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Question 1
Correct
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A 36-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital for delivery. She has had two previous vaginal deliveries. After three hours, she gives birth to a healthy baby girl with APGAR scores of 9 at 1 minute and 10 at 5 and 10 minutes. However, the newborn appears to be macrosomic, and during delivery, the mother suffers a perineal tear. The midwife calls the doctor to suture the tear and upon examination, they discover an injury to the superficial and deep transverse perineal muscles, involving the external and internal anal sphincters, with mucosal sparing. What degree of injury does she have?
Your Answer: Third-degree
Explanation:The perineal tear in this patient involves the anal sphincter complex, including both the external and internal anal sphincters, which is classified as a third-degree injury. This type of tear is typically caused by the intense pressure and stretching that occurs during childbirth, particularly in first-time mothers or those delivering larger babies, often due to undiagnosed gestational diabetes.
Perineal tears are a common occurrence during childbirth, and the Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (RCOG) has developed guidelines to classify them based on their severity. First-degree tears are superficial and do not require any repair, while second-degree tears involve the perineal muscle and require suturing by a midwife or clinician. Third-degree tears involve the anal sphincter complex and require repair in theatre by a trained clinician, with subcategories based on the extent of the tear. Fourth-degree tears involve the anal sphincter complex and rectal mucosa and also require repair in theatre by a trained clinician.
There are several risk factors for perineal tears, including being a first-time mother, having a large baby, experiencing a precipitant labour, and having a shoulder dystocia or forceps delivery. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these risk factors and to provide appropriate care and management during childbirth to minimize the risk of perineal tears. By following the RCOG guidelines and providing timely and effective treatment, healthcare providers can help ensure the best possible outcomes for both mother and baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man, who has a history of hypertension and gout, visits you with a severely inflamed big toe on his right foot. He is currently taking indomethacin and allopurinol for his gout, but he is dissatisfied with the treatment and wants an alternative for arthritis control. You prescribe colchicine, and after three doses, his pain and swelling subside. What is the mechanism of action of colchicine in treating gout?
Your Answer: Inhibiting cyclo-oxygenase
Correct Answer: Inhibiting monosodium urate-induced activation of neutrophils
Explanation:Colchicine is a medication used to treat acute gout attacks when NSAIDs are not effective or cannot be used. It works by inhibiting the activation of neutrophils by monosodium urate crystals, which disrupts the cytoskeleton and prevents the appropriate inflammatory response. However, it can cause side-effects such as diarrhea, nausea, and hepatic/renal toxicity.
Decreasing the breakdown of purines is not the mechanism of action of colchicine, but rather of allopurinol, which inhibits the enzyme xanthine oxidase and blocks the formation of uric acid. This medication is used to prevent gout attacks and hyperuricemia from chemotherapy, but can cause side-effects such as hypersensitivity reactions and hepatotoxicity.
Inhibiting phospholipase A2 is not the mode of action of colchicine, but rather of glucocorticoids. Similarly, inhibiting cyclo-oxygenase is not the mechanism of action of colchicine, but rather of NSAIDs. These medications can cause side-effects such as gastrointestinal bleeding and ulceration.
Finally, suppressing the proliferation of lymphocytes is not the mechanism of action of colchicine, but rather of immunosuppressive medications like glucocorticoids and tacrolimus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 35-year old teacher is found to have a medical condition that follows an autosomal dominant inheritance pattern.
Which of the following illnesses is most accurately characterized as being inherited in an autosomal dominant manner?Your Answer: Cystic fibrosis
Correct Answer: Familial hypercholesterolaemia
Explanation:Familial hypercholesterolaemia is a single gene disorder inherited in an autosomal dominant manner. Mutations in genes such as LDLR, Apo, and PCSK9 affect cholesterol handling in the body. Patients with mutations in the LDLR gene produce a defective receptor that cannot bind LDLs, leading to cholesterol accumulation outside cells and atherosclerosis. Heterozygotes are at risk of developing premature cardiovascular disease, while homozygotes can develop severe cardiovascular disease in childhood. Hereditary haemochromatosis is inherited in an autosomal recessive manner, with mutations occurring in the HFE gene. The C282Y mutation accounts for 90% of cases and causes increased iron absorption, leading to iron overload. Wilson’s disease is also inherited in an autosomal recessive manner, with mutations in the ATP7B gene causing copper accumulation in the liver, brain, and other tissues. Sickle cell anaemia is caused by a mutation in the β globin gene, leading to sickled red cells that block circulation and cause tissue oxygen deficiency. Cystic fibrosis is caused by mutations in the CFTR gene, inhibiting the flow of chloride ions and water and leading to thickened mucous that blocks hollow organs and provides a favorable environment for bacterial growth.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 34-year-old woman is at eight weeks’ gestation in her first pregnancy, with a body mass index (BMI) of 36.5 kg/m2. She has type 2 diabetes mellitus, and her sister had pre-eclampsia in both her pregnancies. She had deep vein thrombosis (DVT), following a long-haul flight to Australia last year. Which of the following risk factors presenting in this patient’s history is considered a high-risk factor for the development of pre-eclampsia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Type 2 diabetes mellitus
Explanation:Pre-eclampsia Risk Factors in Pregnancy
During the first prenatal visit, women are screened for their risk of developing pre-eclampsia during pregnancy.
High-risk factors include a personal history of pre-eclampsia, essential hypertension, type 1 or 2 diabetes mellitus, chronic kidney disease, or autoimmune conditions.
Moderate risk factors include a BMI of 35-39.9 kg/m2, family history of pre-eclampsia, age of ≥ 40, first pregnancy, multiple pregnancy, and an interpregnancy interval of > 10 years. If any high or moderate risk factor is present, it is recommended that the woman take 75 mg of aspirin daily from the 12th week of gestation until delivery.
A personal history of DVT is not a risk factor for pre-eclampsia, but it is associated with an increased risk of thrombi during pregnancy and the puerperium.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman is in labor with her first baby. In the second stage, fetal distress is detected, and instrumental delivery is being considered. What would be a contraindication to this procedure?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Head palpable abdominally
Explanation:Instrumental delivery is a method used to expedite delivery during the second stage of labor in order to prevent fetal and maternal morbidity. It involves the use of traction and is indicated in cases of prolonged active second stage, maternal exhaustion, fetal distress, breech presentation, and prophylactic use in medical conditions such as cardiovascular disease and hypertension. It can also be used to rotate a malpositioned fetal head.
To be eligible for instrumental delivery, the following requirements must be met, which can be remembered using the acronym FORCEPS:
– Fully dilated cervix, indicating that the second stage of labor has been reached
– Occiput anterior (OA) position, preferably with the head in the occiput posterior (OP) position, as delivery is possible with Kielland’s forceps and ventouse. The position of the head must be known to avoid maternal or fetal trauma and failure.
– Ruptured membranes
– Cephalic presentation
– Engaged presenting part, meaning that the head is at or below the ischial spines and cannot be palpated abdominally
– Pain relief
– Sphincter (bladder) empty, which usually requires catheterizationIt is important to note that there must be a clear indication for instrumental delivery.
When is a Forceps Delivery Necessary?
A forceps delivery may be necessary in certain situations during childbirth. These situations include fetal distress, maternal distress, failure to progress, and the need to control the head in a breech delivery. Fetal distress occurs when the baby is not receiving enough oxygen and can be detected through changes in the baby’s heart rate. Maternal distress can occur when the mother is exhausted or experiencing complications such as high blood pressure. Failure to progress refers to a situation where the mother has been pushing for an extended period of time without making progress. In a breech delivery, the baby’s head may need to be controlled to prevent injury. In these situations, a forceps delivery may be recommended by the healthcare provider to safely deliver the baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 9-month-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department with a fever, cough, and difficulty breathing. Her vital signs are as follows: temperature 38.5˚C, heart rate 170 bpm, respiratory rate 60/min, oxygen saturation 92% on room air, blood pressure 100/65 mmHg, capillary refill time is 3 seconds. Her parents report that she has been eating poorly for the past few days and has had a high temperature for the past 24 hours. A senior clinician has admitted her and started IV antibiotics, IV fluids, and supplemental oxygen. The patient is currently awake and alert.
According to the NICE pediatric traffic light system, which of the following in her presentation is a red flag?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tachypnoea
Explanation:The child’s capillary refill time is normal, as it falls within the acceptable range of less than 3 seconds. However, his tachycardia is a cause for concern, as a heart rate over 160 bpm is considered an amber flag for his age. Although reduced skin turgor is not mentioned, it would be considered a red flag indicating severe dehydration and poor circulation according to the NICE traffic light system. As the child is older than 3 months, a temperature above 38˚C would not be considered a red flag.
The NICE Feverish illness in children guidelines were introduced in 2007 and updated in 2013. These guidelines use a ‘traffic light’ system to assess the risk of children under 5 years old presenting with a fever. It is important to note that these guidelines only apply until a clinical diagnosis of the underlying condition has been made. When assessing a febrile child, their temperature, heart rate, respiratory rate, and capillary refill time should be recorded. Signs of dehydration should also be looked for. Measuring temperature should be done with an electronic thermometer in the axilla if the child is under 4 weeks old or with an electronic/chemical dot thermometer in the axilla or an infrared tympanic thermometer.
The risk stratification table includes green for low risk, amber for intermediate risk, and red for high risk. The table includes categories such as color, activity, respiratory, circulation and hydration, and other symptoms. If a child is categorized as green, they can be managed at home with appropriate care advice. If they are categorized as amber, parents should be provided with a safety net or referred to a pediatric specialist for further assessment. If a child is categorized as red, they should be urgently referred to a pediatric specialist. It is important to note that oral antibiotics should not be prescribed to children with fever without an apparent source, and a chest x-ray does not need to be routinely performed if a pneumonia is suspected but the child is not going to be referred to the hospital.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 21-year-old patient who began taking desogestrel 50 hours ago reaches out to you to report that she took her second dose of medication 15 hours behind schedule yesterday and engaged in unprotected sexual activity on the same day. What is the recommended course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Organise for emergency contraception immediately
Explanation:Emergency contraception is necessary if unprotected sex occurred within 48 hours of restarting the POP after a missed pill. In this case, the patient missed her second pill by over 12 hours and is within the 48-hour window. A pregnancy test cannot provide reassurance the day after intercourse. It is important to take additional precautions and take the next pill at the normal time after a missed progesterone-only pill for 48 hours. If the missed pill is forgotten for 24 hours, taking two pills at once may be necessary, but in this instance, as the missed pill has already been taken, that suggestion is incorrect.
progesterone Only Pill: What to Do When You Miss a Pill
The progesterone only pill (POP) has simpler rules for missed pills compared to the combined oral contraceptive pill. It is important to note that the rules for the two types of pills should not be confused. The traditional POPs (Micronor, Noriday, Norgeston, Femulen) and Cerazette (desogestrel) have the following guidelines for missed pills:
– If the pill is less than 3 hours late, no action is required, and you can continue taking the pill as normal.
– If the pill is more than 3 hours late (i.e., more than 27 hours since the last pill was taken), action is needed.
– If the pill is less than 12 hours late, no action is required, and you can continue taking the pill as normal.
– If the pill is more than 12 hours late (i.e., more than 36 hours since the last pill was taken), action is needed. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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At what age do children typically begin to play alongside their peers without actively engaging with them?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 2 years
Explanation:The table summarizes developmental milestones for social behavior, feeding, dressing, and play. Milestones include smiling at 6 weeks, using a spoon and cup at 12-15 months, and playing with other children at 4 years.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 36-year-old man with Crohn's disease is taking azathioprine to keep his condition under control. He visits his doctor complaining of fever, fatigue, and cold-like symptoms that have lasted for three days. Given his medical history, the doctor is worried and decides to run some tests.
What is the most crucial test to perform in this scenario?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Full blood count
Explanation:If a patient experiences infection or bleeding while taking azathioprine, it is important to consider a full blood count. This is because azathioprine can cause myelosuppression, which can be life-threatening if left untreated. A chest X-ray would not be helpful in this scenario as it would not show myelosuppression. Liver function tests are also not as important as checking the full blood count. Checking TPMT levels is not necessary in this case as they would have already been checked before starting the medication.
Azathioprine is a medication that is broken down into mercaptopurine, which is an active compound that inhibits the production of purine. To determine if someone is at risk for azathioprine toxicity, a test for thiopurine methyltransferase (TPMT) may be necessary. Adverse effects of this medication include bone marrow depression, which can be detected through a full blood count if there are signs of infection or bleeding, as well as nausea, vomiting, pancreatitis, and an increased risk of non-melanoma skin cancer. It is important to note that there is a significant interaction between azathioprine and allopurinol, so lower doses of azathioprine should be used in conjunction with allopurinol. Despite these potential side effects, azathioprine is generally considered safe to use during pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A toddler with macrosomia has had a difficult delivery, owing to shoulder dystocia. The obstetrician pulled the child’s head downwards towards the floor to disengage the anterior shoulder from below the pubic bones. When the child is having a check-up prior to discharge, the paediatrician notes that the left upper limb is adducted and medially rotated, with extension at the elbow joint. When questioned, the mother admits that the child has not been moving it.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Erb–Duchenne palsy due to trauma to the upper trunk of the brachial plexus
Explanation:Differentiating Brachial Plexus Injuries: Causes and Symptoms
The brachial plexus is a network of nerves that originates from the spinal cord and supplies the upper limb. Trauma to this network can result in various types of injuries, each with its own set of symptoms. Here are some of the common types of brachial plexus injuries and their distinguishing features:
Erb-Duchenne Palsy: This injury occurs due to trauma to the upper trunk of the brachial plexus, typically during obstructed labor or delivery. The affected muscles include those supplied by the musculocutaneous, radial, and axillary nerves, resulting in adduction and medial rotation of the arm, wrist drop, and sensory loss along the posterolateral aspect of the limb.
Isolated Radial Nerve Injury: This type of injury is associated with paralysis of the wrist and digital extensors, as well as the triceps. However, medial rotation of the humerus is not affected.
Klumpke’s Palsy: This injury is caused by trauma to the lower trunk of the brachial plexus, often during difficult delivery or sudden upward stretching of the upper limb. It results in claw hand due to damage to T1, causing paralysis of the short muscles of the hand.
Isolated Axillary Nerve Injury: With this type of injury, the wrist extensors function normally.
Isolated Musculocutaneous Nerve Injury: This injury is not associated with wrist drop.
In summary, understanding the specific symptoms associated with each type of brachial plexus injury can aid in accurate diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old boy spends the night out with his buddies, drinking 7 pints of beer and a few shots of whiskey. He dozes off in his friend's kitchen with his arm hanging over the back of a chair. The next morning, he experiences tenderness in his right armpit area and is unable to straighten his fingers. What other symptom is he likely to exhibit with this injury?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Numbness over the dorsal aspect of the right hand between the thumb and index finger
Explanation:Understanding Hand Numbness and Weakness: A Guide to Nerve Supply
Hand numbness and weakness can be caused by nerve injuries in various locations. The radial nerve, a branch of the brachial plexus, can be injured in the axillary region, humerus, or forearm, resulting in numbness over the dorsal aspect of the hand between the thumb and index finger. The ulnar nerve supplies the little finger and adductor pollicis, while the median nerve innervates the palm and radial lumbricals. Understanding the nerve supply can aid in diagnosing and treating hand numbness and weakness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old girl is referred to the paediatric clinic for failure to thrive. She has failed to maintain her weight and suffers from diarrhoea and frequent respiratory tract infections. A sweat test is performed and the chloride content of the sweat is 68 mmol/l.
Which of the following modes of inheritance fits best with this condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Autosomal recessive
Explanation:Genetic Inheritance Patterns and Abnormalities
Genetic inheritance patterns play a crucial role in the development of various diseases and abnormalities. Autosomal recessive inheritance is seen in conditions like cystic fibrosis, where mutations in the CFTR gene cause defective chloride transport and excessive viscous mucous secretions. Diagnosis is made through the sweat test, which measures chloride levels. Autosomal dominant inheritance is seen in conditions like Marfan syndrome and familial hypercholesterolaemia. Sex-linked inheritance is seen in conditions like Duchenne muscular dystrophy and haemophilia. Chromosomal non-disjunction occurs when homologous chromosomes fail to separate during meiosis, leading to aneuploidy zygotes like in Down syndrome. Chromosomal translocation occurs when non-homologous chromosomes exchange parts, leading to fusion chromosomes like in chronic myelogenous leukaemia. Understanding these inheritance patterns and abnormalities is crucial in the diagnosis and management of various genetic conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 13
Incorrect
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You are working on the neonatal ward and are called to see a newborn who the nurses have noticed is persistently 'floppy'. You assess the newborn and find no acute cause for concern and wonder whether there might be an underlying issue.
Which of the following is most likely to be the underlying cause of neonatal hypotonia in this case?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prader-Willi syndrome
Explanation:Prader-Willi is one of the conditions that can cause neonatal hypotonia, along with neonatal sepsis, spinal muscular atrophy, and hypothyroidism.
Understanding Neonatal Hypotonia and Its Causes
Neonatal hypotonia is a condition characterized by low muscle tone in newborns. This can be caused by various factors, including neonatal sepsis, Werdnig-Hoffman disease (spinal muscular atrophy type 1), hypothyroidism, and Prader-Willi syndrome. Maternal factors such as drug use, particularly benzodiazepines, and myasthenia gravis can also contribute to neonatal hypotonia.
Neonatal hypotonia can have serious consequences, including difficulty with feeding and breathing, delayed motor development, and even death in severe cases. It is important for healthcare providers to identify the underlying cause of hypotonia in newborns and provide appropriate treatment to prevent complications and improve outcomes.
Understanding the potential causes of neonatal hypotonia can help healthcare providers make an accurate diagnosis and develop an effective treatment plan. With proper care and management, many newborns with hypotonia can go on to lead healthy and fulfilling lives.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old Caucasian man presents with a 3-month history of diarrhoea, fatigue, and weight loss. He denies any history of alcohol or drug abuse. He frequently travels to southern India for work. Laboratory tests show mixed macrocytic anaemia with low levels of serum folate and vitamin B12. Stool examination is negative for ova and parasites. A small bowel biopsy reveals predominant mononuclear infiltration and villous destruction throughout the small intestine. What intervention is most likely to improve his symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Broad spectrum antibiotics like tetracycline and folate
Explanation:Treatment Options for Tropical Sprue: Broad Spectrum Antibiotics and Folate Supplementation
Tropical sprue is a condition commonly seen in individuals visiting or residing in tropical countries, particularly in southern India. It is characterized by chronic diarrhea, weight loss, and deficiencies in vitamin B12 and folate. Stool examination typically shows no evidence of ova and parasites, while small intestinal biopsy reveals mononuclear cell infiltration and less villous atrophy throughout the intestine.
The recommended treatment for tropical sprue involves the use of broad-spectrum antibiotics, such as tetracyclines, along with folate supplementation. This approach has been shown to effectively reverse the changes in the small intestine associated with the condition.
Other treatment options, such as antihelminthic drugs, are not effective in treating tropical sprue. Similarly, pancreatic enzyme replacement is not indicated in this condition.
It is important to note that tropical sprue should not be confused with coeliac disease, which is treated with a gluten-free diet. In coeliac disease, small intestinal biopsy typically shows severe villous atrophy and mononuclear cell infiltration in the proximal portion of the small bowel.
Finally, double-strength trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole is used in the treatment of Whipple’s disease, which is characterized by PAS-positive macrophages in the lamina propria of the small intestine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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What is the function of delta cells in the pancreas?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Produce somatostatin
Explanation:Pancreatic Cell Functions
The pancreas is an important organ in the body that plays a crucial role in regulating blood sugar levels. It is made up of different types of cells that produce various hormones and enzymes. Alpha cells are responsible for producing glucagon, which helps increase blood sugar levels. On the other hand, beta cells produce insulin, which helps lower blood sugar levels. Lastly, PP cells produce pancreatic polypeptide, which helps regulate pancreatic secretion and digestion.
Aside from hormone production, the pancreas also produces enzymes that aid in digestion. Trypsinogen is one of these enzymes, which is produced in the ducts of the exocrine pancreas. It is then converted to trypsin by enzymes found in the gut mucosa. Trypsin plays a crucial role in breaking down proteins in the small intestine, allowing for better absorption of nutrients.
In summary, the pancreas is a complex organ that performs various functions to maintain the body’s overall health. Its different types of cells work together to regulate blood sugar levels and aid in digestion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old man with a history of acromegaly presents for a check-up. He reports experiencing pins and needles in his hands in the early morning hours, and a positive Tinel's sign. Which muscle is most likely to be weak?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Abductor pollicis brevis
Explanation:Carpal Tunnel Syndrome and Median Nerve Innervation
Carpal tunnel syndrome is a condition that can cause weakness in the abductor pollicis brevis muscle, which is innervated by the median nerve. This muscle, along with the opponens pollicis, is controlled by the median nerve. The flexor pollicis brevis muscle may also be innervated by either the median or ulnar nerve. In this case, the symptoms suggest carpal tunnel syndrome, which is often associated with acromegaly. Early intervention is crucial in treating carpal tunnel syndrome, as permanent nerve damage can occur if decompression is delayed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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You are advising a 35-year-old woman with major depressive disorder who is contemplating electroconvulsive therapy (ECT).
What is a temporary side effect of this treatment?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cardiac arrhythmias
Explanation:Knowing the side effects of ECT is crucial as it is a treatment that is often viewed with apprehension by the public. ECT is typically used to treat depression that is resistant to other treatments, as well as severe mania and catatonic schizophrenia. While it was once a feared treatment due to its use of high strengths and lack of anesthesia, it is now considered to be a relatively safe intervention. Short-term side effects of ECT include headaches, nausea, memory problems, and cardiac arrhythmias. There are few long-term effects, although some patients may experience long-term memory issues. ECT is used to treat mania and is being studied as a potential treatment for Parkinson’s disease. It induces a generalized seizure but is not associated with epilepsy or glaucoma.
Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is a viable treatment option for patients who suffer from severe depression that does not respond to medication, such as catatonia, or those who experience psychotic symptoms. The only absolute contraindication for ECT is when a patient has raised intracranial pressure.
Short-term side effects of ECT include headaches, nausea, short-term memory impairment, memory loss of events prior to the therapy, and cardiac arrhythmia. However, these side effects are typically temporary and resolve quickly.
Long-term side effects of ECT are less common, but some patients have reported impaired memory. It is important to note that the benefits of ECT often outweigh the potential risks, and it can be a life-changing treatment for those who have not found relief from other forms of therapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman, with a history of hearing voices, was brought to the Emergency Department by her family. She described the voices as telling her to kill her father as ‘he has the devil in him’. She also reported noting her intelligence being tapped through the Internet by a higher power. This has been going on for the past 6 months. Her family denies either depression or manic episodes. The patient was admitted to an inpatient Psychiatry Unit and started on haloperidol for her symptoms, after an evaluation and diagnosis of schizophrenia. Twelve hours after initiation of therapy, the patient started to have stiffness in the neck muscles and spine. Physical examination revealed muscular spasms in the neck and spine, a temperature of 37.2 °C, blood pressure 125/70 mmHg and a pulse of 80 bpm.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acute dystonia
Explanation:Complications of Haloperidol: Acute Dystonia, Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome, Serotonin Syndrome, and Meningitis
Haloperidol is an anti-psychotic medication commonly used to treat schizophrenia. However, it can also cause various complications. Acute dystonia is a condition where the patient experiences muscle spasms in different muscle groups, which can occur shortly after taking haloperidol. Treatment for acute dystonia involves administering anticholinergics.
Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is another complication that can occur as a result of taking anti-psychotic medication, particularly high-potency ones like haloperidol. Symptoms include abnormal vital signs, such as high fever, and treatment involves discontinuing the medication and managing symptoms with cooling measures and medications like dantrolene or bromocriptine.
Serotonin syndrome is a condition that can occur when a patient takes multiple doses or an overdose of medications like selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs), or serotonin agonists like sumatriptans. Symptoms include muscular twitching, agitation, confusion, hyperthermia, sweating, hypertension, tachycardia, and diarrhea.
Meningitis, on the other hand, is not a complication of haloperidol. It is an inflammation of the protective membranes surrounding the brain and spinal cord, usually caused by a bacterial or viral infection.
Finally, malignant hyperthermia is a condition that can manifest with similar symptoms to neuroleptic malignant syndrome, but it usually occurs during anesthesia administration and is caused by an inherited autosomal dominant disorder of the ryanodine receptor gene in the skeletal muscle. Treatment involves using dantrolene and providing supportive care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 47-year-old woman visits her doctor with a complaint of experiencing cold hands and feet over the last two weeks. Her medications have been recently altered, with a new medication introduced to improve her blood pressure management. Which of the following medications is the probable cause of her symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bisoprolol
Explanation:Beta-blockers are frequently prescribed for hypertension treatment, but they can lead to cold extremities as a side effect. Thiazide diuretics like bendroflumethiazide commonly cause constipation, diarrhea, dizziness, and dry mouth. Angiotensin receptor blockers such as candesartan and losartan do not typically result in cold peripheries.
Beta-blockers are a class of drugs that are primarily used to manage cardiovascular disorders. They have a wide range of indications, including angina, post-myocardial infarction, heart failure, arrhythmias, hypertension, thyrotoxicosis, migraine prophylaxis, and anxiety. Beta-blockers were previously avoided in heart failure, but recent evidence suggests that certain beta-blockers can improve both symptoms and mortality. They have also replaced digoxin as the rate-control drug of choice in atrial fibrillation. However, their role in reducing stroke and myocardial infarction has diminished in recent years due to a lack of evidence. Examples of beta-blockers include atenolol and propranolol, which was one of the first beta-blockers to be developed and is lipid soluble, allowing it to cross the blood-brain barrier.
Like all drugs, beta-blockers have side-effects, including bronchospasm, cold peripheries, fatigue, sleep disturbances (including nightmares), and erectile dysfunction. They are contraindicated in uncontrolled heart failure, asthma, sick sinus syndrome, and concurrent use with verapamil, which may precipitate severe bradycardia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 20
Incorrect
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What are the stimuli that trigger the release of insulin from beta cells in the pancreas?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: GLP-1, amino acids and glucagon
Explanation:Factors that Stimulate Insulin Release
Insulin release is not only stimulated by a rise in plasma glucose but also by other factors. Insulin is stored in secretory granules in beta cells and is rapidly released when a meal is ingested. The main mechanism that stimulates insulin release is an increase in adenosine triphosphate (ATP) production within the beta cell, resulting from an increase in glucose availability. This closes a KATP channel in the cell membrane, which depolarizes the membrane and causes an influx of calcium. The increase in intracellular calcium stimulates the mobilization of insulin-containing secretory granules to the membrane and releases the hormone into the circulation.
GLP-1, a gut hormone released in response to food ingestion, has an important incretin effect. This effect amplifies glucose-stimulated insulin release in pancreatic beta cells. It is believed to result from the action of GLP-1 on a separate K+ channel in the beta cell. A number of newer medications used in the treatment of type 2 diabetes mellitus work via the incretin effect.
Three amino acids, arginine, glycine, and alanine, also stimulate insulin release. This occurs due to the co-transport of amino acid with Na+ into the beta cell via a symporter, rather than an effect on the KATP channel. The addition of protein to a meal evokes a larger insulin response than pure carbohydrate. Glucagon, despite the majority of its actions being antagonistic to those of insulin, also stimulates insulin release. This is thought to be so that sufficient insulin is available to allow tissue uptake of newly-released glucose from hepatic gluconeogenesis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman visits her GP to discuss contraception options, specifically the combined oral contraceptive pill. She has no medical history, is a non-smoker, and reports no symptoms of ill-health. During her check-up, her GP measures her blood pressure and finds it to be 168/96 mmHg, which is consistent on repeat testing and in both arms. Upon examination, her BMI is 24 kg/m2, her pulse is 70 bpm, femoral pulses are palpable, and there is an audible renal bruit. Urinalysis is normal, and blood tests reveal no abnormalities in full blood count, urea, creatinine, electrolytes, or thyroid function. What is the most conclusive test to determine the underlying cause of her hypertension?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Magnetic resonance imaging with gadolinium contrast of renal arteries
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests for Secondary Hypertension: Assessing the Causes
Secondary hypertension is a condition where high blood pressure is caused by an underlying medical condition. To diagnose the cause of secondary hypertension, various diagnostic tests are available. Here are some of the tests that can be done:
Magnetic Resonance Imaging with Gadolinium Contrast of Renal Arteries
This test is used to diagnose renal artery stenosis, which is the most common cause of secondary hypertension in young people, especially young women. It is done when a renal bruit is detected. Fibromuscular dysplasia, a vascular disorder that affects the renal arteries, is one of the most common causes of renal artery stenosis in young adults, particularly women.Echocardiogram
While an echocardiogram can assess for end-organ damage resulting from hypertension, it cannot provide the actual cause of hypertension. Coarctation of the aorta is unlikely if there is no blood pressure differential between arms.24-Hour Urine Cortisol
This test is done to diagnose Cushing syndrome, which is unlikely in this case. The most common cause of Cushing syndrome is exogenous steroid use, which the patient does not have. In addition, the patient has a normal BMI and does not have a cushingoid appearance on examination.Plasma Metanephrines
This test is done to diagnose phaeochromocytoma, which is unlikely in this case. The patient does not have symptoms suggestive of it, such as sweating, headache, palpitations, and syncope. Phaeochromocytoma is also a rare tumour, causing less than 1% of cases of secondary hypertension.Renal Ultrasound
This test is a less accurate method for assessing the renal arteries. Renal parenchymal disease is unlikely in this case as urinalysis, urea, and creatinine are normal.Diagnostic Tests for Secondary Hypertension: Assessing the Causes
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old pregnant woman attends the Obstetric clinic for a routine early pregnancy scan. She has been struggling so far during the pregnancy, suffering from extreme, persistent nausea and vomiting. On the ultrasound scan, the image observed resembles ‘a snow storm’. The physician is concerned that this may be a complete molar pregnancy.
What percentage of complete molar pregnancies go on to become invasive?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 15%
Explanation:Hydatidiform Moles and Choriocarcinoma
Hydatidiform moles are tumours of trophoblastic villi that can be classified into two subtypes: partial and complete. Both subtypes have the potential to become invasive and develop into choriocarcinoma, a malignant trophoblastic tumour. Macroscopically, a complete molar pregnancy resembles a bunch of grapes and appears like a snowstorm on ultrasound scans. Approximately 15% of complete moles become invasive, and the incidence of subsequent choriocarcinoma is around 3%. It is crucial to remove the molar pregnancy from the patient due to the risk of invasion and carcinoma. Post-evacuation, it is essential to monitor serum human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG) levels to follow up on the patient’s condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old man presents with seizures. He has a past medical history of dementia and severe COPD for which he uses salbutamol, ipratropium and oral theophylline. His son reports seeing his father taking a lot of pills this morning.
Given his history of COPD and possible substance toxicity, an arterial blood gas (ABG) was performed.
pH 7.21 (7.35-7.45)
pCO2 3.3kPa (4.5-6.0)
pO2 7.8 kPa (10.0 - 14.0)
HCO3- 18 mmol/L (22-26)
What is the definitive management to treat the possible toxicity?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Haemodialysis
Explanation:The primary treatment for theophylline toxicity is haemodialysis.
The presence of seizures and metabolic acidosis indicates that the pills ingested may contain theophylline. Theophylline can also lead to respiratory failure and ultimately, respiratory arrest, which explains the low pO2 levels. Confirmatory diagnosis can be made by measuring blood theophylline levels. While activated charcoal should be administered to all patients, regardless of the time of presentation, it is not the definitive treatment. Naloxone is specifically used for opiate toxicity.
Understanding Theophylline Toxicity and Its Management
Theophylline is a medication used to treat respiratory conditions such as asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). However, it can also cause toxicity if not properly managed. The drug is metabolized by the cytochromes P450 enzymes located in the liver, which can be inhibited by acute illness and certain medications like ciprofloxacin and erythromycin. This inhibition can lead to the accumulation of theophylline in the body, causing toxicity.
The symptoms of theophylline toxicity include vomiting, agitation, dilated pupils, tachycardia, hyperglycemia, and hypokalemia. To manage the condition, acute levels should be measured as they correlate well with clinical severity. Regardless of the time of presentation, activated charcoal should be given to reduce absorption. Supportive management may include antiemetics, IV crystalloid for hypotension, correction of hypokalemia, benzodiazepines for seizures, and IV beta-blockers for supraventricular tachycardia (SVT). Definitive treatment is with hemodialysis.
In summary, understanding theophylline toxicity and its management is crucial for healthcare professionals who prescribe or administer the medication. Prompt recognition and appropriate management can prevent serious complications and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 20-year old woman arrives at the Emergency department after a night out with her friends. According to her friends, she has been talking to herself about nonsensical things and appears agitated and restless. During the examination, it is noted that her reflexes are heightened and an electrocardiogram (ECG) reveals ventricular ectopics. What type of substance abuse is suspected in this case?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ecstasy
Explanation:Ecstasy Overdose
Ecstasy, also known as MDMA, is a drug that stimulates the central nervous system. It can cause increased alertness, euphoria, extroverted behavior, and rapid speech. People who take ecstasy may also experience a lack of desire to eat or sleep, tremors, dilated pupils, tachycardia, and hypertension. However, more severe intoxication can lead to excitability, agitation, paranoid delusions, hallucinations, hypertonia, and hyperreflexia. In some cases, convulsions, rhabdomyolysis, hyperthermia, and cardiac arrhythmias may also develop.
Severe cases of MDMA poisoning can result in hyperthermia, disseminated intravascular coagulation, rhabdomyolysis, acute renal failure, hyponatremia, and even hepatic damage. In rare cases, amphetamine poisoning may lead to intracerebral and subarachnoid hemorrhage and acute cardiomyopathy, which can be fatal. Chronic amphetamine users may also experience hyperthyroxinemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 25
Incorrect
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What is the most suitable mechanism to describe the action of fibrates?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increased lipoprotein lipase activity via PPAR-alpha
Explanation:Fibrates and their Effect on Lipoprotein Metabolism
Fibrates have been found to have a significant impact on the metabolism of triglyceride-rich lipoproteins. This effect is primarily due to the activation of PPAR-alpha, which stimulates the activity of lipoprotein lipase and apolipoprotein A-V, while inhibiting the expression of apolipoprotein C-III. Additionally, fibrates have been shown to increase the levels of HDL-cholesterol in the bloodstream, which is partly attributed to the overexpression of apolipoprotein A-I and A-II. Overall, the use of fibrates can have a positive impact on lipid metabolism and may be a useful tool in managing dyslipidemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old girl presents to the GP clinic complaining of abdominal pain that has been ongoing for 3 days. She has been eating and drinking normally, has no urinary symptoms, and her bowel habits have not changed. She had a mild cold last week, but it has since resolved. Other than this, she is a healthy and happy child. On examination, her abdomen is soft but tender to the touch throughout. Her temperature is 37.5 degrees Celsius. Her chest is clear, and her heart sounds are normal. What is the most probable cause of this girl's abdominal pain?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mesenteric adenitis
Explanation:The child is experiencing abdominal pain after a recent viral illness, which is a common precursor to mesenteric adenitis. However, the child is still able to eat and drink normally, indicating that it is unlikely to be appendicitis. Additionally, the child is passing normal stools, making constipation an unlikely cause. The absence of vomiting also makes gastroenteritis an unlikely diagnosis. While abdominal migraine is a possibility, it is less likely than mesenteric adenitis in this particular case.
Mesenteric adenitis refers to the inflammation of lymph nodes located in the mesentery. This condition can cause symptoms that are similar to those of appendicitis, making it challenging to differentiate between the two. Mesenteric adenitis is commonly observed after a recent viral infection and typically does not require any treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 27
Incorrect
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You are working as a locum on the paediatric neurosurgical unit. Three of the patients seen on the ward round have subarachnoid haemorrhages. Your consultant wants blood tests on all of them, but forgets to tell you which ones. All three patients are stable. Their aneurysms are secured and they will be discharged in a few days time. Which single blood test is most valuable in these patients?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urea and electrolytes
Explanation:Subarachnoid haemorrhages often lead to the development of hyponatraemia, which is a frequently occurring complication. During the acute phase, sodium levels are closely monitored. Blood sugar levels are only relevant if the patient is diabetic or loses consciousness. Liver and thyroid function are usually unaffected by subarachnoid haemorrhages. While a full blood count is useful upon admission, it does not require the same level of monitoring as sodium levels.
A subarachnoid haemorrhage (SAH) is a type of bleeding that occurs within the subarachnoid space of the meninges in the brain. It can be caused by head injury or occur spontaneously. Spontaneous SAH is often caused by an intracranial aneurysm, which accounts for around 85% of cases. Other causes include arteriovenous malformation, pituitary apoplexy, and mycotic aneurysms. The classic symptoms of SAH include a sudden and severe headache, nausea and vomiting, meningism, coma, seizures, and ECG changes.
The first-line investigation for SAH is a non-contrast CT head, which can detect acute blood in the basal cisterns, sulci, and ventricular system. If the CT is normal within 6 hours of symptom onset, a lumbar puncture is not recommended. However, if the CT is normal after 6 hours, a lumbar puncture should be performed at least 12 hours after symptom onset to check for xanthochromia and other CSF findings consistent with SAH. If SAH is confirmed, referral to neurosurgery is necessary to identify the underlying cause and provide urgent treatment.
Management of aneurysmal SAH involves supportive care, such as bed rest, analgesia, and venous thromboembolism prophylaxis. Vasospasm is prevented with oral nimodipine, and intracranial aneurysms require prompt intervention to prevent rebleeding. Most aneurysms are treated with a coil by interventional neuroradiologists, but some require a craniotomy and clipping by a neurosurgeon. Complications of aneurysmal SAH include re-bleeding, hydrocephalus, vasospasm, and hyponatraemia. Predictive factors for SAH include conscious level on admission, age, and amount of blood visible on CT head.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old primigravida woman, at 10 weeks gestation, presents to the emergency department with heavy vaginal bleeding. She reports passing large clots and experiencing cramping for the past 2 hours.
Upon examination, her blood pressure is 85/60 mmHg and her heart rate is 120 beats/minute. Pelvic examination reveals blood clots in the vaginal canal. A speculum exam shows active vaginal bleeding, a dilated cervical os, and a uterus consistent in size with a 9-week gestation. Pelvic ultrasonography reveals small amounts of fluid in the endometrium with an intrauterine sac measuring 22mm in crown-rump length, but no fetal cardiac activity is detected.
What is the most appropriate next step in management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dilation and curettage
Explanation:If there is evidence of infection or an increased risk of hemorrhage, expectant management is not appropriate for a miscarriage. A patient with first-trimester vaginal bleeding, a dilated cervical os, and an intrauterine sac without fetal cardiac activity is experiencing an inevitable miscarriage. Miscarriages can be managed through expectant, pharmacological, or surgical means. Expectant management involves bed rest, avoiding strenuous physical activity, and weekly follow-up pelvic ultrasounds. This approach is typically recommended for patients with a threatened miscarriage that presents as vaginal bleeding. The threatened miscarriage may resolve on its own or progress to an inevitable, incomplete, or complete miscarriage. However, in this case, the open cervical os and absent fetal cardiac activity indicate that the miscarriage is inevitable, and the fetus is no longer viable. Medical management involves using drugs like misoprostol or methotrexate to medically evacuate retained products of conception in inevitable or incomplete miscarriages. Nevertheless, this patient is experiencing heavy vaginal bleeding, which has caused hypotension and tachycardia, making her hemodynamically unstable. In all cases of early pregnancy loss with hemodynamic instability, urgent surgical evacuation of products of conception is necessary to minimize further blood loss. Dilation and curettage is a common and controlled method of uterine evacuation.
Management Options for Miscarriage
Miscarriage can be a difficult and emotional experience for women. In the 2019 NICE guidelines, three types of management for miscarriage were discussed: expectant, medical, and surgical. Expectant management involves waiting for a spontaneous miscarriage and is considered the first-line option. However, if it is unsuccessful, medical or surgical management may be offered.
Medical management involves using tablets to expedite the miscarriage. Vaginal misoprostol, a prostaglandin analogue, is used to cause strong myometrial contractions leading to the expulsion of tissue. It is important to advise patients to contact their doctor if bleeding does not start within 24 hours. Antiemetics and pain relief should also be given.
Surgical management involves undergoing a surgical procedure under local or general anaesthetic. The two main options are vacuum aspiration (suction curettage) or surgical management in theatre. Vacuum aspiration is done under local anaesthetic as an outpatient, while surgical management is done in theatre under general anaesthetic. This was previously referred to as ‘Evacuation of retained products of conception’.
It is important to note that some situations are better managed with medical or surgical management, such as an increased risk of haemorrhage, being in the late first trimester, having coagulopathies or being unable to have a blood transfusion, previous adverse and/or traumatic experience associated with pregnancy, evidence of infection, and more. Ultimately, the management option chosen should be based on the individual patient’s needs and preferences.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 22-year-old student is admitted to hospital after being referred by her general practitioner. She has been feeling nauseous and generally unwell for 1 week. Yesterday she became concerned because her skin had turned yellow. There is no past medical history of note and there is no history of intravenous (iv) drug use, blood transfusions or unprotected sexual intercourse. She has recently returned from backpacking in Eastern Europe. Viral serology is requested, as well as liver function tests which are reported as follows:
total bilirubin 90 mmol/l
aspartate aminotransferase (AST) 941 ui/l
alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 1004 iu/l
alkaline phosphatase 190 u/l.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hepatitis A
Explanation:Likely Causes of Hepatitis in a Patient: A Differential Diagnosis
Upon considering the patient’s medical history, it is highly likely that the cause of their illness is hepatitis A. This is due to the patient’s recent travel history and lack of risk factors for other types of hepatitis. Hepatitis A is highly infectious and is transmitted through the faeco-oral route, often through contaminated water or poor sanitation.
Hepatitis C and B are less likely causes as the patient denies any risk factors for these types of hepatitis, such as blood transfusions, unprotected sexual intercourse, or IV drug use. Hepatitis D is also unlikely as it is co-transmitted with hepatitis B.
Yellow fever is a possibility, but the patient has not traveled to any endemic areas, such as tropical rainforests, making it less likely.
In conclusion, based on the patient’s medical history and lack of risk factors, hepatitis A is the most likely cause of their illness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of heavy, irregular vaginal bleeding that has been ongoing for 4 weeks and is becoming unbearable. She denies experiencing abdominal pain, unusual vaginal discharge, or dysuria. The patient has been sexually active with her partner for 6 months and had the Nexplanon implant inserted 4 weeks ago.
Upon examination, the patient's abdomen is non-tender, her heart rate is 79/min, her respiratory rate is 17/min, her blood pressure is 117/79 mmHg, her oxygen saturation is 98%, and her temperature is 37.5°C. A negative pregnancy test is obtained.
What treatment options is the GP likely to suggest to alleviate the patient's symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 3-month course of the combined oral contraceptive pill
Explanation:To manage unscheduled bleeding, which is a common side effect of Nexplanon, a 3-month course of the combined oral contraceptive pill may be prescribed. This will not only provide additional contraception but also make periods lighter and more regular. Prescribing a progesterone-only pill is not recommended as it can also cause irregular bleeding. A single dose of intramuscular methotrexate is not appropriate as the patient is not showing any symptoms of an ectopic pregnancy. Urgent referral for endometrial cancer is also not necessary as the patient’s age and symptoms suggest that the bleeding is most likely due to the contraceptive implant.
Implanon and Nexplanon are subdermal contraceptive implants that slowly release the progesterone hormone etonogestrel to prevent ovulation and thicken cervical mucous. Nexplanon is the newer version and has a redesigned applicator to prevent deep insertions and is radiopaque for easier location. It is highly effective with a failure rate of 0.07/100 women-years and lasts for 3 years. It does not contain estrogen, making it suitable for women with a past history of thromboembolism or migraine. It can be inserted immediately after a termination of pregnancy. However, a trained professional is needed for insertion and removal, and additional contraceptive methods are required for the first 7 days if not inserted on days 1 to 5 of a woman’s menstrual cycle.
The main disadvantage of these implants is irregular and heavy bleeding, which can be managed with a co-prescription of the combined oral contraceptive pill. Other adverse effects include headache, nausea, and breast pain. Enzyme-inducing drugs such as certain antiepileptic and rifampicin may reduce the efficacy of Nexplanon, and women should switch to a method unaffected by enzyme-inducing drugs or use additional contraception until 28 days after stopping the treatment.
There are also contraindications for using these implants, such as ischaemic heart disease/stroke, unexplained, suspicious vaginal bleeding, past breast cancer, severe liver cirrhosis, and liver cancer. Current breast cancer is a UKMEC 4 condition, which represents an unacceptable risk if the contraceptive method is used. Overall, these implants are a highly effective and long-acting form of contraception, but they require careful consideration of the potential risks and contraindications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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