O’Connor and colleagues in a hospitalised population with acute coronary syndrome. Although limited to one study, this evidence supports the use of sertraline in this population. Additionally, the SPS recommends sertraline as the selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) of choice for CHD patients due to its lower propensity for interactions and the availability of more data on its use in a population with pre-existing heart disease compared to other SSRIs. Overall, sertraline is a safe and effective treatment option for CHD patients with depression or anxiety.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
-
-
Question 25
Incorrect
-
A slightly overweight 44-year-old man and his spouse visit the GP with concerns about his recent behavior. The wife reports that he has been acting strangely for the past 2 months, becoming easily irritated and frequently criticizing her and their children. Initially, the changes were subtle, but now arguments occur every other day. The husband doesn't acknowledge any issues, and you observe that he struggles to initiate conversations and often pauses mid-sentence. There is no significant family history, and the husband is not on any regular medications.
What is the probable underlying diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Frontotemporal dementia
Explanation:Pick’s disease, also known as frontotemporal dementia, is a type of dementia that typically affects individuals under the age of 65. This condition can manifest in various forms, with some patients experiencing changes in personality and behavior. In some cases, patients may also struggle with speech production and literacy skills, a condition known as primary progressive aphasia.
It is highly unlikely for a 40-year-old to develop Alzheimer’s disease or vascular dementia. Huntington’s disease, which is associated with dementia and personality changes, typically presents with motor dysfunction and tends to have a strong genetic component. While B12 deficiency can cause symptoms of dementia, it is often accompanied by other neurological changes, fatigue, and bowel issues.
Understanding Frontotemporal Lobar Degeneration
Frontotemporal lobar degeneration (FTLD) is a type of cortical dementia that is the third most common after Alzheimer’s and Lewy body dementia. There are three recognized types of FTLD: Frontotemporal dementia (Pick’s disease), Progressive non-fluent aphasia (chronic progressive aphasia, CPA), and Semantic dementia.
FTLD is characterized by an onset before 65, insidious onset, relatively preserved memory and visuospatial skills, personality change, and social conduct problems. Pick’s disease is the most common type of FTLD and is characterized by personality change and impaired social conduct. Other common features include hyperorality, disinhibition, increased appetite, and perseveration behaviors. Focal gyral atrophy with a knife-blade appearance is characteristic of Pick’s disease.
CPA is characterized by non-fluent speech, where the patient makes short utterances that are agrammatic. Comprehension is relatively preserved. Semantic dementia, on the other hand, is characterized by fluent progressive aphasia. The speech is fluent but empty and conveys little meaning. Unlike in Alzheimer’s, memory is better for recent rather than remote events.
In terms of management, NICE doesn’t recommend the use of AChE inhibitors or memantine in people with frontotemporal dementia. Understanding the different types of FTLD and their characteristics can aid in early diagnosis and appropriate management.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 26
Incorrect
-
A 70-year-old woman is discharged from hospital following an operation. Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) has been grown from a wound swab.
Select from the list the most common cause of a hospital-acquired wound infection.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Insufficient hand disinfection
Explanation:Preventing Nosocomial Infections in Hospitals: Identification, Control, and Measures
Insufficient hand disinfection is the leading cause of wound infections acquired in hospitals. The primary objective of hospital infection control is to prevent nosocomial infections. To achieve this, clinical and epidemiological investigations must first identify hospital-acquired infections as either endemic or epidemic. Identifying and typing the isolates causing nosocomial infections can help recognize organisms that are epidemiologically linked. Invasive multiresistant organisms, such as MRSA, often require infection-control measures to prevent their spread, which can minimize the use of expensive and sometimes toxic antibiotics required for their prophylaxis and treatment.
Epidemic outbreaks can be controlled by measures that interrupt the spread of infection, such as the use of gowns, gloves, and careful hand-washing by those attending patients. Transfer of colonized or infected patients to a single room or an isolation ward is a physical means of preventing spread. Patients infected with the same organism can be grouped together and attended to by a cohort of nurses not involved with uninfected patients. Identification of additional carriers and elimination of colonization may be necessary for some epidemic outbreaks. Although controlled trials demonstrating the efficacy of such measures have not been performed, many observational studies support their use.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
-
-
Question 27
Incorrect
-
A mother brings her daughter to an appointment with the Practice Nurse for her routine 4-month immunisations, which includes the new Meningitis B vaccine, introduced in 2015. What guidance should be provided regarding post-vaccination care at home?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Give paracetamol post-vaccination
Explanation:It is common for individuals to experience a fever of over 38 degrees after receiving the Meningitis B vaccine. To prevent this from occurring, it is recommended that infants receive three doses of paracetamol, with the first dose administered immediately after vaccination. If necessary, parents should continue to administer paracetamol every 4-6 hours for up to 48 hours after vaccination. It is believed that the use of paracetamol doesn’t affect the effectiveness of the vaccine.
Meningitis B Vaccine Now Part of Routine NHS Immunisation
Children in the UK have been receiving immunisation against meningococcus serotypes A and C for many years. However, this led to meningococcal B becoming the most common cause of bacterial meningitis in the country. To address this, a vaccine against meningococcal B called Bexsero was developed and introduced to the UK market.
Initially, the Joint Committee on Vaccination and Immunisation (JCVI) rejected the use of Bexsero after conducting a cost-benefit analysis. However, this decision was eventually reversed, and meningitis B has now been added to the routine NHS immunisation. Children will receive three doses of the vaccine at 2 months, 4 months, and 12-13 months.
Moreover, Bexsero will also be available on the NHS for patients at high risk of meningococcal disease, such as those with asplenia, splenic dysfunction, or complement disorder. With the inclusion of meningitis B vaccine in the routine NHS immunisation, the UK hopes to reduce the incidence of bacterial meningitis and protect more children and high-risk patients from the disease.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
-
-
Question 28
Incorrect
-
Lila is a 4-year-old girl who presents with a high fever, sore throat and sandpaper-like rash on her torso. You suspect scarlet fever. Her father inquires about the duration of time she should stay away from preschool.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Keep out of nursery until 24 hours after starting antibiotics
Explanation:It is recommended that children diagnosed with scarlet fever should not attend nursery or school until they have been on antibiotics for at least 24 hours.
Scarlet fever is a condition caused by erythrogenic toxins produced by Group A haemolytic streptococci, usually Streptococcus pyogenes. It is more common in children aged 2-6 years, with the highest incidence at 4 years. The disease is spread through respiratory droplets or direct contact with nose and throat discharges. The incubation period is 2-4 days, and symptoms include fever, malaise, headache, sore throat, ‘strawberry’ tongue, and a rash that appears first on the torso and spares the palms and soles. Scarlet fever is usually a mild illness, but it may be complicated by otitis media, rheumatic fever, acute glomerulonephritis, or rare invasive complications.
To diagnose scarlet fever, a throat swab is usually taken, but antibiotic treatment should be started immediately, rather than waiting for the results. Management involves oral penicillin V for ten days, while patients with a penicillin allergy should be given azithromycin. Children can return to school 24 hours after starting antibiotics, and scarlet fever is a notifiable disease. Desquamation occurs later in the course of the illness, particularly around the fingers and toes. The rash is often described as having a rough ‘sandpaper’ texture, and children often have a flushed appearance with circumoral pallor. Invasive complications such as bacteraemia, meningitis, and necrotizing fasciitis are rare but may present acutely with life-threatening illness.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
-
-
Question 29
Incorrect
-
A 32-year-old woman is seen for review with her baby six weeks postpartum. She is using the lactational amenorrheoic method (LAM) for contraception.
Which of the following should she be advised may increase her risk of pregnancy?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Menstruation returning
Explanation:Lactational Amenorrhoea Method (LAM) as a Contraceptive
Breastfeeding can be used as a form of contraception through the lactational amenorrhoea method (LAM). This method works by suppressing ovarian activity, which prevents the return of menstrual periods after childbirth. For LAM to be effective, a woman must engage in full breastfeeding, which includes exclusive or almost exclusive breastfeeding with no other liquids or solids given.
If the frequency or duration of breastfeeding decreases, the risk of menstrual periods and fertility increases. Women who experience bleeding within the first six months after childbirth have a higher risk of pregnancy than those who remain amenorrhoeic. To use LAM as a contraceptive, a woman must meet all three criteria: fully or nearly fully breastfeeding day and night, no long intervals between feeds, and amenorrhoeic and less than six months postpartum.
When the rules of LAM are strictly followed, failure rates are less than 2%. Therefore, LAM can be an effective and natural form of contraception for women who choose to breastfeed their infants.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
-
-
Question 30
Incorrect
-
A 60-year-old man comes to your clinic with a three-month history of dysphagia for solids. He reports weight loss and loss of appetite. He has a history of indigestion and heartburn for the past five years. He takes Gaviscon and Rennie tablets regularly. He is a heavy smoker and drinks regularly. During an endoscopy, a small tumour is found at the lower end of his oesophagus. What is the most probable cause of the tumour?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Barrett's oesophagus
Explanation:Gastro-oesophageal Reflux and its Potential Consequences
The patient’s medical history indicates a prolonged period of gastro-oesophageal reflux, which can lead to the development of Barrett’s oesophagus. This condition occurs when the normal squamous epithelium of the oesophageal lining is replaced by columnar epithelium, which is a precursor to cancer. To monitor for the presence of metaplasia, surveillance endoscopies are recommended every two to five years, depending on the length of the Barrett’s segment. If dysplasia is detected, more frequent surveillance or treatment may be necessary.
The onset of dysphagia for solids and weight loss is concerning, as it may indicate the presence of oesophageal carcinoma.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Mins)