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  • Question 1 - A 25-year-old man has recurrent, persistent, intrusive, distressing thoughts and images of his...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man has recurrent, persistent, intrusive, distressing thoughts and images of his friends getting hurt. He reports that these thoughts seem to originate from his own mind, but he considers them to be irrational.
      Which symptom is he reporting?

      Your Answer: Thought interference

      Correct Answer: Obsessions

      Explanation:

      Understanding Psychiatric Symptoms: Obsessions, Compulsions, Delusions, Hallucinations, and Thought Interference

      Psychiatric symptoms can be complex and difficult to understand. Here are some explanations of common symptoms:

      Obsessions are intrusive thoughts, images, or impulses that repetitively and stereotypically enter a person’s mind. They are often distressing and patients try unsuccessfully to resist them. Common themes include aggression, dirt and contamination, fear of causing harm, religion, and sex.

      Compulsions are repetitive and stereotyped acts or rituals that are often carried out as an attempt to neutralize distressing obsessional thoughts. Patients typically recognize these behaviors as pointless and ineffective, and try to resist them, often unsuccessfully.

      Delusions are false, fixed, and firmly held beliefs that are not in keeping with a person’s social, cultural, and religious background. Patients typically do not recognize them as false or irrational and do not try to resist them, even if they find them distressing.

      Hallucinations are sensory experiences that occur without an external stimulus that could produce such perception. They can be perceptions in any sensory modality, such as hearing a voice in the absence of anyone actually talking.

      Thought interference consists of a patient’s firm belief that an external entity is interfering with their thoughts, usually by introducing thoughts in their mind, stealing thoughts from them, or being able to access their thoughts. Patients usually lack insight into these pathological experiences.

      Understanding these symptoms can help individuals and their loved ones seek appropriate treatment and support.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      19.4
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  • Question 2 - A 25-year-old man presents to the clinic with persistent beliefs that his coworkers...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man presents to the clinic with persistent beliefs that his coworkers are plotting against him and trying to sabotage his work, despite reassurance and evidence to the contrary. He has had multiple heated arguments with his colleagues and after each one, he becomes aggressive and blames them for his outbursts. He sometimes feels like he cannot function without them, but also sometimes feels that they are out to get him. He has a history of a recent suicide attempt and has difficulties trusting his family as he feels they are part of the conspiracy. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Paranoid personality disorder

      Correct Answer: Borderline personality disorder

      Explanation:

      The young man in question is likely suffering from borderline personality disorder (BPD), also known as emotionally unstable personality disorder (EUPD). This condition is characterized by unstable relationships, alternating between idealization and devaluation of others, recurrent self-harm, unstable self-image and self-esteem, suicidal behavior, difficulty controlling anger, and efforts to avoid abandonment. All of these traits are present in this patient, making BPD the most likely diagnosis.

      Narcissistic personality disorder is not a likely diagnosis for this patient, as it is characterized by a grandiose sense of self-importance, lack of empathy, and a sense of entitlement. These traits are not present in this patient, and his periods of devaluing her partner are temporary and not pervasive.

      Dependent personality disorder is also an unlikely diagnosis, as this condition is characterized by a pervasive need for others to make decisions for the patient and constant reassurance. While the patient has felt that he cannot live without his partner in the past, his labile mood and alternating view of his partner make this diagnosis less likely.

      Paranoid personality disorder is also an unlikely diagnosis, as patients with this condition tend to be reluctant to confide in others and have an unforgiving attitude when insulted or questioned. The patient in question does not exhibit these traits, and his difficulty with trusting friends is likely due to his belief that he is undeserving of them.

      Personality disorders are a set of personality traits that are maladaptive and interfere with normal functioning in life. It is estimated that around 1 in 20 people have a personality disorder, which are typically categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes Odd or Eccentric disorders such as Paranoid, Schizoid, and Schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes Dramatic, Emotional, or Erratic disorders such as Antisocial, Borderline (Emotionally Unstable), Histrionic, and Narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes Anxious and Fearful disorders such as Obsessive-Compulsive, Avoidant, and Dependent.

      Paranoid individuals exhibit hypersensitivity and an unforgiving attitude when insulted, a reluctance to confide in others, and a preoccupation with conspirational beliefs and hidden meanings. Schizoid individuals show indifference to praise and criticism, a preference for solitary activities, and emotional coldness. Schizotypal individuals exhibit odd beliefs and magical thinking, unusual perceptual disturbances, and inappropriate affect. Antisocial individuals fail to conform to social norms, deceive others, and exhibit impulsiveness, irritability, and aggressiveness. Borderline individuals exhibit unstable interpersonal relationships, impulsivity, and affective instability. Histrionic individuals exhibit inappropriate sexual seductiveness, a need to be the center of attention, and self-dramatization. Narcissistic individuals exhibit a grandiose sense of self-importance, lack of empathy, and excessive need for admiration. Obsessive-compulsive individuals are occupied with details, rules, and organization to the point of hampering completion of tasks. Avoidant individuals avoid interpersonal contact due to fears of criticism or rejection, while dependent individuals have difficulty making decisions without excessive reassurance from others.

      Personality disorders are difficult to treat, but a number of approaches have been shown to help patients, including psychological therapies such as dialectical behavior therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      35.9
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  • Question 3 - A 50-year-old woman with a long history of steroid-treated sarcoidosis presents with extreme...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman with a long history of steroid-treated sarcoidosis presents with extreme thirst and nocturia up to five times a night. Her serum calcium concentration is 2.3 mmol/l (reference range 2.2–2.7 mmol/l), random plasma glucose 4.6 mmol/l (reference range <11.1 mmol/l) and potassium 3.5 mmol/l (reference range 3.6–5.2 mmol/l). After an overnight fast, her serum sodium is 149 mmol/l (reference range 135–145 mmol/l).
      What is the cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Iatrogenic adrenal insufficiency

      Correct Answer: Cranial diabetes insipidus

      Explanation:

      Polyuria and polydipsia can be caused by various conditions, including cranial diabetes insipidus, chronic cystitis, hypokalaemia-induced polyuria, iatrogenic adrenal insufficiency, and primary polydipsia. Cranial diabetes insipidus is characterized by decreased secretion of antidiuretic hormone, resulting in the passage of large volumes of dilute urine. Chronic cystitis is an ongoing inflammation of the lower urinary tract, while hypokalaemia-induced polyuria occurs when there is a low concentration of potassium in the filtrate. Iatrogenic adrenal insufficiency is a possible cause of polydipsia/polyuria, but less consistent with this scenario. Primary polydipsia is suspected when large volumes of very dilute urine occur with low-normal plasma osmolality. Differentiating between these conditions can be challenging, but a combination of plasma ADH assay and water deprivation testing can lead to greater accuracy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      40.3
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  • Question 4 - A middle-aged man with a history of chronic alcohol abuse presents to the...

    Incorrect

    • A middle-aged man with a history of chronic alcohol abuse presents to the Emergency Department. He appears disheveled, lethargic, and disoriented, and it is suspected that he has not had a meal in the past two days. The medical team decides to initiate chlordiazepoxide PRN and administer IV Pabrinex. Which specific vitamin, found in Pabrinex, can help halt the progression of symptoms leading to Wernicke's encephalopathy?

      Your Answer: B12

      Correct Answer: B1

      Explanation:

      Understanding Wernicke’s Encephalopathy

      Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a condition that affects the brain and is caused by a deficiency in thiamine. This condition is commonly seen in individuals who abuse alcohol, but it can also be caused by persistent vomiting, stomach cancer, or dietary deficiencies. The classic triad of symptoms associated with Wernicke’s encephalopathy includes oculomotor dysfunction, gait ataxia, and encephalopathy. Other symptoms may include peripheral sensory neuropathy and confusion.

      When left untreated, Wernicke’s encephalopathy can lead to the development of Korsakoff’s syndrome. This condition is characterized by antero- and retrograde amnesia and confabulation in addition to the symptoms associated with Wernicke’s encephalopathy.

      To diagnose Wernicke’s encephalopathy, doctors may perform a variety of tests, including a decreased red cell transketolase test and an MRI. Treatment for this condition involves urgent replacement of thiamine. With prompt treatment, individuals with Wernicke’s encephalopathy can recover fully.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      22.7
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  • Question 5 - A 57-year-old woman presents for follow-up. She developed a blistering rash under her...

    Correct

    • A 57-year-old woman presents for follow-up. She developed a blistering rash under her left breast that spread to her back about 4 weeks ago, and was diagnosed with shingles. However, she has been experiencing intense shooting pains and tenderness in the affected area since then, despite trying both paracetamol and ibuprofen. What would be the most suitable course of action for managing her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Amitriptyline

      Explanation:

      The woman is suffering from post-herpetic neuralgia and NICE suggests starting treatment with amitriptyline, duloxetine, gabapentin, or pregabalin.

      Understanding Neuropathic Pain and its Management

      Neuropathic pain is a type of pain that occurs due to damage or disruption of the nervous system. It is a complex condition that is often difficult to treat and does not respond well to standard painkillers. Examples of neuropathic pain include diabetic neuropathy, post-herpetic neuralgia, trigeminal neuralgia, and prolapsed intervertebral disc.

      To manage neuropathic pain, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidance in 2013. The first-line treatment options include amitriptyline, duloxetine, gabapentin, or pregabalin. If the first-line drug treatment does not work, patients may try one of the other three drugs. Unlike standard painkillers, drugs for neuropathic pain are typically used as monotherapy, meaning that if they do not work, patients should switch to a different drug rather than adding another one.

      Tramadol may be used as rescue therapy for exacerbations of neuropathic pain, while topical capsaicin may be used for localized neuropathic pain, such as post-herpetic neuralgia. Pain management clinics may also be useful for patients with resistant problems. However, it is important to note that for some specific conditions, such as trigeminal neuralgia, the guidance may vary, and carbamazepine may be used as a first-line treatment. Overall, understanding neuropathic pain and its management is crucial for improving the quality of life for patients suffering from this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      37.4
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  • Question 6 - What is the most appropriate next step in managing a 40-year-old woman who...

    Correct

    • What is the most appropriate next step in managing a 40-year-old woman who presents with yellowing of the skin and eyes, fatigue, and intense itching, and has a history of coeliac disease? Her test results show elevated bilirubin, positive anti-mitochondrial antibodies, and normal kidney function.

      Your Answer: Ursodeoxycholic acid

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Primary Biliary Cholangitis

      Primary biliary cholangitis (PBC) is an inflammatory condition that affects middle-aged, overweight women. The most common symptoms are fatigue and pruritis, along with elevated alkaline phosphatase levels. Ursodeoxycholic acid is the preferred treatment for PBC as it slows disease progression. Cholestyramine can effectively control pruritis, but it does not affect overall mortality in PBC. Liver transplantation is reserved for cases where medical alternatives have failed. Loratadine is not indicated for PBC, and prednisolone is used in the treatment of autoimmune hepatitis, which is a different condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology/Allergy
      32.6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 50-year-old woman presents with complaints of hot flashes that occur randomly and...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman presents with complaints of hot flashes that occur randomly and are affecting her work as a lawyer, especially during court sessions. She is hesitant to try hormone replacement therapy due to its side effects and is seeking alternative options. What medication can be prescribed to alleviate her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Oestrogen cream

      Correct Answer: Fluoxetine

      Explanation:

      According to NICE guidelines, women experiencing vasomotor symptoms during menopause can be prescribed fluoxetine, a selective serotonin uptake inhibitor (SSRI). While clonidine is also approved for treating these symptoms, its effectiveness is not well-established and it can cause side effects such as dry mouth, sedation, depression, and fluid retention. Gabapentin is being studied for its potential to reduce hot flushes, but more research is needed.

      Managing Menopause: Lifestyle Modifications, Hormone Replacement Therapy, and Non-Hormone Replacement Therapy

      Menopause is a natural biological process that marks the end of a woman’s reproductive years. It is diagnosed when a woman has not had a period for 12 consecutive months. Menopausal symptoms are common and can last for up to 7 years, with varying degrees of severity and duration. The management of menopause can be divided into three categories: lifestyle modifications, hormone replacement therapy (HRT), and non-hormone replacement therapy.

      Lifestyle modifications can help manage menopausal symptoms such as hot flushes, sleep disturbance, mood changes, and cognitive symptoms. Regular exercise, weight loss, stress reduction, and good sleep hygiene are recommended. For women who cannot or do not want to take HRT, non-hormonal treatments such as fluoxetine, citalopram, or venlafaxine for vasomotor symptoms, vaginal lubricants or moisturizers for vaginal dryness, and cognitive behavior therapy or antidepressants for psychological symptoms can be prescribed.

      HRT is a treatment option for women with moderate to severe menopausal symptoms. However, it is contraindicated in women with current or past breast cancer, any estrogen-sensitive cancer, undiagnosed vaginal bleeding, or untreated endometrial hyperplasia. HRT brings certain risks, including venous thromboembolism, stroke, coronary heart disease, breast cancer, and ovarian cancer. Women should be advised of these risks and the fact that symptoms typically last for 2-5 years.

      When stopping HRT, it is important to gradually reduce the dosage to limit recurrence of symptoms in the short term. However, in the long term, there is no difference in symptom control. Women who experience ineffective treatment, ongoing side effects, or unexplained bleeding should be referred to secondary care. Overall, managing menopause requires a personalized approach that takes into account a woman’s medical history, preferences, and individual symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      20.4
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  • Question 8 - A 57-year-old male presents to eye casualty with a one-day history of a...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old male presents to eye casualty with a one-day history of a painful red eye. He has a past medical history of hypertension and type II diabetes mellitus. He wears glasses for his hypermetropia.

      Upon examination of the right eye, a ciliary injection accompanies a fixed mid-dilated pupil. The pain is exacerbated when assessing pupillary reaction, which is non-reactive. His visual acuity is markedly reduced in his right eye compared to his left.

      Gonioscopy was performed, and the trabecular meshwork was not visualised. What is the first-line management for this likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Urgent laser peripheral iridotomy

      Correct Answer: Administer pilocarpine, timolol, and brimonidine eye drops

      Explanation:

      The appropriate treatment for a patient with acute angle closure glaucoma (AACG) is to administer pilocarpine, timolol, and brimonidine eye drops. This condition is characterized by ocular pain, decreased visual acuity, worsened symptoms with mydriasis, and haloes around lights. AACG is more common in individuals with hypermetropia. The presence of a fixed mid-dilated pupil and inability to visualize the trabecular meshwork are consistent with AACG. Pilocarpine, timolol, and brimonidine are all used to reduce intra-ocular pressure (IOP) and protect the optic nerve.

      Administering gentamicin eye drops is not appropriate for this patient as it is an antibiotic used to treat eye infections such as microbial keratitis. The patient does not have risk factors for an eye infection and the examination findings are more consistent with AACG.

      Prescribing prednisolone eye drops is also not appropriate as it is a steroid used to manage inflammatory eye diseases such as anterior uveitis. While anterior uveitis may present with a painful red eye, the examination findings for this patient are more suggestive of angle closure.

      Similarly, prescribing cyclopentolate eye drops is not appropriate as it is a mydriatic eye drop that may worsen the patient’s symptoms by reducing the angle. Mydriatic eye drops may be used in the management of anterior uveitis, but the examination findings for this patient are more consistent with AACG.

      Glaucoma is a group of disorders that cause optic neuropathy due to increased intraocular pressure (IOP). However, not all patients with raised IOP have glaucoma, and vice versa. Acute angle-closure glaucoma (AACG) is a type of glaucoma where there is a rise in IOP due to impaired aqueous outflow. Factors that increase the risk of AACG include hypermetropia, pupillary dilatation, and lens growth associated with age. Symptoms of AACG include severe pain, decreased visual acuity, haloes around lights, and a hard, red-eye. Management of AACG is an emergency and requires urgent referral to an ophthalmologist. Emergency medical treatment is necessary to lower the IOP, followed by definitive surgical treatment once the acute attack has subsided.

      There are no specific guidelines for the initial medical treatment of AACG, but a combination of eye drops may be used, including a direct parasympathomimetic, a beta-blocker, and an alpha-2 agonist. Intravenous acetazolamide may also be administered to reduce aqueous secretions. Definitive management of AACG involves laser peripheral iridotomy, which creates a small hole in the peripheral iris to allow aqueous humour to flow to the angle. It is important to seek medical attention immediately if symptoms of AACG are present to prevent permanent vision loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      387.9
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - An increase in alkaline phosphatase can be attributed to any of the following...

    Incorrect

    • An increase in alkaline phosphatase can be attributed to any of the following conditions except?

      Your Answer: Paget's disease

      Correct Answer: Hypoparathyroidism

      Explanation:

      Understanding Alkaline Phosphatase and Its Causes

      Alkaline phosphatase (ALP) is an enzyme found in various tissues throughout the body, including the liver, bones, and intestines. When the levels of ALP in the blood are elevated, it can indicate a potential health issue. The causes of raised ALP can be divided into two categories based on the calcium level in the blood.

      If both ALP and calcium levels are high, it may indicate bone metastases, hyperparathyroidism, osteomalacia, or renal failure. On the other hand, if ALP is high but calcium is low, it may be due to cholestasis, hepatitis, fatty liver, neoplasia, Paget’s disease, or physiological factors such as pregnancy, growing children, or healing fractures.

      It is important to note that elevated ALP levels do not necessarily indicate a specific condition, but rather serve as a signal for further investigation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      19.3
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 68-year-old woman with isolated systolic hypertension, who also has urinary tract infections,...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old woman with isolated systolic hypertension, who also has urinary tract infections, osteoporosis and diabetes, attends outpatients with a blood pressure reading of 192/88 mmHg. Which of the following medications would you prescribe for this patient?

      Your Answer: Doxazosin

      Correct Answer: Valsartan

      Explanation:

      Choosing the Right Medication for Hypertension: A Guide

      When it comes to treating hypertension, there are several medications to choose from. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor or an angiotensin receptor blocker (ARB) as first-line treatment for those under 55, while calcium channel blockers (CCBs) are preferred for patients over 55 and those of Afro-Caribbean origin. Beta blockers, once a common choice, are no longer recommended as first-line treatment.

      If initial treatment is not effective, a thiazide diuretic can be added to an ACE inhibitor or ARB and CCB. Alpha blockers, such as doxazosin, are no longer commonly used for hypertension and are contraindicated in patients with urinary incontinence. Valsartan, an ARB, is an alternative for patients who cannot tolerate an ACE inhibitor.

      For elderly patients with isolated systolic hypertension, a dihydropyridine CCB like amlodipine is the drug of choice, especially if thiazides are not an option. Beta blockers should be used with caution in patients with asthma and are not indicated in this case. By carefully considering the patient’s age, ethnicity, and medical history, healthcare providers can choose the most appropriate medication for treating hypertension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      33.8
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 21-year-old man is brought to the hospital after experiencing a generalized seizure....

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old man is brought to the hospital after experiencing a generalized seizure. He complains of feeling ill with a fever and headache for the past 48 hours, and his mother notes that he has been unusually irritable lately. The patient has no prior medical history. During the examination, there is mild nuchal rigidity and hyperreflexia in the lower limbs. A CT scan of the head reveals bilateral hypodensities in the temporal lobes. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Bacterial meningitis

      Correct Answer: Herpes simplex encephalitis

      Explanation:

      Consider herpes simplex encephalitis as the possible cause for the observed temporal lobe changes on the CT head.

      Understanding Herpes Simplex Encephalitis

      Herpes simplex encephalitis is a common topic in medical exams. This viral infection affects the temporal lobes of the brain, causing symptoms such as fever, headache, seizures, and vomiting. Focal features like aphasia may also be present. It is important to note that peripheral lesions, such as cold sores, are not related to the presence of HSV encephalitis.

      HSV-1 is responsible for 95% of cases in adults and typically affects the temporal and inferior frontal lobes. Diagnosis is made through CSF analysis, PCR for HSV, and imaging studies like CT or MRI. EEG patterns may also show lateralized periodic discharges at 2 Hz.

      Treatment involves intravenous aciclovir, and prompt initiation of treatment is crucial for a good prognosis. If treatment is started early, the mortality rate is around 10-20%. However, if left untreated, the mortality rate can approach 80%.

      In summary, understanding the symptoms, pathophysiology, and treatment of herpes simplex encephalitis is important for medical professionals and students alike. Early recognition and treatment can greatly improve outcomes for patients with this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      69.7
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  • Question 12 - A 50-year-old woman comes to her GP with bloody discharge from her left...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman comes to her GP with bloody discharge from her left nipple. She is extremely worried as she has discovered a small lump on the same breast while examining it after noticing the discharge. She has no medical history and does not take any regular medication. She mentions that her sister had breast cancer a few years ago. She denies any injury to the area. She has never given birth and still has regular periods. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Duct papilloma

      Explanation:

      The presence of blood-stained discharge and a small lumpy mass in this patient suggests that they may have duct papilloma. This condition typically affects middle-aged women and develops in the lactiferous ducts beneath the nipple, causing a lumpy mass and bloody discharge. While fat necrosis can also occur in women with large breasts, it is less likely in this case as the patient has not reported any trauma. Fibroadenoma, on the other hand, is not associated with bloody nipple discharge and is typically found in younger women as a firm, non-tender mass. Fibroadenosis, which causes painful and lumpy breasts, is most commonly seen in middle-aged women and may worsen before menstruation.

      Breast Disorders: Common Features and Characteristics

      Breast disorders are a common occurrence among women of all ages. The most common breast disorders include fibroadenoma, fibroadenosis, breast cancer, Paget’s disease of the breast, mammary duct ectasia, duct papilloma, fat necrosis, and breast abscess. Fibroadenoma is a non-tender, highly mobile lump that is common in women under the age of 30. Fibroadenosis, on the other hand, is characterized by lumpy breasts that may be painful, especially before menstruation. Breast cancer is a hard, irregular lump that may be accompanied by nipple inversion or skin tethering. Paget’s disease of the breast is associated with a reddening and thickening of the nipple/areola, while mammary duct ectasia is characterized by dilatation of the large breast ducts, which may cause a tender lump around the areola and a green nipple discharge. Duct papilloma is characterized by local areas of epithelial proliferation in large mammary ducts, while fat necrosis is more common in obese women with large breasts and may mimic breast cancer. Breast abscess, on the other hand, is more common in lactating women and is characterized by a red, hot, and tender swelling. Lipomas and sebaceous cysts may also develop around the breast tissue.

      Common Features and Characteristics of Breast Disorders

      Breast disorders are a common occurrence among women of all ages. The most common breast disorders include fibroadenoma, fibroadenosis, breast cancer, Paget’s disease of the breast, mammary duct ectasia, duct papilloma, fat necrosis, and breast abscess. Each of these disorders has its own unique features and characteristics that can help identify them. Understanding these features and characteristics can help women identify potential breast disorders and seek appropriate medical attention. It is important to note that while some breast disorders may be benign, others may be malignant or premalignant, and further investigation is always warranted. Regular breast exams and mammograms can also help detect breast disorders early, increasing the chances of successful treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      24.6
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  • Question 13 - Which one of the following nail changes is least likely to occur in...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following nail changes is least likely to occur in psoriasis for a 30-year-old patient?

      Your Answer: Pitting

      Correct Answer: Yellow nail syndrome

      Explanation:

      Psoriasis and Psoriatic Arthropathy: Nail Changes

      Psoriasis is a skin condition that can also affect the nails. The changes in the nails do not necessarily indicate the severity of psoriasis, but they are often associated with psoriatic arthropathy. In fact, around 80-90% of patients with psoriatic arthropathy have nail changes.

      The nail changes that may occur in psoriasis include pitting, onycholysis (separation of the nail from the nail bed), subungual hyperkeratosis, and loss of the nail. These changes can affect both the fingers and toes. It is important to note that while nail changes may not be a reliable indicator of psoriasis severity, they can be a sign of psoriatic arthropathy, which is a type of arthritis that can occur in people with psoriasis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      26.7
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  • Question 14 - A 67-year-old man contacts emergency services due to experiencing central crushing chest pain...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old man contacts emergency services due to experiencing central crushing chest pain that spreads to his left arm and jaw. Upon arrival at the emergency department, his heart rate is recorded at 50/min. An ECG is conducted, revealing ST elevation and bradycardia with a 1st-degree heart block. Based on the provided information, which leads are expected to display the ST elevation?

      Your Answer: II, III and aVF

      Explanation:

      An ST-elevated myocardial infarction affecting the inferior leads (II, III, aVF) can cause arrhythmias due to the involvement of the right coronary artery, which supplies blood to the AV node. This is evidenced by the patient’s presentation with 1st-degree heart block following the MI.

      Anteroseptal changes in V1-V4 indicate involvement of the left anterior descending artery. Inferior changes in II, III, and aVF suggest the right coronary artery is affected. Anterolateral changes in V1-6, I, and aVL indicate the proximal left anterior descending artery is involved. Lateral changes in I, aVL, and possibly V5-6 suggest the left circumflex artery is affected. Posterior changes in V1-3 may indicate a posterior infarction, which is confirmed by ST elevation and Q waves in posterior leads (V7-9). This type of infarction is usually caused by the left circumflex artery, but can also be caused by the right coronary artery. Reciprocal changes of STEMI are typically seen as horizontal ST depression, tall and broad R waves, upright T waves, and a dominant R wave in V2. It is important to note that a new left bundle branch block (LBBB) may indicate acute coronary syndrome.

      Overall, understanding the correlation between ECG changes and coronary artery territories is crucial in diagnosing acute coronary syndrome. By identifying the specific changes in the ECG, medical professionals can determine which artery is affected and provide appropriate treatment. Additionally, recognizing the reciprocal changes of STEMI and the significance of a new LBBB can aid in making an accurate diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      21.2
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 52-year-old Caucasian man presents with blood pressure readings of 150/100 mmHg, 148/95mmHg...

    Correct

    • A 52-year-old Caucasian man presents with blood pressure readings of 150/100 mmHg, 148/95mmHg and 160/95mmHg during three consecutive visits to his GP surgery. He refuses ambulatory blood pressure monitoring due to its interference with his job as a construction worker. His home blood pressure readings are consistently above 150/95mmHg. What is the most appropriate initial approach to manage his condition?

      Your Answer: Ramipril

      Explanation:

      For a newly diagnosed patient with hypertension who is under 55 years old and has stage 2 hypertension, it is recommended to add either an ACE inhibitor or an angiotensin receptor blocker. This is in accordance with the NICE guidelines, which suggest that antihypertensive drug treatments should be offered to individuals of any age with stage 2 hypertension. If the patient is 55 years or older, a calcium channel blocker like amlodipine is recommended instead.

      NICE Guidelines for Managing Hypertension

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic in addition to an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker.

      The guidelines also provide a flow chart for the diagnosis and management of hypertension. Lifestyle advice, such as reducing salt intake, caffeine intake, and alcohol consumption, as well as exercising more and losing weight, should not be forgotten and is frequently tested in exams. Treatment options depend on the patient’s age, ethnicity, and other factors, and may involve a combination of drugs.

      NICE recommends treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old if they have target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For patients with stage 2 hypertension, drug treatment should be offered regardless of age. The guidelines also provide step-by-step treatment options, including adding a third or fourth drug if necessary.

      New drugs, such as direct renin inhibitors like Aliskiren, may have a role in patients who are intolerant of more established antihypertensive drugs. However, trials have only investigated the fall in blood pressure and no mortality data is available yet. Patients who fail to respond to step 4 measures should be referred to a specialist. The guidelines also provide blood pressure targets for different age groups.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      22.3
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  • Question 16 - You assess a 75-year-old patient with a complex medical history and taking multiple...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a 75-year-old patient with a complex medical history and taking multiple medications. The patient presents with significant bilateral breast tissue growth. Which medication is the most probable cause of this condition?

      Your Answer: Tamoxifen

      Correct Answer: Goserelin (Zoladex)

      Explanation:

      Gynaecomastia may occur as a side effect of using GnRH agonists like goserelin for prostate cancer management. Tamoxifen can be prescribed to address gynaecomastia.

      Understanding Gynaecomastia: Causes and Drug Triggers

      Gynaecomastia is a medical condition that occurs when males develop an abnormal amount of breast tissue. This condition is usually caused by an increased ratio of oestrogen to androgen. It is important to differentiate the causes of galactorrhoea, which is due to the actions of prolactin on breast tissue, from those of gynaecomastia.

      There are several causes of gynaecomastia, including physiological changes that occur during puberty, syndromes with androgen deficiency such as Kallman’s and Klinefelter’s, testicular failure, liver disease, testicular cancer, ectopic tumour secretion, hyperthyroidism, and haemodialysis. Additionally, certain drugs can trigger gynaecomastia, with spironolactone being the most common drug cause. Other drugs that can cause gynaecomastia include cimetidine, digoxin, cannabis, finasteride, GnRH agonists like goserelin and buserelin, oestrogens, and anabolic steroids.

      It is important to note that while drug-induced gynaecomastia is rare, there are still some drugs that can trigger this condition. Some of the very rare drug causes of gynaecomastia include tricyclics, isoniazid, calcium channel blockers, heroin, busulfan, and methyldopa. Understanding the causes and drug triggers of gynaecomastia can help individuals seek appropriate medical attention and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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  • Question 17 - A 55-year-old woman comes to the clinic after being released from the acute...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman comes to the clinic after being released from the acute medical unit 14 days ago. She was admitted due to pleuritic chest pain and shortness of breath, and was diagnosed with a pulmonary embolism. Apixaban was started during her hospital stay. The patient has a clean medical history and is generally healthy. What is the appropriate duration of anticoagulation therapy for this individual?

      Your Answer: Life-long

      Correct Answer: 6 months

      Explanation:

      Patients with ‘unprovoked’ pulmonary embolisms usually require anticoagulation treatment for a duration of 6 months, as there are no temporary risk factors for venous thromboembolism.

      Management of Pulmonary Embolism: NICE Guidelines

      Pulmonary embolism (PE) is a serious condition that requires prompt management. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidelines on the management of venous thromboembolism (VTE) in 2020, with some key changes. One of the significant changes is the recommendation to use direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) as the first-line treatment for most people with VTE, including those with active cancer. Another change is the increasing use of outpatient treatment for low-risk PE patients, determined by a validated risk stratification tool.

      Anticoagulant therapy is the cornerstone of VTE management, and the guidelines recommend using apixaban or rivaroxaban as the first-line treatment following the diagnosis of a PE. If neither of these is suitable, LMWH followed by dabigatran or edoxaban or LMWH followed by a vitamin K antagonist (VKA) can be used. For patients with active cancer, DOACs are now recommended instead of LMWH. The length of anticoagulation is determined by whether the VTE was provoked or unprovoked, with treatment typically stopped after 3-6 months for provoked VTE and continued for up to 6 months for unprovoked VTE.

      In cases of haemodynamic instability, thrombolysis is recommended as the first-line treatment for massive PE with circulatory failure. Patients who have repeat pulmonary embolisms, despite adequate anticoagulation, may be considered for inferior vena cava (IVC) filters. However, the evidence base for IVC filter use is weak.

      Overall, the updated NICE guidelines provide clear recommendations for the management of PE, including the use of DOACs as first-line treatment and outpatient management for low-risk patients. The guidelines also emphasize the importance of individualized treatment based on risk stratification and balancing the risks of VTE recurrence and bleeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
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  • Question 18 - A 35-year-old woman is reviewed. She has been drinking alcohol heavily for over...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman is reviewed. She has been drinking alcohol heavily for over 15 years but now needs to drink more to feel satisfied as well as to avoid being anxious. She works as a teacher and gave up cycling five years ago at the insistence of her husband. There is no evidence of chronic liver disease on physical examination. Assessment of her mental state reveals episodes of anxiety. She no longer socialises with friends.

      How is her behaviour best categorised?

      Your Answer: Alcohol dependence

      Explanation:

      Understanding Alcohol Dependence: Symptoms and Screening Tools

      Alcohol dependence is a serious condition characterized by a strong compulsion to drink, withdrawal symptoms, tolerance, and loss of control over alcohol use. This vignette illustrates a classic scenario of alcohol dependence, with features of tolerance, withdrawals, neglect of other pleasures, and low mood associated with heavy chronic alcohol consumption. While depression can be a symptom of alcohol dependence, it is not the primary diagnosis.

      The term alcohol abuse is being replaced by alcohol-use disorder or harmful drinking to describe patterns of alcohol use that cause physical or mental health damage. In this vignette, the woman likely has harmful use of alcohol, but the overall picture points to a diagnosis of alcohol dependence.

      Withdrawal symptoms are a common feature of alcohol dependence, and the woman in this vignette would likely experience them if she suddenly stopped drinking. Social withdrawal is also an indicator of alcohol dependence, but it does not explain the entire pattern of symptoms and behavior presented.

      A useful screening test for alcohol-use disorders is the CAGE questionnaire, which asks about cutting down, annoyance from others, guilt, and needing a drink first thing in the morning. Answering yes to two or more questions may indicate the presence of an alcohol-use disorder. Other screening tools include the FAST and AUDIT tests, which can be administered quickly in busy medical settings.

      Overall, understanding the symptoms and screening tools for alcohol dependence is crucial for early detection and intervention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 19 - A 28-year-old woman visits her doctor concerned about her family's history of inherited...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman visits her doctor concerned about her family's history of inherited illnesses. Her grandmother experienced vision loss at the age of 70, while her mother began to have similar symptoms at the age of 50. What is the genetic mechanism responsible for the earlier age of onset in each generation?

      Your Answer: Mosaicism

      Correct Answer: Anticipation

      Explanation:

      Genetic Phenomena: Anticipation, Incomplete Penetrance, Genetic Imprinting, Mosaicism, and Translocation of a Chromosome

      Genetics is a complex field that involves the study of inherited traits and conditions. There are several genetic phenomena that can occur, each with its own unique characteristics and implications.

      Anticipation is a term used to describe inherited conditions that become more severe and have an earlier onset in subsequent generations. This is often associated with trinucleotide repeats of DNA bases, which can lead to an expansion of the repeat and an increase in severity.

      Incomplete penetrance refers to the likelihood of a condition being present in individuals with a certain trait. In some cases, only some people who inherit a certain trait will develop the associated condition, while others will not.

      Genetic imprinting involves the silencing of one copy of an allele, which can lead to conditions such as Angelman and Prader-Willi syndromes.

      Mosaicism is the presence of two cell lines with different genetic compositions within the same individual. This can occur in conditions such as mosaic trisomy 21.

      Translocation of a chromosome involves the exchange of genetic material between non-homologous chromosomes. This can lead to conditions such as chronic myeloid leukemia, which is associated with the Philadelphia chromosome resulting from a translocation between chromosomes 9 and 22.

      Understanding these genetic phenomena is important for diagnosing and treating inherited conditions, as well as for predicting the likelihood of certain conditions in future generations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
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  • Question 20 - What is true about calcium homeostasis? ...

    Correct

    • What is true about calcium homeostasis?

      Your Answer: 98% of filtered Ca2+ is reabsorbed in the kidneys

      Explanation:

      Regulation of Calcium in the Body

      Calcium is an essential mineral that plays a crucial role in various physiological processes in the body. Here are some key points about the regulation of calcium in the body:

      Reabsorption in the Kidneys: The kidneys filter 250 mmol of calcium ions a day in the glomerular filtrate and reabsorb 245 mmol, leading to a net average loss in the urine of about 5 mmol/day. The quantity of calcium ions excreted in the urine per day is partially under the influence of the plasma parathyroid hormone (PTH) level.

      Free Calcium Ions in Serum: In serum, most calcium is bound to albumin, and less than 50% of calcium is in the ionized form. The biological effect of calcium is determined by the amount of ionized calcium, rather than the total calcium.

      Bone Regulation: Body calcium content is mainly regulated by bone. Intestinal absorption of calcium is the main regulator of calcium content. The active absorption of calcium from the intestine is regulated by calcitriol concentration in the blood.

      Calcitonin and Renal Calcium Excretion: When the concentration of calcium rises, the parafollicular cells of the thyroid gland increase their secretion of calcitonin into the blood. At the same time, the parathyroid glands reduce their rate of PTH secretion into the blood. The resulting high levels of calcitonin in the blood stimulate the skeleton to remove calcium from the blood plasma and deposit it as bone. The reduced levels of PTH inhibit removal of calcium from the skeleton and increase the loss of calcium in the urine.

      Hypercalcaemia in Sarcoidosis: Absorptive hypercalcaemia occurs from conditions that produce increased serum calcitriol levels, as occurs in sarcoidosis. Increased calcitriol production from activated pulmonary macrophages leads to increased intestinal absorption of calcium, leading to raised calcium levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Psychiatry (1/3) 33%
Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease (0/3) 0%
Neurology (1/3) 33%
Immunology/Allergy (1/1) 100%
Reproductive Medicine (0/1) 0%
Ophthalmology (0/1) 0%
Cardiovascular (2/4) 50%
Haematology/Oncology (1/1) 100%
Dermatology (0/1) 0%
Genetics (0/1) 0%
Renal Medicine/Urology (1/1) 100%
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