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  • Question 1 - Which part of the renal tubule is impermeable to water: ...

    Correct

    • Which part of the renal tubule is impermeable to water:

      Your Answer: The ascending limb of loop of Henle

      Explanation:

      The walls of the ascending limb of the loop of Henle are not permeable to water. The tubular fluid thus becomes increasingly dilute as it ascends toward the cortex, whereas the interstitial fluid around the loops of Henle in the medulla becomes increasingly more concentrated.

      The ascending limb actively reabsorbs NaCl but has an extremely low transepithelial osmotic water permeability, even in the presence of vasopressin. This combination of NaCl reabsorption without water reabsorption serves two vital functions: it provides NaCl to increase the osmolality of the medullary interstitium, tubules, vasculature, and collecting ducts; and it dilutes the luminal fluid within the thick ascending limb.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      87.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Choose the best source of folic acid: ...

    Correct

    • Choose the best source of folic acid:

      Your Answer: Liver

      Explanation:

      Beef liver is one of the best sources of folic acid, amongst others like green vegetables and nuts.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      15.4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - The family of a 10-year-old boy was advised to take the boy to...

    Correct

    • The family of a 10-year-old boy was advised to take the boy to see an oncologist, for suspected lymphoma. The boy had lymphadenopathy on presentation. His mother says that he's had a fever, night sweats and has experienced weight loss. The boy underwent a lymph node biopsy at the oncologist which suggests Burkitt's lymphoma. Which oncogene are you expecting to see after molecular testing?

      Your Answer: c-MYC

      Explanation:

      Burkitt lymphoma is a germinal centre B-cell-derived cancer that was instrumental in the identification of MYC as an important human oncogene more than three decades ago. Recently, new genomics technologies have uncovered several additional oncogenic mechanisms that cooperate with MYC to create this highly aggressive cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      35.1
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Choose the correct definition regarding the standard error of the mean: ...

    Incorrect

    • Choose the correct definition regarding the standard error of the mean:

      Your Answer: Number of patients / square root (standard deviation)

      Correct Answer: Standard deviation / square root (number of patients)

      Explanation:

      The SEM is an indicator of how close the sample mean is to the population mean. In reality, however, only one sample is extracted from the population. Therefore, the SEM is estimated using the standard deviation (SD) and a sample size (Estimated SEM). The SEM computed by a statistical program is an estimated value calculated via this process.

      Estimated Standard Error of the Mean (SEM)=SDn√

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      6.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 23-year-old woman presents to the A&E with a 24-hour-history of gradual-onset fever,...

    Correct

    • A 23-year-old woman presents to the A&E with a 24-hour-history of gradual-onset fever, light sensitivity and headache. Clinical examination reveals neck stiffness and an area of rash which does not disappear upon pressure on her right shin. Anamnesis reveals a history of 3 episodes of meningococcal meningitis in the past and she was started on ceftriaxone for another suspected meningitis. However, you suspect that the patients might be immunodeficient. Which immunodeficiency does she most probably have?

      Your Answer: C5-9 deficiency

      Explanation:

      Pneumococcal meningitis is the most common and severe form of bacterial meningitis. Fatality rates are substantial, and long-term sequelae develop in about half of survivors. Disease outcome has been related to the severity of the proinflammatory response in the subarachnoid space. The complement system, which mediates key inflammatory processes, has been implicated as a modulator of pneumococcal meningitis disease severity in animal studies. C5 fragment levels in cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) of patients with bacterial meningitis correlated with several clinical indicators of poor prognosis. The common terminal pathway consists of complement components C5–C9, and activation forms the anaphylatoxin C5a, a strong proinflammatory mediator, and the membrane attack complex (MAC), which creates pores in the bacterial cell wall (12). Deficiencies in these late complement components have been recognized as a cause of recurrent and familial meningococcal infections.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      245.4
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which of following does not promote the release of endothelin? ...

    Correct

    • Which of following does not promote the release of endothelin?

      Your Answer: Prostacyclin

      Explanation:

      Prostacyclin (PGI2) generated by the vascular wall is a potent vasodilator, and the most potent endogenous inhibitor of platelet aggregation so far discovered. Prostacyclin inhibits platelet aggregation by increasing cyclic AMP levels. Prostacyclin is a circulating hormone continually released by the lungs into the arterial circulation. Circulating platelets are, therefore, subjected constantly to prostacyclin stimulation and it is via this mechanism that platelet aggregability in vivo is controlled.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      33
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which one of the following statements regarding mitochondrial inheritance is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding mitochondrial inheritance is true?

      Your Answer: Most cases of spinocerebellar ataxia are caused by defects in mitochondrial DNA

      Correct Answer: Poor genotype:phenotype correlation

      Explanation:

      The human cell has two type of DNA: Nuclear DNA and Mitochondrial DNA (MtDNA). A MtDNA copy is passed down entirely unchanged, through the maternal line. Males cannot pass their MtDNA to their offspring although they inherit a copy of it from their mother. There is poor genotype:phenotype correlation. Within a tissue or cell there can be different mitochondrial populations (this is known as heteroplasmy).
      Examples of mitochondrial diseases include:
      – Leber’s optic atrophy
      – MELAS syndrome (mitochondrial encephalomyopathy lactic acidosis and stroke-like episodes)
      – MERRF syndrome (myoclonus epilepsy with ragged-red fibres)
      – Kearns-Sayre syndrome (more severe syndromic variant of chronic progressive external ophthalmoplegia, onset in patients < 20 years old)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      48.3
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 21-year-old man presents with a three day history of general malaise and...

    Correct

    • A 21-year-old man presents with a three day history of general malaise and low-grade temperature. Yesterday he developed extensive painful ulceration of his mouth and gums. On examination his temperature is 37.4ºC, pulse 84 / min and there is submandibular lymphadenopathy. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Herpes simplex virus infection

      Explanation:

      This man has gingivostomatitis, a characteristic feature of primary herpes simplex virus infection. Herpetic gingivostomatitis is often the initial presentation during the first (primary) herpes simplex infection. It is of greater severity than herpes labialis (cold sores) which is often the subsequent presentations. Primary herpetic gingivostomatitis is the most common viral infection of the mouth.
      Primary herpetic gingivostomatitis (PHGS) is caused predominantly by HSV-1 and affects mainly children. Prodromal symptoms, such as fever, anorexia, irritability, malaise and headache, may occur in advance of disease. Sub-mandibular lymphadenitis, halitosis and refusal to drink are usual concomitant findings.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      223.1
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 45-year-old male patient presents with severe pharyngitis and dysphagia. He's found to...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old male patient presents with severe pharyngitis and dysphagia. He's found to be HIV positive and with oesophageal candidiasis. Which of the following regarding HIV virus is correct?

      Your Answer: HIV is a DNA virus

      Correct Answer: HIV is an RNA virus

      Explanation:

      The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is grouped to the genus Lentivirus within the family of Retroviridae, subfamily Orthoretrovirinae. The HIV genome consists of two identical single-stranded RNA molecules that are enclosed within the core of the virus particle. The genome of the HIV provirus, also known as proviral DNA, is generated by the reverse transcription of the viral RNA genome into DNA, degradation of the RNA and integration of the double-stranded HIV DNA into the human genome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      72.1
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - 170 patients are enrolled in a study to assess the addition of a...

    Incorrect

    • 170 patients are enrolled in a study to assess the addition of a new antiplatelet drug to aspirin for those who've had a stroke. Out of 170 patients, 120 received the aspirin in addition to the new drug with the remaining 50 patients receiving just aspirin. After 5 years, 18 out of the 120 patients receiving the new drug in addition to aspirin and 10 out of the 50 patients receiving just aspirin, had had a stroke. What is the number needed to treat?

      Your Answer: 1.8

      Correct Answer: 20

      Explanation:

      The number needed to treat (NNT) is valuable information in treatment decisions. NNT is the inverse of the absolute risk reduction (1/ARR) between two treatment options. Control event rate = 10 / 50 = 0.2
      Experimental event rate = 18 / 120 = 0.15

      Absolute risk reduction = 0.2 – 0.15 = 0.05
      Number needed to treat = 1 / 0.05 = 20

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      17.9
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A study is done on 1000 patients to assess the specificity of a...

    Incorrect

    • A study is done on 1000 patients to assess the specificity of a new rapid finger-prick blood test developed to help diagnose deep vein thrombosis (DVT). The new test was positive on 200 patients with DVT and on 100 patients without DVT. It was also negative on 20 patients with DVT and 680 without DVT. What is the specificity of the new test?

      Your Answer: 680/880

      Correct Answer: 680/780

      Explanation:

      Specificity (negative in health)
      The ability of a test to correctly classify an individual as disease- free is called the test′s specificity. [Table 2]

      Specificity = d / b+d

      = d (true negative) / b+d (true negative + false positive)

      = Probability of being test negative when disease absent.

      Example: One hundred persons with normal angles (diagnosed by ′gold standard′: gonioscopy) are examined by peripheral angle chamber depth examination. Eighty-five persons had normal peripheral angle chamber depth [Table 3]. The specificity of the peripheral angle chamber depth examination to PACG is therefore –

      85 / 100 = 85%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      7.4
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - From which cells is somatostatin secreted? ...

    Correct

    • From which cells is somatostatin secreted?

      Your Answer: D cells in the pancreas

      Explanation:

      The somatostatin-secreting D-cells comprise ,5% of the cells of the pancreatic islets. The D-cells have a complex morphology and may, via cellular process, interact with many more islet cells than suggested by their low number. D-cells are equipped with ATP-sensitive potassium channels (KATP channels).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      40.6
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 45-year-old woman with a history of hypothyroidism, presents with ptosis and muscle...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman with a history of hypothyroidism, presents with ptosis and muscle weakness. She's noticed that her muscle weakness becomes worse towards the end of the day. Clinical examination reveals fatigable ptosis and proximal limb weakness. Myasthenia gravis is suspected. Which receptor is implicated in the pathophysiology of this condition?

      Your Answer: Muscarinic acetylcholine receptors

      Correct Answer: Nicotinic acetylcholine receptors

      Explanation:

      Myasthenia gravis (MG) is an organ-specific autoimmune disease caused by an antibody-mediated assault on the muscle nicotinic acetylcholine receptor (AChR) at the neuromuscular junction. Binding of antibodies to the AChR leads to loss of functional AChRs and impairs the neuromuscular signal transmission, resulting in muscular weakness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      79.3
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - What do T-helper cells of the Th2 subset typically secrete? ...

    Correct

    • What do T-helper cells of the Th2 subset typically secrete?

      Your Answer: IL-4, IL-5, IL-6, IL-10, IL-13

      Explanation:

      Interleukin-4 (IL-4), IL-5 and IL-13, the signature cytokines that are produced during type 2 immune responses, are critical for protective immunity against infections of extracellular parasites and are responsible for asthma and many other allergic inflammatory diseases. Although many immune cell types within the myeloid lineage compartment including basophils, eosinophils and mast cells are capable of producing at least one of these cytokines, the production of these “type 2 immune response-related” cytokines by lymphoid lineages, CD4 T helper 2 (Th2) cells and type 2 innate lymphoid cells (ILC2s) in particular, are the central events during type 2 immune responses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      30.7
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Choose the hormone secreted only by the adrenal medulla: ...

    Incorrect

    • Choose the hormone secreted only by the adrenal medulla:

      Your Answer: Cortisol

      Correct Answer: Adrenaline

      Explanation:

      The major endocrine functions of adrenal gland are to produce catecholamines and steroids. Catecholamine, synthesized by the adrenal medulla, is responsible for blood pressure and blood flow regulation whereas steroids produced by the cortex control energy and water homeostasis and immune responses. Glucocorticoids, a major group of adrenal steroids, have a stimulatory effect on catecholamine synthesis in the medulla.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      50
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Which one of the following statements regarding nitric oxide is incorrect? ...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following statements regarding nitric oxide is incorrect?

      Your Answer: Promotes platelet aggregation

      Explanation:

      Nitric oxide, known as an endothelium-derived relaxing factor (EDRF), is biosynthesized endogenously from L-arginine, oxygen, and NADPH by various nitric oxide synthase (NOS) enzymes and is a signaling molecule in many physiological and pathological processes in humans.
      One of the main enzymatic targets of nitric oxide is guanylyl cyclase. The binding of nitric oxide to the haem region of the enzyme leads to activation, in the presence of iron.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      42
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 2-day-old girl is admitted by her mother because she gets cyanotic upon...

    Correct

    • A 2-day-old girl is admitted by her mother because she gets cyanotic upon feeding and she wouldn't stop crying. The doctors suspect a congenital heart disease. What is the most probable aetiology?

      Your Answer: Transposition of the great arteries

      Explanation:

      Transposition of the great arteries results in a significant hypoxemic status that is observed clinically by central cyanosis. The bluish discoloration of the skin and mucous membranes is therefore the basic pattern of clinical presentation in transposition. Its onset and severity depend on anatomical and functional variants that influence the degree of mixing between the two circulations. Limited intercirculatory mixing, usually present if the ventricular septum is intact or the atrial septal defect is restrictive, is related to progressive and profound central cyanosis evident within the first hours of life. Tachypnoea, tachycardia, diaphoresis, poor weight gain, a gallop rhythm, and eventually hepatomegaly can be then detected later on during infancy. Heart murmurs associated with left outflow tract obstruction, due to a persistent arterial duct or a septal defect may be heard, but they are not a constant finding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      51.2
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - You want to measure the potential benefit of creating a service dedicated to...

    Correct

    • You want to measure the potential benefit of creating a service dedicated to patients with multiple sclerosis in the local area. Which factor would determine how many resources will be required?

      Your Answer: Prevalence

      Explanation:

      To describe how often a disease or another health event occurs in a population, different measures of disease frequency can be used. The prevalence reflects the number of existing cases of a disease. In contrast to the prevalence, the incidence reflects the number of new cases of disease and can be reported as a risk or as an incidence rate. Prevalence and incidence are used for different purposes and to answer different research questions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      17.6
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Randomised control trials offer the following level of evidence: ...

    Incorrect

    • Randomised control trials offer the following level of evidence:

      Your Answer: IV

      Correct Answer: Ib

      Explanation:

      1B: Individual Randomised Control Trial (with narrow confidence intervals)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      3.9
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 60-year-old male presents with dyspnoea and an urgent chest X-ray is scheduled....

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old male presents with dyspnoea and an urgent chest X-ray is scheduled. Sputum cultures reveal pneumonia and he receives treatment with erythromycin. What is the mechanism of action of this drug?

      Your Answer: Inhibit 50S subunit of ribosomes

      Explanation:

      Erythromycin is a bacteriostatic antibiotic. This means it stops the further growth of bacteria rather than directly destroying it. This is achieved by inhibiting protein synthesis. Erythromycin binds to the 23S ribosomal RNA molecule in the 50S subunit of the bacterial ribosome. This causes a blockage in the exiting of the peptide chain that is growing. Given that humans have 40S and 60S subunits, and do not have 50S subunits, erythromycin does not affect protein synthesis in human tissues.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      33.3
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 13-year-old girl presents with a swollen left knee following a fall. Her...

    Incorrect

    • A 13-year-old girl presents with a swollen left knee following a fall. Her parents state she suffers from haemophilia and has been treated for a right-sided haemarthrosis previously. What other condition is she most likely to have?

      Your Answer: Ataxia telangiectasia

      Correct Answer: Turner's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Haemophilia is a X-linked recessive disorder. In X-linked recessive inheritance only males are affected. An exception to this seen in examinations are patients with Turner’s syndrome, who are affected due to only having one X chromosome. X-linked recessive disorders are transmitted by heterozygote females (carriers) and male-to-male transmission is not seen. Affected males can only have unaffected sons and carrier daughters.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      30.7
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Choose the part of the antibody to which immune cells bind: ...

    Correct

    • Choose the part of the antibody to which immune cells bind:

      Your Answer: Fc region

      Explanation:

      Fc Receptors include the IgG receptors (FcγR), high-affinity IgE receptor (FcεRI), IgA and IgA/IgM receptors, and neonatal Fc receptor for IgG (FcRn). In particular, the FcγRs have been well known to play an important role in many biologic processes including those associated with the response to infection and cancer as well as in the pathogenesis of immune-mediated diseases. Fc receptors, the receptors for the Fc region of immunoglobulins, play an essential role in antibody-dependent immune responses. Fc receptors are detected on many types of hematopoietic cells including macrophages, neutrophils, dendritic cells, eosinophils, basophils, mast cells, and NK cells. Plasma cells produce five classes of antibodies, IgA, IgD, IgE, IgG and IgM. Fc receptors with an Ig superfamily related structure exist that correspond to each of these classes of immunoglobulins.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      25.7
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 34-year-old man presents with haemoptysis and weight loss. History reveals he suffers...

    Correct

    • A 34-year-old man presents with haemoptysis and weight loss. History reveals he suffers from night sweats and upon auscultation you notice reduced breath sounds over the apex of his right lung and significant nail clubbing. You refer him to a pneumologist who administers the following antibiotics: rifampicin, ethambutol, pyrazinamide and isoniazid. What is the mechanism of action of the first drug?

      Your Answer: Inhibit RNA synthesis

      Explanation:

      Rifampicin specifically inhibits bacterial RNA polymerase, the enzyme responsible for DNA transcription, by forming a stable drug-enzyme complex with a binding constant of 10(-9) M at 37 C.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      86.3
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 55-year-old woman with established metastatic breast cancer is admitted to the A&E...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman with established metastatic breast cancer is admitted to the A&E with hypercalcemia. She has a clear medical history, doesn't smoke and works in an office based job. At the A&E she's given intravenous fluids and bisphosphonates. She's finally discharged after normalization of her calcium levels. However, before leaving the hospital she's sent to the endocrinology department for consultation regarding outpatient care and serum calcium monitoring. What is the most appropriate and useful advice for this patient?

      Your Answer: Reduce alcohol intake

      Correct Answer: Increase fluid intake

      Explanation:

      NICE guidelines on hypercalcemia recommend that maintaining good hydration equals drinking 3-4 L of fluid/day, provided there are no contraindications. A low calcium diet is not necessary because intestinal absorption of calcium is reduced. The patient should avoid any other drugs or vitamins that could worsen the hypercalcemia. Mobilization is encouraged and any symptoms of hypercalcemia should be reported.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      77.7
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Through which foramen does the maxillary nerve pass through? ...

    Correct

    • Through which foramen does the maxillary nerve pass through?

      Your Answer: Foramen rotundum

      Explanation:

      The foramen rotundum is one of the several circular apertures (the foramina) located in the base of the skull, in the anterior and medial part of the sphenoid bone. The maxillary branch (V2) of the trigeminal nerve (CN V) passes through and exits the skull via the pterygopalatine fossa and the foramen rotundum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      15.5
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Which one of the following congenital infections is most characteristically associated with chorioretinitis?...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following congenital infections is most characteristically associated with chorioretinitis?

      Your Answer: Rubella

      Correct Answer: Toxoplasma gondii

      Explanation:

      The common congenital infections encountered are rubella, toxoplasmosis and cytomegalovirus. Cytomegalovirus is the most common congenital infection in the UK. Maternal infection is usually asymptomatic.
      Congenital toxoplasmosis is associated with fetal death and abortion, and in infants, it is associated with neurologic deficits, neurocognitive deficits, and chorioretinitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      7
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A scientist is using denaturation, annealing and elongation to amplify a desired fragment...

    Correct

    • A scientist is using denaturation, annealing and elongation to amplify a desired fragment of DNA. Which molecular technique is he using?

      Your Answer: Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)

      Explanation:

      PCR is a simple, yet elegant, enzymatic assay, which allows for the amplification of a specific DNA fragment from a complex pool of DNA. PCR can be performed using source DNA from a variety of tissues and organisms, including peripheral blood, skin, hair, saliva, and microbes. Only trace amounts of DNA are needed for PCR to generate enough copies to be analysed using conventional laboratory methods. For this reason, PCR is a sensitive assay. Each PCR assay requires the presence of template DNA, primers, nucleotides, and DNA polymerase. The DNA polymerase is the key enzyme that links individual nucleotides together to form the PCR product. The above mentioned components are mixed in a test tube or 96-well plate and then placed in a machine that allows repeated cycles of DNA amplification to occur in three basic steps. The machine is essentially a thermal cycler. It has a thermal block with holes, into which the test tubes or plates holding the PCR reaction mixture are inserted. The machine raises and lowers the temperature of the block in discrete, precise and pre-programmed steps. The reaction solution is first heated above the melting point of the two complementary DNA strands of the target DNA, which allows the strands to separate, a process called denaturation. The temperature is then lowered to allow the specific primers to bind to the target DNA segments, a process known as hybridization or annealing. Annealing between primers and the target DNA occurs only if they are complementary in sequence (e.g. A binding to G). The temperature is raised again, at which time the DNA polymerase is able to extend the primers by adding nucleotides to the developing DNA strand. With each repetition of these three steps, the number of copied DNA molecules doubles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      14.4
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 69-year-old woman is admitted with confusion. She's known to have a history...

    Incorrect

    • A 69-year-old woman is admitted with confusion. She's known to have a history of multiple myeloma. Blood exam reveals the following: Na+ = 147 mmol/l, K+ = 4.7 mmol/l, Urea = 14.2 mmol/l, Creatinine = 102 μmol/l, Adjusted calcium = 3.9 mmol/l. What is the single most appropriate management?

      Your Answer: IV zoledronic acid

      Correct Answer: IV 0.9% saline

      Explanation:

      NICE guidelines on hypercalcemia recommend that maintaining good hydration equals drinking 3-4 L of fluid/day, provided there are no contraindications. A low calcium diet is not necessary because intestinal absorption of calcium is reduced. The patient should avoid any other drugs or vitamins that could worsen the hypercalcemia. Mobilization is encouraged and any symptoms of hypercalcemia should be reported.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      35.7
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 36-year-old lady with back pain is found to have loss of sensation...

    Correct

    • A 36-year-old lady with back pain is found to have loss of sensation of the kneecaps. Choose the dermatome most likely compromised:

      Your Answer: L4

      Explanation:

      L4 dermatome distribution includes the kneecaps.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      31.4
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Choose the molecule that acts as the co-receptor for cells expressing antigens linked...

    Correct

    • Choose the molecule that acts as the co-receptor for cells expressing antigens linked with MHC class I molecules:

      Your Answer: CD8

      Explanation:

      CD8+ T cells recognize antigens in the form of short peptide fragments bound to major histocompatibility complex class I (MHCI) molecules on the target cell surface.1 Specific engagement of peptide-MHCI (pMHCI) complexes via the clonotypically expressed αβ T-cell receptor (TCR) triggers a range of effector functions that play a critical role in protective immunity against intracellular infections and various malignancies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      18.9
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Clinical Sciences (18/30) 60%
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