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  • Question 1 - A 55-year-old woman presents to the clinic with abnormal liver function tests (LFTs)....

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old woman presents to the clinic with abnormal liver function tests (LFTs). She reports drinking no more than 3 units of alcohol per week and has no significant medical history. Her dentist prescribed amoxicillin for a dental infection 2 weeks ago. On physical examination, she is overweight with a BMI of 30 kg/m2. Her LFTs reveal:
      ALT 120 U/L (5-40)
      AST 130 U/L (10-40)
      Alkaline phosphatase 200 U/L (45-105)
      What is the most likely cause of her abnormal LFTs?

      Your Answer: Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease

      Explanation:

      Non-Alcoholic Fatty Liver Disease (NAFLD) and its Causes

      Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD) is a common condition caused by the accumulation of fat in the liver, leading to inflammation. It is often associated with obesity, hypertension, dyslipidaemia, and insulin resistance. NAFLD is the most likely cause of liver enzyme abnormalities in patients with these conditions. However, other causes of hepatitis should be excluded before making this diagnosis.

      Patients who are obese and diabetic are advised to lose weight and control their diabetes. A low-fat, low-calorie diet is usually recommended alongside treatment to lower HbA1c. Patients with NAFLD should avoid alcohol or other substances that could be harmful to the liver. It is important to note that deranged liver enzymes are not listed as side effects for amoxicillin in the British National Formulary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      19.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 25-year-old student nurse has come to you feeling depressed. She has had...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old student nurse has come to you feeling depressed. She has had a number of health related problems in the recent past and feels that they may be a contributing factor because she has taken a lot of sick leave and now has to meet with the head of human resources.

      She suffers from asthma, thyroid disease and acne. She thinks that one of her medicines may be contributing to her depression.

      Which of the following is most likely to cause depression?

      Your Answer: Isotretinoin

      Correct Answer: Prednisolone tablets

      Explanation:

      Medications and Depression

      Depression caused by medication is not a common occurrence. However, certain medications have been linked to depression. These include isotretinoin, lipid soluble beta blockers like propranolol, methyldopa, and opioid analgesics. Steroids have been associated with mania, but levothyroxine treatment doesn’t cause depression. Antihistamines are rarely linked to depression. Out of the medications listed, isotretinoin is the most likely to cause depression. It is important to discuss any concerns about medication and mental health with a healthcare provider.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      80.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 53-year-old man presents to the GUM clinic with a swollen, tender, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 53-year-old man presents to the GUM clinic with a swollen, tender, and red glans penis that he has been experiencing for the past five days. He is unable to retract his foreskin fully and is experiencing pain while urinating. He has no history of sexual activity and has been treated for balanitis three times in the past year with saline baths and topical clotrimazole, despite testing negative for sexually transmitted and bacterial infections. He has a medical history of diabetes mellitus.

      After treating the acute episode with saline baths and topical clotrimazole, what is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Prophylactic oral fluconazole

      Correct Answer: Refer for circumcision

      Explanation:

      Recurrent balanitis can be effectively treated with circumcision.

      Balanitis, which is characterized by inflammation of the glans penis, can be caused by various factors such as sexually transmitted infections, dermatitis, bacterial infections, or fungal infections like Candida. In this case, the patient’s diabetes has made them susceptible to opportunistic fungal infections.

      For acute infections, treatment involves addressing the underlying cause and using saline baths. Topical treatments like hydrocortisone, clotrimazole, miconazole, or nystatin cream may also be recommended depending on the cause of the infection.

      However, if the balanitis keeps recurrent, circumcision is the most appropriate treatment option. This procedure can effectively prevent the condition from happening again.

      Understanding Circumcision

      Circumcision is a practice that has been carried out in various cultures for centuries. Today, it is mainly practiced by people of the Jewish and Islamic faith for religious or cultural reasons. However, it is important to note that circumcision for these reasons is not available on the NHS.

      The medical benefits of circumcision are still a topic of debate. However, some studies have shown that it can reduce the risk of penile cancer, urinary tract infections, and sexually transmitted infections, including HIV.

      There are also medical indications for circumcision, such as phimosis, recurrent balanitis, balanitis xerotica obliterans, and paraphimosis. It is crucial to rule out hypospadias before performing circumcision as the foreskin may be needed for surgical repair.

      Circumcision can be performed under local or general anesthesia. It is a personal decision that should be made after careful consideration of the potential benefits and risks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      37.1
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 49-year-old teacher comes to the clinic complaining of cough and pleuritic chest...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old teacher comes to the clinic complaining of cough and pleuritic chest pain that has been going on for 4 days. The patient has no significant medical history. During the physical examination, the patient's temperature is 38.1ºC, blood pressure is 122/78 mmHg, respiratory rate is 20/min, and pulse is 80/min. Upon auscultation of the chest, bronchial breathing is heard in the right base and the same area is dull to percussion. What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Oral co-amoxiclav

      Correct Answer: Oral amoxicillin

      Explanation:

      Pneumonia is a serious respiratory infection that requires prompt assessment and management. In the primary care setting, the CRB65 criteria are used to stratify patients based on their risk of mortality. Patients with a score of 0 are considered low risk and may be treated at home, while those with a score of 3 or 4 are high risk and require urgent admission to hospital. Antibiotic therapy should be considered based on the patient’s CRP level. In the secondary care setting, the CURB65 criteria are used, which includes an additional criterion of urea > 7 mmol/L. Chest x-rays and blood and sputum cultures are recommended for intermediate or high-risk patients. Management of low-severity pneumonia typically involves a 5-day course of amoxicillin, while moderate to high-severity pneumonia may require dual antibiotic therapy for 7-10 days. Discharge criteria and advice post-discharge are also provided, including information on expected symptom resolution and the need for a repeat chest x-ray at 6 weeks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      57.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 55-year-old man presents with a red eye. He complains of a one...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man presents with a red eye. He complains of a one day history of a painful 'ache' in his right eye and that his vision has become blurry.
      He is systemically well and has no significant ocular past medical history. His last optician check was eight months ago and he tells you that he was advised his vision was good and there were no issues.
      On examination he has an obvious red right eye. Visual acuity is 6/6 in the left eye and 6/60 in the right eye. The right eye is markedly photophobic and watery.
      What is the most appropriate management strategy?

      Your Answer: Prescribe antibacterial topical treatment (for example, chloramphenicol)

      Correct Answer: Refer immediately to eye casualty

      Explanation:

      Acute Uveitis: A Medical Emergency

      The main issue at hand is the presence of an acute red eye with a significant reduction in visual acuity. Regardless of any other symptoms or diagnosis, this requires immediate referral for assessment in eye casualty. Acute uveitis is a possible diagnosis in this scenario, with patients over 20 years of age being affected in 90% of cases, with a mean age of onset at 40 years.

      It is important to note that the major histocompatibility complex antigen HLA-B27 is positive in approximately 50% of all patients with uveitis, and should be considered in cases where there are co-existing conditions such as ankylosing spondylitis, juvenile rheumatoid arthritis, and reactive arthritis.

      According to the College of Optometrists, onset of acute uveitis is usually sudden at the first episode and gradual at subsequent episodes. It is typically unilateral, and if bilateral, it is more likely to be associated with systemic disease and more likely to become chronic. The main symptoms include pain (dull/ache), exacerbated on induced pupillary constriction (direct, near, or consensual), photophobia, redness, decreased vision, and lacrimation. It is important to note that if the condition is recurrent, the eye may be asymptomatic and white despite the presence of inflammation.

      In summary, acute uveitis is a medical emergency that requires immediate referral for assessment in eye casualty. It is important to consider co-existing conditions and to be aware of the main symptoms associated with this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
      25.8
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - What is true during menopause? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is true during menopause?

      Your Answer: Hormone profiles are needed for confirmation in most cases

      Correct Answer: Phyto-oestrogens are as effective as HRT

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Menopausal Symptoms

      Systemic oestrogens remain the most effective treatment for hot flashes during menopause, according to available evidence. However, hormone profiling is only useful in uncertain cases, and clonidine effectiveness in treating hot flashes is not yet conclusive. Loss of libido is often caused by a decrease in circulating androgens, but tibolone has been shown to improve libido. On the other hand, counselling efficacy in treating menopausal symptoms is still uncertain, and phyto-oestrogens are no more effective than a placebo, according to BMJ Clinical Evidence. In summary, systemic oestrogens and tibolone are the most promising treatments for menopausal symptoms, while other options require further research.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      21.8
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  • Question 7 - A 75 year-old woman comes to the clinic with a non-healing skin area...

    Incorrect

    • A 75 year-old woman comes to the clinic with a non-healing skin area on her ankle. She had a deep vein thrombosis 15 years ago after a hip replacement surgery. She is currently taking Adcal D3 and no other medications. During the examination, a superficial ulcer is observed in front of the medial malleolus. Apart from this, she appears to be in good health.

      What test would be the most beneficial in deciding the next course of action?

      Your Answer: Lower limb doppler

      Correct Answer: Ankle-brachial pressure index

      Explanation:

      The patient exhibits typical signs of a venous ulcer and appears to be in good overall health without any indications of infection. The recommended treatment for venous ulcers involves the use of compression dressings, but it is crucial to ensure that the patient’s arterial circulation is sufficient to tolerate some level of compression.

      Venous ulceration is a type of ulcer that is commonly found above the medial malleolus. To determine the cause of non-healing ulcers, it is important to conduct an ankle-brachial pressure index (ABPI) test. A normal ABPI value is between 0.9 to 1.2, while values below 0.9 indicate arterial disease. However, values above 1.3 may also indicate arterial disease due to arterial calcification, especially in diabetic patients.

      The most effective treatment for venous ulceration is compression bandaging, specifically four-layer bandaging. Oral pentoxifylline, a peripheral vasodilator, can also improve the healing rate of venous ulcers. While there is some evidence supporting the use of flavonoids, there is little evidence to suggest the benefit of hydrocolloid dressings, topical growth factors, ultrasound therapy, and intermittent pneumatic compression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      33.1
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 35-year-old man rapidly develops fever (39oC), sore throat, dry cough, malaise, widespread...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man rapidly develops fever (39oC), sore throat, dry cough, malaise, widespread muscle and joint aches and retro-orbital headache.
      Select from the list the single most likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer: influenza

      Explanation:

      influenza: Causes, Symptoms, and Impact

      influenza, commonly known as the flu, is a viral infection that affects up to 15% of the population each year. The virus undergoes minor mutations, known as antigenic drift, which causes seasonal epidemics. In some cases, major changes in antigens can produce a new virus subtype, known as antigenic shift, which can result in a major epidemic due to little population immunity.

      Symptoms of influenza include fever, cough, sore throat, body aches, and fatigue. While most cases are mild, the virus can be highly infectious with a ratio of infections to clinical cases between 3:1 and 9:1. In an average year, there are 50-200 GP consultations for influenza or flu-like illnesses per 100,000 of the population per week.

      influenza can have a significant impact on mortality rates, with more than 20,000 deaths worldwide each year. During epidemics, this number can be much higher. Typically, seasonal influenza has a greater effect on mortality rates in the elderly, while swine flu tends to affect children and young adults.

      While influenza is the most likely cause of flu-like symptoms, other conditions should also be considered in the differential diagnosis. It is important to seek medical attention if symptoms are severe or if there are underlying health conditions that may increase the risk of complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      18.2
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Sarah is a 42-year-old woman who has a long history of fibromyalgia and...

    Incorrect

    • Sarah is a 42-year-old woman who has a long history of fibromyalgia and chronic pain. She comes to see you to discuss medicinal cannabis. She has been reading online about the use of bedrocan in chronic pain and is keen to know if you are able to prescribe it for her.

      What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Advise him that you cannot prescribe this but he should buy it online

      Correct Answer: Advise that this medication may only be prescribed by a specialist, and offer a referral

      Explanation:

      According to current guidelines, doctors on the General Medical Council Specialist Register are the only ones allowed to prescribe unlicensed cannabis-based products. They should only prescribe these products for disorders within their specialty when there is clear evidence or published guidelines. Bedrocan is an unlicensed cannabis-based product that can be prescribed by specialists in line with current evidence and guidance. Therefore, it is recommended to refer the patient to a specialist for consideration, rather than prescribing it yourself. Nabilone, a synthetic cannabinoid, is licensed for nausea and vomiting associated with chemotherapy and is not suitable for this scenario. It is not safe to advise the patient to purchase an unlicensed medication online, and there is no reason to involve the police.

      Cannabis-Based Medicinal Products: Guidelines and Available Products

      Cannabis-based medicinal products can now be prescribed for therapeutic use under specialist supervision, following a Department of Health review in 2018. These products are defined as medicinal preparations or products that contain cannabis, cannabis resin, cannabinol, or a cannabinol derivative, and are produced for use in humans. Initial prescriptions must be made by a specialist medical practitioner with experience in the condition being treated, and subsequent prescriptions can be issued by another practitioner under a shared care agreement.

      Cannabis-based medicinal products can be used to manage various conditions, including chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting, chronic pain, spasticity in adults with multiple sclerosis, and severe-treatment resistant epilepsy. However, current NICE guidance advises against using cannabis-based medicines for chronic pain, except if already initiated and under specialist supervision until appropriate to stop.

      Several cannabis-based products and cannabinoids are available, including Bedrocan, Tilray, Sativex, Epidiolex, Dronabinol, and Nabilone. However, unlicensed cannabis-based products can only be prescribed by doctors on the General Medical Council Specialist Register, and doctors should prescribe products only for disorders within their specialty when there is clear evidence or published guidelines.

      It is important to consider current available evidence, interactions with other prescribed or non-prescribed medication, and the potential for patients to seek or use non-medicinal products lacking safety and quality assurance when considering prescribing cannabis-based products. Patients should also be advised of the risks of impaired driving, as cannabis-based products may impair a patient’s ability to drive safely.

      Common side effects associated with cannabis-based medicines include disorientation, dizziness, euphoria, confusion, dry mouth, nausea, somnolence, fatigue, vomiting, drowsiness, loss of balance, and hallucination. Rare adverse events include psychosis and seizures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      81.3
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 65-year-old man visits his GP with concerns about an unusual patch inside...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man visits his GP with concerns about an unusual patch inside his cheek. He noticed a red-white patch while brushing his teeth, but he is unsure how long it has been there. He has a smoking history of 35 pack years and drinks approximately 18 units of alcohol per week. There is no family history of oral cancer. On examination, he appears to be in good health, and no cervical lymphadenopathy is detected. There is a 2cm red and white macule with a velvety texture on the buccal vestibule of the oral cavity, consistent with erythroleukoplakia. What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Urgent admission to hospital

      Correct Answer: Urgent referral (within 2 weeks) for assessment by head and neck team

      Explanation:

      Immediate investigation is necessary for any oral cavity lesion that appears suspicious for erythroplakia or leukoplakia due to the risk of malignancy.

      When to Refer Patients with Mouth Lesions for Oral Surgery

      Mouth lesions can be a cause for concern, especially if they persist for an extended period of time. In cases where there is unexplained oral ulceration or mass that lasts for more than three weeks, or red and white patches that are painful, swollen, or bleeding, a referral to oral surgery should be made within two weeks. Additionally, if a patient experiences one-sided pain in the head and neck area for more than four weeks, which is associated with earache but doesn’t result in any abnormal findings on otoscopy, or has an unexplained recent neck lump or a previously undiagnosed lump that has changed over a period of three to six weeks, a referral should be made.

      Patients who have persistent sore or painful throats or signs and symptoms in the oral cavity that last for more than six weeks and cannot be definitively diagnosed as a benign lesion should also be referred. It is important to note that the level of suspicion should be higher in patients who are over 40, smokers, heavy drinkers, and those who chew tobacco or betel nut (areca nut). By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can ensure that patients with mouth lesions receive timely and appropriate care. For more information on this topic, please refer to the link provided.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      12.8
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - You receive notification from your local hospital that a 23-year-old patient registered at...

    Correct

    • You receive notification from your local hospital that a 23-year-old patient registered at your practice has passed away after jumping from the top floor of his apartment block. This patient was known to be suffering from depression and had spent some time at an inpatient mental health unit last year.

      At what point in his history would it be necessary to refer this patient to the coroner?

      Your Answer: Death by suicide

      Explanation:

      If a person is suspected to have died by suicide, it is mandatory to report the death to the coroner. However, the death of a patient under 25 years of age doesn’t require referral to the coroner, while the death of a patient under 18 years of age must be reported to the coroner for safeguarding purposes. Similarly, death in a public place doesn’t necessitate referral to the coroner, and neither does death in a patient with a history of mental illness or previous treatment in an inpatient mental health unit. Nonetheless, deaths of individuals detained under the mental health act must be reported to the coroner.

      Notifiable Deaths and Reporting to the Coroner

      When it comes to death certification, certain deaths are considered notifiable and should be reported to the coroner. These include unexpected or sudden deaths, as well as deaths where the attending doctor did not see the deceased within 28 days prior to their passing (this was increased from 14 days during the COVID pandemic). Additionally, deaths that occur within 24 hours of hospital admission, accidents and injuries, suicide, industrial injury or disease, deaths resulting from ill treatment, starvation, or neglect, deaths occurring during an operation or before recovery from the effect of an anaesthetic, poisoning (including from illicit drugs), stillbirths where there is doubt as to whether the child was born alive, and deaths of prisoners or people in police custody are also considered notifiable.

      It is important to note that these deaths should be reported to the coroner, who will then investigate the circumstances surrounding the death. This is to ensure that any potential criminal activity or negligence is properly addressed and that the cause of death is accurately determined. By reporting notifiable deaths to the coroner, we can help ensure that justice is served and that families receive the closure they need during a difficult time.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      47.3
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 20-year-old patient who has just enrolled in college comes in for a...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old patient who has just enrolled in college comes in for a meningitis ACWY vaccine. While waiting, he notices a poster about Chlamydia screening and inquires about getting tested despite not experiencing any symptoms.

      What type of sample needs to be collected for the test?

      Your Answer: Urethral swab

      Correct Answer: Urine

      Explanation:

      The most appropriate screening test for asymptomatic males to detect chlamydia is a urine test. This is preferred over blood serology, urethral swab, or semen sample as it is less invasive and has similar sensitivity to urethral swab. It is important to note that Chlamydia infection can often be asymptomatic, so screening is still recommended even in the absence of symptoms.

      Chlamydia is the most common sexually transmitted infection in the UK caused by Chlamydia trachomatis. It is often asymptomatic but can cause cervicitis and dysuria in women and urethral discharge and dysuria in men. Complications include epididymitis, pelvic inflammatory disease, and infertility. Testing is done through nuclear acid amplification tests (NAATs) on urine or swab samples. Screening is recommended for sexually active individuals aged 15-24 years. Doxycycline is the first-line treatment, but azithromycin may be used if contraindicated. Partners should be notified and treated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Sexual Health
      34.1
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - You encounter a 36-year-old woman who complains of vaginal discharge. She has a...

    Incorrect

    • You encounter a 36-year-old woman who complains of vaginal discharge. She has a history of bacterial vaginosis (BV) and has been treated for it around five times in the past year. A high vaginal swab reveals BV once again, and her vaginal pH remains >4.5. She is bothered by the unpleasant odor and requests further treatment. She has had a copper intrauterine device (IUD) for three years.

      In addition to prescribing a 7-day course of oral metronidazole, what other recommendations could you make?

      Your Answer: Oral metronidazole before and/or after menstruation

      Correct Answer: Consider removing the IUD and advising the use of an alternative form of contraception

      Explanation:

      There is not enough evidence to recommend any specific treatment for recurrent BV in primary care. However, in women with an intrauterine contraceptive device and persistent BV, it may be advisable to remove the device and suggest an alternative form of contraception.

      Bacterial vaginosis (BV) is a condition where there is an overgrowth of anaerobic organisms, particularly Gardnerella vaginalis, in the vagina. This leads to a decrease in the amount of lactobacilli, which produce lactic acid, resulting in an increase in vaginal pH. BV is not a sexually transmitted infection, but it is commonly seen in sexually active women. Symptoms include a fishy-smelling vaginal discharge, although some women may not experience any symptoms at all. Diagnosis is made using Amsel’s criteria, which includes the presence of thin, white discharge, clue cells on microscopy, a vaginal pH greater than 4.5, and a positive whiff test. Treatment involves oral metronidazole for 5-7 days, with a cure rate of 70-80%. However, relapse rates are high, with over 50% of women experiencing a recurrence within 3 months. Topical metronidazole or clindamycin may be used as alternatives.

      Bacterial vaginosis during pregnancy can increase the risk of preterm labor, low birth weight, chorioamnionitis, and late miscarriage. It was previously recommended to avoid oral metronidazole in the first trimester and use topical clindamycin instead. However, recent guidelines suggest that oral metronidazole can be used throughout pregnancy. The British National Formulary (BNF) still advises against using high-dose metronidazole regimens. Clue cells, which are vaginal epithelial cells covered with bacteria, can be seen on microscopy in women with BV.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
      91.9
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Which of the following is not a common side effect of amiodarone therapy?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not a common side effect of amiodarone therapy?

      Your Answer: Liver cirrhosis

      Correct Answer: Hypokalaemia

      Explanation:

      Adverse Effects and Drug Interactions of Amiodarone

      Amiodarone is a medication used to treat irregular heartbeats. However, its use can lead to several adverse effects. One of the most common adverse effects is thyroid dysfunction, which can manifest as either hypothyroidism or hyperthyroidism. Other adverse effects include corneal deposits, pulmonary fibrosis or pneumonitis, liver fibrosis or hepatitis, peripheral neuropathy, myopathy, photosensitivity, a slate-grey appearance, thrombophlebitis, injection site reactions, bradycardia, and lengthening of the QT interval.

      It is also important to note that amiodarone can interact with other medications. For example, it can decrease the metabolism of warfarin, leading to an increased INR. Additionally, it can increase digoxin levels. Therefore, it is crucial to monitor patients closely for adverse effects and drug interactions when using amiodarone. Proper management and monitoring can help minimize the risks associated with this medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      19.8
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 23-year-old man with a history of bipolar disorder is scheduled for a...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old man with a history of bipolar disorder is scheduled for a medication review. When inquiring about his current state, he starts discussing the vast array of emotions that exist and wonders if everyone has experienced all of them. Eventually, he spontaneously mentions that he is feeling quite good.

      What is the patient exhibiting in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Incoherence

      Correct Answer: Circumstantiality

      Explanation:

      The patient’s lengthy response to the question suggests circumstantiality, which can be a symptom of anxiety disorders or hypomania.

      It is important to note that the patient has not derailed from the topic at hand, indicating that this is not an example of derailment. Incoherence would involve the patient providing nonsensical responses, which is not the case here.

      While it is difficult to determine from a text-based question, pressured speech would involve the patient speaking rapidly and producing an excessive amount of spontaneous speech. Therefore, it may not be the most appropriate answer in this scenario.

      Anxiety is a common disorder that can manifest in various ways. According to NICE, the primary feature is excessive worry about multiple events associated with heightened tension. It is crucial to consider potential physical causes when diagnosing psychiatric disorders such as anxiety. Hyperthyroidism, cardiac disease, and medication-induced anxiety are important alternative causes. Medications that may trigger anxiety include salbutamol, theophylline, corticosteroids, antidepressants, and caffeine.

      NICE recommends a stepwise approach for managing generalised anxiety disorder (GAD). The first step is education about GAD and active monitoring. The second step involves low-intensity psychological interventions such as individual non-facilitated self-help, individual guided self-help, or psychoeducational groups. The third step includes high-intensity psychological interventions such as cognitive behavioural therapy or applied relaxation, or drug treatment. Sertraline is the first-line SSRI recommended by NICE. If sertraline is ineffective, an alternative SSRI or a serotonin–noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor (SNRI) such as duloxetine or venlafaxine may be offered. If the person cannot tolerate SSRIs or SNRIs, pregabalin may be considered. For patients under the age of 30 years, NICE recommends warning them of the increased risk of suicidal thinking and self-harm and weekly follow-up for the first month.

      The management of panic disorder also follows a stepwise approach. The first step is recognition and diagnosis, followed by treatment in primary care. NICE recommends either cognitive behavioural therapy or drug treatment. SSRIs are the first-line treatment. If contraindicated or no response after 12 weeks, imipramine or clomipramine should be offered. The third step involves reviewing and considering alternative treatments, followed by review and referral to specialist mental health services in the fourth and fifth steps, respectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      41.3
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  • Question 16 - A 50-year old female presents with diffuse pain throughout her body. She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year old female presents with diffuse pain throughout her body. She has a history of irritable bowel symptoms, tension headaches, and anxiety. The patient reports feeling stiff in the mornings with sore muscles, particularly around the neck, shoulders, and hips. She also experiences poor concentration, disturbed sleep, and constant exhaustion. There are no bowel or menstrual symptoms. On examination, her weight is stable, pulse rate is 78 regular, blood pressure is 112/72 mmHg, and she is afebrile. Palpation reveals tenderness around the muscles of the neck and shoulders, the outer aspect of the gluteal muscles, and around the greater trochanters. There are also areas of focal discomfort on palpation of the muscles around the elbows and knees. The patient walks with a normal gait, and her joints are clinically normal. Recent blood tests show a normal FBC, normal ESR, and normal CK levels. What treatments are most likely to alleviate her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Amitriptyline 25 mg nocte

      Correct Answer: Ibuprofen 400 mg TDS

      Explanation:

      Understanding Fibromyalgia

      Fibromyalgia is a condition that causes chronic diffuse pain in the muscles, with a higher prevalence in women aged 40-50 years. It is often associated with anxiety and depression, as well as symptoms such as fatigue, paraesthesia, urinary frequency, and headaches. To diagnose fibromyalgia, a patient must have chronic widespread pain and tender points on digital palpation of specific sites around the body. Other conditions such as rheumatoid arthritis, systemic lupus erythematosus, hypothyroidism, osteomalacia, and polymyositis must be ruled out through examination and investigation.

      Treatment options for fibromyalgia include pharmacological options such as amitriptyline and selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor antidepressants, as well as trigger point injections, acupuncture, graded exercise regimens, and psychological therapies. Anti-inflammatories are not typically effective in treating fibromyalgia and can even worsen symptoms in some cases. Understanding the symptoms and treatment options for fibromyalgia can help patients manage their condition and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      34.6
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - An 80-year-old woman presents to your clinic with complaints of constipation. She reports...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old woman presents to your clinic with complaints of constipation. She reports a four week history of reduced stool frequency with firmer stool consistency. She currently has a bowel movement every other day, whereas prior to the last four weeks she had a bowel movement once a day. She denies any rectal bleeding or diarrhea and has no anal symptoms or incontinence. On examination, her abdomen is soft and non-tender without masses. Rectal examination is also normal. She has been taking codeine phosphate 30 mg qds for her arthritic knee, which was prescribed by a colleague one month ago. Recent blood tests show normal full blood count, ESR, thyroid function, and calcium. What is the most appropriate management for this patient?

      Your Answer: Provide advice regarding the constipation and reassure

      Explanation:

      Managing Constipation in a Patient on Analgesia

      The patient’s constipation is not a mystery as it coincides with the prescription of codeine phosphate, which slows down bowel transit. There are no other concerning symptoms in the patient’s history or examination that would warrant an urgent referral to a lower gastrointestinal specialist for suspected cancer.

      To manage the patient’s constipation, the healthcare provider should provide advice on diet and lifestyle, review the patient’s medication to identify any contributing factors, and counsel the patient on red flags. The patient has already undergone blood tests to investigate secondary causes of constipation, such as hypothyroidism or hypercalcaemia. The healthcare provider can also discuss the use of laxatives with the patient.

      Overall, managing constipation in a patient on analgesia involves identifying contributing factors, providing lifestyle advice, and discussing treatment options with the patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      42.9
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  • Question 18 - You see a 3-year-old girl who presents with fever, irritability and offensive smelling...

    Correct

    • You see a 3-year-old girl who presents with fever, irritability and offensive smelling urine. A urine dipstick shows leucocytes+, nitrites -.

      What would be the next most appropriate management step?

      Your Answer: Send for MC&S and start antibiotic treatment

      Explanation:

      NICE Guidelines for UTI in Children

      According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE), children between 3 months to 3 years old with suspected urinary tract infection (UTI) can start antibiotic treatment if their urine sample shows either leucocyte or nitrite positive, or both. However, it is still recommended to send off the sample for culture to confirm the diagnosis and ensure appropriate treatment. These guidelines aim to provide a standardized approach in managing UTI in children and prevent complications associated with untreated infections.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      20.7
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  • Question 19 - A 55-year-old female patient presents to your morning clinic with complaints of pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old female patient presents to your morning clinic with complaints of pain and cramps in her right calf. She has also observed some brown discoloration around her right ankle. Her symptoms have been progressing for the past few weeks. She had been treated for a right-sided posterior tibial deep vein thrombosis (DVT) six months ago. Upon examination, she appears to be in good health.

      What would be the best course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Referral to vascular team

      Correct Answer: Compression stockings

      Explanation:

      Compression stockings should only be offered to patients with deep vein thrombosis who are experiencing post-thrombotic syndrome (PTS), which typically occurs 6 months to 2 years after the initial DVT and is characterized by chronic pain, swelling, hyperpigmentation, and venous ulcers. Apixaban is not appropriate for treating PTS, as it is used to treat acute DVT. Codeine may help with pain but doesn’t address the underlying cause. Hirudoid cream is not effective for treating PTS, as it is used for superficial thrombophlebitis. If conservative management is not effective, patients may be referred to vascular surgery for surgical treatment. Compression stockings are the first-line treatment for PTS, as they improve blood flow and reduce symptoms in the affected calf.

      Post-Thrombotic Syndrome: A Complication of Deep Vein Thrombosis

      Post-thrombotic syndrome is a clinical syndrome that may develop following a deep vein thrombosis (DVT). It is caused by venous outflow obstruction and venous insufficiency, which leads to chronic venous hypertension. Patients with post-thrombotic syndrome may experience painful, heavy calves, pruritus, swelling, varicose veins, and venous ulceration.

      While compression stockings were previously recommended to reduce the risk of post-thrombotic syndrome in patients with DVT, Clinical Knowledge Summaries now advise against their use for this purpose. However, compression stockings are still recommended as a treatment for post-thrombotic syndrome. Other recommended treatments include keeping the affected leg elevated.

      In summary, post-thrombotic syndrome is a potential complication of DVT that can cause a range of uncomfortable symptoms. While compression stockings are no longer recommended for prevention, they remain an important treatment option for those who develop the syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      31.4
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  • Question 20 - A 25-year-old transgender man comes to your clinic for a follow-up on his...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old transgender man comes to your clinic for a follow-up on his testosterone treatment. He discloses that he had unprotected vaginal sex three days ago and doesn't want to conceive.

      What is the best course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Prescribe emergency contraception and advise the patient that testosterone therapy is contraindicated in pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Transgender males who are on testosterone therapy should be aware that this treatment doesn’t prevent pregnancy. In the event that a patient becomes pregnant, testosterone therapy is not recommended as it can have harmful effects on the developing fetus. Instead, emergency contraception should be prescribed and the patient should be advised against continuing testosterone therapy during pregnancy. It is important to note that emergency contraception is still safe for patients on testosterone therapy. While discussing the risk of sexually transmitted infections is important, it is not a substitute for effective contraception. While a future pregnancy test may be necessary, the immediate priority is to provide emergency contraception. It is also important to note that testosterone therapy is not a form of emergency contraception and that other options, such as a copper intrauterine device or specific medications, should be considered.

      Contraceptive and Sexual Health Guidance for Transgender and Non-Binary Individuals

      The Faculty of Sexual & Reproductive Healthcare has released guidance on contraceptive choices and sexual health for transgender and non-binary individuals. The guidance emphasizes the importance of sensitive communication and offering options that consider personal preferences, co-morbidities, and current medications or therapies. For those engaging in vaginal sex, condoms and dental dams are recommended to prevent sexually transmitted infections. Cervical screening and HPV vaccinations should also be offered. Those at risk of HIV transmission should be advised of pre-exposure prophylaxis and post-exposure prophylaxis.

      For individuals assigned female at birth with a uterus, testosterone therapy doesn’t provide protection against pregnancy, and oestrogen-containing regimens are not recommended as they can antagonize the effect of testosterone therapy. Progesterone-only contraceptives are considered safe, and non-hormonal intrauterine devices may also suspend menstruation. Emergency contraception may be required following unprotected vaginal intercourse, and either oral formulation or the non-hormonal intrauterine device may be considered.

      In patients assigned male at birth, hormone therapy may reduce or cease sperm production, but the variability of its effects means it cannot be relied upon as a method of contraception. Condoms are recommended for those engaging in vaginal sex to avoid the risk of pregnancy. The guidance stresses the importance of offering individuals options that take into account their personal circumstances and preferences.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Sexual Health
      41.5
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 9-month-old baby is brought to the emergency department by her parents. They...

    Correct

    • A 9-month-old baby is brought to the emergency department by her parents. They report that she has been experiencing a runny nose and cough for the past few days and has been more irritable than usual. The baby was born at full term and has no significant medical history.

      According to the parents, the baby has been refusing to eat but is managing to drink with encouragement. Upon examination, the baby's temperature is 37.7°C, and there are no signs of chest wall recession, nasal flaring, or grunting. The respiratory rate is 48/minute, and auscultation of the chest reveals fine inspiratory crackles and a slight high-pitched wheeze heard throughout both lung fields. Oxygen saturations are 97% in room air.

      What is the most appropriate course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Treat with paracetamol PRN and simple advice on symptom control

      Explanation:

      Managing Bronchiolitis in Babies

      Bronchiolitis is a common respiratory illness in babies that can usually be managed in the community. However, certain factors indicate more severe disease and require immediate hospital admission. These include reduced feeding, lethargy, history of apnoea, high respiratory rate, respiratory distress, cyanosis, and persistent low oxygen saturation. Babies under 3 months of age and those born prematurely should be closely monitored and may require admission at a lower threshold.

      In cases where there are no worrying features, community treatment is appropriate. Parents should be given advice on how to recognize deterioration and where to seek review if necessary. There is no specific treatment for bronchiolitis that can be managed in the community. Trials have shown that antibiotics, oral steroids, inhaled beta2 agonists, and nebulized ipratropium do not provide significant benefits in normal immunocompetent patients with bronchiolitis. Therefore, these treatments are not routinely recommended.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      45
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 35-year-old man presents with a past medical history of abdominal pain and...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man presents with a past medical history of abdominal pain and febrile illness. His liver function tests reveal an alanine aminotransferase level of 80 IU/l and a bilirubin level of 18 µmol/l. Serological tests for hepatitis viruses indicate that he is positive for hepatitis B (HepB) surface antigen (Ag), but negative for anti-HepB core or immunoglobulin M. What do these results suggest?

      Your Answer: Carrier of hepatitis B

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hepatitis B Infection and Vaccination Status

      Hepatitis B infection can be identified through the presence of specific antigens and antibodies in the blood. In acute cases, the surface antigen appears first, followed by a highly infectious antigen. Transaminase levels may also increase. If the surface antigen persists after the acute illness, it indicates a carrier status, which occurs in 10% of cases.

      Vaccination against hepatitis B can be confirmed by the presence of antibodies to the surface antigen. However, if these antibodies are not present, it suggests that the patient has not been vaccinated.

      High levels of immunoglobulin M antibodies to the core antigen indicate an acute infection, while positive immunoglobulin G antibodies to anti-Hep B core indicate a past infection.

      Recovery from past hepatitis B infection is indicated by the clearance of the surface antigen and the development of anti-HBs antibodies.

      If a patient has hepatitis B surface antigen and core antibodies, it suggests that they have been infected with hepatitis B and do not require vaccination.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      58.1
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  • Question 23 - A 6-month-old boy is brought to the General Practitioner because of a painless...

    Correct

    • A 6-month-old boy is brought to the General Practitioner because of a painless swelling of the scrotum on one side. The swelling enlarges during the day and diminishes overnight. On examination there is a smooth swelling, within which the testis can be felt. Transillumination is seen when a torch is held against the scrotum.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Hydrocele

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hydroceles and Hernias in Children

      During fetal development, the testicle descends into the scrotum accompanied by a sac-like extension of peritoneum called the processus vaginalis (PV). If the PV fails to close, it can result in a communicating hydrocele, where only fluid can pass through, or a hernia, where other abdominal contents protrude.

      To diagnose a hydrocele, transillumination of the scrotum can reveal fluid in the tunica vaginalis (TV). However, this test may not fully exclude a hernia, as bowel may also transilluminate. Hydroceles may appear to enlarge during the day and disappear at night due to gravity’s effect on filling.

      Hernias may present with abdominal pain, constipation, or vomiting, and the lump may be more prominent when the child cries. Bowel sounds in the scrotum strongly suggest a hernia.

      In infants, many hydroceles resolve spontaneously due to PV closure early after birth. Observation is often appropriate up to 12-18 months of age.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      12.4
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A mother brings her 3-week-old baby boy into the clinic for evaluation. She...

    Incorrect

    • A mother brings her 3-week-old baby boy into the clinic for evaluation. She has observed a well-defined, lobulated, and bright red lesion appearing on his left cheek. The lesion was not present at birth but has now grown to 6 mm in diameter. What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Refer to paediatrics (on an urgent basis)

      Correct Answer: Reassure the mother that most lesions spontaneously regress

      Explanation:

      If the strawberry naevus on this baby is not causing any mechanical issues or bleeding, treatment is typically unnecessary.

      Strawberry naevi, also known as capillary haemangiomas, are not usually present at birth but can develop quickly within the first month of life. They appear as raised, red, and lobed tumours that commonly occur on the face, scalp, and back. These growths tend to increase in size until around 6-9 months before gradually disappearing over the next few years. However, in rare cases, they can obstruct the airway if they occur in the upper respiratory tract. Capillary haemangiomas are more common in white infants, particularly in females, premature infants, and those whose mothers have undergone chorionic villous sampling.

      Complications of strawberry naevi include obstruction of vision or airway, bleeding, ulceration, and thrombocytopaenia. Treatment may be necessary if there is visual field obstruction, and propranolol is now the preferred choice over systemic steroids. Topical beta-blockers such as timolol may also be used. Cavernous haemangioma is a type of deep capillary haemangioma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      26.6
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  • Question 25 - A 60-year-old patient schedules a visit to discuss their yearly flu shot. They...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old patient schedules a visit to discuss their yearly flu shot. They have come across a research study that compared the vaccine to a placebo. The study found that among those who received the vaccine, 10% tested positive for the flu, while 30% in the placebo group did. The authors of the study conducted a statistical analysis to evaluate the relationship between the vaccine and getting the flu.

      Which statistical test would be appropriate for analyzing these findings?

      Your Answer: Pearson's product-moment coefficient

      Correct Answer: Chi-squared test

      Explanation:

      The appropriate statistical test for comparing proportions or percentages is the chi-squared test. For example, it can be used to compare the percentage of patients who improved following two different interventions. The Mann-Whitney U test is not applicable in this case as it is used for non-parametric data and compares ordinal, interval, or ratio scales of unpaired data. Similarly, Pearson’s product-moment coefficient is not suitable as it is a parametric test that assesses correlation. The choice of significance test depends on whether the data is parametric or non-parametric.

      Types of Significance Tests

      Significance tests are used to determine whether the results of a study are statistically significant or simply due to chance. The type of significance test used depends on the type of data being analyzed. Parametric tests are used for data that can be measured and are usually normally distributed, while non-parametric tests are used for data that cannot be measured in this way.

      Parametric tests include the Student’s t-test, which can be paired or unpaired, and Pearson’s product-moment coefficient, which is used for correlation analysis. Non-parametric tests include the Mann-Whitney U test, which compares ordinal, interval, or ratio scales of unpaired data, and the Wilcoxon signed-rank test, which compares two sets of observations on a single sample. The chi-squared test is used to compare proportions or percentages, while Spearman and Kendall rank are used for correlation analysis.

      It is important to choose the appropriate significance test for the type of data being analyzed in order to obtain accurate and reliable results. By understanding the different types of significance tests available, researchers can make informed decisions about which test to use for their particular study.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
      26.2
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 60-year-old man presents with a 2-month to 3-month history of slurred speech...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old man presents with a 2-month to 3-month history of slurred speech as well as difficulty in chewing and swallowing, to the point where he is no longer eating solid food. On examination he has weakness of jaw closure and difficulty in protruding his tongue. There is some wasting and fasciculation involving both sides of the tongue. He has lost a few kilos in weight over this time. Apart from a generally thin appearance, the rest of the neurological and general examination appears to be normal. In particular, the tendon reflexes are all within physiological limits.
      Select the most likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer: Motor neuron disease

      Explanation:

      Understanding Motor Neuron Disease: Types, Symptoms, and Differential Diagnosis

      Motor neuron disease (MND) is a progressive neurological disorder that typically affects individuals in their sixth and seventh decades of life, although there is also a familial form that can present at a younger age. The most common form of MND is amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, which has three recognized patterns of presentation: limb onset, bulbar onset, and respiratory onset.

      The disease is characterized by degeneration of both upper and lower motor neurons, leading to progressive weakness of the bulbar, limb, thoracic, and abdominal muscles. While other neurological functions such as oculomotor and sphincter are relatively spared, they may sometimes be involved. In some cases, patients may also develop frontotemporal dementia.

      Less common variants of MND can present with pure upper neuron features (primary lateral sclerosis) or pure lower motor neuron features (progressive muscular atrophy). The first sign of bulbar palsy, which is a common presentation of MND, is usually slurring of speech due to impaired tongue movement, with dysphagia occurring later.

      When considering a differential diagnosis, it is important to note that other conditions can produce dysarthria, but the wasting of the tongue excludes a neuromuscular transmission disorder such as myasthenia. Syringobulbia, which is characterized by a syrinx extending into the medulla, can produce several cranial nerve palsies from the seventh nerve upwards, including weakness and atrophy of the tongue due to twelfth nerve palsy. Stroke onset is acute, whereas MND is a progressive disease. Multiple sclerosis can also produce neurological deficits, but they tend to occur episodically over time.

      In conclusion, understanding the types, symptoms, and differential diagnosis of MND is crucial for early detection and management of this debilitating disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      85.8
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  • Question 27 - A 70-year-old man visits his GP for a new-patient screen. His only previous...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old man visits his GP for a new-patient screen. His only previous complaints have been type-2 diabetes and mild long-standing back pain. Screening tests reveal an elevated serum creatinine of 215 µmol/l (50-120 µmol/l) and anaemia with Hb of 101 g/d (135-175 g/L). He has marked proteinuria. An X-ray shows collapse of the lumbar spine and there is a monoclonal band on serum protein electrophoresis.
      Select the most likely cause of his abnormal renal function.

      Your Answer: Amyloidosis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Amyloidosis: Causes, Symptoms, and Prognosis

      Amyloidosis is a group of conditions characterized by the abnormal deposition of amyloid proteins in organs or tissues, leading to damage. It typically affects individuals between the ages of 60 and 70 years. In most cases, amyloidosis is caused by light-chain deposition from a myeloma, as evidenced by a monoclonal band on electrophoresis and lumbar spine collapse. Symptoms of generalized amyloidosis include fatigue, dyspnea, diarrhea, macroglossia, hepatomegaly, and weight loss. Cardiac involvement may result in a restrictive picture with right-sided heart failure and jugular venous distension. Renal amyloidosis can lead to the development of the nephrotic syndrome.

      Apart from myeloma, other causes of amyloidosis include hereditary forms such as familial Mediterranean fever, and those related to chronic disease, infection, or malignancy, such as rheumatoid arthritis, tuberculosis, and renal cell carcinoma. Amyloidosis associated with myeloma has a very poor prognosis, with less than 1-year survival. In contrast, familial forms are associated with much better outcomes, with a prognosis of up to 10-15 years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      35.2
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - An 83 year old man presents to your clinic complaining of a painful...

    Incorrect

    • An 83 year old man presents to your clinic complaining of a painful and swollen first metatarsophalangeal joint on his right foot for the past four days. He has a medical history of hypertension, osteoporosis, ischaemic heart disease, and hiatus hernia. Laboratory results reveal:

      - Sodium (Na+): 136 mmol/l
      - Potassium (K+): 4.6 mmol/l
      - Urea: 12 mmol/l
      - Creatinine: 140 µmol/l
      - Uric acid: 300 µmol/l (normal range: 200-420µmol/l)

      What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: Naproxen

      Correct Answer: Colchicine

      Explanation:

      The individual is experiencing a sudden and severe attack of gout. Despite this, their uric acid levels may appear normal as the acid is confined to the joint space. Allopurinol is effective in preventing gout but should not be administered during an acute flare-up. NSAIDs are not recommended due to the individual’s ischemic heart disease, renal dysfunction, and hiatus hernia.

      Gout is caused by chronic hyperuricaemia and is managed acutely with NSAIDs or colchicine. Urate-lowering therapy (ULT) is recommended for patients with >= 2 attacks in 12 months, tophi, renal disease, uric acid renal stones, or prophylaxis if on cytotoxics or diuretics. Allopurinol is first-line ULT, with a delayed start recommended until inflammation has settled. Lifestyle modifications include reducing alcohol intake, losing weight if obese, and avoiding high-purine foods. Other options for refractory cases include febuxostat, uricase, and pegloticase.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      19.5
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - According to probability, what is the most probable cause of a fall in...

    Incorrect

    • According to probability, what is the most probable cause of a fall in an elderly person? Please

      Your Answer: Vasovagal syncope

      Correct Answer: Environmental hazards

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Causes of Falls in the Elderly: Environmental Hazards and Other Factors

      Falls are a common and serious problem among the elderly, with significant consequences such as increased morbidity, mortality, and nursing home placement. While there are many risk factors for falls, including muscle weakness, medication use, and cognitive impairment, environmental hazards are a major cause, accounting for 31% of falls. Loose rugs, poor lighting, and clutter are just a few examples of hazards that can contribute to falls.

      Other factors that contribute to falls include gait and balance disorders, dizziness and vertigo, and confusion. Postural hypotension, a sudden drop in blood pressure upon standing, is also a common cause of falls, often due to medication use. Vasovagal syncope, a reflex-mediated autonomic failure, can also cause falls in the elderly.

      Visual impairment is another significant risk factor for falls, as it can affect perception of environmental elements. Individuals with visual impairment are almost twice as likely to fall compared to those with normal vision.

      To prevent falls, it is important to address all risk factors, including environmental hazards, through exercise, medication review, vision assessment, and home safety modifications. By understanding the causes of falls in the elderly, we can take steps to prevent them and improve the health and well-being of older adults.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      8.3
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  • Question 30 - A 50-year-old woman with a known history of depression, previously well controlled for...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman with a known history of depression, previously well controlled for some time with fluoxetine, has started to suffer from anxiety, loss of interest and reduced appetite. She also complains of insomnia.

      She claims to taking her medications regularly according to prescription.

      What will be the most appropriate management for her?

      Your Answer: Switch to another group of antidepressant

      Explanation:

      Switching Antidepressants: Consider Mirtazapine

      When a patient stops responding to fluoxetine, switching to another group of antidepressants is a feasible approach. One such option is mirtazapine, a newer antidepressant that exhibits both noradrenergic and serotonergic activity. Studies have shown that mirtazapine is effective in treating a substantial proportion of patients who did not respond well to selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) or found them difficult to tolerate. Therefore, if a patient is no longer responding to fluoxetine, it may be worth considering switching to mirtazapine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      34.5
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Gastroenterology (2/2) 100%
Mental Health (2/4) 50%
Kidney And Urology (1/2) 50%
Respiratory Health (0/1) 0%
Eyes And Vision (0/1) 0%
Maternity And Reproductive Health (0/1) 0%
Dermatology (0/2) 0%
Infectious Disease And Travel Health (2/2) 100%
Musculoskeletal Health (0/4) 0%
Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing (0/1) 0%
Sexual Health (1/2) 50%
Gynaecology And Breast (0/1) 0%
Cardiovascular Health (0/2) 0%
Children And Young People (3/3) 100%
Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge (0/1) 0%
Neurology (1/1) 100%
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