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  • Question 1 - A 75-year-old man complains of pain in his left thigh that has been...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old man complains of pain in his left thigh that has been progressively worsening for the past 10 months. Despite this, he is otherwise healthy. An x-ray reveals a radiolucency of the subarticular region suggestive of osteolysis, with some areas of patchy sclerosis. Blood tests show elevated levels of alkaline phosphatase and normal levels of calcium, phosphate, and prostate-specific antigen. What is the best course of action?

      Your Answer: IV bisphosphonates

      Explanation:

      Bisphosphonates are the recommended treatment for Paget’s disease of the bone, which is indicated by an elevated ALP level and typical x-ray findings in this patient. The PSA level of 3.4 ng/ml is within the normal range for a man of his age and does not suggest the presence of prostate cancer that has spread to other parts of the body.

      Understanding Paget’s Disease of the Bone

      Paget’s disease of the bone is a condition characterized by increased and uncontrolled bone turnover. It is believed to be caused by excessive osteoclastic resorption followed by increased osteoblastic activity. Although it is a common condition, affecting 5% of the UK population, only 1 in 20 patients experience symptoms. The most commonly affected areas are the skull, spine/pelvis, and long bones of the lower extremities. Predisposing factors include increasing age, male sex, northern latitude, and family history.

      Symptoms of Paget’s disease include bone pain, particularly in the pelvis, lumbar spine, and femur. The stereotypical presentation is an older male with bone pain and an isolated raised alkaline phosphatase (ALP). Classical, untreated features include bowing of the tibia and bossing of the skull. Diagnosis is made through blood tests, which show raised ALP, and x-rays, which reveal osteolysis in early disease and mixed lytic/sclerotic lesions later.

      Treatment is indicated for patients experiencing bone pain, skull or long bone deformity, fracture, or periarticular Paget’s. Bisphosphonates, either oral risedronate or IV zoledronate, are the preferred treatment. Calcitonin is less commonly used now. Complications of Paget’s disease include deafness, bone sarcoma (1% if affected for > 10 years), fractures, skull thickening, and high-output cardiac failure.

      Overall, understanding Paget’s disease of the bone is important for early diagnosis and management of symptoms and complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      251.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 72-year-old man presents to his GP with frequent blood pressure readings above...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old man presents to his GP with frequent blood pressure readings above 160/95 mmHg on an ambulatory monitor. He has a history of well-controlled heart failure (New York Heart Association stage 2) and chronic kidney disease. The patient is currently taking ramipril, bisoprolol, and atorvastatin, with optimized dosages for the past year.

      What is the most suitable course of action to take next?

      Your Answer: Add indapamide

      Explanation:

      The appropriate course of action for a patient with poorly controlled hypertension who is already taking an ACE inhibitor is to add indapamide to their medication regimen. This is in accordance with the NICE treatment algorithm, which recommends adding a calcium channel blocker or a thiazide-like diuretic in such cases. It is important to note that nifedipine should be avoided in patients with heart failure, and that amlodipine is the only calcium channel blocker licensed for use in such patients. Continuing to monitor blood pressure at home and reviewing in one month would not be sufficient in this case, as the patient’s hypertension needs to be addressed more aggressively. Stopping ramipril and trying amlodipine instead is not recommended, as combination therapy is the preferred approach. Similarly, stopping ramipril and trying amlodipine with indapamide instead is not recommended, as the combination should not be used in place of an ACE inhibitor.

      NICE Guidelines for Managing Hypertension

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic in addition to an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker.

      The guidelines also provide a flow chart for the diagnosis and management of hypertension. Lifestyle advice, such as reducing salt intake, caffeine intake, and alcohol consumption, as well as exercising more and losing weight, should not be forgotten and is frequently tested in exams. Treatment options depend on the patient’s age, ethnicity, and other factors, and may involve a combination of drugs.

      NICE recommends treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old if they have target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For patients with stage 2 hypertension, drug treatment should be offered regardless of age. The guidelines also provide step-by-step treatment options, including adding a third or fourth drug if necessary.

      New drugs, such as direct renin inhibitors like Aliskiren, may have a role in patients who are intolerant of more established antihypertensive drugs. However, trials have only investigated the fall in blood pressure and no mortality data is available yet. Patients who fail to respond to step 4 measures should be referred to a specialist. The guidelines also provide blood pressure targets for different age groups.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      345.1
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  • Question 3 - A 6-year-old male is brought to his pediatrician by his father who is...

    Correct

    • A 6-year-old male is brought to his pediatrician by his father who is worried that he may have an infection. He reports that for the past 5 days his son has been scratching his anal and genital area, especially at night. He has also noticed some 'white threads' in his son's stool which he is very concerned about.

      What is the most suitable course of action based on the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Single dose of oral mebendazole for the entire household and hygiene advice

      Explanation:

      The most likely diagnosis in this case is a threadworm infection, which commonly affects young children and can cause anal and vulval itching. Threadworms can be seen in faeces and appear as white thread-like pieces. The recommended first-line treatment for threadworm infection is a single dose of mebendazole, and it is advised that all members of the household receive treatment due to the high risk of transmission. In addition to medication, hygiene measures such as frequent hand-washing, washing of bedding and towels, and disinfecting surfaces should also be recommended. It is important to note that hygiene advice alone is not sufficient to eradicate the infection. Administering mebendazole to only the affected individual or for a prolonged period of time is also incorrect.

      Threadworm Infestation in Children

      Threadworm infestation, caused by Enterobius vermicularis or pinworms, is a common occurrence among children in the UK. The infestation happens when eggs present in the environment are ingested. In most cases, threadworm infestation is asymptomatic, but some possible symptoms include perianal itching, especially at night, and vulval symptoms in girls. Diagnosis can be made by applying Sellotape to the perianal area and sending it to the laboratory for microscopy to see the eggs. However, most patients are treated empirically, and this approach is supported in the CKS guidelines.

      The CKS recommends a combination of anthelmintic with hygiene measures for all members of the household. Mebendazole is the first-line treatment for children over six months old, and a single dose is given unless the infestation persists. It is essential to treat all members of the household to prevent re-infection. Proper hygiene measures, such as washing hands regularly, keeping fingernails short, and washing clothes and bedding at high temperatures, can also help prevent the spread of threadworm infestation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      89.4
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  • Question 4 - A 29-year-old man with general anxiety disorder (GAD) visits his GP for a...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old man with general anxiety disorder (GAD) visits his GP for a review of his medication. He was prescribed sertraline during his last appointment, but he reports that he still experiences physical and psychological symptoms of anxiety on most days. Although there has been no recent deterioration in his condition, he feels that the medication has not been effective. What alternative medication should be considered?

      Your Answer: Escitalopram

      Explanation:

      If sertraline is ineffective or not tolerated for GAD, consider trying escitalopram – another SSRI. Alternatively, an SNRI may also be considered. It is important to also incorporate psychological interventions such as cognitive behavioural therapy alongside medication. Risperidone, clomipramine, and lorazepam are not appropriate for the treatment of GAD in this scenario.

      Anxiety is a common disorder that can manifest in various ways. According to NICE, the primary feature is excessive worry about multiple events associated with heightened tension. It is crucial to consider potential physical causes when diagnosing anxiety disorders, such as hyperthyroidism, cardiac disease, and medication-induced anxiety. Medications that may trigger anxiety include salbutamol, theophylline, corticosteroids, antidepressants, and caffeine.

      NICE recommends a step-wise approach for managing generalised anxiety disorder (GAD). This includes education about GAD and active monitoring, low-intensity psychological interventions, high-intensity psychological interventions or drug treatment, and highly specialist input. Sertraline is the first-line SSRI for drug treatment, and if it is ineffective, an alternative SSRI or a serotonin-noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor (SNRI) such as duloxetine or venlafaxine may be offered. If the patient cannot tolerate SSRIs or SNRIs, pregabalin may be considered. For patients under 30 years old, NICE recommends warning them of the increased risk of suicidal thinking and self-harm and weekly follow-up for the first month.

      The management of panic disorder also follows a stepwise approach, including recognition and diagnosis, treatment in primary care, review and consideration of alternative treatments, review and referral to specialist mental health services, and care in specialist mental health services. NICE recommends either cognitive behavioural therapy or drug treatment in primary care. SSRIs are the first-line drug treatment, and if contraindicated or no response after 12 weeks, imipramine or clomipramine should be offered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      26.9
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  • Question 5 - A 26-year-old male is in need of immediate surgery after suffering from traumatic...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old male is in need of immediate surgery after suffering from traumatic injuries to his right leg in a car accident. He has a family history of malignant hyperpyrexia and last consumed solid food 2 hours ago.
      What would be considered unsafe for administration in this patient?

      Your Answer: Endotracheal tube

      Correct Answer: Laryngeal mask

      Explanation:

      A laryngeal mask is not suitable for non-fasted patients as it provides poor control against reflux of gastric contents, which can lead to aspiration during anaesthesia induction. Therefore, an endotracheal tube with an inflated cuff is a better option as it can protect the trachea and bronchial tree from aspirate. Ketamine is not contraindicated in this patient as it does not cause malignant hyperpyrexia, which is a concern due to the patient’s family history. Non-depolarising muscle relaxants are also not a concern for malignant hyperpyrexia.

      Airway Management Devices and Techniques

      Airway management is a crucial aspect of medical care, especially in emergency situations. In addition to airway adjuncts, there are simple positional manoeuvres that can be used to open the airway, such as head tilt/chin lift and jaw thrust. There are also several devices that can be used for airway management, each with its own advantages and limitations.

      The oropharyngeal airway is easy to insert and use, making it ideal for short procedures. It is often used as a temporary measure until a more definitive airway can be established. The laryngeal mask is widely used and very easy to insert. It sits in the pharynx and aligns to cover the airway, but it does not provide good control against reflux of gastric contents. The tracheostomy reduces the work of breathing and may be useful in slow weaning, but it requires humidified air and may dry secretions. The endotracheal tube provides optimal control of the airway once the cuff is inflated and can be used for long or short-term ventilation, but errors in insertion may result in oesophageal intubation.

      It is important to note that paralysis is often required for some of these devices, and higher ventilation pressures can be used with the endotracheal tube. Capnography should be monitored to ensure proper placement and ventilation. Each device has its own unique benefits and drawbacks, and the choice of device will depend on the specific needs of the patient and the situation at hand.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      121.1
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  • Question 6 - A 56-year-old man visits his GP due to hip discomfort. He reports that...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man visits his GP due to hip discomfort. He reports that it has been gradually worsening for the past three months. The pain is constant throughout the day and night, but it is most severe when he puts weight on it. He denies experiencing any morning stiffness. He has attempted to alleviate the pain with paracetamol and ibuprofen, but to no avail. The patient's medical history includes active Crohn's disease, which is being treated with corticosteroids. During the examination, there is tenderness when palpating the anterior groin area, but the range of passive motion is normal. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Osteoarthritis

      Correct Answer: Avascular necrosis of the hip

      Explanation:

      The most likely diagnosis for the patient in the vignette is avascular necrosis of the hip, which is a significant risk for those who use steroids long-term. The patient has been experiencing worsening hip pain over a few months, which is exacerbated by use and does not have morning stiffness. The location of the pain in the anterior groin region is characteristic of avascular necrosis of the hip. Greater trochanteric pain syndrome and iliotibial band syndrome are unlikely diagnoses as they present with pain in different locations and have different exacerbating factors.

      Understanding Avascular Necrosis of the Hip

      Avascular necrosis of the hip is a condition where bone tissue dies due to a loss of blood supply, leading to bone destruction and loss of joint function. This condition typically affects the epiphysis of long bones, such as the femur. There are several causes of avascular necrosis, including long-term steroid use, chemotherapy, alcohol excess, and trauma.

      Initially, avascular necrosis may not present with any symptoms, but as the condition progresses, pain in the affected joint may occur. Plain x-ray findings may be normal in the early stages, but osteopenia and microfractures may be seen. As the condition worsens, collapse of the articular surface may result in the crescent sign.

      MRI is the preferred investigation for avascular necrosis as it is more sensitive than radionuclide bone scanning. In severe cases, joint replacement may be necessary to manage the condition. Understanding the causes, features, and management of avascular necrosis of the hip is crucial for early detection and effective treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      723.6
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  • Question 7 - A lesion is observed on the left cheek of a 4-year-old child, and...

    Incorrect

    • A lesion is observed on the left cheek of a 4-year-old child, and impetigo is being considered as a possible diagnosis.
      Which one of the following statements is true regarding impetigo?

      Your Answer: With dry, itchy and scaly lesions

      Correct Answer: Characterised by scab-covered weeping lesions

      Explanation:

      Impetigo: A Contagious Skin Infection

      Impetigo is a skin infection that can be caused by either Staphylococcus aureus, Streptococcus pyogenes, or both. This condition results in the formation of yellow-crusted sores and small blisters filled with yellow fluid, which can appear anywhere on the body but are most commonly found on the face, arms, or legs. The infection is highly contagious and can be spread through direct person-to-person contact.

      While impetigo does not require formal isolation, it is important to take precautions to prevent its spread. Children who are affected should stay home from school until they have received 48 hours of effective treatment. Personal hygiene, particularly hand washing and drying, should be emphasized, and children should have their own towels to prevent the spread of infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      30.1
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  • Question 8 - A 50-year-old woman visits her doctor with new symptoms of flushing, severe insomnia,...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman visits her doctor with new symptoms of flushing, severe insomnia, and headaches. She has a medical history of asthma and a spontaneous deep vein thrombosis. These symptoms are affecting her daily routine, and she has not had her period for 12 months. After discussing the benefits and risks of hormonal replacement therapy, they decide to start treatment. What is the most suitable hormonal replacement therapy regimen for this patient?

      Your Answer: Transdermal estradiol and levonorgestrel

      Explanation:

      For women at risk of venous thromboembolism, transdermal HRT is the recommended option. In the case of a patient presenting with severe menopausal symptoms such as flushing, insomnia, and headaches, hormonal replacement therapy (HRT) may be prescribed after weighing the benefits and risks.

      If the patient has a uterus, oral estradiol only should not be prescribed as it can cause endometrial hyperplasia and increase the risk of malignancy. Oral estradiol and levonorgestrel are a common combination for HRT, but in the case of a patient with a history of deep vein thrombosis, transdermal delivery is a more appropriate option as it does not increase the risk of developing a new clot compared to oral options.

      The levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine system can also be prescribed as HRT, but in this case, transdermal delivery is still the preferred option due to the patient’s medical history. Oral levonorgestrel alone is not used as HRT as it does not address the lack of estrogen that causes menopausal symptoms.

      Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) involves a small dose of oestrogen and progesterone to alleviate menopausal symptoms. The indications for HRT have changed due to the long-term risks, and it is primarily used for vasomotor symptoms and preventing osteoporosis in younger women. HRT consists of natural oestrogens and synthetic progestogens, and can be taken orally or transdermally. Transdermal is preferred for women at risk of venous thromboembolism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      127.3
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 75-year-old bedridden patient presents with a wound under their left heel. They...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old bedridden patient presents with a wound under their left heel. They complain of pain in the area and feel that the situation is getting worse. Apart from this, they are in good health and have no fever. On examination, you observe an erythematosus area measuring around 2 cm under the left heel, with partial-thickness skin loss affecting the epidermis. There is no necrotic tissue, discharge, or foul odor.
      What is the most suitable course of action for this probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Topical barrier cream and repositioning

      Explanation:

      Management of Grade II Pressure Ulcers: Topical Barrier Cream and Repositioning

      Grade II pressure ulcers with partial-thickness skin loss can be managed with topical barrier creams such as Sudocrem®, Proshield™, and Cavilon™. These creams protect the underlying skin and prevent further damage. Regular repositioning and the use of aids to relieve pressure should also be implemented to improve symptoms.

      Debridement may be necessary for more severe pressure ulcers or those not responding to treatment. Compression hosiery is not indicated for pressure ulcers and should only be used after ankle-brachial pressure index testing in cases of venous ulceration.

      Oral antibiotics such as flucloxacillin are not necessary unless there is evidence of infection. Topical fusidic acid with hydrocortisone is only indicated for mildly infected eczema or skin rashes and is not appropriate for pressure ulcers. The primary focus for managing grade II pressure ulcers is barrier protection and repositioning.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Plastics
      93.2
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - You are requested to assess a 25-year-old man who has been urgently referred...

    Incorrect

    • You are requested to assess a 25-year-old man who has been urgently referred to the Community Mental Health Team. He has recently left his job to work on 'a groundbreaking project' which he believes will eradicate world poverty. He has also been neglecting his basic needs such as eating and sleeping as he 'cannot afford to waste time on such trivialities'. Upon examination, the patient appears restless and lacks awareness of their condition. The patient has a history of depression and is currently on an antidepressant medication.

      What would be the most suitable course of action in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Start lithium and continue antidepressant

      Correct Answer: Start antipsychotic and stop antidepressant

      Explanation:

      The appropriate management for a patient experiencing mania/hypomania while taking antidepressants is to discontinue the antidepressant and initiate antipsychotic therapy. This is because the patient’s symptoms, such as delusions of grandeur and hyperactivity, suggest an episode of mania, which requires the use of a rapidly acting antipsychotic or benzodiazepine. Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is not typically used for the treatment of mania, and lithium is not the first-line treatment for acute episodes of mania. Therefore, starting antipsychotic therapy and discontinuing antidepressants is the most appropriate course of action.

      Understanding Bipolar Disorder

      Bipolar disorder is a mental health condition that is characterized by alternating periods of mania/hypomania and depression. It typically develops in the late teen years and has a lifetime prevalence of 2%. There are two recognized types of bipolar disorder: type I, which involves mania and depression, and type II, which involves hypomania and depression.

      Mania and hypomania both refer to abnormally elevated mood or irritability, but mania is more severe and can include psychotic symptoms for 7 days or more. Hypomania, on the other hand, involves decreased or increased function for 4 days or more. The presence of psychotic symptoms suggests mania.

      Management of bipolar disorder may involve psychological interventions specifically designed for the condition, as well as medication. Lithium is the mood stabilizer of choice, but valproate can also be used. Antipsychotic therapy, such as olanzapine or haloperidol, may be used to manage mania/hypomania, while fluoxetine is the antidepressant of choice for depression. It is important to address any co-morbidities, as there is an increased risk of diabetes, cardiovascular disease, and COPD in individuals with bipolar disorder.

      If symptoms suggest hypomania, routine referral to the community mental health team (CMHT) is recommended. However, if there are features of mania or severe depression, an urgent referral to the CMHT should be made. Understanding bipolar disorder and its management is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate care and support for individuals with this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 11 - A 56-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a 6-month history of excessive...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a 6-month history of excessive thirst and abdominal pain. Her medical history is unremarkable, without previous vitamin D deficiency or chronic kidney disease. Upon examination, no other abnormalities were found. Blood tests reveal a hemoglobin level of 128 g/L, platelets at 168 * 109/L, and a white blood cell count of 6.2 * 109/L. Her sodium and potassium levels are within normal range, but her urea and creatinine levels are elevated at 8.8 mmol/L and 130 µmol/L, respectively. Additionally, her calcium level is high at 2.8 mmol/L, while her phosphate level is low at 0.7 mmol/L. Her parathyroid hormone level is also elevated at 10.2 pmol/L. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Primary hyperparathyroidism

      Explanation:

      Secondary hyperparathyroidism is not the correct diagnosis. This condition occurs as a natural response to low levels of calcium in the body. The most common causes of secondary hyperparathyroidism are kidney failure and vitamin D deficiency, which would result in low calcium levels and elevated levels of PTH.

      Lab Values for Bone Disorders

      When it comes to bone disorders, certain lab values can provide important information for diagnosis and treatment. In cases of osteoporosis, calcium, phosphate, alkaline phosphatase (ALP), and parathyroid hormone (PTH) levels are typically within normal ranges. However, in osteomalacia, there is a decrease in calcium and phosphate levels, an increase in ALP levels, and an increase in PTH levels.

      Primary hyperparathyroidism, which can lead to osteitis fibrosa cystica, is characterized by increased calcium and PTH levels, but decreased phosphate levels. Chronic kidney disease can also lead to secondary hyperparathyroidism, with decreased calcium levels and increased phosphate and PTH levels.

      Paget’s disease, which causes abnormal bone growth, typically shows normal calcium and phosphate levels, but an increase in ALP levels. Osteopetrosis, a rare genetic disorder that causes bones to become dense and brittle, typically shows normal lab values for calcium, phosphate, ALP, and PTH.

      Overall, understanding these lab values can help healthcare professionals diagnose and treat various bone disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 12 - A 25-year-old woman has been experiencing fatigue and sluggishness for the past three...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman has been experiencing fatigue and sluggishness for the past three weeks, along with discomfort in the left upper quadrant of her abdomen. She had a UTI not long ago, which was treated with amoxicillin. However, she ceased taking the medication due to a rash that spread throughout her body. What is the probable cause of her exhaustion?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Glandular fever

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis: Glandular Fever, Chronic Fatigue Syndrome, Chronic Renal Failure, Chronic Depression, Iron Deficiency

      Glandular Fever: A Possible Diagnosis
      The patient in question is likely suffering from glandular fever, also known as infectious mononucleosis. This condition is caused by the Epstein-Barr virus, which is transmitted through saliva. Symptoms typically include a sore throat, fever, and swollen lymph nodes in the neck. However, other symptoms such as fatigue, arthritis, and hepatitis may also occur. The patient’s left upper quadrant pain and tiredness are consistent with this diagnosis. A characteristic rash may also develop following treatment with certain antibiotics.

      Other Possible Diagnoses
      Chronic fatigue syndrome is a chronic condition characterized by extreme fatigue and functional impairment. However, given the short time frame of the symptoms and association with amoxicillin, this diagnosis is unlikely. Chronic renal failure is associated with fatigue and anaemia, but there is no evidence of a history of this condition. Chronic depression may cause fatigue, but the duration of symptoms would be longer than three weeks and not associated with an infection or abdominal pain. Iron deficiency is a common cause of fatigue in women of reproductive age and should also be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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  • Question 13 - A 28-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a 3-hour history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a 3-hour history of abdominal pain. Upon further inquiry, she reveals a 3-week history of right-sided abdominal pain and considerable weight loss. She reports consuming 3 units of alcohol per week and has smoked for 10 pack-years. She is not taking any medications except for the contraceptive pill and has no known allergies. During the physical examination, she displays oral ulcers and exhibits signs of fatigue and pallor.
      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Crohn’s disease

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Abdominal Conditions: Crohn’s Disease, Ulcerative Colitis, Peptic Ulcer Disease, Gallstones, and Diverticulitis

      Abdominal pain can be caused by a variety of conditions, making it important to differentiate between them. Crohn’s disease is an inflammatory bowel disease that can affect the entire bowel and typically presents between the ages of 20 and 50. It is chronic and relapsing, with skip lesions of normal bowel in between affected areas. Ulcerative colitis is another inflammatory bowel disease that starts at the rectum and moves upward. It can be classified by the extent of inflammation, with symptoms including bloody diarrhea and mucous. Peptic ulcer disease causes epigastric pain and may present with heartburn symptoms, but it is not consistent with the clinical picture described in the vignette. Gallstones typically cause right upper quadrant pain and are more common in females. Diverticulitis presents with left iliac fossa abdominal pain and is more common in elderly patients. Complications of untreated diverticulitis include abscess formation, bowel obstruction, or perforation. Understanding the differences between these conditions can aid in proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 14 - A GP registrar has diagnosed a urinary tract infection in a 3-year-old child.
    Urine...

    Incorrect

    • A GP registrar has diagnosed a urinary tract infection in a 3-year-old child.
      Urine cultures and sensitivity show the organism is sensitive to amoxicillin.
      The child weighs 12 kg. The dose of amoxicillin is 20 mg/kg three times daily in a pharmacological preparation which contains 125 mg/5 ml.
      What is the appropriate dose to be prescribed?
      Choose the correct dosing schedule:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 4 ml twice daily

      Explanation:

      Dosage Calculation for a 10 kg Child

      When administering medication to a child, it is important to calculate the correct dosage based on their weight. For a 10 kg child, the recommended dose is 4 mg/kg twice daily. This means that the child would require 40 mg twice daily.

      To determine the amount of medication needed, it is important to know the concentration of the medication. If the medication contains 50 mg per 5 ml, then the child would need 4 ml twice daily to receive the correct dosage of 40 mg. It is important to carefully measure the medication and follow the instructions provided by the healthcare provider to ensure the child receives the correct amount of medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 15 - A 46-year-old man visits his doctor complaining of joint pain and stiffness in...

    Incorrect

    • A 46-year-old man visits his doctor complaining of joint pain and stiffness in his fingers and wrists for the past 6 weeks. He is a pianist in a local orchestra and has noticed a decline in his performance due to his symptoms. On examination, there are visible deformities in his metacarpophalangeal joints with palpable tenderness, and his wrists are slightly swollen. He has a history of mild childhood asthma but has been otherwise healthy. There are no skin or nail changes. Based on the likely diagnosis, which of the following is associated with the poorest prognosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anti-CCP antibodies

      Explanation:

      Rheumatoid arthritis is a symmetrical, polyarthritis that is characterized by early morning joint pain and stiffness. A positive prognosis is associated with negative anti-CCP antibodies and negative rheumatoid factor. When anti-CCP antibodies are present, they are usually seen in conjunction with positive rheumatoid factor, which is a strong predictor of early transformation from transient to persistent synovitis. A gradual onset of symptoms is also linked to a poor prognosis for rheumatoid arthritis, rather than a sudden onset. Additionally, female gender is associated with a worse prognosis for rheumatoid arthritis, while male gender is not. Finally, HLA-B27 is not associated with rheumatoid arthritis, but rather with seronegative spondyloarthropathies like psoriatic and reactive arthritis.

      Prognostic Features of Rheumatoid Arthritis

      A number of factors have been identified as predictors of a poor prognosis in patients with rheumatoid arthritis. These include being rheumatoid factor positive, having anti-CCP antibodies, presenting with poor functional status, showing early erosions on X-rays, having extra-articular features such as nodules, possessing the HLA DR4 gene, and experiencing an insidious onset. While there is some discrepancy regarding the association between gender and prognosis, both the American College of Rheumatology and the recent NICE guidelines suggest that female gender is linked to a poorer prognosis. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of these prognostic features in order to provide appropriate management and support for patients with rheumatoid arthritis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 16 - What are the typical changes in the haematogenous system during infancy? ...

    Incorrect

    • What are the typical changes in the haematogenous system during infancy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Extramedullary haematopoiesis stops

      Explanation:

      Haematopoiesis and Immunological Development in Infancy

      At birth, the liver is responsible for producing blood cells, but this process stops within the first year of life. Haematopoiesis, or the production of blood cells, can also occur outside of the bone marrow, known as Extramedullary haematopoiesis. During fetal development, the liver and spleen are responsible for haematopoiesis while the bone marrow develops. However, once the infant is born, the bone marrow takes over the production of blood cells, and haematopoiesis in the liver and spleen ceases. In some cases, such as beta-thalassaemia major, Extramedullary haematopoiesis can continue and expand to other areas of the body.

      Immunoglobulin production begins after six months, with maternal IgG providing most of the antibody coverage for the first three months of life. This means that infants are most vulnerable to encapsulated bacterial infections between three and nine months of age. Lymphatic tissue mass remains relatively unchanged during infancy but increases during early childhood, which may account for the increase in viral infections experienced by children. Neutrophil production does not increase unless there is a bacterial infection present, and the total white cell count decreases during infancy. Additionally, the production of fetal haemoglobin, or HbF, decreases steadily during the first year of life as it is replaced by HbA.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 17 - A 48-year-old man presents to the emergency department after a bicycle accident. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old man presents to the emergency department after a bicycle accident. He reports feeling fine and denies any symptoms such as vomiting, seizures, or loss of consciousness. The patient has a medical history of tricuspid valve replacement and takes warfarin. On examination, a small 1 cm laceration is found on his left temple, which has stopped bleeding. The patient has a GCS score of 15/15 and a normal neurological exam. What is the best course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Perform a CT scan within 8 hours

      Explanation:

      If a person is taking anticoagulants and has suffered a head injury, it is crucial to conduct a CT scan within 8 hours. This is because such patients are at a higher risk of developing intracranial bleeds, which may have a delayed onset of symptoms. While neurological observations are necessary, they cannot replace the need for a CT scan in this case. Discharging the patient with safety netting advice would also be inappropriate as they may have developed a serious intracranial bleed due to their anticoagulant therapy. However, performing a CT scan within 1 hour is not necessary if the patient does not exhibit key symptoms such as post-traumatic seizures or vomiting. It is also not appropriate to perform an MRI scan within 8 hours as CT scan is the preferred imaging modality for head injuries.

      NICE Guidelines for Investigating Head Injuries in Adults

      Head injuries can be serious and require prompt medical attention. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided clear guidelines for healthcare professionals to determine which adult patients need further investigation with a CT head scan. Patients who require immediate CT head scans include those with a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of less than 13 on initial assessment, suspected open or depressed skull fractures, signs of basal skull fractures, post-traumatic seizures, focal neurological deficits, and more than one episode of vomiting.

      For patients with any loss of consciousness or amnesia since the injury, a CT head scan within 8 hours is recommended for those who are 65 years or older, have a history of bleeding or clotting disorders, experienced a dangerous mechanism of injury, or have more than 30 minutes of retrograde amnesia of events immediately before the head injury. Additionally, patients on warfarin who have sustained a head injury without other indications for a CT head scan should also receive a scan within 8 hours of the injury.

      It is important for healthcare professionals to follow these guidelines to ensure that patients receive appropriate and timely care for their head injuries. By identifying those who require further investigation, healthcare professionals can provide the necessary treatment and support to prevent further complications and improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
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  • Question 18 - You are consulting with a family whose daughter has been referred due to...

    Incorrect

    • You are consulting with a family whose daughter has been referred due to suspected learning difficulties. Whilst talking to her parents, you notice that she has a friendly and sociable personality. You begin to wonder if she might have William's syndrome.

      What physical characteristic would be the strongest indicator of this diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Elfin facies

      Explanation:

      William’s syndrome is linked to unique physical characteristics such as elfin facies, a broad forehead, strabismus, and short stature. It is important to note that Klinefelter’s syndrome is characterized by a tall and slender stature. Edward’s syndrome is associated with rocker-bottom feet, while foetal alcohol syndrome is linked to a flattened philtrum. Turner’s syndrome and Noonan’s syndrome are associated with webbing of the neck. Individuals with William’s syndrome often have an elongated, not flat philtrum.

      Understanding William’s Syndrome

      William’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects neurodevelopment and is caused by a microdeletion on chromosome 7. The condition is characterized by a range of physical and cognitive features, including elfin-like facies, short stature, and learning difficulties. Individuals with William’s syndrome also tend to have a very friendly and social demeanor, which is a hallmark of the condition. Other common symptoms include transient neonatal hypercalcaemia and supravalvular aortic stenosis.

      Diagnosis of William’s syndrome is typically made through FISH studies, which can detect the microdeletion on chromosome 7. While there is no cure for the condition, early intervention and support can help individuals with William’s syndrome to manage their symptoms and lead fulfilling lives. With a better understanding of this disorder, we can work towards improving the lives of those affected by it.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 19 - You are part of the transplant team on call and have been asked...

    Incorrect

    • You are part of the transplant team on call and have been asked to assess a potential kidney donor. The patient is an 86-year-old man who has been in the ICU for ten days due to severe pneumonia. He has required ventilatory support, inotropes, and filtration during his stay. His creatinine levels have rapidly risen since admission, with a current level of 350 umol/l. However, a sample taken six months ago by his GP showed a creatinine level of 95 umol/l. The patient's medical history includes hypertension and a malignant melanoma that was treated to remission three years ago with a hemicolectomy, but no adjuvant therapy was required. His screening colonoscopies have been normal in the years since.

      What factor would lead you to decide against this patient as a potential donor?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: History of malignancy

      Explanation:

      Donor Evaluation for Organ Transplantation

      This patient’s stay in the ICU has been complicated, but the only absolute contraindication to organ donation is malignancy. Although the patient had a limited malignancy without evidence of spread, the risk of cancer in the recipient is too high due to potential micrometastases and immunosuppression. The only other absolute contraindications are HIV or CJD associated illness.

      Despite being elderly, a kidney from a relatively healthy 85-year-old donor could be a good match for an elderly recipient in their mid-70s. The patient’s creatinine levels suggest acute tubular necrosis and delayed graft function, but this is likely due to severe sepsis and the patient’s previous normal creatinine levels indicate good baseline renal function. The need for inotropes also suggests acute tubular necrosis, but this is consistent with the patient’s septic shock and acute illness, which could potentially improve after transplantation.

      In summary, organ donation evaluation involves considering absolute contraindications such as malignancy, HIV, or CJD associated illness. Age and medical history of the donor and recipient are also important factors to consider. The patient’s current condition and potential for recovery after transplantation should also be taken into account.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
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  • Question 20 - A 35-year-old male patient presents to his primary care physician with complaints of...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old male patient presents to his primary care physician with complaints of progressive weakness and pain in his arms and hands, along with increasing fatigue, particularly during physical activity. During the examination, the physician detects faint fine crackles in the lower-mid zones and observes thickened and cracked skin on the patient's hands. The patient also experiences difficulty transitioning from the chair to the examination couch. What is the primary blood marker associated with this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anti-Jo 1 antibodies

      Explanation:

      Antisynthetase syndrome is a subtype of dermatomyositis that can lead to myositis and interstitial lung disease, particularly in patients with positive anti-Jo 1 antibodies. This condition is caused by antibodies against tRNA synthetase. Patients may experience hand symptoms such as arthralgia, mechanic’s hands, and Raynaud’s. It is important to note that patients with myositis and positive anti-Jo 1 antibodies are at an increased risk of developing interstitial lung disease. While all of the options listed may be present in myositis, ESR is typically normal. Elevated ESR levels are more commonly seen in other autoimmune conditions like polymyalgia rheumatica, which can present similarly to myositis.

      Understanding Antisynthetase Syndrome

      Antisynthetase syndrome is a medical condition that occurs when the body produces autoantibodies against aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase, specifically anti-Jo1. This condition is characterized by several symptoms, including myositis, interstitial lung disease, mechanic’s hands, and Raynaud’s phenomenon. Myositis refers to inflammation of the muscles, while interstitial lung disease is a condition that affects the tissue and space around the air sacs in the lungs. Mechanic’s hands is a term used to describe thickened and cracked skin on the hands, while Raynaud’s phenomenon is a condition that causes the blood vessels in the fingers and toes to narrow, leading to numbness and tingling sensations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 21 - A 23-year-old female presents to the Emergency Department with her partner, complaining of...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old female presents to the Emergency Department with her partner, complaining of severe abdominal pain that has worsened over the past few hours. She has vomited twice and feels lightheaded. Upon examination, she experiences tenderness in the left iliac fossa. Her vital signs are stable, except for a mild tachycardia. A urine pregnancy test confirms her pregnancy. An ultrasound performed by the Obstetrics SHO reveals an empty uterus but shows a 40mm pregnancy in her left fallopian tube. What is the appropriate management for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: She should be taken to theatre for surgical management

      Explanation:

      If an ectopic pregnancy is larger than 35mm or has a serum B-hCG level exceeding 5,000 IU/L, surgical intervention is necessary. The patient in this scenario is experiencing symptoms such as pain and dizziness, and her tachycardia indicates a risk of instability. While she is currently stable, surgical management should be performed promptly. A laparotomy is not immediately necessary, but the procedure should be carried out as soon as possible. Waiting for a blood hCG is unnecessary, and medical management is not appropriate.

      Ectopic pregnancy is a serious condition that requires prompt investigation and management. Women who are stable are typically investigated and managed in an early pregnancy assessment unit, while those who are unstable should be referred to the emergency department. The investigation of choice for ectopic pregnancy is a transvaginal ultrasound, which will confirm the presence of a positive pregnancy test.

      There are three ways to manage ectopic pregnancies: expectant management, medical management, and surgical management. The choice of management will depend on various criteria, such as the size of the ectopic pregnancy, whether it is ruptured or not, and the patient’s symptoms and hCG levels. Expectant management involves closely monitoring the patient over 48 hours, while medical management involves giving the patient methotrexate and requires follow-up. Surgical management can involve salpingectomy or salpingostomy, depending on the patient’s risk factors for infertility.

      Salpingectomy is the first-line treatment for women without other risk factors for infertility, while salpingostomy should be considered for women with contralateral tube damage. However, around 1 in 5 women who undergo a salpingostomy require further treatment, such as methotrexate and/or a salpingectomy. It is important to carefully consider the patient’s individual circumstances and make a decision that will provide the best possible outcome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 22 - A 25-year-old male is brought into the emergency department on a Saturday night...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male is brought into the emergency department on a Saturday night by his friends who suspect he has 'taken something'. He appears anxious and cannot sit still, claiming that the walls appear to breathe and the floor is moving. Observations are not taken as he refuses, anxious that the nurse is plotting to hurt him. During the history, he intermittently will refer to himself in the third person and comment on his own actions as an observer. He has no past medical history and takes no regular medications.

      What is the most likely cause of his symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lysergic acid diethylamide

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms are consistent with LSD intoxication, including colourful visual hallucinations, depersonalisation, psychosis, and paranoia. Other drugs such as amphetamines, cocaine, and methylphenidate are less likely to be the cause. The recent history of drug consumption supports the likelihood of LSD use.

      Understanding LSD Intoxication

      LSD, also known as lysergic acid diethylamide, is a synthetic hallucinogen that gained popularity as a recreational drug in the 1960s to 1980s. While its usage has declined in recent years, it still persists, with adolescents and young adults being the most frequent users. LSD is one of the most potent psychoactive compounds known, and its psychedelic effects usually involve heightening or distortion of sensory stimuli and enhancement of feelings and introspection.

      Patients with LSD toxicity typically present following acute panic reactions, massive ingestions, or unintentional ingestions. The symptoms of LSD intoxication are variable and can include impaired judgments, amplification of current mood, agitation, and drug-induced psychosis. Somatic symptoms such as nausea, headache, palpitations, dry mouth, drowsiness, and tremors may also occur. Signs of LSD intoxication can include tachycardia, hypertension, mydriasis, paresthesia, hyperreflexia, and pyrexia.

      Massive overdoses of LSD can lead to complications such as respiratory arrest, coma, hyperthermia, autonomic dysfunction, and bleeding disorders. The diagnosis of LSD toxicity is mainly based on history and examination, as most urine drug screens do not pick up LSD.

      Management of the intoxicated patient is dependent on the specific behavioral manifestation elicited by the drug. Agitation should be managed with supportive reassurance in a calm, stress-free environment, and benzodiazepines may be used if necessary. LSD-induced psychosis may require antipsychotics. Massive ingestions of LSD should be treated with supportive care, including respiratory support and endotracheal intubation if needed. Hypertension, tachycardia, and hyperthermia should be treated symptomatically, while hypotension should be treated initially with fluids and subsequently with vasopressors if required. Activated charcoal administration and gastric emptying are of little clinical value by the time a patient presents to the emergency department, as LSD is rapidly absorbed through the gastrointestinal tract.

      In conclusion, understanding LSD intoxication is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate management and care for patients who present with symptoms of LSD toxicity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 23 - You are a Foundation Year 2 doctor in Psychiatry. During the ward round,...

    Incorrect

    • You are a Foundation Year 2 doctor in Psychiatry. During the ward round, you are asked to perform a mental state examination of a patient who has been on the ward for a month.
      In which part of the mental state examination would you report neologisms, pressure, or poverty?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Speech

      Explanation:

      Assessing Mental State: Key Components to Consider

      When assessing a patient’s mental state, there are several key components to consider. These include speech rate, rhythm, and volume, as well as the presence of neologisms, which may indicate a thought disorder. Poverty of speech may suggest reduced speech content, often seen in depression, while pressure of speech may indicate an increased rate, often seen in mania.

      Insight is another important factor to consider, as it reflects the patient’s understanding of their condition and their willingness to accept treatment. Under the heading of Appearance and behaviour, it is important to note the patient’s level of self-care, rapport, and any non-verbal cues. Abnormal movements and level of motor activity should also be observed.

      Mood and affect are subjective and objective measures of the patient’s emotional state. Mood refers to the patient’s internal experience, while affect refers to the external manifestation of that emotion. Thought content should also be assessed, including any preoccupations, obsessions, overvalued ideas, ideas of reference, delusions, or suicidal thoughts. By considering these key components, clinicians can gain a comprehensive understanding of a patient’s mental state.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 24 - A 52-year-old woman with a history of intermittent ringing sound in her left...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old woman with a history of intermittent ringing sound in her left ear for the last six months presents to the Ear, Nose and Throat (ENT) Outpatient Department. She describes the ringing sound to be pulsatile in nature. She has no history of fever, hearing loss, trauma or any recent ear infections. Her past medical history includes a diagnosis of multiple sclerosis under remission for the past two years. Clinical examination of the head and neck is unremarkable.
      Which is the most appropriate investigation which will help to reach a final diagnosis in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Computerised tomography (CT) (contrast-enhanced) scan of the temporal bone

      Explanation:

      Investigating Pulsatile Tinnitus in a Patient with Multiple Sclerosis

      Pulsatile tinnitus, a constant ringing or humming sound perceived in the absence of actual sound, can be psychologically debilitating to the patient. In a patient with multiple sclerosis, pulsatile tinnitus may be caused by spontaneous spasm of middle ear muscles. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends imaging for all patients with pulsatile tinnitus to identify the underlying cause. In this case, contrast-enhanced CT scanning of the temporal bone is the best investigation to identify middle ear/osseous pathology. Tympanometry and otoscopy can also be valuable initial investigations for suspected middle ear pathologies. Magnetic resonance angiography is not the best investigation in this scenario as the patient’s history suggests a muscular cause of pulsatile tinnitus. Weber’s test is not relevant in this case as the patient does not report any hearing loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
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  • Question 25 - A 65-year-old female complains of pain and redness in the back of her...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old female complains of pain and redness in the back of her calf, near a varicose vein. An ultrasound reveals no signs of DVT, but a diagnosis of thrombophlebitis of the distal great saphenous vein is made. The patient is prescribed NSAIDs for anti-inflammatory pain relief. What other treatment should be considered for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Compression stockings

      Explanation:

      Compression stockings are the recommended treatment for superficial thrombophlebitis as they can reduce the risk of DVT and alleviate the condition. This is crucial as ongoing thrombophlebitis can significantly increase the risk of DVT. Endovenous laser ablation (EVLA), great saphenous vein biopsy, and superficial vein sclerotherapy are not appropriate treatments for thrombophlebitis as they are used for different purposes and can even be contraindicated in inflamed or thrombophlebitic veins.

      Superficial thrombophlebitis is inflammation associated with thrombosis of a superficial vein, usually the long saphenous vein of the leg. Around 20% of cases have an underlying deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and 3-4% may progress to a DVT if untreated. Treatment options include NSAIDs, topical heparinoids, compression stockings, and low-molecular weight heparin. Patients with clinical signs of superficial thrombophlebitis affecting the proximal long saphenous vein should have an ultrasound scan to exclude concurrent DVT. Patients with superficial thrombophlebitis at, or extending towards, the saphenofemoral junction can be considered for therapeutic anticoagulation for 6-12 weeks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
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  • Question 26 - A 47-year-old woman is admitted with central chest pain of 18 hours’ duration...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old woman is admitted with central chest pain of 18 hours’ duration and shortness of breath. Her troponin is elevated, and her electrocardiogram (ECG) shows changes in leads V2–V6. While undergoing initial management in preparation for primary percutaneous coronary intervention (primary PCI), she deteriorates suddenly and goes into cardiac arrest. Efforts to resuscitate her are unsuccessful. At post-mortem, rupture of the left ventricular cardiac wall is evident at the apex.
      Which is the most likely blood vessel to have been involved in the infarct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The anterior interventricular (left anterior descending) artery

      Explanation:

      Coronary Arteries and Their Blood Supply to the Heart

      The heart is supplied with blood by the coronary arteries. There are four main coronary arteries that provide blood to different parts of the heart.

      The anterior interventricular artery, also known as the left anterior descending artery, supplies blood to the apex of the heart, as well as the anterior part of the interventricular septum and adjacent anterior walls of the right and left ventricles.

      The right marginal artery supplies the anteroinferior aspect of the right ventricle.

      The posterior interventricular artery supplies the interventricular septum and adjacent right and left ventricles on the diaphragmatic surface of the heart, but does not reach the apex.

      The circumflex artery supplies the posterolateral aspect of the left ventricle.

      Finally, the conus branch of the right coronary artery supplies the outflow tract of the right ventricle.

      Understanding the blood supply to different parts of the heart is important in diagnosing and treating heart conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 27 - A 14-year-old girl presents to her GP with concerns about not having started...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old girl presents to her GP with concerns about not having started her periods. She has also not developed any other secondary sexual characteristics. Upon examination, she is found to be proportionate but notably short in stature. Additionally, she has wide-spaced nipples, low-set ears, and subtle neck webbing. What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aortic coarctation

      Explanation:

      Individuals with Turner’s syndrome (XO) often exhibit physical characteristics such as a webbed neck, low set ears, and widely spaced nipples. Short stature and primary amenorrhea are common, along with a degree of puberty failure. Other physical features to look for include a wide carrying angle, down-sloping eyes with partial ptosis, and a low posterior hairline. Turner’s syndrome is frequently linked to aortic coarctation and bicuspid aortic valve, while other cardiac abnormalities may be associated with different genetic conditions.

      Understanding Turner’s Syndrome

      Turner’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects approximately 1 in 2,500 females. It is caused by the absence of one sex chromosome (X) or a deletion of the short arm of one of the X chromosomes. This condition is denoted as 45,XO or 45,X.

      The features of Turner’s syndrome include short stature, a shield chest with widely spaced nipples, a webbed neck, a bicuspid aortic valve (15%), coarctation of the aorta (5-10%), primary amenorrhea, cystic hygroma (often diagnosed prenatally), a high-arched palate, a short fourth metacarpal, multiple pigmented naevi, lymphoedema in neonates (especially feet), and elevated gonadotrophin levels. Hypothyroidism is much more common in Turner’s syndrome, and there is also an increased incidence of autoimmune disease (especially autoimmune thyroiditis) and Crohn’s disease.

      In summary, Turner’s syndrome is a chromosomal disorder that affects females and can cause a range of physical features and health issues. Early diagnosis and management can help individuals with Turner’s syndrome lead healthy and fulfilling lives.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 28 - What are the differences in surface anatomy of abdominal organs from birth to...

    Incorrect

    • What are the differences in surface anatomy of abdominal organs from birth to 10 years of age?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The bladder descends and becomes impalpable

      Explanation:

      Developmental Changes in Palpation of Abdominal Organs

      In infants, the bladder is located higher in the pelvis, making it palpable even when empty. However, as the child grows, the pelvis descends, and the bladder becomes less palpable unless it is very full. The kidneys, on the other hand, are difficult to palpate in all individuals, regardless of age. Intra-abdominal masses in infants may grow to a large size before they are noticed.

      The large bowel completes its rotation from right to left in utero, generating the ascending, transverse, and descending colon. This process is finished by the third trimester and does not continue after birth. The liver is normally palpable one finger’s breadth below the costal margin in infants, but this physiological hepatomegaly recedes during the first few years. The spleen may be slightly enlarged at birth, but it is not normally palpable below the costal margin at any time during childhood or adulthood.

      In summary, the palpation of abdominal organs changes as a child grows and develops. While some organs may be palpable in infants, they become less so as the child ages. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these developmental changes to accurately assess and diagnose any potential issues.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 29 - A 29-year-old primigravida is currently in labor for ten hours and has progressed...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old primigravida is currently in labor for ten hours and has progressed through the first stage without any complications. However, the midwife has observed CTG abnormalities and palpated the umbilical cord. The obstetric registrar is called and upon checking the CTG, variable decelerations are noted. What is the primary course of action for addressing the cause of these decelerations?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Place hand into vagina to elevate presenting part

      Explanation:

      The situation involves cord prolapse leading to cord compression and variable decelerations on the CTG. The RCOG has issued guidelines (Green-top Guidelines No.50) for managing cord prolapse. The guidelines recommend elevating the presenting part either manually or by filling the urinary bladder to prevent cord compression. If fetal heart rate anomalies persist despite using mechanical methods to prevent compression, tocolysis (such as terbutaline) can be considered while preparing for a caesarean section.

      Understanding Umbilical Cord Prolapse

      Umbilical cord prolapse is a rare but serious complication that can occur during delivery. It happens when the umbilical cord descends ahead of the presenting part of the fetus, which can lead to compression or spasm of the cord. This can cause fetal hypoxia and potentially irreversible damage or death. Certain factors increase the risk of cord prolapse, such as prematurity, multiparity, polyhydramnios, twin pregnancy, cephalopelvic disproportion, and abnormal presentations like breech or transverse lie.

      Around half of all cord prolapses occur when the membranes are artificially ruptured. Diagnosis is usually made when the fetal heart rate becomes abnormal and the cord is palpable vaginally or visible beyond the introitus. Cord prolapse is an obstetric emergency that requires immediate management. The presenting part of the fetus may be pushed back into the uterus to avoid compression, and the cord should be kept warm and moist to prevent vasospasm. The patient may be asked to go on all fours or assume the left lateral position until preparations for an immediate caesarian section have been carried out. Tocolytics may be used to reduce uterine contractions, and retrofilling the bladder with saline can help elevate the presenting part. Although caesarian section is the usual first-line method of delivery, an instrumental vaginal delivery may be possible if the cervix is fully dilated and the head is low.

      In conclusion, umbilical cord prolapse is a rare but serious complication that requires prompt recognition and management. Understanding the risk factors and appropriate interventions can help reduce the incidence of fetal mortality associated with this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 30 - A 28-year-old woman with gestational diabetes delivered at 39+2 weeks’ gestation by an...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman with gestational diabetes delivered at 39+2 weeks’ gestation by an uncomplicated elective Caesarean section for macrosomia. The baby weighed 4.8 kg at delivery. The Apgar score at 1 and 5 minutes was 10. Eight hours later, she pulls the emergency alarm because her baby became lethargic and started shaking.

      What is the most probable reason for this newborn's seizure activity and lethargy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypoglycaemia

      Explanation:

      Neonatal Seizures: Likely Causes and Differential Diagnosis

      Neonatal seizures can be a cause of concern for parents and healthcare providers. The most common cause of neonatal seizures is hypoglycaemia, which can occur in neonates born to mothers with gestational diabetes. Hypoglycaemia can lead to significant morbidity and mortality if left untreated. Other possible causes of neonatal seizures include hypoxic ischaemic encephalopathy, neonatal sepsis, intracranial haemorrhage, and benign familial neonatal seizures. However, in the absence of prematurity or complicated delivery, hypoglycaemia is the most likely cause of neonatal seizures in a term baby born to a mother with gestational diabetes. Diagnosis and treatment should be prompt to prevent long-term complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Musculoskeletal (1/2) 50%
Medicine (1/1) 100%
Paediatrics (1/1) 100%
Psychiatry (1/2) 50%
Surgery (0/1) 0%
Dermatology (0/1) 0%
Pharmacology (1/1) 100%
Plastics (1/1) 100%
Passmed