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  • Question 1 - A 56-year-old man collapses after complaining of palpitations and is admitted to the...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old man collapses after complaining of palpitations and is admitted to the Emergency Department (ED). He is found to be in ventricular tachycardia and is successfully cardioverted. Further investigations reveal an underlying long QT syndrome, and an implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD) is inserted. The man works as an HGV driver. What advice should be given regarding his ability to drive HGV vehicles?

      Your Answer: Permanent bar

      Explanation:

      Regardless of the circumstances, the loss of HGV licence is indicated by ICD.

      DVLA Guidelines for Cardiovascular Disorders and Driving

      The DVLA has specific guidelines for individuals with cardiovascular disorders who wish to drive a car or motorcycle. For those with hypertension, driving is permitted unless the treatment causes unacceptable side effects, and there is no need to notify the DVLA. However, if the individual has Group 2 Entitlement, they will be disqualified from driving if their resting blood pressure consistently measures 180 mmHg systolic or more and/or 100 mm Hg diastolic or more.

      Individuals who have undergone elective angioplasty must refrain from driving for one week, while those who have undergone CABG or acute coronary syndrome must wait four weeks before driving. If an individual experiences angina symptoms at rest or while driving, they must cease driving altogether. Pacemaker insertion requires a one-week break from driving, while implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD) implantation results in a six-month driving ban if implanted for sustained ventricular arrhythmia. If implanted prophylactically, the individual must cease driving for one month, and Group 2 drivers are permanently barred from driving with an ICD.

      Successful catheter ablation for an arrhythmia requires a two-day break from driving, while an aortic aneurysm of 6 cm or more must be reported to the DVLA. Licensing will be permitted subject to annual review, but an aortic diameter of 6.5 cm or more disqualifies patients from driving. Finally, individuals who have undergone a heart transplant must refrain from driving for six weeks, but there is no need to notify the DVLA.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      65.1
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - An 8-year-old girl is brought to see you by her parents.
    The school had...

    Correct

    • An 8-year-old girl is brought to see you by her parents.
      The school had spoken to them because despite good educational progress they had noticed that she spends a lot of time on her own and doesn't really make friends with the other children or engage in group activities. She has quite restricted interests both at home and at school. The parents report that she has 'always been like this' and that at home she likes to read and write a lot but other than that doesn't really engage and play with other children.
      During the consultation the child seems to have appropriate language skills and be of normal intelligence but doesn't engage fully with your attempts at conversation and play, and avoids eye contact with you.
      What is the likely underlying problem?

      Your Answer: Asperger's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Understanding Asperger’s Syndrome

      Asperger’s Syndrome is a type of autism that affects social interaction, behavior patterns, and interests. However, unlike other forms of autism, individuals with Asperger’s have normal or even above-average language and intelligence skills. This condition is characterized by impaired social skills, repetitive behavior, and restricted interests.

      On the other hand, Childhood Disintegrative Disorder is a rare condition that affects less than 5 in 10,000 children. It is characterized by the sudden loss of acquired skills in motor, language, and social development between the ages of 3 and 4. The cause of this disorder is still unknown.

      A mood disorder is not likely to be the cause of the child’s symptoms, given their age and general features. Meanwhile, Rett’s Syndrome is an X-linked disorder that primarily affects females. It typically occurs between 6 and 18 months of age and is characterized by developmental regression, loss of motor skills, and loss of social and language skills. Other symptoms such as spasticity and seizures may also develop, leading to significant disability.

      In summary, understanding the differences between Asperger’s Syndrome and other developmental disorders is crucial in providing appropriate support and interventions for affected individuals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      65
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 28-year-old man presented having recently returned from Bangladesh. He reported jaundice and...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old man presented having recently returned from Bangladesh. He reported jaundice and itching. His viral hepatitis serology shows active hepatitis E infection.
      Select from the list the single true statement concerning hepatitis E.

      Your Answer: Chronic hepatitis doesn't occur in immunocompetent patients

      Explanation:

      Hepatitis E and D: A Comparison

      Hepatitis E is a self-limiting illness that follows a similar course to hepatitis A. However, fulminant disease can occur in a small percentage of cases. This type of hepatitis is most commonly found in developing countries and is transmitted through contaminated drinking water. While person-to-person contact transmission is rare, maternal-neonatal transmission can occur, with pregnant women being at the highest risk of developing fulminant hepatitis. Management of hepatitis E is supportive, and there are no chronic cases except in immunocompromised individuals.

      On the other hand, hepatitis D requires co-infection with hepatitis B to cause inflammation. Co-infection with hepatitis D increases the likelihood of hepatitis B progressing to chronic disease and cirrhosis. Hepatitis D is most commonly found in Mediterranean countries, parts of Eastern Europe, the Middle East, Africa, and South America.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      49.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 45-year-old female patient presents with Raynaud's phenomenon. What is the most indicative...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old female patient presents with Raynaud's phenomenon. What is the most indicative factor of an underlying connective tissue disorder?

      Your Answer: Recurrent miscarriages

      Explanation:

      Bilateral symptoms in young women may indicate primary Raynaud’s disease. Recurrent miscarriages may be a sign of systemic lupus erythematous or anti-phospholipid syndrome. Chilblains, which are painful and itchy purple swellings on the fingers and toes after exposure to cold, are sometimes linked to underlying connective tissue disease, although this is uncommon.

      Raynaud’s phenomenon is a condition where the arteries in the fingers and toes constrict excessively in response to cold or emotional stress. It can be classified as primary (Raynaud’s disease) or secondary (Raynaud’s phenomenon) depending on the underlying cause. Raynaud’s disease is more common in young women and typically affects both sides of the body. Secondary Raynaud’s phenomenon is often associated with connective tissue disorders such as scleroderma, rheumatoid arthritis, or systemic lupus erythematosus. Other causes include leukaemia, cryoglobulinaemia, use of vibrating tools, and certain medications.

      If there is suspicion of secondary Raynaud’s phenomenon, patients should be referred to a specialist for further evaluation. Treatment options include calcium channel blockers such as nifedipine as a first-line therapy. In severe cases, intravenous prostacyclin (epoprostenol) infusions may be used, which can provide relief for several weeks or months. It is important to identify and treat any underlying conditions that may be contributing to the development of Raynaud’s phenomenon. Factors that suggest an underlying connective tissue disease include onset after 40 years, unilateral symptoms, rashes, presence of autoantibodies, and digital ulcers or calcinosis. In rare cases, chilblains may also be present.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      45.3
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - An 80-year-old lady presents to your clinic for a check-up after recently joining...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old lady presents to your clinic for a check-up after recently joining the practice. She visited a colleague two weeks ago for a painful right hip and was prescribed Diclofenac for possible osteoarthritis.

      Her repeat prescriptions include Sertraline 50 mg OD, which she has been taking for three months and is very satisfied with the response, Metformin 500 mg BD, Ramipril 5 mg OD, and Simvastatin 40 mg OD. Her HbA1c level is 51 mmol/mol.

      When reviewing her medication, what would be the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer: Start a proton pump inhibitor and consider an alternative to Diclofenac

      Correct Answer: Increase her dose of Sertraline to 100mg OD

      Explanation:

      Medication Management for an Elderly Patient with Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus

      This elderly patient is currently taking a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) and has recently had Diclofenac added as well. However, this combination puts her at a greatly increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. According to NICE guidance, gastroprotection should be added if patients are on aspirin or NSAIDs. Therefore, it is recommended that Diclofenac be stopped and alternative analgesia be considered.

      The patient has a satisfactory response at her current dose of SSRI, which is the recommended dose for the elderly. Dose increases in this group should be undertaken with great caution, and there is no indication to do so in this patient.

      Additionally, the patient has tight glycaemic control very close to the target of 48 mmol/mol for people with type 2 diabetes mellitus. It is advisable to monitor her HbA1c in three months and then six monthly thereafter if it remains stable.

      While optimizing her Ramipril dose according to evidence is important, addressing the significant risk of bleeding on her current treatment should be the priority.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      76.5
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - An 80-year-old woman is brought to the clinic by her family members. She...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old woman is brought to the clinic by her family members. She has been experiencing increasing shortness of breath and low energy levels for the past 6 weeks. Upon conducting an ECG, it is revealed that she has atrial fibrillation with a heart rate of 114 / min. Her blood pressure is 128/80 mmHg and a chest x-ray shows no abnormalities. What medication should be prescribed to manage her heart rate?

      Your Answer: Bisoprolol

      Explanation:

      When it comes to rate control in atrial fibrillation, beta blockers are now the preferred option over digoxin. This is an important point to remember, especially for exams. The patient’s shortness of breath may be related to her heart rate and not necessarily a sign of heart failure, as her chest x-ray was normal. For more information, refer to the NICE guidelines.

      Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a heart condition that requires prompt management. The management of AF depends on the patient’s haemodynamic stability and the duration of the AF. For haemodynamically unstable patients, electrical cardioversion is recommended. For haemodynamically stable patients, rate control is the first-line treatment strategy, except in certain cases. Medications such as beta-blockers, calcium channel blockers, and digoxin are commonly used to control the heart rate. Rhythm control is another treatment option that involves the use of medications such as beta-blockers, dronedarone, and amiodarone. Catheter ablation is recommended for patients who have not responded to or wish to avoid antiarrhythmic medication. The procedure involves the use of radiofrequency or cryotherapy to ablate the faulty electrical pathways that cause AF. Anticoagulation is necessary before and during the procedure to reduce the risk of stroke. The success rate of catheter ablation varies, with around 50% of patients experiencing an early recurrence of AF within three months. However, after three years, around 55% of patients who have undergone a single procedure remain in sinus rhythm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      42.6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 6-year-old girl presents to the clinic with complaints of dysuria. Upon examination,...

    Correct

    • A 6-year-old girl presents to the clinic with complaints of dysuria. Upon examination, her temperature is 37.2ºC, her abdomen appears normal, and a urine dipstick test reveals the presence of leukocytes and nitrites. The patient has no significant medical history. Besides urine microscopy, what is the most suitable course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Oral antibiotics for 3 days + follow-up if not settled

      Explanation:

      Urinary Tract Infection in Children: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are more common in boys until 3 months of age, after which the incidence is substantially higher in girls. At least 8% of girls and 2% of boys will have a UTI in childhood. The presentation of UTIs in childhood depends on age. Infants may experience poor feeding, vomiting, and irritability, while younger children may have abdominal pain, fever, and dysuria. Older children may experience dysuria, frequency, and haematuria. Features that may suggest an upper UTI include a temperature of over 38ºC and loin pain or tenderness.

      According to NICE guidelines, a urine sample should be checked in a child if there are any symptoms or signs suggestive of a UTI, with unexplained fever of 38°C or higher (test urine after 24 hours at the latest), or with an alternative site of infection but who remain unwell (consider urine test after 24 hours at the latest). A clean catch is the preferable method for urine collection. If not possible, urine collection pads should be used. Invasive methods such as suprapubic aspiration should only be used if non-invasive methods are not possible.

      Infants less than 3 months old should be referred immediately to a paediatrician. Children aged more than 3 months old with an upper UTI should be considered for admission to the hospital. If not admitted, oral antibiotics such as cephalosporin or co-amoxiclav should be given for 7-10 days. Children aged more than 3 months old with a lower UTI should be treated with oral antibiotics for 3 days according to local guidelines, usually trimethoprim, nitrofurantoin, cephalosporin, or amoxicillin. Parents should be asked to bring the children back if they remain unwell after 24-48 hours. Antibiotic prophylaxis is not given after the first UTI but should be considered with recurrent UTIs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      25.8
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 65-year-old lady came in with complaints of heartburn. She has a history...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old lady came in with complaints of heartburn. She has a history of osteoporosis and has been on alendronate for several years.

      What is the probable reason for her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Oesophagitis

      Correct Answer: Ischaemic heart disease

      Explanation:

      Side Effects of Oral Bisphosphonates

      Oral bisphosphonates can cause serious side effects in some patients, including esophagitis, gastritis, and diarrhea. However, when used as directed, these complications are rare. Patients with pre-existing esophageal conditions, such as achalasia, stricture, Barrett’s esophagus, severe reflux, and scleroderma, should avoid taking oral bisphosphonates.

      Interestingly, if patients experience gastrointestinal side effects while taking bisphosphonates, treatment with proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) is often ineffective. The only way to alleviate these symptoms is by discontinuing the use of bisphosphonates. It is important for patients to discuss any concerns or pre-existing conditions with their healthcare provider before starting treatment with oral bisphosphonates.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      34.4
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - You see a 65-year-old man who is currently being treated for pulmonary tuberculosis.
    He...

    Correct

    • You see a 65-year-old man who is currently being treated for pulmonary tuberculosis.
      He has attended because he has developed a problem with his vision following an episode of renal impairment during an acute illness. Yesterday his right eye became painful and the vision in that eye became blurred.
      Which of his antituberculous medicines is the most likely cause of his presentation?

      Your Answer: Ethambutol

      Explanation:

      Side Effects of Anti-Tuberculous Treatment

      It is crucial to have a basic understanding of the side effects of anti-tuberculous treatment as patients may present to primary care with medication-related problems. The British National Formulary (BNF) provides an excellent summary of the drugs used to treat TB and their side effects.

      One of the drugs used to treat TB, Ethambutol, is known to cause visual problems such as loss of visual acuity, colour blindness, and restriction of visual fields. These side effects are more common when high doses are used or if there is renal impairment. Ocular toxicity is also more common when excessive dosage is used or if the patient’s renal function is impaired.

      Patients should be advised to stop their treatment immediately if they develop visual problems and seek further advice promptly. Early discontinuation of the drug usually results in the recovery of eyesight. Before initiating treatment with Ethambutol, visual acuity should be tested by Snellen chart.

      The other options for TB treatment also have their own set of side effects. Isoniazid can cause peripheral neuropathy, psychosis, and hepatitis. Pyrazinamide can lead to hepatitis and gout. Rifampicin can cause hepatitis, orange discolouration of urine and tears, and interact with contraceptive pills. Streptomycin can cause ototoxicity and renal tubular damage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
      25.2
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 70-year-old woman has terminal breast cancer. Her General Practitioner visits her at...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old woman has terminal breast cancer. Her General Practitioner visits her at home. Until her diagnosis five years ago, she had no significant medical history. She is known to have liver metastases and is quite breathless. Her oxygen saturations are 92% in air, and her respiratory rate is 28 breaths per minute. She is alert, but very frail.
      Which of the following treatments is most likely to be of benefit for this patient’s dyspnoea?

      Your Answer: Oxygen

      Correct Answer: Morphine

      Explanation:

      Managing Dyspnoea in Terminally Ill Patients: Treatment Options

      Dyspnoea is a common symptom in terminally ill patients and can significantly impact their quality of life. When managing dyspnoea, it is important to identify and treat any reversible causes, such as cardiac failure or pneumonia. However, in cases where the cause cannot be reversed, there are several treatment options available.

      One such option is the use of opioids, such as morphine, which can reduce breathlessness at rest and in the end-of-life phase. A therapeutic trial should be given, and the patient should be monitored for response and side-effects. If morphine is not tolerated, alternative opioids can be used.

      Dexamethasone is another option, particularly in cases of lymphangitis carcinomatosis and superior vena cava airway obstruction. It reduces inflammatory oedema and can also be used post-radiotherapy.

      Furosemide is not likely to be of benefit unless there is evidence of cardiac failure.

      Lorazepam, a benzodiazepine, may relieve anxiety and panic associated with severe breathlessness, but it is less effective than opioids and should be considered a second-line treatment.

      Finally, if oxygen saturations are below 92%, a trial of oxygen can be considered for symptom relief. However, it is important to note that there may be a poor relationship between hypoxaemia, dyspnoea, and response to oxygen.

      In conclusion, managing dyspnoea in terminally ill patients requires a multi-faceted approach, including identifying and treating reversible causes and utilizing appropriate medications for symptom relief.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • End Of Life
      49.3
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A father requests access to his 16-year-old son's medical records. He is in...

    Correct

    • A father requests access to his 16-year-old son's medical records. He is in the process of separating from his son's mother, and they have been married for twenty-five years.

      What is the most appropriate action in this case?

      Your Answer: Seek consent from the son, and if he is competent, disclose only information that is not prejudicial to a third party with his consent

      Explanation:

      Confidential Medical Records for Adolescents

      When it comes to disclosing confidential medical records of a 15-year-old adolescent, it is important to consider their maturity level. If they are deemed ‘Gillick’ competent, then their decision to disclose or withhold their medical record should be respected. However, practitioners must carefully review any third-party information and any information that may cause harm to an individual’s physical or mental health. If necessary, this information can be withheld under the Data Protection Act 1998. It is crucial to handle confidential medical records with care to protect the privacy and well-being of adolescents.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      61.3
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 35-year-old patient comes to the surgery with suspected renal colic. The patient's...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old patient comes to the surgery with suspected renal colic. The patient's pain is managed with oral naproxen and hospitalization is not necessary. What imaging technique is the most suitable for examining the patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Non-contrast CT

      Explanation:

      Non-contrast CT is now directly accessible to many GPs.

      Management and Prevention of Renal Stones

      Renal stones, also known as kidney stones, can cause severe pain and discomfort. The British Association of Urological Surgeons (BAUS) has published guidelines on the management of acute ureteric/renal colic. Initial management includes the use of NSAIDs as the analgesia of choice for renal colic, with caution taken when prescribing certain NSAIDs due to increased risk of cardiovascular events. Alpha-adrenergic blockers are no longer routinely recommended, but may be beneficial for patients amenable to conservative management. Initial investigations include urine dipstick and culture, serum creatinine and electrolytes, FBC/CRP, and calcium/urate levels. Non-contrast CT KUB is now recommended as the first-line imaging for all patients, with ultrasound having a limited role.

      Most renal stones measuring less than 5 mm in maximum diameter will pass spontaneously within 4 weeks. However, more intensive and urgent treatment is indicated in the presence of ureteric obstruction, renal developmental abnormality, and previous renal transplant. Treatment options include lithotripsy, nephrolithotomy, ureteroscopy, and open surgery. Shockwave lithotripsy involves generating a shock wave externally to the patient, while ureteroscopy involves passing a ureteroscope retrograde through the ureter and into the renal pelvis. Percutaneous nephrolithotomy involves gaining access to the renal collecting system and performing intra corporeal lithotripsy or stone fragmentation. The preferred treatment option depends on the size and complexity of the stone.

      Prevention of renal stones involves lifestyle modifications such as high fluid intake, low animal protein and salt diet, and thiazide diuretics to increase distal tubular calcium resorption. Calcium stones may also be due to hypercalciuria, which can be managed with thiazide diuretics. Oxalate stones can be managed with cholestyramine and pyridoxine, while uric acid stones can be managed with allopurinol and urinary alkalinization with oral bicarbonate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      40.8
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A tall, twelve-year-old girl complains of mid-foot pain and stiffness that worsens with...

    Incorrect

    • A tall, twelve-year-old girl complains of mid-foot pain and stiffness that worsens with activity. Upon examination, there is tenderness over the head of the second metatarsal and diffuse swelling in the area. The patient denies any significant trauma.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Morton's neuroma

      Correct Answer: Freiberg's disease

      Explanation:

      Young women presenting with midfoot pain on walking should consider Freiberg’s disease as a possible cause. This condition occurs when the blood supply to the metatarsal head is interrupted, leading to infarction and flattening of the affected area. It is most commonly seen in adolescents, particularly tall, athletic females, whose bones may grow faster than blood vessels can keep up with. Symptoms include pain, swelling, and stiffness, which can be managed with conservative measures, although improvement may take up to a year. Other conditions that may cause similar symptoms include Morton’s neuroma, complex regional pain syndrome, and sesamoiditis, but each has its own unique presentation and risk factors.

      Understanding Freiberg Disease

      Freiberg disease, also known as metatarsal avascular necrosis, is a condition that occurs when the blood supply to the metatarsal head is disrupted, leading to infarction and flattening of the affected area. This condition is most commonly observed in adolescents, particularly tall, athletic females, as their bones may grow faster than blood vessels can keep up with. The second metatarsal is the most commonly affected area.

      The symptoms of Freiberg’s disease include pain, swelling, and stiffness, which can be managed through conservative measures such as activity limitation, analgesia, and orthotic devices like walking casts or boots. While operative management is rarely necessary, it is important to inform patients that improvement can be gradual and may take up to a year.

      Overall, understanding Freiberg disease is crucial for individuals who may be at risk, as early detection and management can help prevent further complications and improve overall outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      26
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 40-year-old manual worker has been experiencing back pain with radiating pain down...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old manual worker has been experiencing back pain with radiating pain down the right leg for a few weeks. The pain extends below the knee and he has some tingling sensations affecting his calf.

      During the examination, his knee jerks are reduced, but his ankle jerks are normal and there is no apparent muscle weakness. There are no clear sensory signs. The straight leg raising test is decreased with a positive sciatic stretch test. Additionally, the femoral stretch test is positive.

      What is the location of the lesion?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: L4

      Explanation:

      Nerve Stretch Tests in Musculoskeletal Examination

      The examination of the musculoskeletal system involves standard procedures such as the sciatic nerve stretch test and the femoral nerve stretch test. These tests help assess the function of the nerves in the lower limbs.

      A diminished knee jerk reflex may indicate a lesion in the L4 nerve root, but the ankle jerk reflex remains unaffected.

      The femoral nerve is derived from the lumbar roots 2, 3, and 4, while the sciatic nerve is derived from the lumbar roots L4 and 5 and sacral roots 1, 2, and 3. Interestingly, lumbar root 4 is the only root that is common to both nerves.

      Overall, nerve stretch tests are important tools in the examination of the musculoskeletal system and can provide valuable information about nerve function in the lower limbs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      0
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  • Question 15 - A 30-year-old male presents with bilateral gynaecomastia. He reports a noticeable increase in...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old male presents with bilateral gynaecomastia. He reports a noticeable increase in breast tissue over the past several months. His medical history includes a congenital right-sided crypto-orchidism, which was corrected with orchidopexy during childhood. He also experiences migraines and uses sumatriptan as needed. What is the probable underlying cause of his current symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Drug-induced

      Explanation:

      Gynaecomastia and Testicular Tumour

      This man is likely to have a testicular tumour as the cause of his gynaecomastia. While bilateral breast cancer in a male his age is highly unusual, gynaecomastia can develop due to the hormonal influence of a tumour. Sumatriptan doesn’t cause gynaecomastia, and Mondor’s disease is a thrombophlebitis of the superficial veins of the breast or chest wall. Physiological changes of puberty occur during puberty and not in the mid-20s, making testicular tumour the most likely option.

      The patient’s history of crypto-orchidism is a risk factor for the development of testicular cancer, and he is in the typical age range. However, it should be noted that only a minority of testicular cancers present with gynaecomastia. According to the American Family Physician, approximately 10% of males present with gynaecomastia from tumours that secrete beta human chorionic gonadotropin (β-HCG). Therefore, further investigation and genital examination are necessary to confirm the diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      0
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  • Question 16 - A 23-year-old female presents with episodic wheezing and shortness of breath for the...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old female presents with episodic wheezing and shortness of breath for the past 5 months. She has smoked for the past 7 years and has a history of eczema. Examination of her chest is unremarkable. Spirometry is arranged and is reported as normal.

      What would be the most suitable course of action now?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fractional exhaled nitric oxide + spirometry/bronchodilator reversibility test

      Explanation:

      It is recommended that individuals who are suspected to have asthma undergo both FeNO testing and spirometry with reversibility.

      Asthma diagnosis has been updated by NICE guidelines in 2017, which emphasizes the use of objective tests rather than subjective/clinical judgments. The guidance recommends the use of fractional exhaled nitric oxide (FeNO) test, which measures the level of nitric oxide produced by inflammatory cells, particularly eosinophils. Other established objective tests such as spirometry and peak flow variability are still important. All patients aged five and above should have objective tests to confirm the diagnosis. For patients aged 17 and above, spirometry with a bronchodilator reversibility (BDR) test and FeNO test should be performed. For children aged 5-16, spirometry with a BDR test and FeNO test should be requested if there is normal spirometry or obstructive spirometry with a negative BDR test. For patients under five years old, diagnosis should be made based on clinical judgment. The specific points about the tests include a FeNO level of >= 40 ppb for adults and >= 35 ppb for children considered positive, and a FEV1/FVC ratio less than 70% or below the lower limit of normal considered obstructive for spirometry. A positive reversibility test is indicated by an improvement in FEV1 of 12% or more and an increase in volume of 200 ml or more for adults, and an improvement in FEV1 of 12% or more for children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      0
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  • Question 17 - A Pediatrician wants to set up a clinic in his practice for the...

    Incorrect

    • A Pediatrician wants to set up a clinic in his practice for the management of chronic diseases in children. He wants to target resources in the clinic toward treating conditions that are most prevalent in the pediatric population. To do this, he reviews the National Health Service data to determine what long-term health conditions are most common in pediatric patients.
      Which of the following is the Pediatrician likely to find is the most common long-term health condition in pediatric patients presenting to General Practice?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arthritis or ongoing problems with the back and joints

      Explanation:

      Prevalence of Long-Term Health Conditions in England: Insights from the General Practice Patient Survey

      The General Practice Patient Survey is a nationwide survey conducted by the National Health Service in England, which collects data from patients aged over 16 presenting to General Practitioners. The survey results indicate that over half of the patients surveyed in 2021 reported at least one long-term physical or mental health condition. Arthritis or ongoing problems with the back and joints were the most common conditions reported. Diabetes was the fifth most prevalent condition, reported by 7.4% of participants. Alzheimer’s disease or other causes of dementia and autism spectrum disorder were reported by 0.6% and 1.1% of participants, respectively. Cancer was the eighth most prevalent condition, reported by 3.1% of participants. While the survey was conducted in England, the results are likely generalizable to the rest of the United Kingdom.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 30-year-old woman who is 7 weeks pregnant is taking 25 mg of...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman who is 7 weeks pregnant is taking 25 mg of sertraline daily for depression. She wants to know more about the potential risks to her baby. What is the accurate statement regarding the use of sertraline during pregnancy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The use of selective serotonin re-uptake inhibitors (SSRIs) in the first trimester is associated with an increased risk of congenital malformations, especially cardiovascular malformations

      Explanation:

      Taking SSRIs during the first trimester of pregnancy has been linked to a higher likelihood of congenital malformations, particularly those affecting the heart. However, it is not recommended for women to suddenly stop taking antidepressants during pregnancy. The potential risks and benefits should be carefully weighed, and if a decision is made to discontinue the medication, it should be done gradually. It is advisable to avoid St. John’s wort during pregnancy if possible. Additionally, using an SSRI in later pregnancy (after 20 weeks) may increase the risk of persistent pulmonary hypertension and withdrawal symptoms in newborns.

      Understanding Postpartum Mental Health Problems

      Postpartum mental health problems can range from mild ‘baby-blues’ to severe puerperal psychosis. To screen for depression, healthcare professionals may use the Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale, which is a 10-item questionnaire that indicates how the mother has felt over the previous week. A score of over 13 indicates a ‘depressive illness of varying severity’, and the questionnaire includes a question about self-harm. The sensitivity and specificity of this screening tool are over 90%.

      ‘Baby-blues’ are seen in around 60-70% of women and typically occur 3-7 days following birth. This condition is more common in primips, and mothers are characteristically anxious, tearful, and irritable. Postnatal depression affects around 10% of women, with most cases starting within a month and typically peaking at 3 months. The features of postnatal depression are similar to depression seen in other circumstances.

      Puerperal psychosis affects approximately 0.2% of women and usually occurs within the first 2-3 weeks following birth. The features of this condition include severe swings in mood (similar to bipolar disorder) and disordered perception (e.g. auditory hallucinations). Reassurance and support are important for all these conditions, but admission to hospital is usually required for puerperal psychosis, ideally in a Mother & Baby Unit. Cognitive behavioural therapy may be beneficial, and certain SSRIs such as sertraline and paroxetine may be used if symptoms are severe. While these medications are secreted in breast milk, they are not thought to be harmful to the infant. However, fluoxetine is best avoided due to its long half-life. There is around a 25-50% risk of recurrence following future pregnancies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
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  • Question 19 - A 16-year-old girl is worried that she might have an underlying endocrine issue....

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl is worried that she might have an underlying endocrine issue. She is a bright student and has secured a place at college. She weighs 37 kg (5 stone 11 pounds) and is 1.75 m (5ft 9 inches) tall. She appears malnourished, her skin is dry, and she has excessive growth of fine soft body hair. She has not had her period for six months. Her cortisol level is elevated, and her free thyroxine (T4) is normal. She is not anemic but has a decreased white cell and platelet count.
      What is the most probable diagnosis? Choose ONE option only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anorexia nervosa

      Explanation:

      Endocrine Findings in Anorexia Nervosa Compared to Other Conditions

      Anorexia nervosa is a condition characterized by severe weight loss due to self-imposed starvation. Endocrine findings in anorexia nervosa include decreased levels of follicular-stimulating hormone (FSH), luteinising hormone (LH), and oestrogens, as well as urinary 17-hydroxy-corticosteroids. However, T4 and thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) levels are usually normal, while growth hormone and cortisol levels may be elevated. Other possible findings include reduced white cell and platelet count, hypoglycaemia, metabolic alkalosis, hypocalcaemia, hypokalaemia, and hypomagnesaemia.

      On the other hand, Addison’s disease, which also causes weight loss, is characterized by reduced cortisol levels. HIV infection may lead to endocrine disorders such as hypogonadism, hypothyroidism, and adrenal excess or insufficiency, but there is no information to support this diagnosis in the given case. Hypothyroidism, which may cause weight gain, is characterized by reduced T4 levels, but this is not the case in anorexia nervosa. Finally, occult carcinoma, which may cause weight loss, is not likely in this case, as the weight loss is chronic and typical of anorexia nervosa.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 20 - A nervous 19-year-old woman visits the GP clinic with her partner. She asks...

    Incorrect

    • A nervous 19-year-old woman visits the GP clinic with her partner. She asks for cervical screening due to a family friend's recent diagnosis of cervical cancer. She is currently on her third day of her period and has regular menstrual cycles. She has noticed more vaginal discharge and occasional bleeding after sex in the past two weeks. There is no significant family history. What is the best course of action to take at this point in management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Speculum examination + STI Screening

      Explanation:

      Women under the age of 25 years cannot receive cervical screening. Before considering referral to colposcopy, other possible causes should be ruled out first.

      As she is currently on day 2 of her menstrual period, pregnancy is unlikely. Given her new boyfriend and symptoms of increased vaginal discharge and occasional post-coital bleeding, a speculum examination and STI screening would be the most appropriate course of action.

      While cervical screening is not typically offered to women under 25, if the patient’s history strongly suggests cervical cancer and other possibilities have been eliminated, referral to colposcopy may be necessary.

      Although cervical cancer is rare in young women, it is still important to investigate the cause of her symptoms.

      Understanding Cervical Cancer Screening in the UK

      Cervical cancer screening is a well-established program in the UK that aims to detect Premalignant changes in the cervix. This program is estimated to prevent 1,000-4,000 deaths per year. However, it should be noted that cervical adenocarcinomas, which account for around 15% of cases, are frequently undetected by screening.

      The screening program has evolved significantly in recent years. Initially, smears were examined for signs of dyskaryosis, which may indicate cervical intraepithelial neoplasia. However, the introduction of HPV testing allowed for further risk stratification. Patients with mild dyskaryosis who were HPV negative could be treated as having normal results. The NHS has now moved to an HPV first system, where a sample is tested for high-risk strains of human papillomavirus (hrHPV) first, and cytological examination is only performed if this is positive.

      All women between the ages of 25-64 years are offered a smear test. Women aged 25-49 years are screened every three years, while those aged 50-64 years are screened every five years. Cervical screening cannot be offered to women over 64, unlike breast screening, where patients can self-refer once past screening age. In Scotland, screening is offered from 25-64 every five years.

      In special situations, cervical screening in pregnancy is usually delayed until three months postpartum, unless there has been missed screening or previous abnormal smears. Women who have never been sexually active have a very low risk of developing cervical cancer and may wish to opt-out of screening.

      While there is limited evidence to support it, the current advice given out by the NHS is that the best time to take a cervical smear is around mid-cycle. Understanding the cervical cancer screening program in the UK is crucial for women to take control of their health and prevent cervical cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
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  • Question 21 - A 28-year-old man presents to his GP with complaints of joint pain and...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man presents to his GP with complaints of joint pain and swelling, feeling generally unwell. He recently returned from a hiking trip in Thailand, and one day after his return, he experienced severe watery diarrhoea and abdominal cramps that lasted for a week.

      During the examination, the patient appears unwell and fatigued. He has large effusions of the left knee and right ankle, along with tender plantar fascia bilaterally. Additionally, he has tender metatarsophalangeal joints on both feet, and a papular rash on the soles of his feet.

      Despite taking regular paracetamol and ibuprofen for the past week, the patient's symptoms have only minimally improved. What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient, given the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral prednisolone

      Explanation:

      Reactive arthritis doesn’t usually have an acute onset and can develop up to four weeks after the initial infection. It may have a relapsing-remitting course over several months.

      The correct treatment for this patient’s severe polyarthritis would be oral prednisolone, a systemic corticosteroid. The dosing should be based on the severity of the arthritis, with tapering to the lowest effective dose. Typical starting doses are 20-40 mg/day.

      TNF inhibitor therapy would not be appropriate in this case. However, it may be effective and safe for patients with reactive arthritis who are unresponsive to NSAID or non-biologic DMARD therapy.

      Celecoxib is not the correct choice for this patient. Since regular ibuprofen did not provide relief for a week, the next step would be oral corticosteroids. Although patients may require high doses of NSAIDs with a long half-life, such as Naproxen 500mg BD, systemic corticosteroids are more appropriate for this patient with multiple joints involved and systemic illness.

      Intra-articular injections are useful for large joint effusions, but in this case, systemic corticosteroids are more appropriate due to the patient’s multiple joint involvement and systemic illness.

      Understanding Reactive Arthritis: Symptoms and Features

      Reactive arthritis is a type of seronegative spondyloarthropathy that is associated with HLA-B27. It was previously known as Reiter’s syndrome, which was characterized by a triad of urethritis, conjunctivitis, and arthritis following a dysenteric illness during World War II. However, later studies revealed that patients could develop symptoms after a sexually transmitted infection, now referred to as sexually acquired reactive arthritis (SARA).

      This condition is defined as an arthritis that develops after an infection where the organism cannot be recovered from the joint. The symptoms typically develop within four weeks of the initial infection and last for around 4-6 months. Approximately 25% of patients experience recurrent episodes, while 10% develop chronic disease.

      The arthritis associated with reactive arthritis is usually an asymmetrical oligoarthritis of the lower limbs, and patients may also experience dactylitis. Other symptoms include urethritis, conjunctivitis (seen in 10-30% of patients), and anterior uveitis. Skin symptoms may also occur, such as circinate balanitis (painless vesicles on the coronal margin of the prepuce) and keratoderma blenorrhagica (waxy yellow/brown papules on palms and soles).

      To remember the symptoms associated with reactive arthritis, the phrase can’t see, pee, or climb a tree is often used. It is important to note that the term Reiter’s syndrome is no longer used due to the fact that the eponym was named after a member of the Nazi party. Understanding the symptoms and features of reactive arthritis can aid in prompt diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 22 - A 45-year-old man presents with complaints of dizziness that have developed over the...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man presents with complaints of dizziness that have developed over the past two weeks. He experiences episodes of vertigo when he turns his head, particularly when he turns over in bed. He denies any recent illness or injury. The vertigo lasts for several seconds at a time and he reports no hearing loss, ear pain, fullness, or ringing. On examination, there are no abnormalities in cranial nerve function, cerebellar signs, or Romberg's test. Dix-Hallpike testing is positive for rotatory vertigo and nystagmus.

      What is the most appropriate pharmacological approach for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Promethazine 25 mg nocte

      Explanation:

      Management of Benign Paroxysmal Positional Vertigo

      This patient is exhibiting typical signs and symptoms of benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV). It is important to note that vestibular sedatives are not effective in managing BPPV. However, the Epley manoeuvre can be performed and taught to the patient, which has been shown to effectively reduce or eliminate symptoms.

      It is also important to remember that no treatment needed is a valid management option for BPPV. This concept is particularly relevant for the MRCGP AKT exam, which tests primary care management skills. As a primary care physician, it is important to recognize when doing nothing is the most appropriate course of action for a patient. Don’t hesitate to select this option if it is the best choice for the patient’s condition.

      Overall, the management of BPPV involves a combination of patient education, reassurance, and appropriate interventions such as the Epley manoeuvre.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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  • Question 23 - A 55-year-old man presents with persistent epigastric discomfort for the past 2 months....

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man presents with persistent epigastric discomfort for the past 2 months. The discomfort worsens after meals and occasionally causes reflux symptoms when he lies down. Despite attempting to modify his diet, he has only experienced limited relief and has lost some weight, although he is unsure of the exact amount. He denies any difficulty swallowing or vomiting blood. He has tried over-the-counter gaviscon with little effect and is seeking further relief. Physical examination is unremarkable, with no evidence of an abdominal mass.

      What is the most appropriate course of treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urgent referral for endoscopy

      Explanation:

      Weight loss with dyspepsia is a concerning symptom in individuals over 55 years old and warrants urgent referral for an endoscopy to identify any underlying pathology. Helicobacter pylori testing may not be the most appropriate option in this case. Symptomatic relief can be provided with proton-pump inhibitors or ranitidine, but they do not rule out any underlying pathology.

      Management of Dyspepsia and Referral Criteria for Suspected Cancer

      Dyspepsia is a common condition that can be managed through a stepwise approach. The first step is to review medications that may be causing dyspepsia and provide lifestyle advice. If symptoms persist, a full-dose proton pump inhibitor or a ‘test and treat’ approach for H. pylori can be tried for one month. If symptoms still persist, the alternative approach should be attempted.

      For patients who meet referral criteria for suspected cancer, urgent referral for an endoscopy within two weeks is necessary. This includes patients with dysphagia, an upper abdominal mass consistent with stomach cancer, and patients aged 55 years or older with weight loss and upper abdominal pain, reflux, or dyspepsia. Non-urgent referral is recommended for patients with haematemesis and patients aged 55 years or older with treatment-resistant dyspepsia, upper abdominal pain with low haemoglobin levels, or raised platelet count with symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, weight loss, reflux, dyspepsia, or upper abdominal pain.

      Testing for H. pylori infection can be done through a carbon-13 urea breath test, stool antigen test, or laboratory-based serology. If symptoms have resolved following a ‘test and treat’ approach, there is no need to check for H. pylori eradication. However, if repeat testing is required, a carbon-13 urea breath test should be used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 24 - A 25-year-old woman is seeking advice on contraception following a planned surgical abortion....

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman is seeking advice on contraception following a planned surgical abortion. She is interested in getting an intra-uterine device inserted. What is the recommended waiting period after a surgical termination of pregnancy before getting an IUD fitted?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: An intra-uterine device can be fitted immediately after evacuation of the uterine cavity

      Explanation:

      The Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare recommends that an intrauterine contraceptive can be inserted right after the evacuation of the uterine cavity following a surgical abortion, provided that it is the woman’s preferred method of contraception.

      Termination of Pregnancy in the UK

      The UK’s current abortion law is based on the 1967 Abortion Act, which was amended in 1990 to reduce the upper limit for termination from 28 weeks to 24 weeks gestation. To perform an abortion, two registered medical practitioners must sign a legal document, although in emergencies, only one is needed. The procedure must be carried out by a registered medical practitioner in an NHS hospital or licensed premise. The method used to terminate pregnancy depends on the gestation period. For pregnancies less than nine weeks, mifepristone followed by prostaglandins is used, while surgical dilation and suction of uterine contents are used for pregnancies less than 13 weeks. For pregnancies more than 15 weeks, surgical dilation and evacuation of uterine contents or late medical abortion is used. The 1967 Abortion Act outlines the conditions under which a person shall not be guilty of an offense under the law relating to abortion. These limits do not apply in cases where it is necessary to save the life of the woman, there is evidence of extreme fetal abnormality, or there is a risk of serious physical or mental injury to the woman.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
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  • Question 25 - Which one of the following is least acknowledged as a possible negative outcome...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following is least acknowledged as a possible negative outcome of electroconvulsive therapy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Epilepsy

      Explanation:

      There is no long-term risk of epilepsy associated with electroconvulsive therapy, despite the fact that it induces a controlled seizure.

      Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is a viable treatment option for individuals who suffer from severe depression that doesn’t respond to medication, such as catatonia, or those who experience psychotic symptoms. The only absolute contraindication for ECT is when a patient has raised intracranial pressure.

      Short-term side effects of ECT may include headaches, nausea, short-term memory impairment, memory loss of events that occurred before the treatment, and cardiac arrhythmia. However, these side effects are typically temporary and subside after a short period of time.

      Long-term side effects of ECT are less common, but some patients have reported impaired memory. It is important to note that the benefits of ECT often outweigh the potential risks and side effects, and it can be a life-changing treatment for those who have not found relief from other forms of therapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 26 - A 35-year-old former paratrooper has joined your practice. He lost his leg during...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old former paratrooper has joined your practice. He lost his leg during a tour of duty in Afghanistan when he was shelled by opposing forces and witnessed the death of two of his colleagues.

      In recent months, he has been experiencing flashbacks, and his wife has noticed that he has become emotionally distant and insensitive towards her. He has also been struggling with sleep and concentration, and has been prone to sudden outbursts of anger.

      You suspect that he may be suffering from PTSD and have recommended that he seek psychiatric help. Although he has declined counseling, he is interested in learning more about medication options, having seen the positive effects of sertraline on his wife's depression a few years ago.

      According to NICE guidelines, which antidepressant is recommended as a second-line treatment for PTSD after psychological therapy has been refused or proven ineffective?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Diazepam

      Explanation:

      NICE’s Guidance on Drug Treatments for PTSD in Adults

      According to the latest guidance from the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated in 2018, drug treatments, including benzodiazepines, should not be offered to prevent PTSD in adults. However, for those with a diagnosis of PTSD who prefer drug treatment, venlafaxine or a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), such as sertraline, may be considered and should be reviewed regularly.

      In addition, antipsychotics such as risperidone may be considered for adults with a diagnosis of PTSD who have disabling symptoms and behaviors, such as severe hyperarousal or psychotic symptoms, and have not responded to other drug or psychological treatments. It is important to note that antipsychotic treatment should be started and reviewed regularly by a specialist.

      Overall, NICE’s guidance emphasizes the importance of individualized treatment plans for adults with PTSD, taking into account their preferences and response to previous treatments.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 27 - Which one of the following statements regarding Chickenpox in adults is incorrect? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding Chickenpox in adults is incorrect?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Children are infectious once rash begins until all lesions have scabbed over

      Explanation:

      Chickenpox is a viral infection caused by the varicella zoster virus. It is highly contagious and can be spread through respiratory droplets. The virus can also reactivate later in life and cause shingles. Chickenpox is most infectious from four days before the rash appears until five days after. The incubation period is typically 10-21 days. Symptoms include fever and an itchy rash that starts on the head and trunk before spreading. The rash goes through stages of macular, papular, and vesicular. Management is supportive, with measures such as keeping cool and using calamine lotion. Immunocompromised patients and newborns with peripartum exposure should receive varicella zoster immunoglobulin. Complications can include secondary bacterial infection of the lesions, pneumonia, encephalitis, and rare complications such as disseminated haemorrhagic Chickenpox.

      One common complication of Chickenpox is secondary bacterial infection of the lesions, which can be increased by the use of NSAIDs. This can manifest as a single infected lesion or small area of cellulitis. In rare cases, invasive group A streptococcal soft tissue infections may occur, resulting in necrotizing fasciitis. Other rare complications of Chickenpox include pneumonia, encephalitis (which may involve the cerebellum), disseminated haemorrhagic Chickenpox, and very rarely, arthritis, nephritis, and pancreatitis. It is important to note that school exclusion may be necessary, as Chickenpox is highly infectious and can be caught from someone with shingles. It is advised to avoid contact with others until all lesions have crusted over.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 28 - Sarah is a 55-year-old woman with severe secondary progressive multiple sclerosis. She is...

    Incorrect

    • Sarah is a 55-year-old woman with severe secondary progressive multiple sclerosis. She is also wheelchair bound and has developed severe leg spasticity that hinders her ability to walk. Despite trying various medications such as baclofen, gabapentin, and dantrolene, she has not experienced significant relief from her symptoms. As per the guidelines, what other medication can be considered for trial?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: THC:CBD spray (nabiximols)

      Explanation:

      Cannabis-Based Medicinal Products: Guidelines and Available Products

      Cannabis-based medicinal products can now be prescribed for therapeutic use under specialist supervision, following a Department of Health review in 2018. These products are defined as medicinal preparations or products that contain cannabis, cannabis resin, cannabinol, or a cannabinol derivative, and are produced for use in humans. Initial prescriptions must be made by a specialist medical practitioner with experience in the condition being treated, and subsequent prescriptions can be issued by another practitioner under a shared care agreement.

      Cannabis-based medicinal products can be used to manage various conditions, including chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting, chronic pain, spasticity in adults with multiple sclerosis, and severe-treatment resistant epilepsy. However, current NICE guidance advises against using cannabis-based medicines for chronic pain, except if already initiated and under specialist supervision until appropriate to stop.

      Several cannabis-based products and cannabinoids are available, including Bedrocan, Tilray, Sativex, Epidiolex, Dronabinol, and Nabilone. However, unlicensed cannabis-based products can only be prescribed by doctors on the General Medical Council Specialist Register, and doctors should prescribe products only for disorders within their specialty when there is clear evidence or published guidelines.

      It is important to consider current available evidence, interactions with other prescribed or non-prescribed medication, and the potential for patients to seek or use non-medicinal products lacking safety and quality assurance when considering prescribing cannabis-based products. Patients should also be advised of the risks of impaired driving, as cannabis-based products may impair a patient’s ability to drive safely.

      Common side effects associated with cannabis-based medicines include disorientation, dizziness, euphoria, confusion, dry mouth, nausea, somnolence, fatigue, vomiting, drowsiness, loss of balance, and hallucination. Rare adverse events include psychosis and seizures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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  • Question 29 - A psychology student conducts a study amongst her peers investigating the effect of...

    Incorrect

    • A psychology student conducts a study amongst her peers investigating the effect of age on memory. She found that participants over the age of 50 showed significantly worse memory performance compared to participants under the age of 50 with a significance level of p<0.05. Later on in her project, she conducts a systematic review which finds no significant effect of age on memory.

      What statistical mistake is the student likely to have made in her initial study?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Type I error

      Explanation:

      In statistical hypothesis testing, a type I error occurs when the null hypothesis is rejected when it is actually true. This is also known as a false positive. For example, if a student found a significant effect of previous covid-19 infection on task performance when there actually was no effect, this would be a type I error.

      A false negative, on the other hand, is when no significant result is found when there actually is one. This is the same as a type II error. For instance, if the student found no effect of previous covid-19 infection on task performance when actually there was an effect, this would be a false negative or a type II error.

      Sampling errors can occur when there is a systematic error in recruiting research participants, resulting in a sample population that is not representative of the population to which the results will be applied. However, there is no indication that this is the case in this scenario.

      A type II error occurs when the null hypothesis is accepted when it is actually false. In this case, if the student found no effect of previous covid-19 infection on task performance when later research demonstrates there is an effect, this would be a type II error.

      Finally, a type III error is not commonly used. It occurs when the null hypothesis is rejected correctly but for the wrong reason.

      Significance tests are used to determine the likelihood of a null hypothesis being true. The null hypothesis states that two treatments are equally effective, while the alternative hypothesis suggests that there is a difference between the two treatments. The p value is the probability of obtaining a result by chance that is at least as extreme as the observed result, assuming the null hypothesis is true. Two types of errors can occur during significance testing: type I, where the null hypothesis is rejected when it is true, and type II, where the null hypothesis is accepted when it is false. The power of a study is the probability of correctly rejecting the null hypothesis when it is false, and it can be increased by increasing the sample size.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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  • Question 30 - Please review the death certificate below:

    1a Congestive cardiac failure
    1b Essential hypertension
    1c
    2 Advanced age,...

    Incorrect

    • Please review the death certificate below:

      1a Congestive cardiac failure
      1b Essential hypertension
      1c
      2 Advanced age, type 2 diabetes mellitus

      Which one of the statements regarding this certificate is accurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Congestive cardiac failure is the direct cause of death

      Explanation:

      If the underlying cause is stated, it is acceptable to use a type of organ failure in 1a. However, section 2 should be used to record Type 2 diabetes mellitus as it doesn’t lead to essential hypertension.

      Death Certification in the UK

      There are no legal definitions of death in the UK, but guidelines exist to verify it. According to the current guidance, a doctor or other qualified personnel should verify death, and nurse practitioners may verify but not certify it. After a patient has died, a doctor needs to complete a medical certificate of cause of death (MCCD). However, there is a list of circumstances in which a doctor should notify the Coroner before completing the MCCD.

      When completing the MCCD, it is important to note that old age as 1a is only acceptable if the patient was at least 80 years old. Natural causes is not acceptable, and organ failure can only be used if the disease or condition that led to the organ failure is specified. Abbreviations should be avoided, except for HIV and AIDS.

      Once the MCCD is completed, the family takes it to the local Registrar of Births, Deaths, and Marriages office to register the death. If the Registrar decides that the death doesn’t need reporting to the Coroner, he/she will issue a certificate for Burial or Cremation and a certificate of Registration of Death for Social Security purposes. Copies of the Death Register are also available upon request, which banks and insurance companies expect to see. If the family wants the burial to be outside of England, an Out of England Order is needed from the coroner.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • End Of Life
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Cardiovascular Health (2/2) 100%
Children And Young People (3/4) 75%
Gastroenterology (1/2) 50%
Musculoskeletal Health (1/1) 100%
Mental Health (0/1) 0%
Eyes And Vision (1/1) 100%
End Of Life (0/1) 0%
Kidney And Urology (1/1) 100%
Passmed