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  • Question 1 - A 68-year-old woman presents with a one-month history of non-specific malaise. She experiences...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old woman presents with a one-month history of non-specific malaise. She experiences stiffness, particularly in the mornings, and has difficulty lifting her arms to comb her hair. She also has constant pain in her arms, shoulders, and jaw when chewing. She has lost 4 kg in weight and has a persistent headache. She smokes 10 cigarettes a day and drinks 10 units of alcohol per week. On examination, she has tenderness with reduced mobility in the proximal muscles of her arms and legs. Her investigations reveal a low Hb, high WCC, and elevated ESR. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Systemic lupus erythematosus

      Correct Answer: Polymyalgia rheumatica

      Explanation:

      Polymyalgia Rheumatica/Temporal arthritis: Symptoms and Treatment

      Polymyalgia rheumatica/temporal arthritis is a condition that can cause a variety of symptoms. It may present with predominantly polymyalgia symptoms such as muscle pain and stiffness, or arthritis symptoms such as headaches, scalp tenderness, and jaw claudication. Systemic features like fever, malaise, and weight loss may also be present. Weakness is not a typical feature, but it may be apparent due to pain or stiffness with weight loss. The ESR (erythrocyte sedimentation rate) is usually very high in this condition.

      Temporal arthritis is a serious complication of this condition that can result in blindness. It is important to note that temporal arthritis is a vasculitis that affects medium and large-sized arteries throughout the body, not just the temporal artery. The superficial temporal artery supplies the orbit of the eye and is a branch of the external carotid artery, while the ophthalmic artery supplies the majority of the blood to the eye itself and is a branch of the internal carotid artery. Inflammation and narrowing of the temporal artery can cause blindness.

      If temporal arthritis is suspected, it must be treated with high-dose steroids. This condition is a reminder that prompt diagnosis and treatment are crucial to prevent serious complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 2 - A 40-year-old school teacher who enjoys running long distances comes to the clinic...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old school teacher who enjoys running long distances comes to the clinic complaining of cramp-like pain in the forefoot that has been bothering them for the past week. During the examination, tenderness was noted over the dorsal distal portion of the second metatarsal. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Lisfranc injury

      Correct Answer: March fracture

      Explanation:

      Common Foot Injuries and Their Causes

      March fracture, Lisfranc injury, Hallux Rigidus, Jones fracture, and proximal fifth metatarsal avulsion fracture are all common foot injuries that can cause significant pain and discomfort. A March fracture is a stress fracture of one of the metatarsal bones caused by repetitive stress, often seen in soldiers and hikers. Lisfranc injury occurs when one or more metatarsal bones are displaced from the tarsus due to excessive kinetic energy, such as in a traffic collision. Hallux Rigidus is degenerative arthritis that causes bone spurs at the metatarsophalangeal joint of the big toe, resulting in stiffness and pain. Jones fracture is a fracture in the fifth metatarsal of the foot, while proximal fifth metatarsal avulsion fracture is caused by forcible inversion of the foot in plantar flexion.

      Based on the onset of symptoms and tenderness over the distal portion of the second metatarsal, a March fracture is the most likely diagnosis. It is important to seek medical attention for any foot injury to prevent further damage and ensure proper healing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 3 - A previously healthy 60-year-old hypertensive teacher complains of pain, redness, and swelling in...

    Incorrect

    • A previously healthy 60-year-old hypertensive teacher complains of pain, redness, and swelling in the left knee that began 10 hours ago. The patient has a family history of hypertension and joint issues. What is the most crucial investigation to determine the cause of the knee symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Joint aspiration for microscopy and culture

      Explanation:

      Importance of Joint Aspiration in Identifying the Cause of Acute Monoarthropathy

      When a patient presents with acute monoarthropathy, it is important to identify the cause of their symptoms. The most important investigation in this case is joint aspiration. This procedure involves taking a sample of fluid from the affected joint and examining it under a microscope to identify any infective organisms. This is crucial in cases where septic arthritis is suspected, as appropriate therapy can be guided based on the results. On the other hand, if the cause is gout, joint aspiration can reveal the presence of crystals in the fluid. X-rays are of no value in septic arthritis as they only become abnormal following joint destruction. Therefore, joint aspiration is the most important investigation in identifying the cause of acute monoarthropathy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 4 - A 54-year-old man visits his GP complaining of pain and swelling in his...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old man visits his GP complaining of pain and swelling in his right elbow. He mentions feeling generally unwell for the past few days and remembers hitting his elbow while cycling the previous week. During the examination, his temperature is 37.7 °C, his heart rate is 78 bpm, and his blood pressure is 124/78 mmHg. There is a warm, erythematous swelling on the posterior aspect of his right elbow.
      What is the most suitable course of action for this probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral flucloxacillin and refer for urgent aspiration

      Explanation:

      Management of Suspected Infected Olecranon Bursitis

      Suspected infected olecranon bursitis requires prompt management to prevent complications. The following options are available:

      Option 1: Oral flucloxacillin and refer for urgent aspiration
      Empirical antibiotics, such as oral flucloxacillin, should be started immediately to cover for staphylococci and streptococci. However, urgent same-day aspiration should also be arranged to confirm the diagnosis and obtain antibiotic susceptibility.

      Option 2: Arrange for corticosteroid injection
      If there are no signs of infection, corticosteroid injection may be considered after conservative measures have failed in aseptic olecranon bursitis. However, in suspected septic olecranon bursitis, urgent antibiotics and aspiration are required.

      Option 3: Oral flucloxacillin only
      Empirical oral flucloxacillin should be started as soon as possible in suspected infected olecranon bursitis. However, referral for urgent aspiration is also necessary to confirm the diagnosis and obtain antibiotic susceptibility.

      Option 4: Oral amoxicillin and refer for urgent aspiration
      Flucloxacillin, not amoxicillin, should be given for suspected septic olecranon bursitis to cover the most common organisms. Urgent aspiration should also be arranged to confirm the diagnosis and obtain antibiotic susceptibility.

      Option 5: Refer for urgent aspiration
      Urgent aspiration is necessary to confirm the diagnosis and obtain antibiotic susceptibility. Empirical antibiotics should be started first while awaiting culture results. If the patient is seen in the Emergency Department, aspiration may be done first before starting antibiotics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 5 - A 35-year-old man presents with a 5-day history of pain and swelling affecting...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man presents with a 5-day history of pain and swelling affecting the right knee and left ankle. On further questioning, he complained of dysuria and had woken with both eyes ‘stuck together’ for the last three days. He thinks that his urinary symptoms may be linked to the unprotected sex he had three weeks ago. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reactive arthritis

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Reactive Arthritis Symptoms

      A patient presents with arthropathy, conjunctivitis, and urethritis, which are classic symptoms of reactive arthritis. The probable underlying cause is chlamydial infection or gonorrhea, as the patient has had recent unprotected sex. Primary syphilis, genital herpes, trichomoniasis, and E. coli infection are unlikely differential diagnoses. Syphilis causes a painless sore on the genitals, while genital herpes presents with blisters and is not associated with arthropathy. Trichomoniasis is commonly asymptomatic and presents with dysuria, frequency, and balanitis in men. E. coli is a common cause of UTI, but the patient’s symptoms are broader than those of a typical UTI.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 6 - A 55-year-old carpet layer presented with acute pain and swelling affecting his left...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old carpet layer presented with acute pain and swelling affecting his left knee. There is no history of trauma. Past medical history includes haemochromatosis for which he receives regular venesection.
      Examination reveals a hot, tender, swollen left knee.
      Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 135 g/l 135–175 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 4.0 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 200 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 12 mm/h 0–10mm in the 1st hour
      Sodium (Na+) 139 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 5.0 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine 120 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Knee aspirate: 12 000 white blood cells/ml (majority neutrophils); rhomboid-shaped, weakly positively birefringent crystals. No growth on culture.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pseudogout

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Knee Aspirate: Pseudogout, Gout, prepatellar Bursitis, Septic Arthritis, Osteoarthritis

      A knee aspirate was performed on a patient who presented with knee pain. The aspirate revealed positively birefringent calcium pyrophosphate crystals, indicating pseudogout. This condition is associated with haemochromatosis and can be treated with non-steroidal anti-inflammatory agents, corticosteroid injections, or short courses of oral corticosteroids. Colchicine may also be an option for some patients. Familial pyrophosphate arthropathy, a rare form of the condition, may be linked to mutations in genes related to inorganic phosphate transport.

      Gout is a differential diagnosis for this case, but the knee aspirate would reveal negatively birefringent crystals. prepatellar bursitis, a sterile condition not associated with crystals or raised white cell counts, can be ruled out. Septic arthritis would present with a systemic inflammatory response and rhomboid-shaped birefringent crystals would not be present. Osteoarthritis is a chronic condition and would not present acutely, and joint aspirate would not show rhomboid-shaped birefringent crystals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 7 - A patient in their mid-40s wakes up experiencing severe pain, redness, and swelling...

    Incorrect

    • A patient in their mid-40s wakes up experiencing severe pain, redness, and swelling at the base of their big toe.

      What is the most suitable course of treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Indomethacin

      Explanation:

      NSAIDs for Gout Treatment

      Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) are commonly used to treat acute attacks of gout. Among the NSAIDs, indomethacin is the most frequently prescribed due to its potent anti-inflammatory properties. However, it is important to note that aspirin and aspirin-containing products should be avoided during acute gout attacks as they can actually trigger or worsen the condition. Therefore, it is crucial to consult with a healthcare provider before taking any medication for gout, especially during an acute attack. Proper use of NSAIDs can help alleviate the pain and inflammation associated with gout, improving the patient’s quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 8 - A 44-year-old gardener comes to her General Practitioner complaining of pain when kneeling...

    Incorrect

    • A 44-year-old gardener comes to her General Practitioner complaining of pain when kneeling on her right knee for the past month. She denies any fevers and is generally in good health. During the examination of her right knee, the doctor notices a slightly tender swelling in front of the patella that feels fluctuant. Although the knee is not red, it is warm to the touch, and the patient experiences some discomfort when flexing it. What are the probable results of joint aspiration?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clear/milky joint aspirate with normal microscopy and culture

      Explanation:

      Diagnosing Prepatellar Bursitis: Understanding Joint Aspirate Results

      Prepatellar bursitis, also known as housemaid’s knee, is a common condition caused by inflammation of the prepatellar bursa. This can result from repetitive microtrauma, such as prolonged kneeling. Patients typically present with localised, mildly tender swelling over the patella, which can be warm but not hot. Aspiration of the aseptic bursa will reveal a clear and/or milky aspirate that has negative Gram staining and normal microscopy.

      When examining joint aspirate results, it is important to consider other potential diagnoses. Gram-positive cocci, for example, would be grown in the case of Staphylococcus aureus infection, a common cause of septic bursitis. However, in the absence of fever, erythema, and reduced range of motion, septic arthritis is unlikely. Similarly, needle-shaped crystals with strong negative birefringence on polarised light microscopy are seen in gout, but this condition typically presents with acute pain, redness, and inflammation.

      Rhomboid-shaped crystals with weak positive birefringence on polarised light microscopy are seen in pseudogout, which can affect the knee. However, this condition typically affects the entire knee joint and is more common in the elderly.

      In summary, a clear or milky joint aspirate with normal microscopy and culture is consistent with prepatellar bursitis. Other potential diagnoses should be considered based on the patient’s history and examination findings.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 9 - A 56-year-old carpenter presents to the general practitioner (GP) with an acutely swollen...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old carpenter presents to the general practitioner (GP) with an acutely swollen and painful left thumb. The pain came on rapidly over the course of 24 hours, without history of trauma or injury. The patient describes the thumb as being extremely painful and particularly tender to touch. The patient is a type 2 diabetic, which is well controlled with metformin. He does not smoke, but drinks around ten pints of beer at weekends.
      Examination reveals a swelling, erythema and tenderness over the first metacarpophalangeal joint. The clinician suspects a possible crystal arthropathy.
      With regard to gout, which of the following statements is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gout may be seen in patients with chronic haemolytic anaemia

      Explanation:

      Mythbusting Gout: Clarifying Common Misconceptions

      Gout is a painful and often misunderstood condition. Here are some common misconceptions about gout, and the truth behind them:

      1. Gout may be seen in patients with chronic haemolytic anaemia.
      2. Gout may occur in those with elevated urate levels (although levels may be normal during an acute attack) such as those with haemolytic anaemia.
      3. Gout only affects the first metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joint.
      4. Gout most commonly affects the first metatarsophalangeal joint. However, it is not the only joint affected.
      5. Allopurinol is effective in the treatment of acute gout.
      6. Acute gout is treated with non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), colchicine or prednisolone, but not allopurinol. Allopurinol is effective in the prevention of gout because it reduces serum urate levels by blocking urate production (xanthine oxidase inhibition).
      7. A diagnosis of gout is made if there are positively birefringent crystals in the joint aspirate.
      8. Gout is an inflammatory arthritis that occurs as a result of deposition of negatively birefringent urate crystals in the joint.
      9. All cases of acute gout have an elevated serum urate.
      10. Although a raised serum urate can be used to support the diagnosis, many will not be raised. Similarly, if a patient has a raised serum urate, they do not automatically have the clinical picture of gout.

      In conclusion, it is important to dispel these common myths about gout in order to properly diagnose and treat this painful condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 10 - A 45-year-old patient is referred for investigation of hypertension. On examination, she has...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old patient is referred for investigation of hypertension. On examination, she has a beaked nose and telangiectasia on the face. There is evidence of tight, waxy skin of the fingers, with calcification on one finger. She has had Raynaud’s disease for many years.
      Which of the following autoantibodies is most likely to be positive?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anti-centromere antibody

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Autoantibodies in Connective Tissue Diseases

      Connective tissue diseases are a group of autoimmune disorders that affect various parts of the body. Differentiating between these diseases can be challenging, but autoantibodies can provide valuable clues. Here are some common autoantibodies and the connective tissue diseases they are associated with:

      1. Anti-centromere antibody: This antibody is most likely to be present in limited systemic sclerosis (CREST).

      2. Anti-Scl-70: This antibody is found in diffuse systemic sclerosis.

      3. Anti-RNP antibody: This antibody is found in mixed connective tissue disease.

      4. Anti-Ro antibody: This antibody is classically positive in Sjögren’s syndrome or systemic lupus erythematosus.

      5. Anti-Jo-1 antibody: This antibody is commonly raised in polymyositis.

      By identifying the specific autoantibodies present in a patient, healthcare providers can better diagnose and manage connective tissue diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 11 - A 25-year-old male immigrant from Turkey presents with complaints of recurrent painful oral...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male immigrant from Turkey presents with complaints of recurrent painful oral ulcers, genital ulcers, tender nodules on the extensor surface of the tibia and arthritis of both knees and ankles for the past 3 months. He has also had episodes of severe eye pain. He had an episode of pulmonary embolism due to deep vein thrombosis of the right leg 1 month ago. On examination, the oral cavity shows the presence of small shallow ulcers with a yellow necrotic centre. Genital examination reveals ulcers on the shaft of the penis and scrotal scars. The glans is spared. Non-specific inflammatory response is observed after intradermal injection of normal saline. Investigations revealed:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      White cell count (WCC) 20 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 80 mm/h 0–10mm in the 1st hour
      C-reactive protein (CRP) Positive
      Anti-Saccharomyces cerevisiae antibodies Positive
      Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Behçet’s syndrome

      Explanation:

      Behçet’s Syndrome: A Multisystem Disorder with Recurrent Oral and Genital Ulcerations

      Behçet’s syndrome is a multisystem disorder that primarily affects young people from the Mediterranean region, the Middle East, and the Far East. The syndrome is characterized by recurrent oral and genital ulcerations, as well as ocular involvement. The main pathologic lesion is systemic perivasculitis with early neutrophil infiltration and endothelial swelling. In some patients, vasculitis of the vasa vasorum can result in the formation of pseudo-aneurysms. Anti-Saccharomyces cerevisiae antibodies are present in patients with Behçet’s syndrome. The recurrent aphthous ulcerations are essential for the diagnosis, and a non-specific skin inflammatory reactivity to any scratches or intradermal saline injection (pathergy test) is a common and specific manifestation. Genital ulcers are painful, do not affect the glans penis or urethra, and produce scrotal scars. Thromboembolic events are a component of the disease itself, with superficial or deep peripheral vein thrombosis seen in 30% of patients. Pulmonary emboli are a rare but possible complication.

      Other possible diagnoses, such as extra intestinal Crohn’s disease, occult malignancy, systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), and rheumatoid arthritis, can be ruled out based on the absence of certain clinical features and the presence of anti-Saccharomyces cerevisiae antibodies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 12 - A 35-year-old male executive presents to you after being referred from the Emergency...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old male executive presents to you after being referred from the Emergency department. He has been experiencing a painful and swollen left knee for the past 24 hours. He denies any history of joint problems or trauma. Additionally, he has noticed redness and soreness in both eyes over the last two days. He is a non-smoker, married, and consumes about 10 units of alcohol weekly. He recently returned from a business trip to Amsterdam two weeks ago.

      During examination, his temperature is 38.5°C, and he has a brown macular rash on the soles of his feet. His left knee is hot, swollen, and tender to palpate, while no other joint appears to be affected.

      Investigations reveal Hb 129 g/L (130-180), WBC 14.0 ×109/L (4-11), Platelets 200 ×109/L (150-400), ESR 75 mm/hr (0-15), Plasma sodium 140 mmol/L (137-144), Plasma potassium 4.1 mmol/L (3.5-4.9), Plasma urea 5.6 mmol/L (2.5-7.5), Blood cultures without growth after 48 hours, and Urinalysis without blood, glucose, or protein detected. Knee x-ray shows soft tissue swelling around the left knee.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reactive arthritis

      Explanation:

      Reactive Arthritis

      Reactive arthritis is a medical condition that is typically characterized by a combination of three symptoms: urethritis, conjunctivitis, and seronegative arthritis. This type of arthritis usually affects the large weight-bearing joints, such as the knee and ankle, but not all three symptoms are always present in a patient. Reactive arthritis can be triggered by either a sexually transmitted infection or a dysenteric infection. One of the most notable signs of this condition is the appearance of a brown macular rash known as keratoderma blennorrhagica, which is usually seen on the palms and soles.

      The main treatment for reactive arthritis involves the use of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs). These medications can help to alleviate the pain and inflammation associated with the condition. Additionally, antibiotics may be prescribed to individuals who have recently experienced a non-gonococcal venereal infection. This can help to reduce the likelihood of that person developing reactive arthritis. Overall, the symptoms and treatment options for reactive arthritis can help individuals to manage this condition and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 13 - A 50-year-old woman visits the Rheumatology Clinic seeking modification of her DMARDs for...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman visits the Rheumatology Clinic seeking modification of her DMARDs for the treatment of her rheumatoid arthritis. She is informed that she will require frequent liver checks and eye exams due to the potential side-effects of these medications. What is the most probable combination of treatment she will receive for her condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Methotrexate plus hydroxychloroquine

      Explanation:

      Medication Combinations for Treating Rheumatoid Arthritis

      When treating rheumatoid arthritis, the first-line medication is a DMARD monotherapy with methotrexate. Short-term steroids may also be used in combination with DMARD monotherapy to induce remission. Hydroxychloroquine is another medication that can be used, but patients should be closely monitored for visual changes as retinopathy and corneal deposits are common side effects.

      Etanercept is not a first-line treatment for rheumatoid arthritis, and methotrexate should not be given in combination with a TNF-alpha inhibitor like etanercept. Methotrexate plus sulfasalazine is an appropriate medication combination for treating rheumatoid arthritis, but regular eye checks are not required as neither medication affects vision.

      If a patient has failed treatment with methotrexate, sulfasalazine plus hydroxychloroquine may be a regimen to consider trialling. However, it is important to note that new-onset rheumatoid arthritis should be treated with a DMARD monotherapy first line, with the addition of another DMARD like methotrexate as the first-line option.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 14 - A 65-year-old woman presents with a one-month history of non-specific malaise. She reports...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman presents with a one-month history of non-specific malaise. She reports stiffness, particularly in the mornings, and difficulty lifting her arms to comb her hair. She experiences constant aching in her arms and shoulders and jaw pain when chewing. She has also lost 4 kg in weight and has a persistent headache. She smokes 10 cigarettes a day and drinks 10 units of alcohol per week. On examination, her temperature is 38°C, pulse is 84 beats/min, and BP is 125/80 mmHg. Investigations reveal abnormal blood results. What is the most appropriate next step in her evaluation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Erythrocyte sedimentation rate

      Explanation:

      Polymyalgia Rheumatica/Temporal arthritis: Symptoms and Importance of Diagnosis

      Polymyalgia rheumatica/temporal arthritis is a condition that may present with predominantly polymyalgia symptoms such as proximal muscle pain, stiffness, or arthritis symptoms such as headaches, scalp tenderness, and jaw claudication. It is also common for the condition to have systemic involvement, including fever, malaise, and weight loss. One of the key indicators of this condition is a very high ESR.

      The main reason for diagnosing and treating polymyalgia rheumatica/temporal arthritis is to prevent blindness. This condition can cause inflammation in the blood vessels that supply the eyes, leading to vision loss. Therefore, early diagnosis and treatment are crucial to prevent this complication.

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      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 15 - A 65-year-old woman complains of discomfort at the base of her left thumb....

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman complains of discomfort at the base of her left thumb. The right first carpometacarpal joint is swollen and tender.
      What could be the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Osteoarthritis

      Explanation:

      Common Hand and Wrist Pathologies

      The hand and wrist are common sites of pathology, particularly in postmenopausal women. Osteoarthritis frequently affects the first carpometacarpal joint, causing tenderness, stiffness, crepitus, swelling, and pain on thumb abduction. This can lead to squaring of the hand, radial subluxation of the metacarpal, and atrophy of the thenar muscles.

      Scaphoid fractures are also relatively common, often resulting from a fall onto an outstretched hand. The proximal portion of the scaphoid lacks its own blood supply, which can lead to avascular necrosis if a fracture isolates it from the rest of the bone. This produces pain and tenderness on the radial side of the wrist, typically in the anatomical snuffbox, worsened by wrist movement.

      De Quervain’s tenosynovitis is another common pathology, characterized by stenosing tenosynovitis of the first dorsal compartment of the wrist. It presents with pain, swelling, and tenderness on the radial aspect of the wrist. Treatment typically involves splinting, with or without corticosteroid injection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 16 - A 40-year-old farmer presents to the clinic with muscle pain in his lower...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old farmer presents to the clinic with muscle pain in his lower back, calves and neck. He takes regular paracetamol but this has not helped his symptoms. For the past four weeks, he has become increasingly agitated and reports that he can no longer sleep for more than a few hours because the pain wakes him up. He feels increasingly lethargic and helpless. He also reports that as a result of his pain, he feels that his memory has worsened and he reports a low mood. A Kessler Psychological Distress Scale screening questionnaire is performed and he has a score of 30. His laboratory blood tests are unremarkable.
      What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Duloxetine

      Explanation:

      Pharmacological Treatments for Fibromyalgia Pain: Choosing the Right Option

      Fibromyalgia is a chronic pain disorder that can be challenging to manage. Duloxetine, pregabalin, and tramadol are all appropriate pharmacological treatments for severe pain disturbance in fibromyalgia. However, the choice of which treatment to use depends on the patient’s co-morbidities, clinical presentation, and patient preference.

      In this case, the patient has comorbid low mood and possible depression, making duloxetine a reasonable choice. Venlafaxine, another serotonin and norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor, may be theoretically useful, but there is insufficient evidence for its use. Codeine and paracetamol have been shown to be ineffective in treating fibromyalgia pain.

      While psychotherapy may be considered for patients with pain-related depression and adverse coping mechanisms, it is not the correct answer for this patient. Overall, choosing the right pharmacological treatment for fibromyalgia pain requires careful consideration of the patient’s individual needs and circumstances.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 17 - A 38-year-old woman presents to the clinic with symmetrical polyarthritis affecting her fingers,...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old woman presents to the clinic with symmetrical polyarthritis affecting her fingers, wrists and elbows. She also reports significant morning stiffness which lasts for up to 90 minutes and is finding it very difficult to get up for work in the morning. There is a history of deep vein thrombosis during her second pregnancy, but no other significant past medical history. Her only medication of note is the oral contraceptive pill.
      On examination, she has evidence of active synovitis affecting her wrists and the small joints of her fingers.
      Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 121 g/l 115–155 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 8.1 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 193 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 139 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.5 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine 110 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Rheumatoid factor Positive
      Anti-nuclear factor Weakly positive
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Rheumatoid arthritis

      Explanation:

      Diagnosing Rheumatoid Arthritis: Differential Diagnosis

      Rheumatoid arthritis is a common autoimmune disorder that affects the joints, causing morning stiffness and small joint polyarthritis. A positive rheumatoid factor is present in 70% of patients, while anti-CCP antibodies are highly specific for rheumatoid arthritis and can be useful in rheumatoid factor-negative cases.

      Other conditions that may present with similar symptoms include systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), antiphospholipid antibody syndrome, seronegative arthritis, and polymyalgia rheumatica. However, in this case, there are no other features to suggest SLE, one episode of deep vein thrombosis during pregnancy is insufficient to suggest antiphospholipid antibody syndrome, the patient is seropositive for rheumatoid factor ruling out seronegative arthritis, and there is no story of proximal muscle pain which could be suggestive of polymyalgia rheumatica. Therefore, the diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis is most likely.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 18 - In which joint would the presence of osteoarthritic changes be atypical? ...

    Incorrect

    • In which joint would the presence of osteoarthritic changes be atypical?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Shoulder joint

      Explanation:

      Osteoarthrosis and Common Deformities in the Hand

      Osteoarthrosis (OA) is a prevalent type of arthritis that often affects the hand. Upon examination of the joints, it is common to find small bone spurs known as nodes on the tops of joints. These nodes can take on different names depending on their location. For instance, if they occur at the joint next to the fingernail, they are called Heberden’s nodes. On the other hand, if they occur at the PIP joints, they are referred to as Bouchard’s nodes. It is worth noting that shoulder joint involvement is rare in OA.

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  • Question 19 - A 40-year-old homemaker with long-standing psoriasis visits her GP with worsening joint pains...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old homemaker with long-standing psoriasis visits her GP with worsening joint pains over the past six months. Upon examination, the GP suspects potential psoriatic arthropathy and refers the patient to a rheumatologist. What is a severe manifestation of psoriatic arthropathy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arthritis mutilans

      Explanation:

      Psoriatic Arthritis: Common Presentations and Misconceptions

      Psoriatic arthritis is a type of arthritis that affects some individuals with psoriasis. While it can present in various ways, there are some common misconceptions about its symptoms. Here are some clarifications:

      1. Arthritis mutilans is a severe form of psoriatic arthritis, not a separate condition.

      2. Psoriatic arthritis can have a rheumatoid-like presentation, but not an osteoarthritis-like one.

      3. The most common presentation of psoriatic arthritis is distal interphalangeal joint involvement, not proximal.

      4. Psoriatic spondylitis is a type of psoriatic arthritis that affects the spine, not ankylosing spondylitis.

      5. Asymmetrical oligoarthritis is a common presentation of psoriatic arthritis, not symmetrical oligoarthritis.

      Understanding these presentations can help with early diagnosis and appropriate treatment of psoriatic arthritis.

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  • Question 20 - A 32-year-old woman comes to the clinic for evaluation. She has been experiencing...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman comes to the clinic for evaluation. She has been experiencing a red rash on her face for 6-12 months and is now having joint pain in multiple areas. She also reports having chest pain that feels like it's coming from the lining of her lungs. During the examination, her blood pressure is measured at 155/92 mmHg, and she has a butterfly-shaped rash on her face.

      The following tests were conducted:

      - Haemoglobin: 119 g/l (normal range: 115-155 g/l)
      - White cell count (WCC): 4.2 × 109/l (normal range: 4-11 × 109/l)
      - Platelets: 192 × 109/l (normal range: 150-400 × 109/l)
      - Sodium (Na+): 140 mmol/l (normal range: 135-145 mmol/l)
      - Potassium (K+): 4.9 mmol/l (normal range: 3.5-5.0 mmol/l)
      - Creatinine: 160 μmol/l (normal range: 50-120 µmol/l)
      - Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR): 66 mm/hr (normal range: 0-10mm in the 1st hour)
      - Anti-nuclear antibody (ANA): positive
      - Urine: blood and protein present

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Systemic Lupus Erythematosus from Other Connective Tissue Diseases

      Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is a complex autoimmune disease that can present with a variety of symptoms. Patients may experience pleuritic chest pain, arthralgia, and a typical rash, which are all indicative of SLE. Anti-nuclear antibodies are typically positive, although they are not specific to lupus. Treatment for SLE involves glucocorticoids as the mainstay, with second-line agents including cyclophosphamide, hydroxychloroquine, and azathioprine. BLyS inhibitors are also showing promise in clinical trials.

      Other connective tissue diseases, such as granulomatosis with polyangiitis (GPA), rheumatoid arthritis, systemic sclerosis, and mixed connective tissue disease, have distinct features that differentiate them from SLE. GPA is a necrotising small-vessel vasculitis that commonly affects the kidneys and lungs, with palpable purpura on the extremities. Rheumatoid arthritis typically presents with joint pain and swelling, but without a butterfly rash or hypertension. Systemic sclerosis affects the skin on the face, forearms, and lower legs, with Raynaud’s, sclerodactyly, and telangiectasia. Mixed connective tissue disease has features of SLE, but without any other connective tissue disease symptoms.

      It is important to differentiate between these diseases to provide appropriate treatment and management for patients.

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  • Question 21 - A 35-year-old woman presents with increasing early-morning bilateral knee pain and stiffness and...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents with increasing early-morning bilateral knee pain and stiffness and generalised fatigue. On examination, she is noted to have flat erythema over the malar eminences with sparing of the nasolabial folds. Multiple painless oral ulcers are also noted. Examination of the knee joints reveals tenderness and suprapatellar effusions bilaterally.
      Which of these is most specific for the underlying condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anti-double-stranded DNA (dsDNA) antibody

      Explanation:

      Systemic lupus erythaematosus (SLE) is an autoimmune disease where the body produces autoantibodies against various antigens, leading to the formation of immune complexes that can deposit in different parts of the body, such as the kidneys. Symptoms of SLE include fatigue, joint pain, rash, and fever. Diagnosis of SLE requires the presence of at least four out of eleven criteria, including malar rash, discoid rash, photosensitivity, oral or nasopharyngeal ulceration, arthritis, serositis, renal disorder, CNS disorders, haematological disorders, positive immunology, and positive ANA. Anti-double-stranded DNA (dsDNA) antibody is highly specific for SLE but only positive in 60% of patients. Other antibodies, such as anti-La antibodies, rheumatoid factor IgG, ANCA, and Scl70, are raised in other autoimmune diseases such as Sjögren’s syndrome, rheumatoid arthritis, and various vasculitides.

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  • Question 22 - A 28-year-old man comes to the Clinic complaining of lower back pain and...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man comes to the Clinic complaining of lower back pain and early morning stiffness that gradually improves as the day goes on. Upon examination, there is a decrease in forward flexion with a positive Schober's test. A lumbar sacral X-ray confirms changes indicative of ankylosing spondylitis. What would be the primary treatment option to consider?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ibuprofen

      Explanation:

      The first-line treatment for ankylosing spondylitis is non-steroidal anti-inflammatories (NSAIDs) like ibuprofen, which should be used alongside physiotherapy and exercise. Long-term NSAID use requires gastro protection with a proton-pump inhibitor. If morning or night pain persists despite NSAIDs, a long-acting preparation can be tried. Tumour necrosis factor (TNF)-alpha inhibitors like etanercept are recommended for poorly controlled ankylosing spondylitis after NSAIDs. Methotrexate is only useful in cases with extensive peripheral joint involvement, which is not mentioned in the vignette. Oral steroids like prednisolone are not first-line management, but intra-articular corticosteroids may be considered for poorly controlled sacroiliitis. Sulfasalazine, a disease-modifying agent used in rheumatoid arthritis, is only useful in ankylosing spondylitis patients with peripheral joint involvement, which is not mentioned in the vignette.

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  • Question 23 - A 30-year-old white man comes to his general practitioner complaining of progressive low...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old white man comes to his general practitioner complaining of progressive low back pain over the past four years. The pain is worse at night when he lies down and improves as he moves around during the day, but it does not go away with rest. Upon further questioning, he reports having experienced three episodes of acute eye pain with sensitivity to light and blurry vision in the past two years. He sought treatment from an ophthalmologist, and the symptoms resolved with steroids and eye drops. X-rays reveal some inflammatory and arthritic changes in the sacroiliac joints. Despite treatment, the disease has continued to progress, and ten years later, x-rays show calcification of the anterior spinal ligament. What is the most likely positive finding in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: HLA-B27

      Explanation:

      Understanding HLA and Autoimmune Diseases

      HLA-B27 is a genetic marker associated with ankylosing spondylitis, an autoimmune disease that primarily affects the spine. This disease is more common in males and typically presents in the 20s and 30s. Other autoimmune manifestations, such as anterior uveitis, can also occur in individuals with HLA-B27. Additionally, young men with this genetic marker may be prone to reactive arthritis after chlamydia or gonorrhoeal urethritis.

      Rheumatoid factor, on the other hand, is not associated with HLA-B27 or ankylosing spondylitis. While stiffness that improves with exercise may be seen in rheumatoid arthritis, this disease typically affects peripheral joints and does not lead to calcification of the anterior spinal ligament.

      Other HLA markers are associated with different autoimmune diseases. HLA-DR3 is linked to type 1 diabetes mellitus, HLA-DR5 is associated with pernicious anaemia and Hashimoto’s thyroiditis, and HLA-B8 is linked to Graves’ disease. Understanding these genetic markers can aid in the diagnosis and management of autoimmune diseases.

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  • Question 24 - A 61-year-old man presented to his general practitioner with complaints of pain in...

    Incorrect

    • A 61-year-old man presented to his general practitioner with complaints of pain in his right big toe. He reported experiencing severe pain that disturbed his sleep at night. The patient has a medical history of hypertension and is currently taking thiazide diuretics. He consumes alcohol most nights of the week. During his last visit to the doctor, he was prescribed antibiotics for painful urination. Upon examination, the doctor observed tenderness, redness, and warmth in the right first metatarsophalangeal joint. The doctor decided to perform joint aspiration.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gout

      Explanation:

      Common Joint Disorders and Infections

      Gout, psoriatic arthritis, pseudogout, septic arthritis, and osteomyelitis are all joint disorders and infections that can cause pain, swelling, and redness in affected joints. Gout is caused by crystal deposition in the joint, most commonly in the big toe, and can be triggered by certain medications, trauma, infection, surgery, and alcohol consumption. Psoriatic arthritis is associated with psoriatic nail disease and can cause sausage-shaped digits, with DIPJs being the most commonly affected joints. Pseudogout occurs due to the deposition of calcium pyrophosphate dehydrate crystals in the joint and usually affects knee joints in patients with previous joint damage. Septic arthritis is caused by joint infection, with gonococci being the most common organism in young patients and Staphylococcus aureus in older patients with pre-existing joint damage. Osteomyelitis is an infection of the bone caused by various organisms and presents with redness, swelling, pain, and tenderness over the affected bone.

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  • Question 25 - A 32-year-old Afro-Caribbean woman comes to the clinic with concerns about her appearance....

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old Afro-Caribbean woman comes to the clinic with concerns about her appearance. She has noticed hair loss, a rash on her face, and mouth ulcers. Additionally, she has been experiencing joint pain and has been taking paracetamol and ibuprofen to manage it. This is her second visit to the clinic, and the registrar has already sent off some immunology tests. The results show a positive dsDNA antibody. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)

      Explanation:

      Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is an autoimmune disease that primarily affects young women. It is caused by the deposition of immune complexes and can have a wide range of clinical effects, including a butterfly-shaped rash on the cheeks and nose, joint pain, and involvement of multiple organ systems such as the kidneys, lungs, and heart. SLE is associated with the presence of ANA and dsDNA antibodies, as well as low levels of C3 and C4 in the blood.

      Mixed connective tissue disease (MCTD) is a syndrome that shares features with several other rheumatological conditions, including SLE, scleroderma, myositis, and rheumatoid arthritis. Common symptoms include fatigue, joint pain, pulmonary involvement, and Raynaud’s phenomenon. MCTD is strongly associated with anti-RNP antibodies.

      Rheumatoid arthritis is an inflammatory arthritis that typically affects middle-aged women and causes symmetrical joint pain and stiffness, particularly in the hands and feet. If left untreated, it can lead to deformities that affect function. Rheumatoid arthritis is associated with the presence of autoantibodies such as rheumatoid factor and anti-CCP.

      Polymyositis is an autoimmune myositis that causes weakness and loss of muscle mass, particularly in the proximal muscles. Other symptoms may include malaise and difficulty swallowing. Polymyositis is associated with anti-Jo1 autoantibodies.

      Systemic sclerosis, also known as diffuse scleroderma, is an autoimmune disease that primarily affects women aged 30-50. It causes collagen accumulation, leading to thickening of the skin and vasculitis affecting small arteries. Systemic sclerosis can affect multiple organ systems, including the skin, lungs, kidneys, and gastrointestinal tract. It is associated with anti-Scl70 antibodies.

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  • Question 26 - A 58-year-old woman has been scheduled for a left total knee replacement in...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old woman has been scheduled for a left total knee replacement in one month’s time. She has a past medical history significant for rheumatoid arthritis (RA), for which she takes methotrexate and hydroxychloroquine.
      Which of the following investigations would be most important before the patient’s operation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cervical spine X-rays

      Explanation:

      The Importance of Pre-Operative Testing for a Patient with Rheumatoid Arthritis

      Patients with rheumatoid arthritis (RA) require special considerations before undergoing elective surgery. One important test to consider is a cervical spine X-ray, as RA can lead to subluxation and instability in the cervical spine. This is particularly important for patients who will be intubated during surgery, as neck manipulation can exacerbate any underlying instability.

      Another important consideration for RA patients is regular eye exams to test for retinal toxicity, especially for those taking hydroxychloroquine as part of their treatment regimen. However, this is not necessarily required before elective surgery.

      While rheumatoid factor levels and anti-citrullinated protein antibody levels can be elevated in RA patients, they are not the most important tests to consider before surgery. Instead, a plain film of the cervical spine should be the primary investigation for patients with a history of RA.

      Overall, pre-operative testing for RA patients should be tailored to their specific needs and potential risks during surgery.

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  • Question 27 - A 50-year-old woman with a history of rheumatoid arthritis is experiencing shortness of...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman with a history of rheumatoid arthritis is experiencing shortness of breath during light activity and has developed a dry cough. Upon testing, her oxygen saturation was found to be 87% while breathing normally. A chest x-ray revealed a diffuse bilateral interstitial infiltrate. Despite an extensive infection screening, no infections were found, leading doctors to believe that her symptoms are a result of a drug she is taking. Which medication is the most likely culprit for this adverse reaction?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Methotrexate

      Explanation:

      Potential Side Effects of Common Rheumatoid Arthritis Medications

      Methotrexate, a commonly prescribed medication for rheumatoid arthritis, has been known to cause acute pneumonitis and interstitial lung disease. Although this is a rare complication, it can be fatal and should be closely monitored. Azathioprine, another medication used to treat rheumatoid arthritis, can lead to bone marrow suppression and increase the risk of infection. Cyclosporin, often used in combination with other medications, can cause neurological and visual disturbances. Hydroxychloroquine, while generally well-tolerated, can lead to abdominal pain and visual disturbances in cases of toxicity. Sulfasalazine, another medication used to treat rheumatoid arthritis, can affect liver function tests and cause bone marrow suppression, requiring careful monitoring.

      It is important for patients to be aware of the potential side effects of their medications and to communicate any concerns with their healthcare provider. Regular monitoring and follow-up appointments can help to identify and manage any adverse effects. With proper management, the benefits of these medications can outweigh the risks for many patients with rheumatoid arthritis.

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  • Question 28 - A 33-year-old woman presents to the hospital with recent-onset renal impairment after experiencing...

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old woman presents to the hospital with recent-onset renal impairment after experiencing sinusitis. Upon chest X-ray, multiple cavitating lung lesions are discovered. The medical team suspects granulomatosis with polyangiitis (GPA). What is the most effective blood test to confirm this diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: c-ANCA (antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibody)

      Explanation:

      Autoantibodies and their Associated Diseases

      Autoantibodies are antibodies produced by the immune system that mistakenly target and attack the body’s own tissues. Here are some common autoantibodies and the diseases they are associated with:

      1. c-ANCA (antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibody): GPA, a necrotising small-vessel vasculitis that commonly affects the kidneys and lungs.

      2. Antimitochondrial antibody: primary biliary cholangitis.

      3. Anti Glomerular basement membrane antibody: Goodpasture’s syndrome, a rare autoimmune disease that affects the lungs and kidneys.

      4. p-ANCA (perinuclear ANCA): Eosinophilic Granulomatosis with Polyangiitis (previously known as Churg–Strauss syndrome), a rare autoimmune disease that affects the blood vessels.

      5. Anti-acetylcholine receptor antibody: myasthenia gravis, a neuromuscular disorder that causes muscle weakness and fatigue.

      Understanding the association between autoantibodies and their associated diseases can aid in diagnosis and treatment.

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  • Question 29 - A 50-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a painful and swollen...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a painful and swollen left knee that has been bothering him for the past 2 days. He is running a fever. The patient has a history of rheumatoid arthritis, which was recently diagnosed and is being treated with NSAIDs and low-dose oral corticosteroids. He reports that he visited his general practitioner 5 days ago for a painful right ear, and was prescribed antibiotics for an ear infection. Upon examination, the left knee is swollen, red, tender, and slightly flexed, leading to a diagnosis of septic arthritis. What is the most likely causative organism in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Staphylococcus aureus

      Explanation:

      Common Bacterial Causes of Septic Arthritis

      Septic arthritis can be caused by a variety of bacterial organisms. Among them, Staphylococcus aureus is the most common aetiological agent in Europe and the United States. Streptococcus pyogenes is the next most commonly isolated bacteria, often associated with autoimmune diseases, chronic skin infections, and trauma. Gram-negative bacilli, such as Escherichia coli, account for approximately 10-20% of cases, with a higher prevalence in patients with a history of intravenous drug abuse, extremes of age, or immunocompromised status. Historically, Haemophilus influenzae, S. aureus, and group A streptococci were the most common causes of infectious arthritis in children younger than 2 years, but the overall incidence of H. influenzae is decreasing due to vaccination. Pseudomonas aeruginosa, a less common cause, may affect children, the elderly, intravenous drug users, and immunocompromised patients.

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  • Question 30 - A 38-year-old woman with a 12-year history of rheumatoid arthritis is admitted with...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old woman with a 12-year history of rheumatoid arthritis is admitted with a ‘flare’. She is a familiar patient to the ward and has previously been prescribed methotrexate, gold and sulphasalazine. The last two medications were effective for the first two years but then became less helpful even at higher doses. She is currently taking oral steroids.
      On examination: there is active synovitis in eight small joints of the hands and the left wrist.
      What is the most appropriate next course of treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Enrol in biological therapy programme

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Severe Rheumatoid Arthritis

      Severe rheumatoid arthritis can be a challenging condition to manage, especially when conventional disease-modifying anti-rheumatic drugs (DMARDs) fail to provide relief. In such cases, biological therapies may be recommended. Here are some treatment options for severe rheumatoid arthritis:

      Enrol in Biological Therapy Programme
      Patients with highly active disease despite trying three previous agents for a therapeutic treatment duration may be candidates for biological treatments. TNF-alpha inhibitors and anti-CD20 are examples of biological treatments that are routinely used in the UK.

      Maintain on Steroids and Add a Bisphosphonate
      Short-term treatment with glucocorticoids may be offered to manage flares in people with recent-onset or established disease. However, long-term treatment with glucocorticoids should only be continued when the long-term complications of glucocorticoid therapy have been fully discussed and all other treatment options have been offered.

      Commence Leflunomide
      Severe disease that has not responded to intensive therapy with a combination of conventional DMARDs should be treated with biological agents. Leflunomide is one of the DMARDs that can be used in combination therapy.

      Use Methotrexate/Leflunomide Combination
      Patients who have not responded to intensive DMARD therapy may be prescribed a biological agent, as per NICE guidelines. Methotrexate and leflunomide are two DMARDs that can be used in combination therapy.

      Avoid Commencing Penicillamine
      DMARD monotherapy is only recommended if combination DMARD therapy is not appropriate. Patients without contraindications to combination therapy should not be prescribed penicillamine.

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