-
Question 1
Correct
-
A 35-year-old woman arrives at the labour ward in active labour. She is experiencing regular contractions, sweating heavily, and in significant pain.
What hormone is responsible for her contractions?Your Answer: Oxytocin
Explanation:Hormones Involved in Labour: Understanding Their Functions
During labour, various hormones are released in the body to facilitate the birthing process. One of the main hormones involved is oxytocin, which is released from the posterior pituitary. Oxytocin stimulates the uterine muscles to contract, and its positive feedback loop further increases contractions by stimulating prostaglandin production and releasing more oxytocin.
antidiuretic hormone (ADH) is another hormone released from the posterior pituitary, but it regulates water homeostasis in the kidneys and is not involved in causing contractions during labour. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) from the anterior pituitary stimulates the thyroid’s production of T4 to T3, but it does not cause sweating or contractions during labour.
Prolactin, also released from the anterior pituitary, enables milk production, but it is not involved in active labour. Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) from the hypothalamus acts on the anterior pituitary to release luteinising hormone (LH) and follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH), which are essential for reproduction but not involved in causing contractions during labour.
Understanding the functions of these hormones can help in managing labour and ensuring a safe delivery.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
-
-
Question 2
Incorrect
-
What is the most suitable vitamin D supplement for a patient with liver and kidney failure, considering the need for enzymatic conversion of naturally occurring analogues?
Your Answer: Cholecalciferol (vitamin D3)
Correct Answer: Calcitriol (1,25 dihydroxycholecalciferol)
Explanation:Vitamin D Activation
Vitamin D is an essential nutrient that plays a crucial role in maintaining bone health and immune function. However, not all forms of vitamin D are active and readily available for use by the body.
Alphacalcidol, a partly activated form of vitamin D, is not the correct answer as it still requires further hydroxylation by the liver. Similarly, cholecalciferol (vitamin D3) and ergocalciferol (vitamin D2) are naturally occurring analogues that require activation by both the liver and kidneys.
The correct answer is calcitriol (1,25 dihydroxycholecalciferol), an active form of vitamin D that has undergone the necessary hydroxylation by both the kidneys and liver.
It is important to understand the different forms of vitamin D and their activation processes in order to ensure adequate intake and absorption for optimal health.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
-
-
Question 3
Incorrect
-
A 45-year-old woman visits her GP for a check-up on her blood pressure, which has been difficult to manage despite lifestyle changes and taking a combination of ramipril and felodipine. On examination, there are no clinical indications to aid in diagnosis. The GP conducts a urinalysis, which comes back normal, and orders some blood tests. The results show:
Investigation Result Normal value
Sodium (Na+) 175 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 3.1 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Urea 4.1 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
Creatinine 75 μmol/l 50–120 μmol/l
eGFR >60 ml/min/1.73m2 >60 ml/min/1.73m2
Based on this presentation, what is the most probable secondary cause of hypertension?Your Answer: Phaeochromocytoma
Correct Answer: Primary hyperaldosteronism
Explanation:Secondary Causes of Hypertension
Hypertension, or high blood pressure, can have various underlying causes. While primary hypertension is the most common form, secondary hypertension can be caused by an underlying medical condition. Here are some of the secondary causes of hypertension:
1. Primary Hyperaldosteronism: This is the most common form of secondary hypertension, caused by a solitary adrenal adenoma or bilateral adrenal hyperplasia. It is more prevalent in patients with hypertension who are resistant to treatment.
2. Phaeochromocytoma: This rare condition can cause severe symptoms such as headaches, sweating, abdominal pain, and palpitations associated with periods of very high blood pressure.
3. Glomerulonephritis: Renal disease can be a potential secondary cause of hypertension, typically manifesting as haematuria or proteinuria on urinalysis. The creatinine level may rise, and the estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) falls.
4. Diabetic Nephropathy: This condition presents with proteinuria (and likely glucose) on urinalysis. Renal disease may lead to a rise in creatinine and a fall in eGFR.
5. Cushing Syndrome: While unlikely to cause isolated hypertension, other features of Cushing syndrome such as abdominal obesity, striae, and a round face would likely be present on examination.
In conclusion, it is important to identify the underlying cause of hypertension to provide appropriate treatment and management.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
-
-
Question 4
Incorrect
-
A 42-year-old man has been experiencing gradual enlargement of his hands and feet for the past 4 years, resulting in the need for larger gloves and shoes. Recently, he has also noticed his voice becoming deeper. His family has observed that he snores frequently and he has been experiencing daytime sleepiness. Over the past 6 months, he has been experiencing progressive blurring of vision accompanied by headaches and dizziness. Upon examination, his visual acuity is 20/20-2 and visual field testing reveals bitemporal hemianopias. What is the most appropriate initial investigation to confirm a diagnosis in this man?
Your Answer: Oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) with growth hormone assay
Correct Answer: Insulin-like growth factor 1 (IGF-1) measurement
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests for Acromegaly: IGF-1 Measurement vs. OGTT and Other Tests
Acromegaly, a condition caused by a GH-secreting pituitary adenoma, can be diagnosed through various tests. Previously, the OGTT with growth hormone assay was used for screening and monitoring, but it has now been replaced by the IGF-1 measurement as the first-line investigation to confirm the diagnosis.
The insulin tolerance test, which induces hypoglycaemia and increases GH release, is not useful in confirming the presence of a GH-secreting adenoma. Random GH assay is also not helpful as normal subjects have undetectable GH levels throughout the day, making it difficult to differentiate from levels seen in acromegaly.
While up to 20% of GH-secreting pituitary adenomas co-secrete prolactin, the prolactin level alone is not diagnostic. Therefore, the IGF-1 measurement is the preferred test for diagnosing acromegaly.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
-
-
Question 5
Incorrect
-
A 63-year-old man presents to his primary care physician with complaints of feeling tired and dizzy upon standing up. His family members are worried because they have noticed a change in his facial appearance. Upon further investigation, the following laboratory results were obtained:
Serum:
Na+ 128 mmol/l (135–145 mmol/l)
K+ 6.1 mmol/l (3.5–5 mmol/l)
Short adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) stimulation test:
Plasma cortisol:
0900 h 150 nmol/l (140–690 nmol/l)
30 min after ACTH: 155 nmol/l
60 min after ACTH: 155 nmol/l
0900 h ACTH: 6 ng/l (normal <50 ng/l)
What condition is consistent with these findings?Your Answer: Conn’s syndrome
Correct Answer: Abrupt withdrawal of corticosteroid therapy
Explanation:Causes of Adrenal Hypofunction: Understanding the Biochemistry
Adrenal hypofunction can occur due to various reasons, and understanding the underlying biochemistry can help in identifying the cause. The following are some of the common causes of adrenal hypofunction and their associated biochemical changes:
Abrupt Withdrawal of Corticosteroid Therapy: The most common cause of adrenal hypofunction is the suppression of the pituitary-adrenal axis due to therapeutic corticosteroid therapy. During therapy, patients may present with Cushing’s syndrome, which causes a moon face. However, if therapy is withdrawn abruptly or demand for cortisol increases without a concomitant dosage increase, symptoms and signs of adrenal hypofunction can occur. This results in the loss of Na+ and retention of K+. Prolonged suppression of the adrenals means that output of cortisol cannot increase in response to the ACTH stimulation test until function has recovered. Additionally, patients will classically become hypotensive.
Adrenal Metastases: Adrenal metastases cause adrenal failure through destruction of the gland tissue. So the same biochemistry will occur as in abrupt withdrawal of corticosteroid therapy, but ACTH levels would be expected to be high, owing to lack of negative feedback.
Conn’s Syndrome: In Conn’s syndrome (primary hyperaldosteronism), the high aldosterone levels result in hypernatraemia and hypokalaemia, unlike what is seen in patients with adrenal hypofunction.
Hypopituitarism: This results in secondary adrenal failure, so Na+ is lost and K+ retained.
Cushing’s Disease: Cushing’s disease resulting from overproduction of cortisol results in hypernatraemia and hypokalaemia because cortisol has some mineralocorticoid activity.
In conclusion, understanding the biochemistry of adrenal hypofunction can help in identifying the underlying cause and guiding appropriate treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
-
-
Question 6
Incorrect
-
A 50-year-old male with type 2 diabetes presents for his annual review. Despite following a diet plan, his glycaemic control is not optimal and his most recent HbA1c is 63 mmol/mol (20-46). You decide to initiate treatment with metformin 500 mg bd. As per NICE NG28 guidelines for diabetes management, what is the recommended interval for rechecking his HbA1c after each intensification of treatment?
Your Answer: Two to three weeks
Correct Answer: Three to six months
Explanation:HbA1c as a Tool for Glycaemic Control
The glycated haemoglobin (HbA1c) is a measure of the glucose levels in the blood over a period of time. It reflects the glycosylation of the haemoglobin molecule by glucose, and there is a strong correlation between the glycosylation of this molecule and average plasma glucose concentrations. This makes it a widely used tool in clinical practice to assess glycaemic control. Studies have also shown that HbA1c has prognostic significance in both microvascular and macrovascular risk.
The life span of a red blood cell is 120 days, and HbA1c reflects the average blood glucose levels during the half-life of the red cell, which is about 60 days. According to NICE guidelines, it is recommended to re-check HbA1c with each treatment intensification at 3/6 monthly intervals. HbA1c as a tool for glycaemic control is crucial in managing diabetes and reducing the risk of complications.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
-
-
Question 7
Correct
-
A 26-year-old professional athlete is being evaluated at the Endocrinology Clinic for presenting symptoms of low mood, decreased energy, and difficulty in preserving muscle mass. The patient also reports dry skin and hair loss. As part of the diagnostic process, the doctor requests a glucagon stimulation test.
What is elevated after the glucagon stimulation test?Your Answer: C-peptide, cortisol and growth hormone
Explanation:Glucagon and Hormone Production: Effects on C-peptide, Cortisol, Growth Hormone, and TSH
Glucagon, a hormone produced by the pancreas, has various effects on hormone production in the body. One of these effects is the stimulation of insulin and C-peptide production. C-peptide is cleaved from proinsulin during insulin production, and its levels can be used to measure insulin secretion. Glucagon also indirectly stimulates cortisol production by causing the release of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) via the hypothalamus. Additionally, glucagon can stimulate growth hormone production, making it an alternative test for measuring growth hormone levels. However, thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) secretion is not affected by glucagon injection. Understanding the effects of glucagon on hormone production can aid in the diagnosis and management of various endocrine disorders.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
-
-
Question 8
Correct
-
A 50-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner, complaining of a lump in her neck. She is a non-smoker and has no significant past medical history. On examination, there is a 2-cm firm, non-tender nodule on the left side of the anterior triangle of the neck, in the area of the thyroid.
Investigations:
Thyroid stimulating hormone: 2.5 mu/l (0.4–4.0 mu/l)
Fine-needle aspiration biopsy: partial papillary architecture with some thyroid follicles present. Thyrocytes are abnormally large with an abnormal nucleus and cytoplasm and frequent mitoses. Psammoma bodies are also demonstrated in the sample.
Which of the following fits best with the underlying diagnosis?Your Answer: Papillary thyroid carcinoma
Explanation:Thyroid Cancer Types and Diagnosis
Thyroid cancer can be classified into different types based on the cells involved. Papillary thyroid carcinoma is the most common type, where the papillary architecture of the thyroid is partially preserved. Surgery followed by radioiodine therapy is the standard treatment for this condition. Medullary thyroid carcinoma is less common and results in elevated calcitonin levels. Non-toxic multinodular goitre can be diagnosed through fine-needle aspiration biopsy, which shows colloid nodules. Follicular thyroid carcinoma exhibits variable morphology and is not consistent with fine-needle aspiration biopsy findings. Solitary toxic nodule can be ruled out if thyroid function is within normal limits. Proper diagnosis and treatment can lead to a high survival rate for patients under 40 years of age with papillary thyroid carcinoma.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
-
-
Question 9
Correct
-
A 20-year-old man with known type 1 diabetes is admitted to hospital with abdominal pain, drowsiness and severe dehydration. On examination he has a temperature of 38.2 degrees, and crackles at the bases of both lungs. Investigations show the following results:
Urinary ketones: 3+
Serum ketones: 3.6 mmol/l
Serum glucose: 21.8 mmol/l
pH 7.23
What is the most appropriate initial management?Your Answer: 1 litre 0.9% normal saline over 1 h
Explanation:Management of Diabetic Ketoacidosis: Medications and Fluids
Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a life-threatening complication of diabetes that requires urgent treatment. The initial management of DKA involves fluid resuscitation with normal saline, followed by insulin infusion to correct hyperglycemia. Antibiotics are not the immediate management option of choice, even if an intercurrent infection is suspected. Glucose therapy should be administered only after initial fluid resuscitation and insulin infusion. Here is a breakdown of the medications and fluids used in the management of DKA:
1. 1 litre 0.9% normal saline over 1 h: This is the first-line treatment for DKA. Urgent fluid resuscitation is necessary to correct hypovolemia and improve tissue perfusion.
2. Amoxicillin 500 mg po TDS for 5 days: Antibiotics may be necessary if an intercurrent infection is suspected, but they are not the immediate management option of choice for DKA.
3. Clarithromycin 500 mg po bd for 5 days: Same as above.
4. Insulin 0.1 units/kg/h via fixed rate insulin infusion: After initial fluid resuscitation, insulin infusion is necessary to correct hyperglycemia and prevent further ketone production.
5. 1 litre 10% dextrose over 8 h: Glucose therapy is necessary to prevent hypoglycemia after insulin infusion, but it should not be administered initially as it can exacerbate hyperglycemia.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
-
-
Question 10
Correct
-
A 16-year-old athlete attends a routine check-up. Her past medical history is significant for type 1 diabetes since the age of 7. Her glucose is well controlled with self-administration of insulin. She reports that she is training for the upcoming national championship. She has specific questions regarding the effects and actions of insulin.
Which of the following is correct regarding the action of insulin?Your Answer: Insulin increases protein synthesis in muscle
Explanation:The Effects of Insulin on the Body: Promoting Protein Synthesis, Sodium Secretion, and More
Insulin is a crucial hormone synthesized in pancreatic β cells that plays a vital role in the metabolism of carbohydrates and lipids in the body. This peptide hormone promotes glycogen synthesis, increases potassium uptake, and reduces lipolysis and proteolysis in cells. Additionally, insulin is known to increase protein synthesis in muscle and decrease triglyceride synthesis and storage in adipocytes.
One of the lesser-known effects of insulin is its ability to promote sodium secretion in the renal tubules. Insulin is also responsible for increasing tubular sodium reabsorption in the kidney, which halves sodium excretion.
Furthermore, insulin is used in the management of hyperkalaemia as it increases serum potassium levels by causing a shift of potassium into the cells, thereby lowering circulating potassium and increasing intracellular potassium concentration.
However, insulin does decrease glycogen storage in cells by activating enzymes involved in glycogen synthesis in the liver and tissues, causing the conversion of glucose to glycogen.
In summary, insulin has a wide range of effects on the body, from promoting protein synthesis to regulating potassium and sodium levels.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
-
-
Question 11
Correct
-
A 36-year-old woman presents with galactorrhoea. She has a history of schizophrenia and depression and takes various medications. She also reports not having a menstrual period for the past four months. During examination, a small amount of galactorrhoea is expressed from both breasts, but no other abnormalities are found. The following investigations are conducted: Prolactin levels are at 820 mU/L (50-550), 17β-oestradiol levels are at 110 pmol/L (130-550), LH levels are at 2.8 mU/L (3-10), FSH levels are at 2.7 mU/L (3-15), T4 levels are at 14.1 pmol/L (10-22), and TSH levels are at 0.65 mU/L (0.4-5). What is the probable cause of her galactorrhoea?
Your Answer: Haloperidol
Explanation:Hyperprolactinaemia and Hypogonadism in a Female with Schizophrenia
This female patient is experiencing galactorrhoea and has an elevated prolactin concentration, along with a low oestradiol concentration and a low-normal luteinising hormone (LH) and follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH). Pregnancy can be ruled out due to the low oestradiol concentration. The cause of hyperprolactinaemia and subsequent hypogonadism is likely drug-induced, as the patient is a chronic schizophrenic and is likely taking antipsychotic medication such as haloperidol or newer atypicals like olanzapine. These drugs act as dopamine antagonists and can cause hyperprolactinaemia.
It is important to note that hyperprolactinaemia can cause hypogonadism, and in this case, it is likely due to the patient’s medication. Other side effects of these drugs include extrapyramidal, Parkinson-like effects, and dystonias. It is crucial for healthcare providers to consider the potential side effects of medications when treating patients with chronic conditions such as schizophrenia. Proper monitoring and management of these side effects can improve the patient’s quality of life and overall health.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
-
-
Question 12
Correct
-
A 58-year-old man comes to the clinic with a lump in the anterior of his neck. He denies any symptoms of thyrotoxicosis. His family members have noticed that his voice has become increasingly hoarse over the past few weeks. Fine-needle aspiration indicates papillary carcinoma of the thyroid.
Which of the following statements is true?Your Answer: Thyroidectomy is curative in most cases
Explanation:Myth-busting Facts about Thyroid Cancer
Thyroidectomy is a common treatment for thyroid cancer, and it is curative in most cases. However, there are several misconceptions about this type of cancer that need to be addressed.
Firstly, papillary carcinoma, the most common type of thyroid cancer, is the least aggressive and can be cured with thyroidectomy. Secondly, a hoarse voice is not necessarily an indication of laryngeal involvement, but rather recurrent laryngeal nerve invasion.
Thirdly, while calcitonin levels are raised in medullary carcinoma of the thyroid, this type of cancer is rare and accounts for only a small percentage of cases. Finally, contrary to popular belief, most cases of thyroid cancer are sporadic, and only a small percentage are familial.
It is important to dispel these myths and educate the public about the realities of thyroid cancer to ensure accurate diagnosis and effective treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
-
-
Question 13
Correct
-
A 28-year-old woman is found to have a phaeochromocytoma. Which of the following is expected to be elevated in her urine levels?
Your Answer: Metanephrines
Explanation:Urinary Metabolites as Diagnostic Markers for Adrenal Disorders
Adrenal disorders such as phaeochromocytomas, congenital adrenal hyperplasia, and Cushing syndrome can be diagnosed by measuring specific urinary metabolites. For example, metanephrines, vanillylmandelic acid (VMA), and homovanillic acid (HVA) are the principal metabolic products of adrenaline and noradrenaline, and their elevated levels in urine indicate the presence of phaeochromocytomas. Similarly, increased urinary excretion of pregnanetriol and dehydroepiandrosterone are indicative of congenital adrenal hyperplasia. Free urinary cortisol levels are elevated in Cushing syndrome, which is characterized by weight gain, fatty tissue deposits, and other symptoms. Additionally, increased urinary excretion of 5-hydroxyindoleacetic acid is seen in functioning carcinoids. However, it is important to note that elevated levels of these metabolites can also occur in other conditions such as extreme stress states or medication use. Therefore, careful interpretation of urinary metabolite levels is necessary for accurate diagnosis of adrenal disorders.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
-
-
Question 14
Correct
-
What is an example of an exocrine function of the pancreas?
Your Answer: Secretion of amylase
Explanation:Functions of Digestive Enzymes and Hormones
Amylase is an enzyme that aids in the digestion of carbohydrates. It is present in both pancreatic juices and saliva. The exocrine function of the pancreas involves the secretion of substances into ducts that ultimately pass to the exterior of the body. Examples of exocrine glands include sweat glands, salivary glands, and mammary glands. On the other hand, the endocrine function of the pancreas involves the secretion of substances directly into the bloodstream. Insulin, which is secreted from the beta cells of the islets of Langerhans of the pancreas, is an example of an endocrine function.
Bile is another substance that aids in digestion. It is secreted by hepatocytes and stored in the gallbladder. Following a meal, bile is released to aid in the digestion of fats. Intrinsic factor, which is secreted by the parietal cells of the stomach, is responsible for binding vitamin B12 to allow its absorption in the terminal ileum. Finally, noradrenaline is a hormone that is released by the adrenal medulla. It plays a role in the body’s fight or flight response.
In summary, the digestive system relies on a variety of enzymes and hormones to function properly. These substances are secreted by various glands and organs throughout the body, and they work together to break down food and absorb nutrients.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
-
-
Question 15
Incorrect
-
A 42-year-old woman complains of fatigue after experiencing flu-like symptoms two weeks ago. Upon examination, she has a smooth, small goiter and a pulse rate of 68 bpm. Her lab results show a Free T4 level of 9.3 pmol/L (normal range: 9.8-23.1) and a TSH level of 49.3 mU/L (normal range: 0.35-5.50). What additional test would you perform to confirm the diagnosis?
Your Answer: TSH receptor antibodies
Correct Answer: Thyroid peroxidase (TPO) antibodies
Explanation:Diagnosis and Management of Primary Hypothyroidism
The patient’s test results indicate a case of primary hypothyroidism, characterized by low levels of thyroxine (T4) and elevated thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH). The most likely cause of this condition is Hashimoto’s thyroiditis, which is often accompanied by the presence of thyroid peroxidase antibodies. While the patient has a goitre, it appears to be smooth and non-threatening, so a thyroid ultrasound is not necessary. Additionally, a radio-iodine uptake scan is unlikely to show significant uptake and is therefore not recommended. Positive TSH receptor antibodies are typically associated with Graves’ disease, which is not the likely diagnosis in this case. For further information on Hashimoto’s thyroiditis, patients can refer to Patient.info.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
-
-
Question 16
Correct
-
A 49-year-old woman with a history of type 2 diabetes for three years comes in for her annual check-up. Despite optimizing her oral hypoglycemic therapy, she has gained around 5 kg in weight over the past year and her HbA1c has worsened. She is also taking ramipril, bendroflumethiazide, and amlodipine, but her blood pressure remains difficult to control, with a reading of 172/102 mmHg. During the examination, she has developed abdominal striae, thin skin with bruising, and proximal weakness. The doctor suspects Cushing's syndrome. What is the most appropriate test for this patient?
Your Answer: 24 hour urine free cortisol concentration
Explanation:Screening Tests for Cushing’s Syndrome
Cushing’s syndrome is a condition caused by excessive levels of cortisol in the body. To diagnose this condition, appropriate screening tests are necessary. The preferred test is the 1 mg overnight dexamethasone suppression test, where 1 mg of dexamethasone is given at 11 pm, and cortisol levels are measured at 9 am the following morning. A cortisol concentration less than 50 nmol/L after this test is considered normal.
Another effective test is a 24-hour urine collection to measure free cortisol in the urine. An elevated cortisol level, usually above 250 nmol/day, indicates Cushing’s syndrome. However, random cortisol or 9 am cortisol tests do not provide any diagnostic information.
In investigating the possible cause of Cushing’s syndrome, chest x-rays and adrenal CT scans are useful. These tests can help identify the underlying cause of the condition. It is important to perform appropriate screening tests to diagnose Cushing’s syndrome and determine the best course of treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
-
-
Question 17
Correct
-
A 47-year-old female is worried about the possibility of developing obesity and its connection to the metabolic syndrome and diabetes. She is seeking information on the specific criteria for diagnosing the metabolic syndrome.
Which of the following is a specific criterion used in diagnosing the metabolic syndrome?Your Answer: A waist circumference of more than 102 cm (40 inches)
Explanation:Metabolic syndrome is diagnosed when a person has three or more of the following factors: increased waist circumference, raised triglycerides, reduced HDL-cholesterol, raised blood pressure, and raised fasting plasma glucose. Central obesity is more strongly correlated with metabolic risk factors than BMI, and measuring waist circumference is recommended. Metabolic syndrome is associated with increased risk of developing diabetes and ischaemic heart disease.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
-
-
Question 18
Incorrect
-
A 55-year-old male patient has been diagnosed with acromegaly. What is the most suitable treatment option for him?
Your Answer: Somatostatin analogue therapy
Correct Answer: Trans-sphenoidal hypophysectomy
Explanation:Treatment Options for Acromegaly
Acromegaly is a condition characterized by the excessive production of growth hormone (GH) in adults. The most effective treatment for this condition is surgery, which may prove curative. Although somatostatin therapy can reduce GH levels, it is not recommended for young patients like this man, as it requires lifelong therapy. On the other hand, radiotherapy can take a long time to be effective, and surgical resection is the preferred option. Therefore, surgery is the most appropriate treatment for acromegaly in this man, as it offers the best chance of a cure. Proper treatment can help manage the symptoms of acromegaly and improve the patient’s quality of life.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
-
-
Question 19
Incorrect
-
A 63-year-old man presents to the Acute Medicine Unit with hyponatraemia. He reports feeling generally unwell and apathetic, and has experienced a 6 kg weight loss over the past three months. He has no history of medication use and is a heavy smoker. Upon examination, he is euvolaemic and a chest X-ray reveals a right hilar mass. His blood results show a serum sodium level of 123 mmol/l (normal range: 135-145 mmol/l), serum osmolality of 267 mosmol/kg (normal range: 275-295 mosmol/kg), urine sodium of 55 mmol/l (normal range: <20 mmol/l), urine osmolality of 110 mosmol/l (normal range: <100 mosmol/kg), and morning cortisol of 450 nmol/l (normal range: 119-618 mmol/l). What is the most appropriate initial management for his hyponatraemia?
Your Answer: Intravenous 0.9% saline infusion over 12 hours
Correct Answer: Fluid restriction 800 ml/24 hours
Explanation:Treatment Options for Syndrome of Inappropriate Antidiuretic Hormone Secretion (SIADH)
Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH) is a condition characterized by euvolaemic hypo-osmolar hyponatraemia with inappropriately elevated urinary sodium and normal thyroid and adrenal function. The first-line treatment for moderate SIADH is fluid restriction, which aims to increase serum sodium concentration by 5-8 mmol/L per 24 hours. However, some treatment options can worsen the condition.
Intravenous 0.9% saline infusion over 12 hours is not recommended for SIADH patients as it can lower serum sodium even further. This is because the kidney regulates sodium and water independently, and in SIADH, only water handling is out of balance from too much ADH.
Intranasal desmopressin 10 μg is also not recommended as it limits the amount of free water excreted by the kidneys, worsening hyponatraemia.
Intravenous hydrocortisone 100 mg is used if steroid deficiency is suspected as the underlying cause of hyponatraemia. However, if the morning cortisol is normal, it is not necessary.
Performing a water-deprivation test is used in the diagnosis of diabetes insipidus, which presents with excess thirst, urination, and often hypernatraemia and raised plasma osmolality. It is not a treatment option for SIADH.
In conclusion, fluid restriction is the first-line treatment for moderate SIADH, and other treatment options should be avoided unless there is a specific underlying cause for hyponatraemia.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
-
-
Question 20
Incorrect
-
A 50-year-old woman is undergoing evaluation for hypertension that is not responding to treatment. She has a previous medical history of medullary thyroid carcinoma. Her physical examination is unremarkable. During her work-up, she is found to have hypercalcemia with a level of 2.8 mmol/l. Her parathyroid hormone (PTH) is slightly elevated above the normal range. What is the underlying diagnosis?
Your Answer: Multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1
Correct Answer: Multiple endocrine neoplasia type 2A
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis: Hypercalcaemia with Medullary Thyroid Carcinoma
Multiple endocrine neoplasia type 2A (MEN 2A) is a genetic disorder caused by a gain in function mutation in the RET proto-oncogene. The classic triad of MEN 2A includes medullary thyroid carcinoma, primary hyperparathyroidism, and phaeochromocytoma. In cases where a patient presents with a history of medullary thyroid carcinoma and hypercalcaemia with inappropriately elevated PTH levels, primary parahyperthyroidism is implied, and the combination of these symptoms with treatment-resistant hypertension is virtually diagnostic of MEN 2A.
Other conditions associated with hypercalcaemia include multiple myeloma, but PTH levels would be appropriately low. Marfan’s syndrome, a hereditary disorder of connective tissue, is not typically associated with dysfunction of the parathyroid hormone axis. Multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1 (MEN1) is a main differential diagnosis, but patients with MEN1 typically suffer from hyperparathyroidism, pituitary adenomas (typically prolactinomas), and pancreatic islet cell tumours, not the symptoms described here. Neurofibromatosis, a disorder caused by a mutation in the neurofibromin gene, is associated with multiple neural tumours and various other manifestations, but disruption of the parathyroid hormone axis is not a feature.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
-
-
Question 21
Incorrect
-
A 10-year-old boy comes to you with a midline cyst that rises upwards when he sticks out his tongue. You suspect it to be a thyroglossal cyst. Where does the thyroid gland originate from?
Your Answer: Third branchial pouch
Correct Answer: Foramen caecum
Explanation:Development of the Thyroid Gland and its Relationship to Other Structures
The thyroid gland develops from the foramen caecum on the tongue, which is a diverticulum between the first and second branchial arches. It descends to its final position in the neck, passing anteriorly to the hyoid bone. During this descent, a thyroglossal duct traces its path, which usually obliterates but can cause formation of a thyroglossal cyst if persistent. The third branchial pouch forms the inferior parathyroid glands and some cells of the thymus, while the fourth branchial pouch forms the superior parathyroid glands. It is important to note that the foramen caecum of the frontal bone shares its name with the structure on the tongue where the thyroid gland begins development, but the thyroid gland does not start development from the base of the skull. Understanding the relationship between these structures is crucial in the study of embryology and endocrinology.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
-
-
Question 22
Incorrect
-
A 20-year-old man, who has recently started his second year of university, is brought to the Emergency Department by his friends early on a Friday evening. His friends report he has vomited several times and that he appears confused and ‘not himself’. Upon examination, the patient appears disorientated and unwell. His temperature is 37.2 °C, heart rate 118 bpm and regular, blood pressure 106/68 mmHg. He has dry mucous membranes and his breath smells like nail polish remover. The chest is normal on auscultation, and his abdomen is soft and appears to be non-tender. Capillary blood glucose is 26 mmol/l, and urine dip is strongly positive for glucose and ketones.
Arterial blood gas (ABG) results are given below:
Investigation Result Normal range
pH 6.9 7.35–7.45
paCO2 3.4 kPa 4.5–6.0 kPa
paO2 12.5 kPa 10.0–14.0 kPa
HCO3 8.3 mEq/l 22–28 mmol/l
What is the most appropriate initial management for this patient?Your Answer: IV fluids and variable-rate insulin infusion
Correct Answer: IV fluids and fixed-rate insulin infusion
Explanation:Management of Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA)
Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a serious complication of diabetes that requires urgent treatment. The management of DKA involves IV fluids to correct dehydration and electrolyte abnormalities, and a fixed-rate insulin infusion to reduce blood ketone and glucose levels. The aim is to normalise blood glucose levels and clear blood ketones. Once the blood glucose level falls below 12 mmol/l, IV fluids should be switched from normal saline to 5% dextrose to avoid inducing hypoglycaemia.
It is important to identify the precipitating cause of DKA, which could be infection, surgery, medication, or non-compliance with insulin therapy. A toxicology screen is not indicated unless there is a suspicion of drug overdose.
Oral rehydration is insufficient for managing DKA, and IV fluids are critical for correcting dehydration and electrolyte abnormalities. A variable-rate insulin infusion is not recommended as the focus of insulin therapy in DKA is to correct blood ketone levels.
Confusion in DKA is likely related to dehydration and electrolyte abnormalities, and urgent CT brain is not indicated unless there is a suspicion of head injury. Overall, prompt recognition and management of DKA is essential to prevent life-threatening complications.
Management of Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA)
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
-
-
Question 23
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old woman comes to the Endocrinology Clinic complaining of bruising, striae, acne and hirsutism. During the examination, the patient seems lethargic and depressed, with centripetal obesity and proximal myopathy. Her blood pressure is 165/106 mmHg and blood tests show Na+ 136 mmol/l, K+ 2.8 mmol/l and random glucose 8.2 mmol/l. The doctor orders a low-dose dexamethasone test and a 24-hour urinary cortisol test. What is the most common cause of Cushing syndrome?
Your Answer: Pituitary-dependent
Correct Answer: Iatrogenic
Explanation:Causes of Cushing Syndrome: Understanding the Different Types
Cushing Syndrome is a rare condition that occurs when the body is exposed to high levels of cortisol for an extended period. Cortisol is a hormone produced by the adrenal glands that helps regulate metabolism and stress response. There are several different causes of Cushing Syndrome, including:
1. Iatrogenic: This is the most common cause of Cushing Syndrome and is related to the use of corticosteroid medication. People who take oral corticosteroids are at a higher risk, but the condition can also affect those who misuse inhaled or topical corticosteroids.
2. Ectopic ACTH secretion: This is a very rare cause of Cushing Syndrome that arises due to ACTH secretion from a carcinoid tumor.
3. Primary adrenal disorder: This is primary hypercortisolism, which is an unusual cause for Cushing Syndrome.
4. Pituitary-dependent: This is Cushing’s disease, which is much rarer than Cushing Syndrome, arising from a pituitary tumor.
5. Pseudo-Cushing’s syndrome: This describes hypercortisolism arising as a result of a separate condition, such as malnutrition or chronic alcoholism, resulting in the same phenotype and biochemical abnormalities of Cushing Syndrome.
Understanding the different types of Cushing Syndrome can help with diagnosis and treatment. It is important to work with a healthcare provider to determine the underlying cause and develop an appropriate treatment plan.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
-
-
Question 24
Incorrect
-
A 65-year-old man with diabetes and a history of chronic kidney disease visits for his regular check-up. The focus is on his elevated levels of phosphate and parathyroid hormone, despite having normal calcium levels. The doctor decides to prescribe a vitamin D analogue. What would be the most suitable option?
Your Answer: Cholecalciferol (vit D3)
Correct Answer: Alfacalcidol (1-hydroxycholecalciferol)
Explanation:Alfacalcidol as an Effective Treatment for CKD Patients
Alfacalcidol, also known as 1-hydroxycholecalciferol, is a form of vitamin D that is already hydroxylated and does not require activation by the kidney enzyme 1-hydroxylase. This makes it an effective alternative for patients with chronic kidney disease (CKD) as their impaired kidney function can compromise the bioavailability of other forms of vitamin D. Calcitriol is another option for CKD patients.
On the other hand, ascorbic acid, also known as vitamin C, is not involved in the modification of calcium metabolism but rather in the treatment of scurvy, a vitamin C deficiency. Cholecalciferol or vitamin D3, which is obtained from the diet or generated by UV action in the skin, must undergo hydroxylation in the kidney. Vitamin D2, on the other hand, requires activation by the kidney enzyme 1-hydroxylase, which can be impaired in CKD patients.
Lastly, riboflavin or vitamin B2 has no effect on calcium metabolism. In summary, alfacalcidol is an effective treatment option for CKD patients as it does not require activation by the kidney enzyme and can improve the bioavailability of vitamin D.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
-
-
Question 25
Incorrect
-
A 7-year-old boy who attends a regular school has been brought to the clinic due to his short stature. He measures 3 cm below the third centile for his age and weighs 800 grams less than the third centile. His bone age is 4.5 years. The boy's mother and father have heights on the 30th and 60th centiles, respectively.
Which of the following statements is true?Your Answer: From these measurements the child is failing to grow
Correct Answer: Findings of poorly felt femoral pulses suggest that chromosome analysis might be required
Explanation:Factors to Consider in Evaluating Growth and Puberty Delay
When evaluating a child’s growth and puberty delay, it is important to consider the family history of delayed growth and puberty. A single measurement of growth is not enough to determine if there is a growth hormone deficiency or thyroid disease. It is also important to check for poorly felt femoral pulses, which may indicate coarctation and Turner’s syndrome.
Constitutional short stature is the most common reason for growth delay. To assess growth velocity, another measurement of growth is necessary. It is important to take into account all of these factors when evaluating a child’s growth and puberty delay to ensure an accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment plan. Proper evaluation and management can help prevent potential complications and improve the child’s overall health and well-being.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
-
-
Question 26
Correct
-
A 57-year-old male presents for his first annual review of type 2 diabetes. He has also been experiencing osteoarthritis in his hips and 2nd/3rd metacarpophalangeal joints. His current medications include aspirin and metformin. Prior to starting a statin, his liver function tests are checked and reveal the following results: AST 78 U/L (5-40), ALT 88 U/L (5-40), Alkaline phosphatase 210 U/L (60-110), and Bilirubin 10 µmol/L (0-22). He does not consume alcohol and has a BMI of 24 kg/m2. He has tested negative for hepatitis B and C viruses, ANA, ASMA, LKM, and AMA. His caeruloplasmin levels are normal. What is the probable cause of his presentation?
Your Answer: Haemochromatosis
Explanation:Haemochromatosis
This patient’s medical history indicates the possibility of haemochromatosis, an iron storage disorder. The presence of diabetes despite a normal BMI, liver function abnormalities, and arthropathy are all suggestive of this condition. To confirm the diagnosis, the recommended investigation is to measure the patient’s serum ferritin levels followed by transferrin saturation. If haemochromatosis is confirmed, the treatment will involve regular venesection.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
-
-
Question 27
Incorrect
-
A 57-year-old woman presents to the diabetic clinic with concerns about her worsening blood sugar control. She was diagnosed with diabetes three years ago and has had hypertension for five years. Her current medications include atenolol, amlodipine, and metformin.
During the examination, her weight is recorded as 98.5 kg, which is 5 kg more than her previous weight after losing 4 kg. Her BMI is 34.6, and her blood pressure is 156/94 mmHg. There are no signs of neuropathy or retinopathy. Her fasting glucose is 8.2 mmol/L (148 mg/dL), and her HbA1c has increased by 1% to 77 mmol/mol (20-42) since her last visit six months ago.
The patient expresses difficulty adhering to her diet and requests assistance with her weight. What would be your recommendation for treating her obesity?Your Answer: Diet alone
Correct Answer: Orlistat
Explanation:Treatment Options for Obesity and Diabetes
This patient is dealing with both obesity and diabetes, and it is common for their glycaemic control to worsen as their weight increases. While bariatric surgery and sibutramine have been recommended in the past, they are not suitable options for this patient due to their medical history and potential risks. Instead, the pancreatic lipase inhibitor orlistat is recommended as it can reduce the absorption of dietary fat by 30%. However, it is important to note that this medication can cause side effects such as flatulence and diarrhoea.
Previously, it was recommended that patients demonstrate at least a 2.5 kg weight loss with diet before starting orlistat. However, this is no longer necessary. Weight loss is expected to improve glycaemic control, but it is important to note that the sulphonylurea gliclazide may cause weight gain. Overall, a combination of medication and diet changes can help manage obesity and diabetes in patients.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
-
-
Question 28
Incorrect
-
A 65-year-old individual with diabetes complains of difficulty reading newsprint. Fundoscopy reveals clouding of the lens, making it difficult to visualize the retina.
What is the probable reason for this person's vision impairment?Your Answer: Rubeosis iridis
Correct Answer: Cataract
Explanation:Premature Cataracts and their Association with Diabetes and Other Conditions
Cataracts can develop prematurely in individuals with certain medical conditions such as diabetes, Cushing’s syndrome, and those who have undergone steroid therapy or experienced trauma. In such cases, it is important to treat the cataracts in order to properly evaluate the back of the eye for signs of diabetic retinopathy. This condition occurs when high blood sugar levels damage the blood vessels in the retina, leading to vision loss. Therefore, it is crucial to monitor the eyes of individuals with these medical conditions to ensure early detection and treatment of any potential complications.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
-
-
Question 29
Incorrect
-
A 55-year-old male with a six year history of type 2 diabetes has been diagnosed with ischaemic heart disease and started taking atorvastatin 80 mg daily to manage his cholesterol level of 6.2 mmol/L. However, he has returned to the clinic complaining of muscle aches and pains, and his liver function tests have shown elevated levels from his baseline. His pre-treatment ALT was 60 IU/L, and now it is 95 IU/L. He is concerned about the side effects of the statin and asks if he should stop taking it. What is the most appropriate next step to manage his hypercholesterolaemia?
Your Answer: Ezetimibe
Correct Answer: Atorvastatin 40 mg daily
Explanation:Managing Statin Intolerance in Patients with Ischaemic Heart Disease and Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus
Patients with ischaemic heart disease and type 2 diabetes mellitus are recommended to receive high-dose statins to manage their elevated cholesterol levels. However, some patients may experience intolerance to statins, such as myalgia and raised liver function tests. In such cases, NICE advises reducing the dose or considering an alternative statin. Fibrate and ezetimibe are generally not recommended for these patients, and referral to a specialist may be necessary if statins are completely not tolerated.
To minimize the risk of side effects, starting at a low dose and gradually titrating up can be helpful. Rosuvastatin and pravastatin may have a lower incidence of myalgia compared to other statins. However, cautious monitoring of liver function tests should be performed if starting another statin. If a patient has a history of statin-related hepatitis or rhabdomyolysis, statins should generally be avoided in the future if possible.
In summary, managing statin intolerance in patients with ischaemic heart disease and type 2 diabetes mellitus requires careful consideration of alternative options and cautious monitoring of side effects.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
-
-
Question 30
Correct
-
A 28-year-old male with type 1 diabetes is instructed to collect his urine for 24 hours. What level of urine albumin concentration indicates the presence of microalbuminuria?
Your Answer: 50 mg/day
Explanation:Microalbuminuria and Proteinuria
Microalbuminuria is a condition where the urine albumin excretion ranges from 30-300 mg per 24 hours. If the concentration exceeds 300 mg/24 hours, it signifies albuminuria, and if it exceeds 3.5 g/24 hours, it signifies overt proteinuria. Microalbuminuria is not only an early indicator of renal involvement but also a sign of increased cardiovascular risk, with a twofold risk above the already increased risk in diabetic patients. The albumin:creatinine ratio is a useful surrogate of the total albumin excretion, and it is measured using the first morning urine sample where possible. An albumin:creatinine ratio of ≥2.5 mg/mmol (men) or 3.5 mg/mmol (women) indicates microalbuminuria, while a ratio of ≥30 mg/mmol indicates proteinuria. these conditions is crucial in managing and preventing complications associated with renal and cardiovascular diseases.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
0
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Secs)