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  • Question 1 - A 47-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of constant right-sided hearing difficulty, tinnitus,...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of constant right-sided hearing difficulty, tinnitus, and vertigo that have been present for the past two months and have worsened recently. Upon examination, there is no wax in either auditory canal, and the tympanic membranes appear normal.

      What would be the most suitable course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Refer routinely to audiologist

      Correct Answer: Refer urgently to ENT

      Explanation:

      If a patient is suspected to have an acoustic neuroma, it is crucial to refer them to an ENT specialist as soon as possible. The ENT specialist can conduct necessary tests such as audiograms and imaging to confirm or rule out the diagnosis. An ECG is not required based on the patient’s history, and hospitalization is not necessary. While an audiogram may be helpful, it is best to refer the patient directly to ENT for an MRI Head and audiogram together. A trial of medication and follow-up would not be appropriate in this case, as prompt initiation of further investigations is necessary. Meniere’s disease is a potential alternative diagnosis, but the constant and progressive nature of the patient’s symptoms is not typical of Meniere’s, which is usually episodic.

      Vestibular schwannomas, also known as acoustic neuromas, make up about 5% of intracranial tumors and 90% of cerebellopontine angle tumors. These tumors typically present with a combination of vertigo, hearing loss, tinnitus, and an absent corneal reflex. The specific symptoms can be predicted based on which cranial nerves are affected. For example, cranial nerve VIII involvement can cause vertigo, unilateral sensorineural hearing loss, and unilateral tinnitus. Bilateral vestibular schwannomas are associated with neurofibromatosis type 2.

      If a vestibular schwannoma is suspected, it is important to refer the patient to an ear, nose, and throat specialist urgently. However, it is worth noting that these tumors are often benign and slow-growing, so observation may be appropriate initially. The diagnosis is typically confirmed with an MRI of the cerebellopontine angle, and audiometry is also important as most patients will have some degree of hearing loss. Treatment options include surgery, radiotherapy, or continued observation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      453.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 44-year-old patient is discharged from hospital following Covid-19 infection, during which time...

    Incorrect

    • A 44-year-old patient is discharged from hospital following Covid-19 infection, during which time she was treated with tocilizumab.

      Past medical history includes Chickenpox as a child and asthma.

      What advice would you give this patient after receiving treatment with tocilizumab or sarilumab?

      Your Answer: She should avoid contact with anyone showing signs or symptoms of Chickenpox

      Correct Answer: She should seek immediate medical attention if she develops signs or symptoms of diverticulitis

      Explanation:

      Important Information about Tocilizumab Treatment

      Tocilizumab is a medication used to treat severe rheumatoid arthritis and Covid-19 infection. However, it can lower the immune system’s ability to fight infections, increasing the risk of new or worsened infections. Additionally, it can suppress the C-Reactive Protein response for up to three months, making it a less reliable marker of infection.

      It is important for GPs to be aware of these points for patients who have been treated in the hospital. Patients may be at an increased risk of infections, and signs of infection may be reduced. Therefore, increased vigilance is advised for timely detection of serious infections. Tocilizumab and sarilumab can also increase the risk of bowel perforation in people with diverticular disease.

      Patients who have received tocilizumab treatment should avoid live vaccines for three months post-dose. If they are VZV IgG negative, they should avoid contact with anyone showing signs or symptoms of Chickenpox or shingles and seek medical advice if inadvertent exposure occurs. Women of childbearing potential must use effective contraception for three months after treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
      31.4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 45-year-old woman comes to the clinic with complaints of tremors and weight...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old woman comes to the clinic with complaints of tremors and weight loss. Upon further inquiry, she reveals feeling more irritable than usual and intolerant of heat. During the examination, her heart rate is found to be 113 beats per minute, and she has a significant tremor in her outstretched hands. Blood tests reveal elevated thyrotropin receptor levels, but her thyroid peroxidase antibodies are normal.

      What is the most effective treatment option for managing symptoms while awaiting more definitive treatment?

      Your Answer: Propranolol

      Explanation:

      Propranolol is a beta-blocker that can help manage symptoms in new cases of Graves’ disease. It is particularly effective in reducing tremors and palpitations associated with thyrotoxicosis.

      Carbimazole is the primary treatment for inducing remission in most cases of Graves’ disease. However, it may take some time to take effect, and patients may require short-term symptomatic relief with a beta-blocker like propranolol.

      Bisoprolol is a beta-blocker used to treat hypertension, angina, and heart failure, but it is not typically used for Graves’ disease.

      Ivabradine is a cardiac medication that targets the sino-atrial node to regulate heart rate. It is commonly used to treat angina and heart failure.

      Management of Graves’ Disease

      Despite numerous trials, there is no clear consensus on the optimal management of Graves’ disease. Treatment options include anti-thyroid drugs (ATDs), radioiodine treatment, and surgery. In recent years, ATDs have become the most popular first-line therapy for Graves’ disease. This is particularly true for patients with significant symptoms of thyrotoxicosis or those at risk of hyperthyroid complications, such as elderly patients or those with cardiovascular disease.

      To control symptoms, propranolol is often used to block the adrenergic effects. NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend that patients with Graves’ disease be referred to secondary care for ongoing treatment. If symptoms are not controlled with propranolol, carbimazole should be considered in primary care.

      ATD therapy involves starting carbimazole at 40 mg and gradually reducing it to maintain euthyroidism. This treatment is typically continued for 12-18 months. The major complication of carbimazole therapy is agranulocytosis. An alternative regime, called block-and-replace, involves starting carbimazole at 40 mg and adding thyroxine when the patient is euthyroid. This treatment typically lasts for 6-9 months. Patients following an ATD titration regime have been shown to suffer fewer side-effects than those on a block-and-replace regime.

      Radioiodine treatment is often used in patients who relapse following ATD therapy or are resistant to primary ATD treatment. Contraindications include pregnancy (should be avoided for 4-6 months following treatment) and age < 16 years. Thyroid eye disease is a relative contraindication, as it may worsen the condition. The proportion of patients who become hypothyroid depends on the dose given, but as a rule, the majority of patients will require thyroxine supplementation after 5 years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      69.5
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A health visitor expresses concern about the head growth of a 6-month-old girl...

    Incorrect

    • A health visitor expresses concern about the head growth of a 6-month-old girl who has moved from the 50th to the 91st centile in the last 2 months. Which of the following is not a likely cause for this change?

      Your Answer: Hydrocephalus

      Correct Answer: Craniosynostosis e.g. Crouzon's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Individuals with Crouzon’s syndrome typically have a reduced cranial size.

      Understanding Macrocephaly in Children

      Macrocephaly is a condition characterized by an abnormally large head circumference in children. There are several possible causes of macrocephaly, including a normal variant, chronic hydrocephalus, chronic subdural effusion, neurofibromatosis, gigantism (such as Soto’s syndrome), metabolic storage diseases, and bone problems like thalassaemia.

      In some cases, macrocephaly may be a normal variant and not a cause for concern. However, it is important to identify the underlying cause of macrocephaly in order to determine the appropriate treatment and management. Chronic hydrocephalus, for example, may require surgical intervention to relieve pressure on the brain. Neurofibromatosis may require ongoing monitoring and management to prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      34.7
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  • Question 5 - A 48-year-old male is admitted after taking an overdose.

    Which single feature best suggests...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old male is admitted after taking an overdose.

      Which single feature best suggests a high risk of future suicide?

      Your Answer: Ingestion of more than one drug

      Correct Answer: Ingestion of alcohol with the overdose drug

      Explanation:

      Factors indicating high risk of suicide

      The effort to conceal an overdose suggests a serious intent to complete suicide, which is a significant factor indicating a high risk of suicide. However, previous history of overdoses doesn’t necessarily imply a more serious intent. Other factors that may suggest a more sinister intent include being male, elderly, and having a mental illness.

      Protective factors, such as religious beliefs and social support, can reduce the risk of suicide. Additionally, being responsible for children is also a protective factor. However, when assessing a patient’s risk of suicide, it is important to focus on factors that suggest a high risk, rather than protective factors.

      In conclusion, when presented with a patient who may be at risk of suicide, it is crucial to consider the effort to conceal an overdose and other factors such as age, gender, and mental health history. While protective factors such as social support and religious beliefs are important, they should not distract from the assessment of high-risk factors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      23
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 3-year-old girl is brought to the doctor by her mother. She has...

    Correct

    • A 3-year-old girl is brought to the doctor by her mother. She has been experiencing a cold for the past few days but has been generally healthy and has not had a fever. Her mother has brought her to see you because she has developed some spots over the past day. During the examination, the child is cooperative and happy, with a normal heart rate and capillary refill time. She has a runny nose and her throat appears inflamed, but there is no exudate. You also notice a small ulcer on her mucous membranes. There are two small red papules at the edge of her lower lip, and there are a few vesicles and red papules on the palmar aspect of her hands. Her chest is clear, and her tympanic membranes are normal.

      What is the recommended duration for keeping her away from daycare?

      Your Answer: No exclusion required

      Explanation:

      Children with hand foot and mouth infection can attend school or nursery as long as they are well enough to do so, and do not need to be excluded. This is because the infection is typically mild and self-limiting. However, if the child has a fever, they should be kept at home. It is important to note that exclusion periods for other illnesses, such as Chickenpox, rubella, measles, scarlet fever, and impetigo, differ from those for hand foot and mouth. For more information on exclusion periods, refer to the Public Health Agency website.

      The Health Protection Agency has provided guidance on when children should be excluded from school due to infectious conditions. Some conditions, such as conjunctivitis, fifth disease, roseola, infectious mononucleosis, head lice, threadworms, and hand, foot and mouth, do not require exclusion. Scarlet fever requires exclusion for 24 hours after commencing antibiotics, while whooping cough requires exclusion for 2 days after commencing antibiotics or 21 days from onset of symptoms if no antibiotics are taken. Measles requires exclusion for 4 days from onset of rash, rubella for 5 days from onset of rash, and Chickenpox until all lesions are crusted over. Mumps requires exclusion for 5 days from onset of swollen glands, while diarrhoea and vomiting require exclusion until symptoms have settled for 48 hours. Impetigo requires exclusion until lesions are crusted and healed, or for 48 hours after commencing antibiotic treatment, and scabies requires exclusion until treated. influenza requires exclusion until the child has recovered for 48 hours.

      Regarding Chickenpox, Public Health England recommends that children should be excluded until all lesions are crusted over, while Clinical Knowledge Summaries suggest that infectivity continues until all lesions are dry and have crusted over, usually about 5 days after the onset of the rash. It is important to follow official guidance and consult with healthcare professionals if unsure about exclusion periods for infectious conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      107.4
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  • Question 7 - A couple visit their general practitioner regarding their 38-year-old daughter who has Down's...

    Incorrect

    • A couple visit their general practitioner regarding their 38-year-old daughter who has Down's Syndrome. They are concerned that over the past year, their daughter’s social skills have diminished and she has become irritable and un-co-operative. They are especially worried that there may be an underlying medical condition causing these changes.
      Which of the following conditions occurs most commonly in adult patients with Down's syndrome?

      Your Answer: Coeliac disease

      Correct Answer: Alzheimer’s dementia

      Explanation:

      Health Conditions Associated with Down Syndrome

      Down Syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects approximately 1 in 700 births. Individuals with Down Syndrome are at an increased risk of developing certain health conditions. Here are some of the most common health conditions associated with Down Syndrome:

      Alzheimer’s Dementia: Individuals with Down Syndrome have a significantly higher risk of developing Alzheimer’s Dementia. The onset of clinical features is typically around the age of 55, and dementia is thought to contribute to death in around a third of patients.

      Ischaemic Heart Disease: The prevalence of Ischaemic Heart Disease is not increased in individuals with Down Syndrome, and for men, it has been reported to be lower than the general population.

      Addison’s Disease: While relatively rare in comparison to Alzheimer’s Dementia, Addison’s Disease is still more prevalent in individuals with Down Syndrome than in the general population.

      Carcinoma of the Thyroid: While fewer solid and other haematological malignancies are seen in individuals with Down Syndrome compared to the general population, the incidence of childhood leukaemia is increased.

      Coeliac Disease: Coeliac Disease is another autoimmune disease that occurs more commonly in people with Down Syndrome, with a prevalence of around 5%. Some recommend screening for this condition.

      In conclusion, individuals with Down Syndrome are at an increased risk of developing certain health conditions, and it is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of these risks and provide appropriate screening and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genomic Medicine
      101.1
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 35-year-old accountant presents with persistent anxiety symptoms that are significantly impacting his...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old accountant presents with persistent anxiety symptoms that are significantly impacting his daily functioning. Despite completing a self-help program and undergoing CBT, he has not experienced any significant improvement after taking Sertraline for 6 months. What is the recommended next step in treatment?

      Your Answer: Trial of an alternative SSRI such as Escitalopram or a SNRI such as Venlafaxine

      Explanation:

      If non-pharmacological treatments have not effectively managed symptoms of Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD), the first line of medication recommended is an SSRI such as Sertraline or Escitalopram. If this proves to be ineffective or not well-tolerated, an alternative SSRI or SNRI like Venlafaxine should be tried. It is important to allow 12 weeks to see the full effects of the medication. Benzodiazepines, Propranolol, and low dose Amitriptyline are not recommended in this situation. If the patient cannot tolerate or has contraindications to the aforementioned medications, a trial of Pregabalin is recommended. Referral to a mental health team is not necessary at this time as the patient has not yet tried the different management options.

      Anxiety is a common disorder that can manifest in various ways. According to NICE, the primary feature is excessive worry about multiple events associated with heightened tension. It is crucial to consider potential physical causes when diagnosing psychiatric disorders such as anxiety. Hyperthyroidism, cardiac disease, and medication-induced anxiety are important alternative causes. Medications that may trigger anxiety include salbutamol, theophylline, corticosteroids, antidepressants, and caffeine.

      NICE recommends a stepwise approach for managing generalised anxiety disorder (GAD). The first step is education about GAD and active monitoring. The second step involves low-intensity psychological interventions such as individual non-facilitated self-help, individual guided self-help, or psychoeducational groups. The third step includes high-intensity psychological interventions such as cognitive behavioural therapy or applied relaxation, or drug treatment. Sertraline is the first-line SSRI recommended by NICE. If sertraline is ineffective, an alternative SSRI or a serotonin–noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor (SNRI) such as duloxetine or venlafaxine may be offered. If the person cannot tolerate SSRIs or SNRIs, pregabalin may be considered. For patients under the age of 30 years, NICE recommends warning them of the increased risk of suicidal thinking and self-harm and weekly follow-up for the first month.

      The management of panic disorder also follows a stepwise approach. The first step is recognition and diagnosis, followed by treatment in primary care. NICE recommends either cognitive behavioural therapy or drug treatment. SSRIs are the first-line treatment. If contraindicated or no response after 12 weeks, imipramine or clomipramine should be offered. The third step involves reviewing and considering alternative treatments, followed by review and referral to specialist mental health services in the fourth and fifth steps, respectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      94
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - You are asked to go and review Sarah, an 82-year-old nursing home resident...

    Correct

    • You are asked to go and review Sarah, an 82-year-old nursing home resident with pains in her legs.

      Sarah has a 40-pack-year smoking history and has recently been diagnosed with mild cognitive impairment.

      For the last 48 hours, the staff at the nursing home have noticed Sarah is very uncomfortable when getting out of her bed. The nursing staff mention that she has now started to require assistance to transfer into her chair from the bed as she reports the pain makes her legs 'give way'.

      Sarah describes severe pains in her legs, mainly located at the back of her thighs but sometimes moving down into her lower legs and feet. She describes the pain as ‘electric shocks’.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Cauda equina syndrome

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis for a patient presenting with bilateral sciatica is cauda equina syndrome. This condition may be caused by malignant spread, which is more likely in patients with a history of smoking and advanced age, increasing the risk of prostate cancer. Bilateral claudication, Guillain-Barré syndrome, osteoarthritis, and peripheral neuropathy are less likely diagnoses as they do not present acutely with bilateral sciatica symptoms.

      Understanding Cauda Equina Syndrome

      Cauda equina syndrome (CES) is a rare but serious condition that occurs when the nerve roots in the lower back are compressed. This can lead to permanent nerve damage and long-term leg weakness, as well as urinary and bowel incontinence. It is important to consider CES in any patient who presents with new or worsening lower back pain.

      The most common cause of CES is a central disc prolapse, typically occurring at L4/5 or L5/S1. Other causes include tumors, infections, trauma, and hematomas. CES may present in a variety of ways, including low back pain, bilateral sciatica, reduced sensation or pins-and-needles in the perianal area, and decreased anal tone. Urinary dysfunction, such as incontinence, reduced awareness of bladder filling, and loss of urge to void, is also a possible symptom.

      It is crucial to recognize that there is no one symptom or sign that can diagnose or exclude CES. However, checking anal tone in patients with new-onset back pain is good practice, even though studies show that it has poor sensitivity and specificity for CES. In case of suspected CES, an urgent MRI is necessary. The management of CES involves surgical decompression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      193.3
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 35-year-old man comes in with a swollen red finger and tenderness in...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man comes in with a swollen red finger and tenderness in his left armpit, one day after being bitten by his pet dog. What is the most effective treatment?

      Your Answer: Co-amoxiclav

      Explanation:

      Treatment of Infected Dog Bites

      Dog bites have a 10% chance of becoming infected, with the most common organisms being anaerobic mouth flora and Pasteurella multocida. Capnocytophaga spp. and Streptococcus pyogenes are also possible. The recommended treatment is co-amoxiclav, which is effective against all likely organisms. Herpes simplex infection is rare in dog bites, but monkey bites can transmit the virus. Fungal infections in dogs do not typically infect bites, so fluconazole is not necessary. Flucloxacillin is ineffective against anaerobic bacteria, and metronidazole doesn’t cover aerobic Gram-negative organisms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      11.6
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 60-year-old man comes to the clinic 3 days after being hit on...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old man comes to the clinic 3 days after being hit on the left side of his head. He reports experiencing muffled hearing on the left side since the incident. Upon examination, there are no visible bruises, but both ears are covered by a thin, translucent layer of wax. Rinne's test reveals that the tuning fork is more audible when placed on the mastoid bone on the left side. On Weber's test, the sound is heard most clearly on the left side. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Perforated eardrum

      Explanation:

      Differentiating between tympanic membrane perforation and sensorineural hearing loss due to skull trauma is crucial. Rinne’s test can help identify conductive hearing loss in the affected ear, while Weber’s test can rule out sensorineural hearing loss on the right.

      Rinne’s and Weber’s Test for Differentiating Conductive and Sensorineural Deafness

      Rinne’s and Weber’s tests are used to differentiate between conductive and sensorineural deafness. Rinne’s test involves placing a tuning fork over the mastoid process until the sound is no longer heard, then repositioning it just over the external acoustic meatus. A positive test indicates that air conduction (AC) is better than bone conduction (BC), while a negative test indicates that BC is better than AC, suggesting conductive deafness.

      Weber’s test involves placing a tuning fork in the middle of the forehead equidistant from the patient’s ears and asking the patient which side is loudest. In unilateral sensorineural deafness, sound is localized to the unaffected side, while in unilateral conductive deafness, sound is localized to the affected side.

      The table below summarizes the interpretation of Rinne and Weber tests. A normal result indicates that AC is greater than BC bilaterally and the sound is midline. Conductive hearing loss is indicated by BC being greater than AC in the affected ear and AC being greater than BC in the unaffected ear, with the sound lateralizing to the affected ear. Sensorineural hearing loss is indicated by AC being greater than BC bilaterally, with the sound lateralizing to the unaffected ear.

      Overall, Rinne’s and Weber’s tests are useful tools for differentiating between conductive and sensorineural deafness, allowing for appropriate management and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      38.6
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - You see a 35-year-old patient in your morning emergency clinic who takes Beclomethasone...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 35-year-old patient in your morning emergency clinic who takes Beclomethasone 400 micrograms daily for her asthma. She is currently using her salbutamol more often than normal. Over the past two weeks she has been suffering with a 'cold' and feels her breathing has worsened. She is bringing up a small amount of white phlegm but doesn't complain of fevers. She tends to become wheezy (particularly at night). There are no associated chest pains but she does feel her chest is tight.

      On examination, she is afebrile and her oxygen saturations of 95% in air. Her peak flow is 340 L/min (usually 475 L/min). She is able to speak in full sentences. Her respiratory rate is 20 respirations per minute and pulse is 88 bpm.

      What would be the most appropriate treatment option for this patient?

      Your Answer: Start treatment with Beclomethasone diproprionate 100 mcg/Formetorol fumarate 6 mcg) two puffs twice daily

      Correct Answer: Prescribe 40 mg prednisolone daily for five days

      Explanation:

      Management of Acute Asthma Symptoms

      Several important points should be considered when managing a patient with acute asthma symptoms. Firstly, it is important to note if the patient is already taking preventative treatment for asthma. If they are, an increase in the use of their salbutamol inhaler may indicate that their symptoms are worse than usual. Secondly, recent viral infections can trigger asthma symptoms. Additionally, the absence of discoloured thick phlegm and fever makes it less likely that the patient has a bacterial infection and therefore doesn’t require antibiotic therapy.

      When managing acute asthma symptoms, it is important to note that changing inhalers may not be appropriate at this stage. Oxygen therapy is not necessary if the patient’s oxygen saturations are above 94% in air. A nebuliser may not be indicated if the patient’s breathing rate is not compromised and they are clinically stable. It may be beneficial to initially try a salbutamol inhaler before ipratropium bromide. These considerations can help guide the management of acute asthma symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      47
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  • Question 13 - A 28-year-old female has been experiencing a throbbing headache on one side for...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old female has been experiencing a throbbing headache on one side for the past day. She is currently 34 weeks pregnant and has had an uncomplicated pregnancy so far. On examination, her reflexes are normal, there is no papilloedema, and her blood pressure is 136/88 mmHg. Prior to becoming pregnant, she would typically use ibuprofen or aspirin to alleviate her headaches, which was effective.

      What is the most appropriate initial treatment for this patient's headache?

      Your Answer: Paracetamol

      Explanation:

      The recommended initial treatment for migraines during pregnancy is paracetamol, which is likely to be effective for this patient experiencing a pulsating headache on one side. Aspirin and ibuprofen should be avoided in the third trimester due to the risk of fetal ductal arteriosus closure. Sumatriptan is not considered first-line and should only be used if the potential benefits outweigh the risks, according to the manufacturer’s advice.

      Managing Migraine in Relation to Hormonal Factors

      Migraine is a common neurological condition that affects many people, particularly women. Hormonal factors such as pregnancy, contraception, and menstruation can have an impact on the management of migraine. In 2008, the Scottish Intercollegiate Guidelines Network (SIGN) produced guidelines on the management of migraine, which provide useful information on how to manage migraine in relation to these hormonal factors.

      When it comes to migraine during pregnancy, paracetamol is the first-line treatment, while NSAIDs can be used as a second-line treatment in the first and second trimester. However, aspirin and opioids such as codeine should be avoided during pregnancy. If a patient has migraine with aura, the combined oral contraceptive (COC) pill is absolutely contraindicated due to an increased risk of stroke. Women who experience migraines around the time of menstruation can be treated with mefenamic acid or a combination of aspirin, paracetamol, and caffeine. Triptans are also recommended in the acute situation. Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is safe to prescribe for patients with a history of migraine, but it may make migraines worse.

      In summary, managing migraine in relation to hormonal factors requires careful consideration and appropriate treatment. The SIGN guidelines provide valuable information on how to manage migraine in these situations, and healthcare professionals should be aware of these guidelines to ensure that patients receive the best possible care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      29.7
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  • Question 14 - Johnny is an 8-year-old boy who presents with a mild fever, rash on...

    Correct

    • Johnny is an 8-year-old boy who presents with a mild fever, rash on the hands and feet, and oral ulcers. You inform his parents that he is likely suffering from hand, foot & mouth disease. They inquire about how long he should stay home from school?

      Your Answer: No restriction

      Explanation:

      Children with hand, foot and mouth disease do not need to be excluded from childcare or school.

      Hand, Foot and Mouth Disease: A Contagious Condition in Children

      Hand, foot and mouth disease is a viral infection that commonly affects children. It is caused by intestinal viruses from the Picornaviridae family, particularly coxsackie A16 and enterovirus 71. This condition is highly contagious and often occurs in outbreaks in nurseries.

      The clinical features of hand, foot and mouth disease include mild systemic upset such as sore throat and fever, followed by the appearance of oral ulcers and vesicles on the palms and soles of the feet.

      Symptomatic treatment is the only management option available, which includes general advice on hydration and analgesia. It is important to note that there is no link between this disease and cattle, and children do not need to be excluded from school. However, the Health Protection Agency recommends that children who are unwell should stay home until they feel better. If there is a large outbreak, it is advisable to contact the agency for assistance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      14.4
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  • Question 15 - A 24-year-old man is seen with a severe asthma exacerbation, which is typically...

    Correct

    • A 24-year-old man is seen with a severe asthma exacerbation, which is typically controlled with maximal inhaled corticosteroid and LABA. He has presented with worsening symptoms of cough and wheeze, which his partner reports began two days ago with a heavy cold. What is the appropriate clinical management for this patient?

      Your Answer: Normal heart rate is always associated with a good prognosis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Tachycardia and Bradycardia in Acute Asthma

      Tachycardia is a common symptom in acute asthma, but severe attacks may also lead to episodes of bradycardia. A peak flow measurement of only 30% of predicted indicates severe airway obstruction and requires immediate admission and aggressive treatment. While oximetry is useful for assessing oxygenation, it cannot provide information on CO2 retention or acid-base status. Therefore, high-flow oxygen should always be administered in the management of acute asthma.

      Understanding the symptoms and measurements associated with acute asthma is crucial for effective management. Tachycardia and bradycardia are two possible heart rate changes that may occur during an asthma attack. Additionally, a peak flow measurement of 30% or less of predicted indicates severe airway obstruction and requires prompt medical attention. While oximetry is useful for assessing oxygenation, it cannot provide a complete picture of the patient’s respiratory status. Therefore, high-flow oxygen should always be given to patients with acute asthma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      131.2
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 75-year-old patient of yours has terminal lung cancer and is taking morphine....

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old patient of yours has terminal lung cancer and is taking morphine. One day you visit him at home to review his medication and check on symptoms. He and his wife are both confused with dosing and think he may have taken too much.

      Which of the following symptoms and signs suggests opioid toxicity?

      Your Answer: Pinpoint pupils

      Explanation:

      Opioid Toxicity and Pain Management in MRCGP Curriculum

      Pinpoint pupils, confusion, nightmares, agitation, hypotension, depressed respiration, and myoclonus are all indicative of opioid toxicity. It is important to recognize these symptoms as they can be life-threatening. As part of the MRCGP curriculum, it is essential to have a thorough understanding of pain management, including the most commonly used drugs and any potential adverse effects or interactions. This knowledge will enable healthcare professionals to provide effective pain relief while minimizing the risk of opioid toxicity. Therefore, it is crucial to prioritize this aspect of the curriculum to ensure that doctors are equipped to manage pain in their patients safely and effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • End Of Life
      15.8
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 42-year-old woman presents with difficult-to-treat hypertension. She is on two agents and...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old woman presents with difficult-to-treat hypertension. She is on two agents and currently has a BP of 155/95 mmHg. She has noted that her face has become more rounded over the years and she is having increasing trouble with both acne and hirsutism. Fasting blood glucose testing has revealed impaired glucose tolerance. There has also been increasing trouble with abdominal obesity and she has noticed some purple stretch marks appearing around her abdomen.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Cushing syndrome

      Explanation:

      Cushing Syndrome: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Differential Diagnosis

      Cushing syndrome is a rare disorder characterized by hypercortisolaemia, which leads to a variety of symptoms and signs. The most common features include a round, plethoric facial appearance, weight gain (especially truncal obesity, buffalo hump, and supraclavicular fat pads), skin fragility, proximal muscle weakness, mood disturbance, menstrual disturbance, and reduced libido. Hypertension is present in more than 50% of patients, impaired glucose tolerance in 30%, and osteopenia, osteoporosis, and premature vascular disease are common consequences if left untreated.

      The annual incidence of Cushing syndrome is approximately two per million, and it is more common in women. The cause of the disease is hypercortisolaemia, and in 68% of cases, it is due to a pituitary adenoma producing adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH). Ectopic ACTH production is the cause in 12% of cases (most commonly small-cell carcinoma of the lung and bronchial carcinoid tumours), adrenal adenoma in 10%, and adrenal carcinoma in 8%.

      Diagnosis of Cushing syndrome is made based on the results of the 24-hour urinary free-cortisol assay or the 1 mg (low-dose) overnight dexamethasone suppression test.

      Differential diagnosis includes multiple endocrine neoplasia, essential hypertension, phaeochromocytoma, and simple obesity. However, multiple endocrine neoplasia is less likely due to the rarity of the syndrome and lack of other features. Essential hypertension may respond to two agents but cannot explain the other symptoms and signs. Phaeochromocytoma is a rare tumour that secretes catecholamines and presents with headache, sweating, palpitations, tremor, and hypertension. Simple obesity is a differential diagnosis but cannot explain the other features.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      51.6
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 25-year-old man with a history of well-managed asthma presents with a 10-hour...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old man with a history of well-managed asthma presents with a 10-hour history of a pruritic rash. He mentions having recently recuperated from a mild upper respiratory tract infection. The patient has a diffuse urticarial rash on his trunk and limbs. There are no signs of mucosal swelling, he is stable hemodynamically, and his chest is clear upon auscultation.

      What is the most effective course of treatment?

      Your Answer: Oral non-sedating antihistamine

      Explanation:

      The first-line treatment for acute urticaria is oral non-sedating antihistamines. These include cetirizine, fexofenadine, or loratadine. Urticarial rash is caused by inflammatory mediators released during mast cell activation, with histamine being the principal mediator. H1 receptor antagonists inhibit this process. Non-sedating antihistamines are preferred over sedating antihistamines as they do not cause significant drowsiness, as they do not cross the blood-brain barrier. Intramuscular adrenaline is not indicated for acute urticaria, as it is only used in suspected anaphylaxis. Oral steroids may be prescribed in addition to a non-sedative oral antihistamine if the symptoms are severe. Topical antihistamines are not recommended by NICE for the management of acute urticaria.

      Urticaria is a condition characterized by the swelling of the skin, either locally or generally. It is commonly caused by an allergic reaction, although non-allergic causes are also possible. The affected skin appears pale or pink and is raised, resembling hives, wheals, or nettle rash. It is also accompanied by itching or pruritus. The first-line treatment for urticaria is non-sedating antihistamines, while prednisolone is reserved for severe or resistant cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      110
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - You see a 49-year-old man in your afternoon clinic who has a history...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 49-year-old man in your afternoon clinic who has a history of flexural psoriasis. He reports a recent flare-up over the past 2 weeks, with both axillae and groin involvement. The patient is not currently on any treatment and has no known drug allergies.

      What would be the most suitable initial therapy for this patient's psoriasis?

      Your Answer: Potent corticosteroid once daily in combination with a vitamin D analogue (applied separately)

      Correct Answer: Mild or moderate potency topical corticosteroid applied once or twice daily

      Explanation:

      For the treatment of flexural psoriasis, the correct option is to use a mild or moderate potency topical corticosteroid applied once or twice daily. This is because the skin in flexural areas is thinner and more sensitive to steroids compared to other areas. The affected areas in flexural psoriasis are the groin, genital region, axillae, inframammary folds, abdominal folds, sacral and gluteal cleft. In this case, the patient has axillary psoriasis, and the treatment should begin with a mild or moderate potency corticosteroid for up to two weeks. If there is a good response, repeated short courses of topical corticosteroids may be used to maintain disease control. Potent topical corticosteroids are not advisable for flexural regions, and the use of Vitamin D preparations is not supported by evidence. If there is ongoing treatment failure, we should consider an alternative diagnosis and refer the patient to a dermatologist who may consider calcineurin inhibitors as a second-line treatment. We should also advise our patients to use emollients regularly and provide appropriate lifestyle advice.

      Psoriasis is a chronic skin condition that can also affect the joints. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has released guidelines for managing psoriasis and psoriatic arthropathy. For chronic plaque psoriasis, NICE recommends a stepwise approach starting with regular use of emollients to reduce scale loss and itching. First-line treatment involves applying a potent corticosteroid and vitamin D analogue separately, once daily in the morning and evening, for up to 4 weeks. If there is no improvement after 8 weeks, a vitamin D analogue twice daily can be used as second-line treatment. Third-line options include a potent corticosteroid applied twice daily for up to 4 weeks or a coal tar preparation applied once or twice daily. Phototherapy and systemic therapy are also options for managing psoriasis.

      For scalp psoriasis, NICE recommends using a potent topical corticosteroid once daily for 4 weeks. If there is no improvement, a different formulation of the corticosteroid or a topical agent to remove adherent scale can be used before applying the corticosteroid. For face, flexural, and genital psoriasis, a mild or moderate potency corticosteroid applied once or twice daily for a maximum of 2 weeks is recommended.

      When using topical steroids, it is important to be aware of potential side effects such as skin atrophy, striae, and rebound symptoms. The scalp, face, and flexures are particularly prone to steroid atrophy, so topical steroids should not be used for more than 1-2 weeks per month. Systemic side effects may occur when potent corticosteroids are used on large areas of the body. NICE recommends a 4-week break before starting another course of topical corticosteroids and using potent corticosteroids for no longer than 8 weeks at a time and very potent corticosteroids for no longer than 4 weeks at a time. Vitamin D analogues, such as calcipotriol, can be used long-term and tend to reduce the scale and thickness of plaques but not the redness. Dithranol and coal tar are other treatment options with their own unique mechanisms of action and potential adverse effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      44.4
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 42-year-old woman comes back from her cardiology appointment where she was diagnosed...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old woman comes back from her cardiology appointment where she was diagnosed with congenital long QT syndrome after an ECG was done for palpitations.

      What medication should she avoid in the future?

      Your Answer: Clarithromycin

      Explanation:

      The use of macrolide antibiotics like clarithromycin, erythromycin, and azithromycin may lead to the prolongation of the QTc interval. This can be particularly dangerous for patients with congenital long QT syndrome as it may trigger torsades de pointes. However, medications such as bisoprolol and digoxin can actually shorten the QTc interval and are therefore safe to use. Amoxicillin and cyclizine, on the other hand, do not have any known effects on the QTc interval.

      Macrolides are a class of antibiotics that include erythromycin, clarithromycin, and azithromycin. They work by blocking translocation during bacterial protein synthesis, ultimately inhibiting bacterial growth. While they are generally considered bacteriostatic, their effectiveness can vary depending on the dose and type of organism being treated. Resistance to macrolides can occur through post-transcriptional methylation of the 23S bacterial ribosomal RNA.

      However, macrolides can also have adverse effects. They may cause prolongation of the QT interval and gastrointestinal side-effects, such as nausea. Cholestatic jaundice is a potential risk, but using erythromycin stearate may reduce this risk. Additionally, macrolides are known to inhibit the cytochrome P450 isoenzyme CYP3A4, which metabolizes statins. Therefore, it is important to stop taking statins while on a course of macrolides to avoid the risk of myopathy and rhabdomyolysis. Azithromycin is also associated with hearing loss and tinnitus.

      Overall, while macrolides can be effective antibiotics, they do come with potential risks and side-effects. It is important to weigh the benefits and risks before starting a course of treatment with these antibiotics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      16.2
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 67-year-old woman complains of visual difficulties. She has a history of rheumatoid...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old woman complains of visual difficulties. She has a history of rheumatoid arthritis, depression, and is on medication for hypertension. She has been experiencing headaches and blurred vision for the past few days, and today she noticed a significant decrease in vision in her right eye. During the examination, her right eye appeared red, her pupil was sluggish, and her corrected visual acuity was 6/30. Her medication was recently altered. Which of the following medications is the most probable cause of this occurrence?

      Your Answer: Methotrexate

      Correct Answer: Amitriptyline

      Explanation:

      Anticholinergics and tricyclic antidepressants are drugs that can cause acute glaucoma.

      Acute angle closure glaucoma (AACG) is a type of glaucoma where there is a rise in intraocular pressure (IOP) due to a blockage in the outflow of aqueous humor. This condition is more likely to occur in individuals with hypermetropia, pupillary dilation, and lens growth associated with aging. Symptoms of AACG include severe pain, decreased visual acuity, a hard and red eye, halos around lights, and a semi-dilated non-reacting pupil. AACG is an emergency and requires urgent referral to an ophthalmologist. The initial medical treatment involves a combination of eye drops, such as a direct parasympathomimetic, a beta-blocker, and an alpha-2 agonist, as well as intravenous acetazolamide to reduce aqueous secretions. Definitive management involves laser peripheral iridotomy, which creates a tiny hole in the peripheral iris to allow aqueous humor to flow to the angle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
      34.6
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 35-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner, having developed sudden-onset weakness and...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner, having developed sudden-onset weakness and numbness in her left arm and leg while exercising. She takes the combined oral contraceptive pill. No other risk factors for stroke are identified.
      On examination, she exhibits mild pyramidal weakness on the left side of her face, arm and leg. Left-sided hemisensory loss is also present, as well as left homonymous hemianopia and left-sided inattention.
      She is admitted to hospital for further testing. A brain computed tomography (CT) scan and diffusion-weighted magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) show a recent, single infarction in the territory of the right middle cerebral artery.
      What is the most likely cause for this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Thromboembolic disorder secondary to carotid atherosclerosis

      Correct Answer: Dissection of the right carotid artery

      Explanation:

      Differential diagnosis for a patient with total anterior cerebral syndrome

      Explanation:

      A patient presenting with total anterior cerebral syndrome, which includes left-sided weakness, hemisensory loss, and homonymous hemianopia, may have various underlying causes. One possibility is a spontaneous or minimally provoked cervical vascular dissection, which can affect the internal carotid and its middle cerebral branch. Although two-thirds of patients with this condition experience head or neck pain at onset, some do not, as in this case. Horner syndrome may also occur. Anticoagulation may be necessary, and specialist investigation and management are required.

      Another potential cause is an inherited thromboembolic disorder, which is more likely to manifest as venous thrombosis, such as deep vein thrombosis and pulmonary embolism, rather than arterial ischaemic stroke. Women of childbearing age with this condition may also have recurrent miscarriages.

      Cardioembolism from an atrial septal defect is possible, especially if the ischaemic event occurs during exercise and is precipitated by a Valsalva manoeuvre. However, if exercise provokes the event, arterial dissection is more likely.

      Dissection of the vertebral artery is less common than that of the right carotid artery but can also cause a posterior circulation infarct.

      Finally, a thromboembolic disorder secondary to carotid atherosclerosis, which is more prevalent in older patients with other cardiovascular risk factors, can also lead to ischaemic stroke in a similar distribution.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      197.5
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Tom is a 35-year-old carpenter, who comes to your clinic because he tells...

    Correct

    • Tom is a 35-year-old carpenter, who comes to your clinic because he tells you that his wife is concerned about his family history of bowel cancer.

      On questioning, Tom denies any history of abdominal discomfort, changes in bowel habit or rectal bleeding. He is generally fit and well, and rarely attends your surgery.

      Which one of the following is the single most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer: Take a full family history

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hereditary Nonpolyposis Colorectal Cancer

      Hereditary Nonpolyposis Colorectal Cancer (HNPCC) is a genetic condition that increases the risk of developing colorectal cancer. If you or a family member have been diagnosed with HNPCC, it is important to take the necessary precautions to manage the risk.

      If you are a reluctant clinic-attendee, it is important to take your concerns seriously. Reassurance should not be given prematurely without knowing the full family history, including the ages of cancer diagnoses. A full family history can help determine if there is evidence of a genetic susceptibility. The modified Amsterdam criteria are widely recognized for assessing this risk.

      It is important to understand the clinical presentation of HNPCC and to take proactive measures to manage the risk. By working with healthcare professionals and staying informed, individuals with HNPCC can take steps to reduce their risk of developing colorectal cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genomic Medicine
      35.8
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 30-year-old woman presents with a 3-week episode of insomnia, increased psychomotor activity...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman presents with a 3-week episode of insomnia, increased psychomotor activity and impulsivity. There is no history of substance abuse, general medical problems, emotional stresses or depressive episodes. Laboratory tests for liver and thyroid functions are normal. Mental status examination reveals a well-oriented woman with pressured speech and mood lability, but no psychotic symptoms.
      Select from the list the single most likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer: Hypomania

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hypomania and Antisocial Personality Disorder

      Hypomania is a mood disorder characterized by an elevated and euphoric mood, increased activity, decreased need for sleep, and impaired judgement. It is a feature of bipolar disorder 2 and cyclothymia, and can also occur in drug-induced mood disorders. Antisocial personality disorder, on the other hand, is characterized by a disregard for and violation of others’ rights since age 15, and typically presents in adulthood. It is important to distinguish between these two disorders, as they have different diagnostic criteria and treatment approaches.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      23.2
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 72-year-old man presents with a four month history of left sided hearing...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man presents with a four month history of left sided hearing loss. He denies any pain, discharge tinnitus, vertigo or other symptoms of note. He is an ex-smoker with a 45 year pack history.

      On examination otoscopy of the right ear appears normal whilst the left ear shows a dullness to the tympanic membrane with air bubbles within the middle ear, the external auditory canal is clear. Rinne's test shows bone conduction better than air conduction in the left ear and air conduction better than bone conduction in the right ear. Weber's test lateralises to the left.

      What is the most appropriate cause of action?

      Your Answer: Nasal decongestants

      Correct Answer: Two week wait referral to local ENT service

      Explanation:

      Understanding Head and Neck Cancer: Symptoms and Referral Criteria

      Head and neck cancer is a broad term that encompasses various types of cancer, including oral cavity cancers, pharynx cancers, and larynx cancers. Some of the common symptoms of head and neck cancer include a persistent sore throat, hoarseness, neck lump, and mouth ulcer.

      To ensure timely diagnosis and treatment, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has established referral criteria for suspected cancer pathways. For instance, individuals aged 45 and above with persistent unexplained hoarseness or an unexplained lump in the neck should be referred for an appointment within two weeks to rule out laryngeal cancer.

      Similarly, people with unexplained ulceration in the oral cavity lasting for more than three weeks or a persistent and unexplained lump in the neck should be referred for an appointment within two weeks to assess for possible oral cancer. Dentists should also consider an urgent referral for people with a lump on the lip or in the oral cavity or a red or red and white patch in the oral cavity consistent with erythroplakia or erythroleukoplakia.

      Lastly, individuals with an unexplained thyroid lump should be referred for an appointment within two weeks to rule out thyroid cancer. By following these referral criteria, healthcare professionals can ensure that individuals with head and neck cancer receive prompt and appropriate care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      78.4
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - You have conducted an audit of mammogram screening for women over the age...

    Incorrect

    • You have conducted an audit of mammogram screening for women over the age of 50. After the initial audit cycle, you discover that only 35% of eligible women have had a mammogram within the past two years. You implement a program to improve mammogram screening and re-evaluate the percentage with mammogram results 12 months later.

      Which statistical test would be most appropriate to determine if there has been a significant change in the number of women receiving mammograms?

      Your Answer: t test

      Correct Answer: Chi square test

      Explanation:

      Statistical Tests for Comparing Proportions, Means, and Associations

      The chi square test is the standard statistical test for comparing proportions. It involves comparing the number observed to have a certain characteristic with the number expected if there was no difference. ANOVA and ANCOVA are analyses used for statistical comparison between the means of several groups, with ANCOVA also taking into account continuous explanatory variables. The t test is used to compare the means of two groups, while Spearman’s rank correlation measures the degree of association between two numerical variables. These tests are useful for analyzing data in various fields, including healthcare, social sciences, and business. Proper understanding and application of these tests can lead to more accurate and reliable conclusions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
      24.3
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 29-year-old woman had presented with occasional palpitations, sweating and restlessness. An ECG...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old woman had presented with occasional palpitations, sweating and restlessness. An ECG had shown sinus tachycardia.

      Her blood tests had showed:

      Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) 0.2 mU/L (0.5-5.5)
      Free thyroxine (T4) 23 pmol/L (9.0 - 18)

      You had started her on a beta-blocker and referred her to secondary care for specialist treatment. However, the patient returns to you stating that her appointment is in 4 months' time and she cannot carry on with her symptoms for that long.

      What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Start carbimazole

      Explanation:

      This young female patient is likely suffering from Graves’ disease, causing hyperthyroidism and symptoms such as sweating, palpitations, and restlessness. A low TSH and high T4 confirm the diagnosis, along with positive TRAbs. While waiting for secondary care, starting carbimazole is the appropriate course of action to alleviate symptoms. Seeking senior or remote specialist advice can help with prescribing. Referring to the emergency department is unnecessary as the palpitations are occasional and the ECG shows sinus tachycardia. Starting amiodarone is not recommended as it can cause thyroid dysfunction and the ECG shows sinus tachycardia, not atrial fibrillation. Continuing to wait for secondary care review doesn’t address the patient’s symptoms and concerns.

      Management of Graves’ Disease

      Despite numerous trials, there is no clear consensus on the optimal management of Graves’ disease. Treatment options include anti-thyroid drugs (ATDs), radioiodine treatment, and surgery. In recent years, ATDs have become the most popular first-line therapy for Graves’ disease. This is particularly true for patients with significant symptoms of thyrotoxicosis or those at risk of hyperthyroid complications, such as elderly patients or those with cardiovascular disease.

      To control symptoms, propranolol is often used to block the adrenergic effects. NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend that patients with Graves’ disease be referred to secondary care for ongoing treatment. If symptoms are not controlled with propranolol, carbimazole should be considered in primary care.

      ATD therapy involves starting carbimazole at 40 mg and gradually reducing it to maintain euthyroidism. This treatment is typically continued for 12-18 months. The major complication of carbimazole therapy is agranulocytosis. An alternative regime, called block-and-replace, involves starting carbimazole at 40 mg and adding thyroxine when the patient is euthyroid. This treatment typically lasts for 6-9 months. Patients following an ATD titration regime have been shown to suffer fewer side-effects than those on a block-and-replace regime.

      Radioiodine treatment is often used in patients who relapse following ATD therapy or are resistant to primary ATD treatment. Contraindications include pregnancy (should be avoided for 4-6 months following treatment) and age < 16 years. Thyroid eye disease is a relative contraindication, as it may worsen the condition. The proportion of patients who become hypothyroid depends on the dose given, but as a rule, the majority of patients will require thyroxine supplementation after 5 years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      22.2
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - You encounter a 24-year-old woman at your family planning clinic who wishes to...

    Incorrect

    • You encounter a 24-year-old woman at your family planning clinic who wishes to initiate the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP). She has no significant medical history, but she does smoke 5-10 cigarettes per day. Her BMI and blood pressure are both within normal ranges. Her aunt was diagnosed with endometrial cancer at the age of 55.

      Which of the following statements is accurate?

      Your Answer: The COCP is associated with an increased risk of endometrial cancer

      Correct Answer: COCP is associated with a reduced risk of ovarian cancer

      Explanation:

      The use of combined hormonal contraceptive pills can lead to a decreased risk of ovarian and endometrial cancer that can last for many years even after discontinuation. However, for women under 35 years of age who smoke, the UKMEC category is 2, indicating that the benefits of using the method generally outweigh the potential risks. For women over 35 years of age who smoke, the UKMEC category is 3 if they smoke less than 15 cigarettes a day and 4 if they smoke more than 15 cigarettes a day.

      While some meta-analyses have shown a slightly increased risk of breast cancer among women using COCP, there is no significant risk of breast cancer after 10 years of discontinuation. Additionally, COCP can help reduce menstrual bleeding and pain, as well as alleviate menopausal symptoms.

      Pros and Cons of the Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill

      The combined oral contraceptive pill is a highly effective method of birth control with a failure rate of less than one per 100 woman years. It is a convenient option that doesn’t interfere with sexual activity and its contraceptive effects are reversible upon stopping. Additionally, it can make periods regular, lighter, and less painful, and may reduce the risk of ovarian, endometrial, and colorectal cancer. It may also protect against pelvic inflammatory disease, ovarian cysts, benign breast disease, and acne vulgaris.

      However, there are also some disadvantages to consider. One of the main drawbacks is that people may forget to take it, which can reduce its effectiveness. It also offers no protection against sexually transmitted infections, so additional precautions may be necessary. There is an increased risk of venous thromboembolic disease, breast and cervical cancer, stroke, and ischaemic heart disease, especially in smokers. Temporary side effects such as headache, nausea, and breast tenderness may also be experienced.

      Despite some reports of weight gain, a Cochrane review did not find a causal relationship between the combined oral contraceptive pill and weight gain. Overall, the combined oral contraceptive pill can be a safe and effective option for birth control, but it is important to weigh the pros and cons and discuss any concerns with a healthcare provider.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
      38.4
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Barbara is a 44 year old woman with a diagnosis of metastatic ovarian...

    Incorrect

    • Barbara is a 44 year old woman with a diagnosis of metastatic ovarian cancer. She is a single mother of 3 children: John who is 14 years old, Michael who is 17 years old preparing for his A-Levels, and Sarah who is 20 years old and attending college. She seeks your guidance on child tax credits. Which of her children qualify for child tax credits?

      Your Answer: None of the children

      Correct Answer: Lucy and Robert

      Explanation:

      Understanding Child Tax Credits

      Child tax credits are a form of financial assistance provided to families to help with the expenses of raising children. To be eligible for child tax credits, certain criteria must be met. Firstly, the age of the child is taken into consideration. Children under the age of 16 can be claimed for until the 31st of August following their 16th birthday. Additionally, children under the age of 20 who are in approved education or training can also be claimed for.

      Secondly, responsibility for the child is also a factor in determining eligibility. If the child lives with you all the time, or if they normally live with you and you are their primary caregiver, you may be eligible for child tax credits. Other indicators of responsibility include the child keeping their toys and clothes at your home, you paying for their meals and giving them pocket money, or if they live in an EEA country or Switzerland but are financially dependent on you.

      In summary, child tax credits are a helpful resource for families with children. By meeting the age and responsibility criteria, families can receive financial assistance to help with the costs of raising children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      56.1
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 55-year-old woman with a history of polymyalgia rheumatica has been taking prednisolone...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman with a history of polymyalgia rheumatica has been taking prednisolone 10 mg for the past 6 months. A DEXA scan shows the following results:

      L2 T-score -1.6 SD
      Femoral neck T-score -1.7 SD

      What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Vitamin D + calcium supplementation

      Correct Answer: Vitamin D + calcium supplementation + oral bisphosphonate

      Explanation:

      Supplementation of vitamin D and calcium along with oral bisphosphonate.

      Managing Osteoporosis Risk in Patients on Corticosteroids

      Osteoporosis is a significant risk for patients taking corticosteroids, which are commonly used in clinical practice. To manage this risk appropriately, the 2002 Royal College of Physicians (RCP) guidelines provide a concise guide to prevention and treatment. According to these guidelines, the risk of osteoporosis increases significantly once a patient takes the equivalent of prednisolone 7.5mg a day for three or more months. Therefore, it is crucial to manage patients in an anticipatory manner, starting bone protection immediately if it is likely that the patient will need to take steroids for at least three months.

      The RCP guidelines divide patients into two groups based on age and fragility fracture history. Patients over the age of 65 years or those who have previously had a fragility fracture should be offered bone protection. For patients under the age of 65 years, a bone density scan should be offered, and further management depends on the T score. If the T score is greater than 0, patients can be reassured. If the T score is between 0 and -1.5, a repeat bone density scan should be done in 1-3 years. If the T score is less than -1.5, bone protection should be offered.

      The first-line treatment for corticosteroid-induced osteoporosis is alendronate. Patients should also be replete in calcium and vitamin D. By following these guidelines, healthcare providers can effectively manage the risk of osteoporosis in patients taking corticosteroids.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      20.8
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing (1/3) 33%
Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing (0/1) 0%
Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology (3/3) 100%
Children And Young People (2/4) 50%
Mental Health (2/3) 67%
Genomic Medicine (1/2) 50%
Musculoskeletal Health (1/2) 50%
Infectious Disease And Travel Health (2/2) 100%
Respiratory Health (1/2) 50%
Maternity And Reproductive Health (1/1) 100%
End Of Life (1/1) 100%
Dermatology (1/2) 50%
Eyes And Vision (0/1) 0%
Neurology (0/1) 0%
Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge (0/1) 0%
Gynaecology And Breast (0/1) 0%
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