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Question 1
Correct
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One option that is typically not acknowledged as a disorder related to cannabis use is:
Your Answer: Obsessive-compulsive disorder
Explanation:Cannabis-Related Disorders Recognized by DSM-5
The DSM-5 acknowledges various cannabis-related disorders, including anxiety, delirium, psychosis, and sleep disorder. To qualify as a cannabis-induced disorder, there must be a clear temporal connection to cannabis use, and the disturbance cannot be attributed to a non-substance-induced disorder. Interestingly, some research suggests that non-psychoactive cannabis may have therapeutic benefits for individuals with obsessive-compulsive disorder.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 2
Correct
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A 40-year-old man comes to the General Practice Surgery with a six-month history of persistent fatigue. He has no medical problems and takes no regular medication. He briefly injected heroin when he was younger but has not done so for the last ten years.
What is the most probable diagnosis? Choose ONE option only.Your Answer: Hepatitis C
Explanation:Blood-Borne Infections Commonly Associated with Intravenous Drug Use
Intravenous (IV) drug use is a major risk factor for acquiring blood-borne infections. The most common infections associated with IV drug use are hepatitis C, human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), and hepatitis B. Syphilis and tetanus are also possible, but less common, infections.
Hepatitis C is the most prevalent blood-borne virus among IV drug users, affecting up to 50% of users in the UK and 67% worldwide. Acute infection is usually asymptomatic or presents with vague symptoms, but can progress to chronic hepatitis C in the majority of cases. Cirrhosis and liver failure are potential long-term complications.
HIV is present in up to 15% of IV drug users and is transmitted through shared needles. Acute infection presents with flu-like symptoms, followed by an asymptomatic period until the CD4 count drops enough to allow for opportunistic infections.
Hepatitis B is less common than hepatitis C among IV drug users, but still poses a risk. Acute infection presents with flu-like symptoms and can progress to chronic infection, which increases the risk of hepatocellular carcinoma.
Syphilis is a sexually transmitted infection that can also be transmitted through direct contact with skin lesions or mucous membranes. Primary infection presents with a painless ulcer, followed by a generalised rash and lymphadenopathy. Latent syphilis can be asymptomatic, but is not associated with IV drug use.
Tetanus is rare in the UK due to immunisation programs, but can occur if spores enter an open wound. It presents with muscle stiffness and spasms, but is not associated with a prolonged asymptomatic period or IV drug use.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 3
Correct
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A 27-year-old female presents in a confused and drowsy state.
A friend found her this morning after she had been out drinking the previous night but also states that she had been upset after her boyfriend had 'dumped her'.
Examination reveals that she is drowsy with a Glasgow coma scale rating of 10/15. She has a blood pressure of 138/90 mmHg, a temperature of 37.5°C, large pupils which react slowly to light, a pulse of 120 beats per minute, a respiratory rate of 32/min and has exaggerated reflexes with down-going plantar responses. Examination of the abdomen reveals a palpable bladder.
Which of the following substances is she most likely to have taken?Your Answer: Tricyclic antidepressants
Explanation:Anticholinergic Overdose and Treatment
This patient is exhibiting symptoms of anticholinergic overdose, including drowsiness, irritability, large pupils, pyrexia, and tachycardia. Tricyclics, commonly used as antidepressants, can be lethal in overdose. Close monitoring is necessary as ventricular arrhythmias and seizures may occur. Treatment for seizures involves phenytoin, while lidocaine can be used for ventricular arrhythmias. Bicarbonate can correct metabolic acidosis.
Paracetamol overdose typically presents with few symptoms or signs initially, but can lead to fulminant hepatic failure later on. Opiates cause small pupils and depressed respirations, while benzodiazepines typically only cause marked drowsiness. Ecstasy often causes excitability, tachycardia, and hypertension, but can also lead to severe hyponatremia when associated with excessive water consumption, resulting in drowsiness and obtundation.
In summary, anticholinergic overdose requires close monitoring and prompt treatment to prevent potentially lethal complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 4
Correct
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A 45-year-old man seeks assistance from his General Practitioner to quit drinking alcohol. He confesses to consuming over 50 units of alcohol per week and has struggled to maintain a lower level of consumption. Although he has never encountered severe withdrawal symptoms, he is open to attending cognitive behaviour therapy and wonders if there is any medication that could aid him in his journey.
What is the most suitable medication to recommend?Your Answer: No medication should be prescribed
Explanation:Medications for Alcohol Addiction: NICE Guidelines and Recommendations
The National Institute of Healthcare Excellence (NICE) has issued guidelines on the management of alcohol withdrawal, stating that medication should only be prescribed by specialist teams. Acamprosate is a second-line treatment that stabilizes the chemical balance in the brain disrupted by alcohol withdrawal. Chlordiazepoxide, a long-acting benzodiazepine, is used to reduce withdrawal symptoms in alcohol detoxification programs but should not be prescribed in primary care. Fluoxetine, a selective serotonin re-uptake inhibitor, has been used to decrease drinking but is not licensed for this purpose. Naltrexone and nalmefene are opioid receptor antagonists used as second-line treatments after assisted withdrawal. Nalmefene has advantages over naltrexone, including a longer half-life and greater oral bioavailability, but none of these options should be prescribed in primary care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 5
Incorrect
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You are helping a 29-year-old woman quit smoking. She has multiple medical conditions and takes various medications for them. Which of the following health issues would not prevent the prescription of bupropion (Zyban)?
Your Answer: Well controlled epilepsy
Correct Answer: Stable angina
Explanation:Although there is no concrete evidence to support this, it is recommended to avoid using bupropion during pregnancy. The BNF states that bupropion should not be used in cases of acute alcohol or benzodiazepine withdrawal, severe hepatic cirrhosis, CNS tumor, history of seizures, eating disorders, or bipolar disorder.
Smoking cessation is the process of quitting smoking. In 2008, NICE released guidance on how to manage smoking cessation. The guidance recommends that patients should be offered nicotine replacement therapy (NRT), varenicline or bupropion, and that clinicians should not favour one medication over another. These medications should be prescribed as part of a commitment to stop smoking on or before a particular date, and the prescription should only last until 2 weeks after the target stop date. If unsuccessful, a repeat prescription should not be offered within 6 months unless special circumstances have intervened. NRT can cause adverse effects such as nausea and vomiting, headaches, and flu-like symptoms. NICE recommends offering a combination of nicotine patches and another form of NRT to people who show a high level of dependence on nicotine or who have found single forms of NRT inadequate in the past.
Varenicline is a nicotinic receptor partial agonist that should be started 1 week before the patient’s target date to stop. The recommended course of treatment is 12 weeks, but patients should be monitored regularly and treatment only continued if not smoking. Varenicline has been shown in studies to be more effective than bupropion, but it should be used with caution in patients with a history of depression or self-harm. Nausea is the most common adverse effect, and varenicline is contraindicated in pregnancy and breastfeeding.
Bupropion is a norepinephrine and dopamine reuptake inhibitor, and nicotinic antagonist that should be started 1 to 2 weeks before the patient’s target date to stop. There is a small risk of seizures, and bupropion is contraindicated in epilepsy, pregnancy, and breastfeeding. Having an eating disorder is a relative contraindication.
In 2010, NICE recommended that all pregnant women should be tested for smoking using carbon monoxide detectors. All women who smoke, or have stopped smoking within the last 2 weeks, or those with a CO reading of 7 ppm or above should be referred to NHS Stop Smoking Services. The first-line interventions in pregnancy should be cognitive behaviour therapy, motivational interviewing, or structured self-help and support from NHS Stop Smoking Services. The evidence for the use of NRT in pregnancy is mixed, but it is often used if the above measures fail. There is no evidence that it affects the child’s birthweight. Pregnant women
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 6
Correct
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A 60-year-old man has a history of alcohol dependence disorder for several years. He is currently experiencing confusion, double vision, and an unsteady gait. Additionally, his short term memory is poor. He reports abstaining from alcohol for the past week. What is the urgent vitamin requirement for this patient?
Your Answer: Vitamin B1
Explanation:Urgent Treatment Needed for Wernicke’s Encephalopathy
Explanation: The most probable diagnosis for the patient is Wernicke’s encephalopathy, a neurological disorder caused by thiamine deficiency. The patient requires immediate treatment with vitamin B1 (thiamine) to prevent further damage to the brain. It is crucial to administer thiamine as soon as possible to avoid irreversible brain damage and potential death. Therefore, urgent medical attention is necessary to ensure the patient’s recovery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 7
Correct
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A 35-year-old man is using intravenous heroin every day. He has not disclosed this before and has not sought support for this in the past. He requests methadone substitution from his general practitioner.
What is the single most appropriate action?Your Answer: Offer referral to specialist drug-abuse service
Explanation:Managing Opioid Dependence: Recommended Actions for GPs
As a GP, managing patients with opioid dependence can be challenging. Here are some recommended actions to help you provide the best care for your patients:
1. Offer referral to a specialist drug-abuse service. NICE advises that doctors assess and manage people with opioid dependence within their competence and confidence, which for the majority would mean referral to a specialist service. Here, they have an MDT who can effectively assess, treat, and follow up patients like this.
2. Prescribe methadone at a dose indicated in the British National Formulary (BNF). It is possible for a GP to prescribe methadone, but this should only be done if they have received higher-level training, or they feel confident to do so and have input from a shared-care multidisciplinary team (MDT).
3. Avoid prescribing a reducing course of dihydrocodeine. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) advises that dihydrocodeine should not be used in detoxification, except in specific circumstances within specialist care.
4. Avoid performing urine toxicology unless you are confident in managing this situation. Urine toxicology would not be of any benefit here if you are not confident in managing this situation.
5. Avoid arranging weekly review. This man is requesting care which requires specialist input, so arranging review in a week would only cause unnecessary delay.
By following these recommended actions, you can help your patients manage their opioid dependence effectively and safely.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman comes to the General Practice Surgery complaining of a one-week history of fever, malaise, a generalised rash and a sore throat. During the examination, there is an erythematous rash affecting the entire body and generalised lymphadenopathy. She confesses to a history of intravenous drug use. What is the most probable diagnosis? Choose ONE option only.
Your Answer: Syphilis
Correct Answer: Human Immunodeficieny Virus (HIV)
Explanation:HIV, glandular fever, measles, rubella, and syphilis are all infectious diseases with distinct symptoms and modes of transmission. HIV is more common among at-risk groups such as intravenous drug users, men who have sex with men, and sex workers. Glandular fever is caused by Epstein-Barr Virus and is common in young adult populations. Measles and rubella are RNA viruses transmitted by respiratory droplet spread, with measles being uncommon in the UK due to vaccination rates. Syphilis is a treponemal infection with distinct stages, but is not associated with drug use and doesn’t present with prominent systemic features.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 9
Correct
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A 36-year-old cocaine user, Sarah, visits the clinic and asks for a prescription for methadone. She had taken methadone at 30 mg once a day last year. Sarah is currently using the same amount of cocaine as she did last year and wants to resume taking 30 mg of methadone to manage withdrawal symptoms. However, you have no experience prescribing methadone and feel unsure about doing so. What is the best course of action?
Your Answer: Not prescribe methadone
Explanation:Prescribing methadone is a serious matter that requires an experienced and competent prescriber. It is important that the prescriber doesn’t feel pressured to prescribe the drug due to patient demands. As you are not confident in prescribing methadone, it would be unsafe for you to do so.
Before prescribing methadone, it is essential to confirm opioid dependence through a thorough history, examination, and toxicology screening using urine or oral fluid swabs. The prescribing process should involve a multidisciplinary team, including the patient’s drug team or local drug worker and pharmacist.
Methadone should be prescribed at a low dose and titrated upwards. The standard concentration is 1 mg/ml oral solution, with higher concentrations rarely used. The starting dose should be between 10 mg and 30 mg daily, depending on the amount and method of heroin or other opioids being used. Methadone is typically taken once daily.
Understanding Opioid Misuse and its Management
Opioid misuse is a serious problem that can lead to various complications and health risks. Opioids are substances that bind to opioid receptors, including natural opiates like morphine and synthetic opioids like buprenorphine and methadone. Signs of opioid misuse include rhinorrhoea, needle track marks, pinpoint pupils, drowsiness, watering eyes, and yawning.
Complications of opioid misuse can range from viral and bacterial infections to venous thromboembolism and overdose, which can lead to respiratory depression and death. Psychological and social problems such as craving, crime, prostitution, and homelessness can also arise.
In case of an opioid overdose, emergency management involves administering IV or IM naloxone, which has a rapid onset and relatively short duration of action. Harm reduction interventions such as needle exchange and testing for HIV, hepatitis B & C may also be offered.
Patients with opioid dependence are usually managed by specialist drug dependence clinics or GPs with a specialist interest. Treatment options may include maintenance therapy or detoxification, with methadone or buprenorphine recommended as the first-line treatment by NICE. Compliance is monitored using urinalysis, and detoxification can last up to 4 weeks in an inpatient/residential setting and up to 12 weeks in the community. Understanding opioid misuse and its management is crucial in addressing this growing public health concern.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 52-year-old homeless woman with an illicit drug use problem requests detoxification in the community.
Which of the following factors would make community detoxification difficult in this case?
Your Answer: The patient’s lack of a permanent home
Correct Answer: A previous community detoxification attempt failed
Explanation:Community Detoxification: Considerations and Options
Community detoxification is often the preferred option for patients seeking to reduce or eliminate their use of illicit drugs. However, there are certain factors that may make inpatient detoxification more appropriate, such as previous failed attempts at community detoxification, significant social problems, complex drug use, or physical comorbidities. Concurrent abuse of alcohol is a common issue, but it doesn’t necessarily prevent a patient from entering an opioid-reduction program. While complete detoxification should be the ultimate goal, any reduction in drug or alcohol use is a positive step. Homelessness can present challenges, but it is not a barrier to community detoxification, as pharmacies can work with detoxification teams to provide prescriptions. When it comes to medication-assisted detoxification, both methadone and buprenorphine are effective options. Ultimately, the choice between community and inpatient detoxification, as well as the specific treatment approach, should be based on the individual patient’s needs and circumstances.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 11
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman says she is currently struggling to cope at work and feels she needs some time off work. She has become depressed but denies any suicidal thoughts or intent. She feels anxious, shaky and nauseous most mornings. She admits to drinking about 40 - 50 units of alcohol per week. She is aware that this is too much but has not connected it to her current problems.
What is the most appropriate response to this patient’s situation?Your Answer: Provide him with information about specialist alcohol services
Explanation:Providing Support for Alcohol Dependence: A Patient-Centered Approach
When working with a patient who displays signs of alcohol dependence, it is important to approach the situation with empathy and understanding. Referral to specialist alcohol services is recommended for those with moderate or severe dependence, and screening with an AUDIT or AUDIT-C questionnaire can help quantify the level of dependence. It is not helpful to use the threat of job loss as a means of motivating the patient to stop drinking, and offering a Statement of Fitness for Work should not be conditional on immediate cessation of alcohol use. Prescribing fluoxetine may not be effective while alcohol use is ongoing, and making judgemental statements about the patient’s behavior is not productive. Instead, a patient-centered approach that focuses on support and understanding can help the patient address their underlying issues with alcohol.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 12
Correct
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The following patient is a 28-year-old ST1 doctor in anaesthetics. He has poorly controlled asthma and casually mentions that he uses cannabis. What should be done in this situation?
Your Answer: Discuss the potential negative effects of smoking cannabis
Explanation:The doctor’s actions as a cannabis user do not seem to be impacting his performance as an anaesthetist. It should be noted that the doctor has sought medical attention as a patient.
It is not advisable to breach confidentiality by contacting the clinical director or threatening to involve the hospital. Additionally, involving the police is not appropriate as the issue of cannabis use should be handled differently.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 13
Correct
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You are asked to visit a 45-year-old construction worker at his worksite. He is known to drink five cans of beer per day and a number of shots of whiskey whilst socializing with his colleagues after work. His supervisor is concerned as he has become lethargic, confused and has taken to sitting down frequently.
On examination he has nystagmus, is restless and disorientated. He has edema, but his abdomen doesn't appear tense and he is afebrile. You get him to walk and he has truncal ataxia.
You think he should be admitted to hospital. How should he be treated?Your Answer: Thiamine replacement
Explanation:Wernicke’s Encephalopathy in Alcoholism
Sudden deterioration in alcoholism can be caused by alcohol withdrawal or acute infection, such as spontaneous bacterial peritonitis. However, if confusion, nystagmus, and truncal ataxia are present, Wernicke’s encephalopathy should be considered. Thiamine replacement is crucial to prevent the development of Korsakoff’s psychosis, which can result in permanent short-term memory impairment. It is important to recognize and treat Wernicke’s encephalopathy promptly to prevent long-term neurological damage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 14
Incorrect
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Which of the following characteristics is least commonly linked to ecstasy overdose?
Your Answer: Hypertension
Correct Answer: Hypernatraemia
Explanation:Water intoxication can lead to the development of hyponatraemia.
Understanding Ecstasy Poisoning
Ecstasy, also known as MDMA or 3,4-Methylenedioxymethamphetamine, gained popularity in the 1990s with the rise of dance music culture. However, its use can lead to poisoning with various clinical features. Neurological symptoms such as agitation, anxiety, confusion, and ataxia are common, as well as cardiovascular symptoms like tachycardia and hypertension. Hyponatremia, hyperthermia, and rhabdomyolysis are also possible.
When it comes to managing ecstasy poisoning, supportive measures are typically used. However, if simple measures fail, dantrolene may be administered to address hyperthermia. It’s important to understand the risks associated with ecstasy use and to seek medical attention if any symptoms of poisoning arise. By being aware of the potential dangers, individuals can make informed decisions about their drug use and take steps to protect their health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 15
Correct
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You are conducting an interview with a 35-year-old man who has increased his alcohol consumption after a recent breakup. According to NICE recommendations, what is the most suitable method to screen for alcohol dependence and harmful drinking?
Your Answer: AUDIT questionnaire
Explanation:According to the Clinical Knowledge Summaries from NICE, it is recommended to utilize formal assessment tools to evaluate the extent and seriousness of alcohol misuse. This includes utilizing the AUDIT (Alcohol Use Disorders Identification Test) as a routine measure for identification purposes. This can assist in determining whether a brief intervention is necessary and, if so, what type of intervention is appropriate. In situations where time is limited, it is recommended to use a shortened version of the AUDIT, such as the AUDIT-C (AUDIT-Consumption), and then follow up with the complete questionnaire if problem drinking is indicated.
Alcohol Problem Drinking: Detection and Assessment
Alcohol problem drinking can have serious consequences on an individual’s health and well-being. Therefore, it is important to detect and assess alcohol consumption to identify those who may need intervention. Screening tools such as AUDIT, FAST, and CAGE can be used to identify hazardous or harmful alcohol consumption and alcohol dependence.
AUDIT is a 10-item questionnaire that takes about 2-3 minutes to complete. It has been shown to be superior to CAGE and biochemical markers for predicting alcohol problems. A score of 8 or more in men, and 7 or more in women, indicates a strong likelihood of hazardous or harmful alcohol consumption. A score of 15 or more in men, and 13 or more in women, is likely to indicate alcohol dependence. AUDIT-C is an abbreviated form consisting of 3 questions.
FAST is a 4-item questionnaire that can quickly identify hazardous drinking. The score for hazardous drinking is 3 or more. Over 50% of people will be classified using just the first question, which asks how often the individual has had eight or more drinks on one occasion (six or more for women).
CAGE is a well-known screening tool, but recent research has questioned its value. Two or more positive answers are generally considered a ‘positive’ result. The questions ask about feeling the need to cut down on drinking, being annoyed by criticism of drinking, feeling guilty about drinking, and having a drink in the morning to get rid of a hangover.
To diagnose alcohol dependence, the ICD-10 definition requires three or more of the following: compulsion to drink, difficulties controlling alcohol consumption, physiological withdrawal, tolerance to alcohol, neglect of alternative activities to drinking, and persistent use of alcohol despite evidence of harm.
Overall, screening and assessment tools can help identify individuals who may need intervention for alcohol problem drinking. It is important to use these tools to promote early detection and intervention to prevent further harm.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 16
Correct
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A 25-year-old man is brought into the General Practice Surgery by a concerned friend. He is drowsy, confused and sweating profusely. The accompanying friend reports drug use earlier that evening. A toxicology screen for opiates, cocaine, cannabis and alcohol is negative.
What is the most likely causative drug?Your Answer: Spice
Explanation:Spice, a synthetic cannabinoid, is a type of new psychoactive substance (NPS) that is often referred to as a legal high despite being prohibited by the Psychoactive Substances Act 2016 and the Misuse of Drugs Act 1971. NPS use has become increasingly common in the UK, particularly among young men who mistakenly believe that they are safer than traditional illicit drugs. Spice is typically consumed as a herbal smoking mixture and is responsible for over half of all NPS use. While it produces similar effects to cannabis, it is more potent and can cause negative side effects such as dizziness, agitation, paranoia, and seizures. Based on the symptoms described in this scenario and the negative toxicology screen for other illicit drugs, Spice is the most likely cause.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old heroin addict begins methadone treatment. What is the proper protocol for notification?
Your Answer: Notify National Drug Treatment Monitoring System without informing patient
Correct Answer: Notify National Drug Treatment Monitoring System if patient consent obtained
Explanation:Reporting Drug Misuse Cases
Doctors are required to notify their local or national drug misuse center about patients who are struggling with drug misuse, particularly with opioids, benzodiazepines, and CNS stimulants. The contact details of these centers can be found in the BNF. The National Drug Treatment Monitoring System (NDTMS) collects data that helps in planning drug services and evaluating the efficiency and effectiveness of drug treatment provision.
However, before sending patient data to the NDTMS, doctors must obtain consent from the patient. This is to ensure that patient confidentiality is maintained and that their privacy is respected. By reporting drug misuse cases, doctors can help in the provision of better drug treatment services and contribute to the overall improvement of public health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 18
Correct
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A 72-year-old woman comes in asking for 'her sleeping pills'. Upon reviewing her records, you find out that she has been taking 40 mg of Temazepam for 20 years. After some questioning, she expresses a desire to discontinue use. How should this situation be handled?
Your Answer: Convert to an equivalent dose of diazepam and then reduce slowly
Explanation:The Risks of Hypnotic Dependence
Hypnotic dependence remains a significant concern, as benzodiazepines and Z-class drugs have the potential to cause dependence without proven efficacy in treating chronic insomnia. Withdrawal from these drugs can lead to rebound insomnia and even seizures with high doses of benzodiazepines. Additionally, hypnotics have a street value and can be diverted for non-medical use. To mitigate these risks, it is recommended that prescriptions for hypnotics be limited to one week. If a doctor wishes to withdraw a patient from a hypnotic, they should first convert the dosage to an equivalent dose of diazepam, which has a longer half-life, allowing for a slower withdrawal process.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 19
Correct
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A 35-year-old man visits his General Practitioner for a consultation after a routine health check revealed an elevated level of γ-glutamyltransferase (γ-GT). He confesses to regularly consuming over 30 units of alcohol per week but doesn't exhibit any signs of alcohol dependence. What is the most accurate statement regarding brief interventions in this scenario?
Your Answer: They involve giving information, advice and support
Explanation:Brief Interventions for Hazardous or Harmful Drinking
Brief interventions are a valuable tool in addressing hazardous or harmful drinking. These interventions aim to identify potential problems and motivate individuals to take action. They are targeted at those who are not dependent on alcohol but may be at risk of developing problems. Brief interventions can range from a short 5-10 minute conversation to multiple sessions of motivational interviewing or counseling.
During a brief intervention, patients are encouraged to consider both the negative and positive aspects of their drinking. If a patient decides to reduce their drinking, they are provided with support. These interventions are often opportunistic, meaning they are given when a patient is attending for another reason and has not necessarily expressed concern about their drinking.
Brief interventions can be given by a variety of healthcare professionals, including general practitioners, nurses, hospital doctors, social workers, and probation officers. By providing early intervention and support, brief interventions can help prevent the development of more serious alcohol-related problems.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 20
Correct
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Chronic alcohol abuse is known to have a negative impact on the cardiovascular system. Among the following conditions, which is the LEAST likely to be associated with excessive alcohol consumption?
Your Answer: Mitral stenosis
Explanation:Alcohol Abuse and Cardiovascular Problems: Effects and Risks
Alcohol abuse can lead to various cardiovascular problems, including atrial fibrillation, hypertension, strokes, and cardiomyopathy with heart failure. Additionally, infective endocarditis is more common in those who abuse alcohol. However, it is interesting to note that mild to moderate alcohol consumption, particularly in the form of wine and beer, which are rich in polyphenols, may actually have cardiovascular protective effects. This is true for both individuals with existing cardiovascular disease and healthy individuals. It is important to be aware of the potential risks associated with alcohol abuse, but also to consider the potential benefits of moderate alcohol consumption.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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