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  • Question 1 - By which of the following is mean arterial pressure (MAP) primarily determined? ...

    Correct

    • By which of the following is mean arterial pressure (MAP) primarily determined?

      Your Answer: Total peripheral resistance and cardiac output

      Explanation:

      Mean arterial pressure (MAP) = Cardiac output (CO) x Total peripheral resistance (TPR). Cardiac output is dependent on the central venous pressure (CVP). CVP, in turn, is highly dependent on the blood volume. Any alterations of any of these variables will likely change MAP.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      6.1
      Seconds

  • Question 2 - For an action potential to occur, which of the following must be true:...

    Correct

    • For an action potential to occur, which of the following must be true:

      Your Answer: Depolarisation of the membrane must reach threshold potential

      Explanation:

      For an action potential to occur, the membrane must become more permeable to Na+and the Na+influx must be greater than the K+efflux. An action potential occurs when depolarisation of the membrane reaches threshold potential. The membrane must be out of the absolute refractory period, however an action potential can still occur in a relative refractory period but only in response to a larger than normal stimulus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Cellular
      • Physiology
      9.2
      Seconds

  • Question 3 - By the third day of wound healing, which sort of inflammatory cell has...

    Correct

    • By the third day of wound healing, which sort of inflammatory cell has predominated:

      Your Answer: Macrophages

      Explanation:

      The inflammatory phase of healing is sometimes called the lag phase because wound strength does not begin to return immediately. The inflammatory phase is completed within three days except in the presence of infection or other factors associated with impaired wound healing. Mononuclear leukocytes accumulate and are transformed into macrophages. The maturation of blood-derived monocytes into macrophages is heralded by several events, including secretion of vimentin, which is a structural filament protein involved in wound healing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Wound Healing
      2
      Seconds

  • Question 4 - The following are all examples of type I hypersensitivity EXCEPT for: ...

    Correct

    • The following are all examples of type I hypersensitivity EXCEPT for:

      Your Answer: Contact dermatitis

      Explanation:

      Examples of type I reactions include:Allergic rhinitisAllergic conjunctivitisAllergic asthmaSystemic anaphylaxisAngioedemaUrticariaPenicillin allergy

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immune Responses
      • Pathology
      2
      Seconds

  • Question 5 - A 36-year-old man presented to the emergency room after an incident of slipping...

    Correct

    • A 36-year-old man presented to the emergency room after an incident of slipping and falling onto his back and left hip. Upon physical examination, it was noted that he has pain on hip extension, but normal hip abduction. Which of the following muscles was most likely injured in this case?

      Your Answer: Gluteus maximus

      Explanation:

      The primary hip extensors are the gluteus maximus and the hamstrings such as the long head of the biceps femoris, the semitendinosus, and the semimembranosus. The extensor head of the adductor magnus is also considered a primary hip extensor.The hip abductor muscle group is located on the lateral thigh. The primary hip abductor muscles include the gluteus medius, gluteus minimus, and tensor fasciae latae.The secondary hip abductors include the piriformis, sartorius, and superior fibres of the gluteus maximus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      7
      Seconds

  • Question 6 - A 32-year-old man is dehydrated as he presents with severe vomiting and diarrhoea....

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old man is dehydrated as he presents with severe vomiting and diarrhoea. He urgently requires resuscitation with intravenous fluid administration. He is also administered metoclopramide.Which of the following is the true mechanism of action of metoclopramide?

      Your Answer: Dopamine receptor antagonism

      Explanation:

      Metoclopramide is used to treat nausea and vomiting. It works by blocking the central and peripheral D2 (dopamine 2) receptors in the medullary chemoreceptor trigger zone in the vomiting centre (area postrema). It decreases the sensitivity of the visceral sensory nerves that transmit from the GI system to the vomiting centre. Blockade of inhibitory dopamine receptors in the GI tract may allow stimulatory actions of ACh at muscarinic synapses to predominate.At high doses, metoclopramide also blocks type-2 serotonin receptors though the effect is much weaker.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • CNS Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      4
      Seconds

  • Question 7 - A 12-year-old boy presents to the ED with symptoms suggesting an anaphylactic reaction.Which...

    Correct

    • A 12-year-old boy presents to the ED with symptoms suggesting an anaphylactic reaction.Which of these statements about anaphylaxis is true?

      Your Answer: The immunoglobulin-antigen complex binds to Fc receptors on the surface of mast cells.

      Explanation:

      Anaphylaxis is an example of a type I hypersensitivity reaction. It is IgE mediated. It requires a prior exposure to the antigen. The initial exposure sensitizes the body to the antigen and a second exposure to that antigen leads to an anaphylactic reaction.Massive calcium influx into the cells leads to mast cell degranulation. The Immunoglobulin antigen complex binds to Fc receptors on the surface of mast cells. The result is mast cell degranulation and release of histamine, proteoglycans and serum proteases from cytoplasmic granules.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Pathology
      • Pathology
      7.7
      Seconds

  • Question 8 - A 23-year-old student presents with a fever and sore throat. Upon physical examination,...

    Correct

    • A 23-year-old student presents with a fever and sore throat. Upon physical examination, it was observed that he had bilaterally enlarged tonsils that are covered in large amounts of exudate. A diagnosis of tonsillitis was made. The lymph from the tonsils will drain to which of the following nodes?

      Your Answer: Deep cervical lymph nodes

      Explanation:

      The tonsils are collections of lymphatic tissue located within the pharynx. They collectively form a ringed arrangement, known as Waldeyer’s ring: pharyngeal tonsil, 2 tubal tonsils, 2 palatine tonsils, and the lingual tonsil. Lymphatic fluid from the lingual tonsil drains into the jugulodigastric and deep cervical lymph nodes.Lymphatic fluid from the pharyngeal tonsil drains into the retropharyngeal nodes (which empty into the deep cervical chain), and directly into deep cervical nodes within the parapharyngeal space.The retropharyngeal and the deep cervical lymph nodes drain the tubal tonsils.The palatine tonsils drain to the jugulodigastric node, a node of the deep cervical lymph nodes, located inferior to the angle of the mandible.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head And Neck
      7.2
      Seconds

  • Question 9 - A 30-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes mellitus is brought in drowsy and...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes mellitus is brought in drowsy and confused. Her BM is 2.2 mmol/l and a dose of IM glucagon is administered.What is the principal stimulus for the secretion of glucagon?

      Your Answer: Hypoglycaemia

      Explanation:

      Glucagon, a peptide hormone, is produced and secreted by alpha cells of the islets of Langerhans, located in the endocrine portion of the pancreas. Its main physiological role is stimulation of hepatic glucose output leading to increase in blood glucose. It is the major counter-regulatory hormone to insulin in maintaining glucose homeostasis.The principal stimulus for the secretion of glucagon is hypoglycaemia. Hypoglycaemia then stimulates:GlycogenolysisGluconeogenesisLipolysis in adipose tissue leading to increased glycaemia.Secretion of glucagon is also stimulated by arginine, alanine, adrenaline, acetylcholine and cholecystokininSecretion of glucagon is inhibited by:InsulinSomatostatinIncreased free fatty acidsIncreased urea production

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Physiology
      • Physiology
      4.4
      Seconds

  • Question 10 - Compliance is greater in all but which one of the following: ...

    Incorrect

    • Compliance is greater in all but which one of the following:

      Your Answer: Elderly

      Correct Answer: Pulmonary oedema

      Explanation:

      Compliance changes at different lung volumes. Initially at lower lung volumes the compliance of the lung is poor and greater pressure change is required to cause a change in volume. This occurs if the lungs become collapsed for a period of time. At functional residual capacity (FRC) compliance is optimal since the elastic recoil of the lung tending towards collapse is balanced by the tendency of the chest wall to spring outwards. At higher lung volumes the compliance of the lung again becomes less as the lung becomes stiffer. At all volumes, the base of the lung has a greater compliance than the apex. Patients with emphysema have increased compliance. Compliance is affected by a person’s age, sex and height.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      7.4
      Seconds

  • Question 11 - Streptococcus viridans has developed subacute bacterial endocarditis in your patient. Which of the...

    Correct

    • Streptococcus viridans has developed subacute bacterial endocarditis in your patient. Which of the following locations is most likely to be the organism's origin?

      Your Answer: Oral cavity

      Explanation:

      Streptococci that are alpha-haemolytic, such as Streptococcus viridans, are major components of the flora in the oral cavity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infections
      • Microbiology
      5.1
      Seconds

  • Question 12 - Which of the following best describes the positive predictive value of a diagnostic test:...

    Correct

    • Which of the following best describes the positive predictive value of a diagnostic test:

      Your Answer: The proportion of individuals with a positive test result who have the disease

      Explanation:

      Positive predictive value (PPV) is the proportion of individuals with a positive test result who actually have the disease.PPV = a/(a+b)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Medicine
      • Statistics
      6.2
      Seconds

  • Question 13 - Regarding Clostridium tetani, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Correct

    • Regarding Clostridium tetani, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer: Metronidazole is usually the antibiotic of choice for tetanus infection.

      Explanation:

      Clostridium tetani infection is predominantly derived from animal faeces and soil.  Clostridium tetani has exotoxin-mediated effects, predominantly by tetanospasmin which inhibits the release of GABA at the presynaptic membrane throughout the central and peripheral nervous system. Metronidazole has overtaken penicillin as the antibiotic of choice for treatment of tetanus (together with surgical debridement, tetanus toxoid immunisation, and human tetanus immunoglobulin).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathogens
      4.4
      Seconds

  • Question 14 - Which one of the listed cells are typically found in a granuloma? ...

    Correct

    • Which one of the listed cells are typically found in a granuloma?

      Your Answer: Epithelioid cells

      Explanation:

      Typically, granuloma has Langhan’s cells (large multinucleated cells ) surrounded by epithelioid cell aggregates, T lymphocytes and fibroblasts.Antigen presenting monocytic cells found in the skin are known as Langerhan’s cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Pathology
      • Pathology
      7.6
      Seconds

  • Question 15 - A 7-year-old girl is admitted to the hospital with a persistently high temperature....

    Correct

    • A 7-year-old girl is admitted to the hospital with a persistently high temperature. To help her reduce her fever, you decide to give her paracetamol and ibuprofen.What are the effects of paracetamol and ibuprofen on fever?

      Your Answer: Reduction in prostaglandin synthesis

      Explanation:

      Interleukin-1, which is released by leukocytes and acts on the thermoregulatory centre of the hypothalamus, causes fever. Because prostaglandins mediate this process, antipyretics such as NSAIDs, paracetamol, and aspirin reduce prostaglandin levels by inhibiting cyclooxygenase enzymes. Malignant disease secretes interleukins, which cause the B-symptoms seen in lymphoma, for example. Bacterial toxins can also cause interleukins to be produced.Pyrexia of unknown origin (PUO) is defined as a fever of greater than 38.3 degrees Celsius that lasts for more than 2-3 weeks with no clear diagnosis despite extensive investigation.Investigation necessitates a thorough understanding of the conditions that can cause febrile illness, which may be missed during an initial investigation, as well as a thorough history, examination, and investigation centred on that list.Pyrexia of unknown origin has a wide differential diagnosis, which includes:InfectionBacterialPyogenic abscessTuberculosisInfective endocarditisBrucellosisLyme diseaseViralHIV Epstein Barr VirusCytomegalovirusParasiteToxoplasmosisMalignancy LeukaemiaLymphomaRenal cell carcinomaHepatocellular carcinomaVasculitides Still’s diseaseGranulomatosis with polyangiitis (formerly Wegener’s)Systemic lupus erythematosusGiant cell arteritisRheumatoid arthritisPolymyalgia rheumaticaMiscellaneous Drug induced fevers Familial Mediterranean feverThyrotoxicosisInflammatory bowel diseaseSarcoidosisFactitious fever Exaggerated normal circadian fluctuationThe patient might need to be admitted to the hospital for observation and further investigation. Because infection is still a possibility, blood cultures should be repeated on a regular basis, and inflammatory markers should be closely monitored. CT, PET, and MRI imaging have largely replaced diagnostic laparotomy as a diagnostic tool.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Pathology Of Infections
      7.2
      Seconds

  • Question 16 - Regarding shingles, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Correct

    • Regarding shingles, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer: You can catch chickenpox from a patient with shingles.

      Explanation:

      After primary infection, VZV remains latent in sensory ganglia and in about 20% of patients will reactivate resulting in shingles, a painful vesicular rash in the related dermatome. Shingles usually affects older people and the immunocompromised. Shingles lesions are infectious to non-immune individuals who are at risk of developing chickenpox. Shingles can not be contracted directly from chickenpox, or from other cases of shingles. Shingles is treated with systemic antiviral treatment to reduce the severity and duration of pain, reduce complications, and reduce viral shedding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathogens
      11.2
      Seconds

  • Question 17 - A 28-year-old woman with history of blunt thoracic trauma develops hypotension chest pain,...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman with history of blunt thoracic trauma develops hypotension chest pain, and breathlessness. A bedside echocardiogram was performed and revealed a large pericardial effusion. Due to this finding, a pericardiocentesis was to be performed.Which of the following statements is considered true regarding pericardiocentesis?

      Your Answer: The needle should be aimed at the midpoint of the left clavicle

      Explanation:

      Pericardiocentesis is a procedure done to remove fluid build-up in the sac around the heart known as the pericardium. The pericardium can be tapped from almost any reasonable location on the chest wall. However, for the usual blind pericardiocentesis, the subxiphoid approach is preferred. Ideally, 2-D echocardiography is used to guide needle insertion and the subsequent path of the needle/catheter.In the subxiphoid approach, the needle is inserted 1 cm inferior to the left xiphocostal angle with an angle of 30 degrees from the patient’s chest with a direction towards the left mid-clavicle. The fingers may sense a distinct give when the needle penetrates the parietal pericardium. Successful removal of fluid confirms the needle’s position.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      13.7
      Seconds

  • Question 18 - A 40-year-old man with reduced urine output, nausea, and confusion also has a...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old man with reduced urine output, nausea, and confusion also has a 150% rise of creatinine from baseline over the past 7 days. A diagnosis of acute kidney injury (AKI) is made after more tests are done.His AKI stage is?

      Your Answer: Stage 3

      Correct Answer: Stage 2

      Explanation:

      This patient with a 150% rise of creatinine above baseline within 7 days has stage 2 Acute kidney injury (AKI).AKI stages are as follows:Stage 1Creatinine rise of 26 micromole/L or more within 48 hours, orCreatinine rise of 50-99% from baseline within 7 days (1.5-1.99 x baseline),orUrine output <0.5 mL/kg/hour for more than 6 hoursStage 2Creatinine rise of 100-199% from baseline within 7 days (2.0-2.99 x baseline),orUrine output <0.5 mL/kg/hour for more than 12 hoursStage 3Creatinine rise of 200% or more from baseline within 7 days (3.0 or more x baseline), orCreatinine rise to 354 micromole/L or more with acute rise of 26 micromole/L or more within 48 hours or 50% or more rise within 7 days, orUrine output <0.3 mL/kg/hour for 24 hours or anuria for 12 hours

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Pathology
      • Pathology
      78.6
      Seconds

  • Question 19 - A 30 year old man presents to ED after a road traffic accident....

    Correct

    • A 30 year old man presents to ED after a road traffic accident. Free intraperitoneal fluid is found on FAST (Focussed assessment for sonography in trauma) done in the supine position. Which of these is most likely to be affected?

      Your Answer: Hepatorenal recess

      Explanation:

      Fluid accumulates most often in the hepatorenal pouch (of Morrison) in a supine patient. The hepatorenal pouch is located behind the liver and anterior to the right kidney and is the lowest space in the peritoneal cavity in the supine position.Although the vesicouterine and rectouterine spaces are also potential spaces for fluid accumulation, fluid accumulation in them occur in the erect position.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      56.9
      Seconds

  • Question 20 - In the treatment of hypertensive episodes in pheochromocytoma, which of the following medication...

    Correct

    • In the treatment of hypertensive episodes in pheochromocytoma, which of the following medication types is administered as first-line management:

      Your Answer: Alpha-blockers

      Explanation:

      The first line of management in controlling blood pressure and preventing intraoperative hypertensive crises is to use a combination of alpha and beta-adrenergic inhibition. In phaeochromocytoma, alpha-blockers are used to treat hypertensive episodes in the short term. Tachycardia can be managed by the careful addition of a beta-blocker, preferably a cardioselective beta-blocker, once alpha blockade has been established. Long term management of pheochromocytoma involves surgery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pharmacology
      9.9
      Seconds

  • Question 21 - A patient who is taking ramipril for high blood pressure complains of a...

    Incorrect

    • A patient who is taking ramipril for high blood pressure complains of a dry persistent cough. What is the mechanism of cough in ACE inhibitor therapy:

      Your Answer: Increased mast cell degranulation

      Correct Answer: Decreased bradykinin breakdown

      Explanation:

      Blocking ACE also diminishes the breakdown of the potent vasodilator bradykinin which is the cause of the persistent dry cough. Angiotensin-II receptor blockers do not have this effect, therefore they are useful alternative for patients who have to discontinue an ACE inhibitor because of persistent cough.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pharmacology
      28.6
      Seconds

  • Question 22 - Which of the following clinical features is most suggestive of a lesion of...

    Correct

    • Which of the following clinical features is most suggestive of a lesion of the temporal lobe:

      Your Answer: Receptive dysphasia

      Explanation:

      Damage to the Wernicke’s speech area in the temporal lobe can result in a receptive dysphasia. Hemispatial neglect is most likely to occur in a lesion of the parietal lobe. Homonymous hemianopia is most likely to occur in a lesion of the occipital lobe. Expressive dysphasia is most likely to occur in a lesion of the Broca speech area in the frontal lobe. Conjugate eye deviation towards the side of the lesion is most likely to occur in a lesion of the frontal lobe.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      48.9
      Seconds

  • Question 23 - A 26-year-old man is involved in a motorcycle accident that results in an...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old man is involved in a motorcycle accident that results in an open fracture of his tibia and fibula. The nerve that innervates peroneus tertius is damaged as a consequence of his injuries.Peroneus tertius receives its innervation from which of the following nerves? Select ONE answer only.

      Your Answer: Superficial peroneal nerve

      Correct Answer: Deep peroneal nerve

      Explanation:

      Peroneus brevis is innervated by the superficial peroneal nerve.Peroneus longus is innervated by the superficial peroneal nerve.Peroneus tertius is innervated by the deep peroneal nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      34.2
      Seconds

  • Question 24 - A 55-year-old female is urgently rushed into the Emergency Department as she complains...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old female is urgently rushed into the Emergency Department as she complains of chest pain that is worse on breathing, shortness of breath, palpitations, and haemoptysis. She undergoes a CT pulmonary angiogram, which reveals a large pulmonary embolus. She is immediately started on heparin and shifted to the acute medical ward.Which of the following does heparin activate?

      Your Answer: Antithrombin III

      Explanation:

      Heparin works by binding to and activating the enzyme inhibitor antithrombin III. Antithrombin III inactivates thrombin (factor IIa) by forming a 1:1 complex with thrombin. The heparin-antithrombin III complex also inhibits factor Xa and some other proteases involved with clotting. The heparin-ATIII complex can also inactivate IX, XI, XII, and plasmin.Heparin is a polymer of glycosaminoglycan. It occurs naturally and is found in mast cells. Clinically, it is used in two forms:1. Unfractionated: widely varying polymer chain lengths2. Low molecular weight: Smaller polymers only Heparin is not thrombolytic or fibrinolytic. It prevents the progression of existing clots by inhibiting further clotting. The lysis of existing clots relies on endogenous thrombolytics.Heparin is used for:1. Prevention and treatment of venous thromboembolism2. Treatment of disseminated intravascular coagulation3. Treatment of fat embolism4. Priming of haemodialysis and cardiopulmonary bypass machines

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      22.7
      Seconds

  • Question 25 - A patient with a recent diagnosis of Hepatitis B would like to find...

    Incorrect

    • A patient with a recent diagnosis of Hepatitis B would like to find out further information regarding his diagnosis and prognosis. Which among the following statements is considered true regarding Hepatitis B?

      Your Answer: Approximately 50% of patients that contract hepatitis B develop acute hepatitis

      Correct Answer: 60-65% of patients that contract hepatitis B show subclinical disease

      Explanation:

      As the immune response is activated, the virus is slowly cleared from the system, and most patients become non-infectious. In adults, about 50% of infections are asymptomatic; 20% to 30% of patients exhibit clinical jaundice but have a benign resolution of the infection. Therefore, about 80% of infections do not cause serious sequelae. The risk for chronic infection is inversely proportional to age at time of infection, with approximately 90% of infants and only 3% of adults developing a chronic infection. Individuals with a chronic infection have a higher risk of liver disease, such as cirrhosis or hepatic carcinoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Specific Pathogen Groups
      48.3
      Seconds

  • Question 26 - What is the main mechanism of action of cyclizine: ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the main mechanism of action of cyclizine:

      Your Answer: Histamine-H2 antagonist

      Correct Answer: Histamine-H1 antagonist

      Explanation:

      Antihistamines e.g. cyclizine, are effective against nausea and vomiting caused by many different conditions, including motion sickness and vertigo. These agents act by inhibiting histamine pathways, and cholinergic pathways involved in transmission from the vestibular apparatus to the vomiting centre. There is no evidence that any one antihistamine is superior to another but their duration of action and incidence of adverse effects differ. Adverse effects include drowsiness and antimuscarinic effects such as blurred vision, dry mouth, urinary retention, constipation and confusion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Central Nervous System
      • Pharmacology
      11.6
      Seconds

  • Question 27 - What is the average healing time for a femoral shaft fracture under normal...

    Incorrect

    • What is the average healing time for a femoral shaft fracture under normal circumstances? Choose ONE answer.

      Your Answer: 4-6 weeks

      Correct Answer: 12 weeks

      Explanation:

      The process of fracture healing occurs naturally after traumatic bone disruption and begins with haemorrhage, then progresses through Inflammatory, reparative, and remodelling stagesAverage healing times of common fractures are:Femoral shaft: 12 weeksTibia: 10 weeksPhalanges: 3 weeksMetacarpals: 4-6 weeksDistal radius: 4-6 weeksHumerus: 6-8 weeks

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Pathology
      • Pathology
      30.2
      Seconds

  • Question 28 - Oculomotor (CN III) palsy with sparing of the pupillary reflex is most likely...

    Incorrect

    • Oculomotor (CN III) palsy with sparing of the pupillary reflex is most likely caused by which of the following:

      Your Answer: Subdural haematoma

      Correct Answer: Diabetes mellitus

      Explanation:

      Compressive causes of CN III palsy cause early pupillary dilatation because the parasympathetic fibres run peripherally in the nerve and are easily compressed. In diabetes mellitus the lesions are ischaemic rather than compressive and therefore typically affect the central fibres resulting in pupillary sparing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Cranial Nerve Lesions
      28.9
      Seconds

  • Question 29 - A patient who shows symptoms of infection and is admitted under supervision of...

    Incorrect

    • A patient who shows symptoms of infection and is admitted under supervision of the medical team. The organism which caused this, is a Gram-negative bacterium, according to the culture. A penicillin therapy is suggested by the microbiologist.Which of the penicillins listed below is the most effective against Gram-negative bacteria? 

      Your Answer: Flucloxacillin

      Correct Answer: Amoxicillin

      Explanation:

      Amoxicillin and Ampicillin are more hydrophilic (broad-spectrum) penicillins than benzylpenicillin and phenoxymethylpenicillin. Because they may penetrate through gaps in the outer phospholipid membrane, they are effective against Gram-negative bacteria. Amoxicillin and Ampicillin are resistant to penicillinase-producing microbes.Community-acquired pneumonia, otitis media, sinusitis, oral infections, and urinary tract infections are among the most prevalent conditions for which they are prescribed. The normal adult oral dose of Amoxicillin is 500 mg three times/day, which can be increased to 1 g three times/day if necessary. Ampicillin is given to adults in doses of 0.5-1 g every 6 hours.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infections
      • Pharmacology
      27
      Seconds

  • Question 30 - Which of the following laboratory findings is NOT typical of von Willebrand disease...

    Correct

    • Which of the following laboratory findings is NOT typical of von Willebrand disease (VWD):

      Your Answer: Thrombocytopaenia

      Explanation:

      Laboratory findings typically show (although this varies depending on VWD type):Abnormal PFA-100 testLow factor VIII levels (if low a factor VIII/VWF binding assay is performed)Prolonged APTT (or normal)Normal PTLow VWF levelsDefective platelet aggregationNormal platelet count

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      36.3
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Cardiovascular (2/3) 67%
Physiology (3/4) 75%
Basic Cellular (1/1) 100%
Pathology (6/8) 75%
Wound Healing (1/1) 100%
Immune Responses (1/1) 100%
Anatomy (5/7) 71%
Lower Limb (1/2) 50%
CNS Pharmacology (1/1) 100%
Pharmacology (3/6) 50%
General Pathology (2/4) 50%
Head And Neck (1/1) 100%
Endocrine Physiology (1/1) 100%
Respiratory (0/1) 0%
Infections (1/2) 50%
Microbiology (3/4) 75%
Evidence Based Medicine (1/1) 100%
Statistics (1/1) 100%
Pathogens (2/2) 100%
Pathology Of Infections (1/1) 100%
Thorax (1/1) 100%
Abdomen (1/1) 100%
Central Nervous System (1/2) 50%
Cardiovascular Pharmacology (1/1) 100%
Specific Pathogen Groups (0/1) 0%
Cranial Nerve Lesions (0/1) 0%
Haematology (1/1) 100%
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