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  • Question 1 - The parents of a 5-year-old child are worried about his bed wetting, as...

    Incorrect

    • The parents of a 5-year-old child are worried about his bed wetting, as he has been dry at night for the past two years. What should they do?

      Your Answer: Investigate for secondary causes

      Correct Answer: Reassure that bedwetting would be expected at this age

      Explanation:

      Possible revised version:

      Possible Causes of Bedwetting in Children

      Bed wetting, or nocturnal enuresis, is a common problem among young children, especially those under the age of 6. However, if a child has been dry at night for a while and suddenly starts wetting the bed again, it may indicate an underlying issue that needs to be addressed. Some possible causes of bed wetting in children include psychological effects, urinary tract infections, and diabetes.

      Psychological effects are the most common cause of bedwetting in children who have already achieved nighttime dryness. Stress, anxiety, fear, and other emotional factors can disrupt the normal control of the bladder and lead to involuntary urination during sleep. Children who experience major life changes, such as moving to a new home, starting school, or dealing with family conflicts, may be more prone to bed wetting.

      Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are another possible cause of bedwetting in children. UTIs can irritate the bladder and cause frequent urination, urgency, and pain or discomfort during urination. Children with UTIs may also have other symptoms, such as fever, abdominal pain, or foul-smelling urine. UTIs can be diagnosed with a urine test and treated with antibiotics.

      Diabetes, especially type 1 diabetes, can also cause bed wetting in children. This is because high blood sugar levels can increase urine production and make it harder for the kidneys to concentrate urine at night. Children with diabetes may also have other symptoms, such as excessive thirst, hunger, fatigue, and weight loss. Diabetes can be diagnosed with a blood test and managed with insulin therapy and other measures.

      In summary, bed wetting in children who have been dry for a while may indicate a psychological, urinary, or metabolic problem that requires medical attention. Parents should talk to their child’s doctor if bed wetting persists or is accompanied by other symptoms. With proper diagnosis and treatment, most cases of bed wetting can be resolved or managed effectively.

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  • Question 2 - A 56-year-old man who is currently undergoing chemotherapy for prostate cancer seeks advice....

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    • A 56-year-old man who is currently undergoing chemotherapy for prostate cancer seeks advice. His grandson has recently been diagnosed with Chickenpox, with the first pox appearing yesterday while he was babysitting. The patient has never had Chickenpox and is worried about contracting it, despite being asymptomatic at present. What is the best course of action?

      Your Answer: Reassure the patient she is not at an increased risk

      Correct Answer: Arrange varicella zoster immunoglobulin

      Explanation:

      Due to the chemotherapy-induced immunocompromisation, this patient is susceptible to a severe varicella infection and should receive varicella zoster immunoglobulin.

      Chickenpox is a viral infection caused by the varicella zoster virus. It is highly contagious and can be spread through respiratory droplets. The virus can also reactivate later in life and cause shingles. Chickenpox is most infectious from four days before the rash appears until five days after. The incubation period is typically 10-21 days. Symptoms include fever and an itchy rash that starts on the head and trunk before spreading. The rash goes through stages of macular, papular, and vesicular. Management is supportive, with measures such as keeping cool and using calamine lotion. Immunocompromised patients and newborns with peripartum exposure should receive varicella zoster immunoglobulin. Complications can include secondary bacterial infection of the lesions, pneumonia, encephalitis, and rare complications such as disseminated haemorrhagic Chickenpox.

      One common complication of Chickenpox is secondary bacterial infection of the lesions, which can be increased by the use of NSAIDs. This can manifest as a single infected lesion or small area of cellulitis. In rare cases, invasive group A streptococcal soft tissue infections may occur, resulting in necrotizing fasciitis. Other rare complications of Chickenpox include pneumonia, encephalitis (which may involve the cerebellum), disseminated haemorrhagic Chickenpox, and very rarely, arthritis, nephritis, and pancreatitis. It is important to note that school exclusion may be necessary, as Chickenpox is highly infectious and can be caught from someone with shingles. It is advised to avoid contact with others until all lesions have crusted over.

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  • Question 3 - In your clinic you see a 6-year-old child who has arrived in the...

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    • In your clinic you see a 6-year-old child who has arrived in the United Kingdom from India with bowed legs, muscle spasms and a pigeon chest.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Hypocalcaemia

      Correct Answer: Rickets

      Explanation:

      Childhood disintegration disorder

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  • Question 4 - A 4-week-old boy is brought in for a routine check-up. He was born...

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    • A 4-week-old boy is brought in for a routine check-up. He was born at 35 weeks gestation via normal vaginal delivery and spent a few days in the neonatal intensive care unit due to low birth weight. During the examination, it is noted that only one testicle can be felt.

      What is the recommended course of action in this situation?

      Your Answer: Review at 6 months

      Correct Answer: Review at 3 months

      Explanation:

      Undescended testicles are more common in premature infants, such as the patient in this case. According to new guidelines, it is recommended to review the patient at 3 months and refer them for consideration of orchidopexy before they reach 6 months of age if the condition persists.

      While a referral to a pediatrician is not necessary at this stage, it can be arranged if the parents are concerned. However, if the patient has bilateral undescended testes, an urgent referral is required to rule out any genetic abnormalities.

      Similarly, a referral to a pediatric urologist is not needed yet. A review at 3 months may show that the testes have descended normally, and parents should be reassured that observation is useful in preventing unnecessary surgeries.

      By 6 months of age, the testis should have descended, and if it hasn’t, it is definitely abnormal. Delaying referral until 12 months of age is not ideal, as surgical procedures are typically planned for this age group, and undescended testes can lead to complications such as infertility, torsion, and testicular cancer. Therefore, earlier review and referral are crucial.

      Undescended testis is a condition that affects approximately 2-3% of male infants born at term, but is more common in premature babies. Bilateral undescended testes occur in about 25% of cases. This condition can lead to complications such as infertility, torsion, testicular cancer, and psychological issues.

      To manage unilateral undescended testis, it is recommended to consider referral from around 3 months of age, with the baby ideally seeing a urological surgeon before 6 months of age. Orchidopexy, a surgical procedure, is typically performed at around 1 year of age, although surgical practices may vary.

      For bilateral undescended testes, it is important to have the child reviewed by a senior paediatrician within 24 hours as they may require urgent endocrine or genetic investigation.

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  • Question 5 - Which of the following congenital infections is most commonly associated with sensorineural hearing...

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    • Which of the following congenital infections is most commonly associated with sensorineural hearing loss in newborns?

      Your Answer: Group B streptococcus

      Correct Answer: Rubella

      Explanation:

      The condition known as congenital rubella can lead to both sensorineural deafness and congenital cataracts.

      Congenital Infections: Rubella, Toxoplasmosis, and Cytomegalovirus

      Congenital infections are infections that are present at birth and can cause various health problems for the newborn. The three most common congenital infections encountered in medical examinations are rubella, toxoplasmosis, and cytomegalovirus. Of these, cytomegalovirus is the most common in the UK, and maternal infection is usually asymptomatic.

      Each of these infections can cause different characteristic features in newborns. Rubella can cause sensorineural deafness, congenital cataracts, congenital heart disease, glaucoma, cerebral calcification, chorioretinitis, hydrocephalus, low birth weight, and purpuric skin lesions. Toxoplasmosis can cause growth retardation, hepatosplenomegaly, purpuric skin lesions, ‘salt and pepper’ chorioretinitis, microphthalmia, cerebral palsy, anaemia, and microcephaly. Cytomegalovirus can cause visual impairment, learning disability, encephalitis/seizures, pneumonitis, hepatosplenomegaly, anaemia, jaundice, and cerebral palsy.

      It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of these congenital infections and their potential effects on newborns. Early detection and treatment can help prevent or minimize the health problems associated with these infections.

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  • Question 6 - A 14-month-old girl is brought to see you by her mother who is...

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    • A 14-month-old girl is brought to see you by her mother who is worried about her. She is usually healthy, but over the past few days, she has become increasingly unwell with lethargy, cough, and shortness of breath. It all started 3 days ago when she developed a runny nose, cough, and fever, but now she is struggling to breathe and is very tired.

      Upon further questioning, her mother reports that she has been eating and drinking less than usual, only about 60% of her usual daily amount, and has been wetting fewer nappies. Her mother has also noticed that she has become more wheezy throughout the day.

      During the examination, the girl appears unwell and is not responding appropriately to social cues. Her respiratory rate is 50 breaths per minute, oxygen saturation is 96%, and she has a global wheeze. Her heart rate is 150 beats per minute, her temperature is 37.9ºC, and her capillary refill time is 2 seconds.

      What findings from the history and examination above would cause the most concern?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Appears unwell

      Explanation:

      When it comes to children with fevers, healthcare professionals consider appearing unwell to be a red flag. Additionally, not responding appropriately to social cues is an amber flag, as is poor feeding. In children over 12 months old, a respiratory rate exceeding 40 breaths per minute is an amber flag, while a rate over 60 is a red flag. Finally, a heart rate over 150 beats per minute is an amber flag for children between 12 and 24 months old.

      The NICE Feverish illness in children guidelines were introduced in 2007 and updated in 2013 to provide a ‘traffic light’ system for assessing the risk of febrile illness in children under 5 years old. The guidelines recommend recording the child’s temperature, heart rate, respiratory rate, and capillary refill time, as well as looking for signs of dehydration. Measuring temperature should be done with an electronic thermometer in the axilla for children under 4 weeks or with an electronic/chemical dot thermometer in the axilla or an infra-red tympanic thermometer. The risk stratification table categorizes children as green (low risk), amber (intermediate risk), or red (high risk) based on their symptoms. Management recommendations vary depending on the risk level, with green children managed at home, amber children provided with a safety net or referred to a specialist, and red children urgently referred to a specialist. The guidelines also advise against prescribing oral antibiotics without an apparent source of fever and note that a chest x-ray is not necessary if a child with suspected pneumonia is not being referred to the hospital.

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  • Question 7 - You have some pediatric patients on your list who come from low income...

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    • You have some pediatric patients on your list who come from low income groups and you want to encourage vitamin D supplementation.

      You have heard about the Healthy Start initiative.

      Which of the following are eligible for free vitamin supplements under the Healthy Start scheme?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pregnant women in households in receipt of Income Support

      Explanation:

      The Healthy Start Scheme: Providing Nutritional Support for Low-Income Families

      The Healthy Start scheme is a UK-wide program that aims to provide a nutritional safety net for pregnant women and families with children under 4 years old who are living in very low-income and disadvantaged households. The scheme offers vouchers for basic healthy foods and coupons for Healthy Start vitamin supplements to eligible families.

      To be eligible for the scheme, pregnant women must be in a household that receives Income Support, Income-based Jobseeker’s Allowance, Income-related Employment and Support Allowance, or Child Tax Credit. Families with a child under 4 years old are only eligible if they live in households that receive the same benefits or tax credits.

      It is important to note that the Healthy Start scheme doesn’t specifically cover breastfeeding, but it does provide free vitamin supplements, including vitamin D, to women and children from eligible families. However, uptake of the Healthy Start vitamins among qualifying families is currently low.

      Overall, the Healthy Start scheme plays a crucial role in providing nutritional support to low-income families in the UK, helping to ensure that pregnant women and young children have access to the basic healthy foods and vitamins they need to thrive.

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  • Question 8 - A 10-day-old infant presents with feeding difficulties for the past 24 hours. The...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-day-old infant presents with feeding difficulties for the past 24 hours. The baby was born at 38 weeks, induced 12 hours after pre-labour spontaneous rupture of membranes. After being observed, there were no concerns and the baby was discharged.

      The infant is breastfed every 1-2 hours, but for the past day, has been less interested in feeding, occurring every 3-4 hours, sometimes being woken to feed. The baby appears uncomfortable while feeding and keeps pulling away. The mother also reports that the baby makes an unusual grunting sound after exhaling.

      What is the most likely diagnosis based on this information?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Neonatal sepsis

      Explanation:

      Neonatal sepsis is a serious bacterial or viral infection in the blood that affects babies within the first 28 days of life. It is categorized into early-onset (EOS) and late-onset (LOS) sepsis, with each category having distinct causes and presentations. The most common causes of neonatal sepsis are group B streptococcus (GBS) and Escherichia coli. Premature and low birth weight babies are at higher risk, as well as those born to mothers with GBS colonization or infection during pregnancy. Symptoms can range from subtle signs of illness to clear septic shock, and may include respiratory distress, jaundice, seizures, and poor feeding. Diagnosis is usually established through blood culture, and treatment involves early identification and use of intravenous antibiotics. Other important management factors include maintaining adequate oxygenation and fluid/electrolyte status, and preventing or managing hypoglycemia and metabolic acidosis.

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  • Question 9 - A father contacts the clinic regarding his 3-year-old daughter who was recently diagnosed...

    Incorrect

    • A father contacts the clinic regarding his 3-year-old daughter who was recently diagnosed with strep throat and prescribed antibiotics. He neglected to inquire about the duration of time she should stay home from preschool. What guidance should be provided?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 48 hours after commencing antibiotics

      Explanation:

      After starting antibiotics, children with whooping cough can go back to school or nursery within 48 hours, typically with a macrolide.

      A vaccination programme for pregnant women was introduced in 2012 to combat an outbreak of whooping cough that resulted in the death of 14 newborn children. The vaccine is over 90% effective in preventing newborns from developing whooping cough. The programme was extended in 2014 due to uncertainty about future outbreaks. Pregnant women between 16-32 weeks are offered the vaccine.

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  • Question 10 - A 7-year-old boy presents with a viral upper respiratory tract infection. On examination,...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old boy presents with a viral upper respiratory tract infection. On examination, you hear a heart murmur that has not been noted previously.
      Which of the following features is most indicative of an innocent murmur?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The murmur is short and systolic in nature

      Explanation:

      Understanding Innocent Murmurs in Children

      Innocent murmurs are common in children and are usually harmless. They are short in duration, soft, systolic, and typically located at the left sternal border. Innocent murmurs may change with the child’s position or respiration, but they do not usually radiate and are without symptoms in the patient.

      It is important to note that a grade 4/6 murmur is loud with a thrill and is usually pathological. Murmurs that are only diastolic in nature or pansystolic in nature are also usually pathological. The presence of abnormal heart sounds is another indication of a pathological murmur.

      If an innocent murmur is suspected, it should disappear when the child has recovered from a febrile illness. If the murmur persists when the child is well, further investigation is warranted.

      Understanding the characteristics of innocent murmurs can help healthcare professionals differentiate between harmless murmurs and those that require further investigation.

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  • Question 11 - A 4-year-old girl presents with failure to thrive.
    Previously, her parents had no concerns...

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    • A 4-year-old girl presents with failure to thrive.
      Previously, her parents had no concerns about her health. However, over the past few months, she has become increasingly fussy and her bowel movements have changed, with her now having up to three strong-smelling stools per day.
      During the examination, her abdomen is soft but slightly distended, and there is noticeable wasting of the thigh muscles. When plotted on a growth chart, her weight was following the 50th percentile until around 2 years of age but has now dropped below the 5th percentile.
      What is the underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Meckel's diverticulum

      Explanation:

      Coeliac Disease in Children

      Coeliac disease is a condition that affects young children, typically presenting by the age of 2 with failure to thrive. This occurs when gluten is introduced into their diet through the consumption of cereals. Symptoms include irritability, abdominal distention, buttock wasting, and abnormal stools due to malabsorption. Children can also present later on in childhood with anaemia or failure to thrive with very subtle or no gastrointestinal symptoms.

      Diagnosis requires a jejunal biopsy for histological confirmation, and treatment is with a gluten-free diet. There appears to be a genetic link, and first-degree relatives of people with coeliac disease have a 1 in 10 chance of having the disease. Patients with coeliac disease also have a higher risk of type 1 diabetes, thyroid disease, and other autoimmune diseases.

      It is important to consider offering testing (by tTG antibody testing) to first-degree relatives because a strict gluten-free diet is essential in reducing the associated risk of GI malignancy, especially lymphoma, in people with coeliac disease.

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  • Question 12 - A 10-year-old boy is brought in by his father. He has been complaining...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old boy is brought in by his father. He has been complaining of hip pain and he is concerned because he has started to limp over the past five weeks. He is otherwise fit and well. Although he regularly plays football with his friends, there is no history of trauma.

      On examination, he is limping a little but is able to weight bear. He appears plump but there is no anaemia or lymphadenopathy. There is no fever. Examination of the knee is normal but you think that the affected leg is shortened and externally rotated a little.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Perthes disease

      Explanation:

      Slipped Upper Epiphysis: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      Slipped upper epiphysis is a condition that commonly affects overweight boys aged 10-15 and is associated with obesity and hypothyroidism. Patients often present with pain, which may be referred to the knee, and a thorough examination of the hips is necessary. Reduced range of movement of abduction and internal rotation, leg shortening, and external rotation with hip flexion are key findings that support the diagnosis.

      Slipped epiphysis can be classified as acute, chronic, or acute on chronic, and as unstable or stable. Unstable cases require urgent surgical repair due to the risk of avascular necrosis, while stable cases are usually treated with in situ screw fixation. Prophylactic fixation of the contralateral hip may also be considered.

      If the slipped epiphysis is chronic and stable, an x-ray is the first line investigation, but U&Es, serum TFTs, and serum growth hormone may also be considered. Perthes disease, trochanteric bursitis, and osteomyelitis are differential diagnoses that should be considered. Perthes disease typically affects a younger age group, while trochanteric bursitis is more common in older adults. Osteomyelitis may present with pain, fever, inflammation, and acute tenderness, but a bone scan or MRI may be necessary for diagnosis.

      In summary, slipped upper epiphysis is a condition that requires careful examination and diagnosis. Treatment depends on the classification of the condition and may involve surgical repair or in situ screw fixation. Differential diagnoses should also be considered to ensure accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.

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  • Question 13 - A 35 year old nullip presents at 8 weeks gestation for her first...

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    • A 35 year old nullip presents at 8 weeks gestation for her first pregnancy and expresses concern about the likelihood of having a baby with Down's syndrome. What is her estimated risk?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1 in 100

      Explanation:

      Down’s Syndrome: Epidemiology and Genetics

      Down’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that is caused by the presence of an extra copy of chromosome 21. The risk of having a child with Down’s syndrome increases with maternal age, with a 1 in 1,500 chance at age 20 and a 1 in 50 or greater chance at age 45. This can be remembered by dividing the denominator by 3 for every extra 5 years of age starting at 1/1,000 at age 30.

      There are three main types of Down’s syndrome: nondisjunction, Robertsonian translocation, and mosaicism. Nondisjunction accounts for 94% of cases and occurs when the chromosomes fail to separate properly during cell division. Robertsonian translocation, which usually involves chromosome 14, accounts for 5% of cases and occurs when a piece of chromosome 21 attaches to another chromosome. Mosaicism, which accounts for 1% of cases, occurs when there are two genetically different populations of cells in the body.

      The risk of recurrence for Down’s syndrome varies depending on the type of genetic abnormality. If the trisomy 21 is a result of nondisjunction, the chance of having another child with Down’s syndrome is approximately 1 in 100 if the mother is less than 35 years old. If the trisomy 21 is a result of Robertsonian translocation, the risk is much higher, with a 10-15% chance if the mother is a carrier and a 2.5% chance if the father is a carrier.

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  • Question 14 - A Health Visitor has requested a review of a 9-month-old girl who is...

    Incorrect

    • A Health Visitor has requested a review of a 9-month-old girl who is not reaching out for objects. The mother reports that the child is able to sit with support and has started to crawl.
      Which is the single most appropriate initial intervention?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer to Paediatrics

      Explanation:

      Referral and Support for Children with Developmental Delays

      Children who present with delays in their development require a thorough assessment to identify the underlying cause. In cases where delays are observed in one area, such as fine motor development, a full developmental assessment with a Paediatrician is recommended. The Paediatrician can then refer the child to other services, such as Physiotherapy, Audiology, and Speech and Language Therapy, as needed.

      Concerns regarding hearing, speech, and language development should prompt a referral to Audiology. While congenital hearing problems are usually detected via newborn screening tests, it is important to consider hearing loss in children presenting with developmental concerns.

      Offering reassurance is not always sufficient, especially if a child is unable to reach out for objects by six months. In such cases, further assessment is necessary.

      Health Visitors play a crucial role in monitoring children with developmental concerns and offering support to parents. Parents can contact the Health Visiting service directly without a referral from primary care.

      Physiotherapy can be helpful in children presenting with delays in gross motor development. However, for children with concerns regarding fine motor development, a review by a Paediatrician is necessary before considering a referral to Physiotherapy.

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  • Question 15 - A 6-year-old child comes to the clinic with his father, he has severe...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old child comes to the clinic with his father, he has severe eczema affecting his hands, flexural surfaces of his arms and legs and his neck.
      He is very upset by it and his father wants something to be done.
      What is the recommended course of action for this child?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Localised dressings can be used on top of emollients during initial treatment of the eczema flare

      Explanation:

      Treatment Recommendations for Childhood Eczema

      Topical tacrolimus and pimecrolimus should only be used in children with eczema who have not responded to other treatments. antihistamines are not typically recommended for childhood eczema unless there is a specific issue with itching. However, emollients should be applied generously and can even be covered with a local bandage during the initial stages of treatment. It is important to follow these guidelines to effectively manage childhood eczema and provide relief for the child.

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  • Question 16 - A 7-year-old child is brought to the Emergency Department by his parents as...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old child is brought to the Emergency Department by his parents as he is experiencing worsening breathing difficulties. The child has a history of asthma and has been hospitalized twice before due to exacerbations. During the examination, the child's oxygen saturation is at 90% on air, heart rate is 140 beats/minute, respiratory rate is 40 breaths/minute, and he is using accessory muscles to breathe. Additionally, he is having difficulty completing full sentences.

      Which aspect of the child's medical history indicates a potentially life-threatening exacerbation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Severe asthma exacerbation is characterized by the following: difficulty in completing full sentences, use of accessory muscles, respiratory rate of 40 breaths/ min, and a heart rate of 140 breaths/ min.

      Assessing the severity of asthma attacks in children is crucial for effective management. The 2016 BTS/SIGN guidelines provide criteria for assessing the severity of asthma in general practice. These criteria include measuring SpO2 levels, PEF (peak expiratory flow) rates, heart rate, respiratory rate, use of accessory neck muscles, and other symptoms such as breathlessness, agitation, altered consciousness, and cyanosis.

      A severe asthma attack is characterized by a SpO2 level below 92%, PEF rates between 33-50% of the best or predicted, being too breathless to talk or feed, and a high heart and respiratory rate. On the other hand, a life-threatening asthma attack is indicated by a SpO2 level below 92%, PEF rates below 33% of the best or predicted, a silent chest, poor respiratory effort, use of accessory neck muscles, agitation, altered consciousness, and cyanosis.

      It is important for healthcare professionals to be familiar with these criteria to ensure prompt and appropriate management of asthma attacks in children. Early recognition of the severity of an asthma attack can help prevent complications and reduce the risk of hospitalization or death.

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  • Question 17 - A 6-month-old boy is brought to the surgery for his first measles, mumps...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-month-old boy is brought to the surgery for his first measles, mumps and rubella (MMR) vaccination.
      What is the most likely contraindication to his receiving the vaccine today?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: He has an upper respiratory tract infection and his temperature is 38 °C

      Explanation:

      Understanding Contraindications and Common Reactions to Vaccines

      When considering vaccination, it is important to be aware of any contraindications or potential reactions. Acute febrile illness and severe reactions to previous vaccinations are contraindications to any vaccine. Live vaccines should not be given within three weeks of each other, and should not be given to immunosuppressed patients. However, egg allergy is not a contraindication to the MMR vaccine, and mild reactions such as local erythema and induration are common. Similarly, mild symptoms such as rashes or lymphadenopathy are common following live vaccines, and should not deter vaccination. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider to determine the best course of action for each individual case.

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  • Question 18 - A 7-year-old boy has a problem with bed-wetting. This has been a long-term...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old boy has a problem with bed-wetting. This has been a long-term problem and he is otherwise fit and well.
      Which of the following features of this condition would necessitate the need for urinalysis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Daytime symptoms

      Explanation:

      When to Perform Urinalysis for Bed-Wetting: NICE Guidelines

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided guidelines on when to perform urinalysis for bed-wetting. According to NICE, urinalysis is only necessary if bed-wetting has started recently, there are daytime symptoms, signs of ill health or urinary tract infection, or a history of diabetes. Daytime symptoms may indicate a bladder disorder and require further investigation or referral.

      Bed-wetting that occurs soon after going to bed and a large volume of urine in the first few hours of the night are typical and do not require urinalysis. However, severe bed-wetting that occurs every night may require active measures to promote resolution.

      NICE advises against routine urinalysis in children with bed-wetting, as up to 5% of 10-year-old children may still wet the bed. Therefore, urinalysis should only be performed when necessary based on the patient’s symptoms and medical history.

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  • Question 19 - Which one of the following statements regarding adolescent health surveillance in the UK...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding adolescent health surveillance in the UK is inaccurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The health visitor distraction test is the first screening test done on infants hearing

      Explanation:

      The primary screening test for infant hearing is now the Newborn Hearing Screening Programme, which is replacing distraction testing. Midwives rarely conduct visits beyond 4 weeks in their daily routine.

      Child Health Surveillance in the UK

      Child health surveillance in the UK involves a series of checks and tests to ensure the well-being of children from before birth to Preschool age. During the antenatal period, healthcare professionals ensure that the baby is growing properly and check for any maternal infections that may affect the baby. After birth, a clinical examination is conducted, and the newborn hearing screening programme is carried out to detect any hearing problems. The mother is also given a Personal Child Health Record.

      Within the first month, a heel-prick test is conducted to check for hypothyroidism, PKU, metabolic diseases, cystic fibrosis, and medium-chain acyl Co-A dehydrogenase deficiency (MCADD). A midwife visit may also be conducted within the first four weeks. In the following months, health visitor input is provided, and a GP examination is conducted at 6-8 weeks. Routine immunisations are also given during this time.

      Preschool children are screened for vision problems through a national orthoptist-led programme. Ongoing monitoring of growth, vision, and hearing is conducted, and health professionals provide advice on immunisations, diet, and accident prevention. Although midwife visits are supposed to occur up to four weeks after birth, in practice, health visitors usually take over at two weeks. Overall, child health surveillance in the UK aims to ensure that children receive the necessary care and support for their physical and developmental well-being.

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  • Question 20 - A 9-month-old baby is brought to the emergency department by her parents. They...

    Incorrect

    • A 9-month-old baby is brought to the emergency department by her parents. They report that she has been experiencing a runny nose and cough for the past few days and has been more irritable than usual. The baby was born at full term and has no significant medical history.

      According to the parents, the baby has been refusing to eat but is managing to drink with encouragement. Upon examination, the baby's temperature is 37.7°C, and there are no signs of chest wall recession, nasal flaring, or grunting. The respiratory rate is 48/minute, and auscultation of the chest reveals fine inspiratory crackles and a slight high-pitched wheeze heard throughout both lung fields. Oxygen saturations are 97% in room air.

      What is the most appropriate course of action for management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Treat with paracetamol PRN and simple advice on symptom control

      Explanation:

      Managing Bronchiolitis in Babies

      Bronchiolitis is a common respiratory illness in babies that can usually be managed in the community. However, certain factors indicate more severe disease and require immediate hospital admission. These include reduced feeding, lethargy, history of apnoea, high respiratory rate, respiratory distress, cyanosis, and persistent low oxygen saturation. Babies under 3 months of age and those born prematurely should be closely monitored and may require admission at a lower threshold.

      In cases where there are no worrying features, community treatment is appropriate. Parents should be given advice on how to recognize deterioration and where to seek review if necessary. There is no specific treatment for bronchiolitis that can be managed in the community. Trials have shown that antibiotics, oral steroids, inhaled beta2 agonists, and nebulized ipratropium do not provide significant benefits in normal immunocompetent patients with bronchiolitis. Therefore, these treatments are not routinely recommended.

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  • Question 21 - A 5-year-old boy is brought to the GP by his mother. He has...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old boy is brought to the GP by his mother. He has had a fever with vomiting for the past 48 hours.

      On examination he is pyrexial 38.5°C and is tender across his lower abdomen. A past history of one previous UTI is noted, and on that occasion he was less unwell.

      Investigations reveal:
      Clean catch urine: blood +, protein ++, coliforms isolated.

      He is started on co-amoxiclav and is symptom free 48 hours later.

      Which of the following is the most appropriate plan for urological imaging?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: She should receive an ultrasound within the next six weeks

      Explanation:

      Recurrent Urinary Tract Infection: Recommended Investigations and Antibiotic Therapy

      This young woman has experienced a recurrence of urinary tract infection (UTI). While the first two episodes were likely lower UTIs, her current symptoms suggest an upper UTI. According to NICE guidelines, an ultrasound should be conducted within six weeks, followed by a dimercaptosuccinic acid (DMSA) scan within four to six months.

      In terms of antibiotic therapy, trimethoprim is not recommended as the first-line agent due to its potential for resistance. Instead, NICE suggests using antibiotics with a low potential for resistance, such as co-amoxiclav or a cephalosporin. It is important to follow these guidelines to effectively treat the UTI and prevent future recurrences.

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  • Question 22 - A father brings his 2-month-old daughter to the clinic. He expresses his concern...

    Incorrect

    • A father brings his 2-month-old daughter to the clinic. He expresses his concern about her constant crying in the evenings, which has been happening since birth. The baby also arches her back when crying. However, she appears to be content during the day and is exclusively breastfed, with regular wet and soiled nappies and appropriate weight gain. The physical examination reveals no abnormalities.

      What advice would be most suitable in this scenario?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Advise simple measures such as holding, gentle motion and white noise

      Explanation:

      The baby is displaying signs that suggest infantile colic, which typically begins in the first few weeks of life and resolves by 3-4 months of age. The crying usually occurs in the late afternoon or evening, and the baby may arch their back or draw their knees up to their abdomen while crying. The symptoms appear to be ongoing but occasional, as the baby is happy during the day.

      Although antimuscarinics have been shown to be effective, they come with serious adverse effects and are not recommended. Simeticone (Infacol) is commonly used, but there is no evidence to support its use and it is not recommended by CKS. Gaviscon is not necessary as there is no indication of gastro-oesophageal reflux. Low-lactose formula and paracetamol are also not recommended.

      Since the baby is happy during the day, it is unlikely that they have cow’s milk protein allergy, which is rare in breastfed infants. Therefore, there is no need for the mother to exclude dairy from her diet.

      Understanding Infantile Colic

      Infantile colic is a common condition that affects infants under three months old. It is characterized by excessive crying and pulling up of the legs, usually worse in the evening. This condition affects up to 20% of infants, and its cause is unknown.

      Despite its prevalence, the use of simeticone and lactase drops is not recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. These drops are commonly used to alleviate the symptoms of infantile colic, but their effectiveness is not supported by evidence. Therefore, it is important to seek medical advice before using any medication to treat infantile colic.

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  • Question 23 - Lila is a 4-year-old girl who presents with a high fever, sore throat...

    Incorrect

    • Lila is a 4-year-old girl who presents with a high fever, sore throat and sandpaper-like rash on her torso. You suspect scarlet fever. Her father inquires about the duration of time she should stay away from preschool.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Keep out of nursery until 24 hours after starting antibiotics

      Explanation:

      It is recommended that children diagnosed with scarlet fever should not attend nursery or school until they have been on antibiotics for at least 24 hours.

      Scarlet fever is a condition caused by erythrogenic toxins produced by Group A haemolytic streptococci, usually Streptococcus pyogenes. It is more common in children aged 2-6 years, with the highest incidence at 4 years. The disease is spread through respiratory droplets or direct contact with nose and throat discharges. The incubation period is 2-4 days, and symptoms include fever, malaise, headache, sore throat, ‘strawberry’ tongue, and a rash that appears first on the torso and spares the palms and soles. Scarlet fever is usually a mild illness, but it may be complicated by otitis media, rheumatic fever, acute glomerulonephritis, or rare invasive complications.

      To diagnose scarlet fever, a throat swab is usually taken, but antibiotic treatment should be started immediately, rather than waiting for the results. Management involves oral penicillin V for ten days, while patients with a penicillin allergy should be given azithromycin. Children can return to school 24 hours after starting antibiotics, and scarlet fever is a notifiable disease. Desquamation occurs later in the course of the illness, particularly around the fingers and toes. The rash is often described as having a rough ‘sandpaper’ texture, and children often have a flushed appearance with circumoral pallor. Invasive complications such as bacteraemia, meningitis, and necrotizing fasciitis are rare but may present acutely with life-threatening illness.

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  • Question 24 - A couple bring their 20-month-old baby girl to the clinic. They are concerned...

    Incorrect

    • A couple bring their 20-month-old baby girl to the clinic. They are concerned that she is not making the required progress with respect to speech development.

      What could you tell the parents about speech and language expectations in this child?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Around 20-30 words vocabulary would be expected by this age

      Explanation:

      Speech Delay in Children: Possible Causes and Exclusions

      Speech delay is a common issue that affects 3-10% of all children, with boys being 3-4 times more likely to experience it than girls. One possible cause of speech delay in older children is elective mutism, which can be assessed through proper diagnosis. However, before progressing to other investigations, it is important to exclude deafness as a possible cause. Other factors that should be excluded include social and environmental deprivation, disorders of metabolism, and degenerative nervous diseases, which are rare possibilities. By identifying and addressing the underlying cause of speech delay, children can receive the necessary support and intervention to improve their communication skills.

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  • Question 25 - A 5-year-old boy comes to your morning clinic with his father. His father...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old boy comes to your morning clinic with his father. His father reports that he has been feeling unwell for the past 24 hours with a fever, sore throat and eating less than usual. This morning he developed a rash. His father has been encouraging fluids and has given paracetamol. He has no significant medical history and is up to date with his immunisations.

      On examination, he is alert and talkative but looks slightly flushed. His temperature is 37.5 ºC, heart rate 95 bpm, respiratory rate 22/min, capillary refill time 1 second. He has moist mucous membranes, his tonsils are not inflamed, he has a strawberry tongue. There is a rough, pinpoint, erythematous blanching rash on his torso.

      You prescribe a 10-day course of penicillin V and give adequate safety netting. His father asks if he can return to school as he feels he is well enough.

      When can he go back to school?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 24 hours after starting antibiotics

      Explanation:

      After beginning a course of antibiotics, a child with scarlet fever is able to return to school after 24 hours. This particular girl displayed the typical symptoms and signs of scarlet fever, which is a notifiable disease that is treated with 10 days of penicillin V (or azithromycin for those with a genuine penicillin allergy, taken once a day for 5 days). Based on the clinical and immunisation history, it was less probable that the child had measles or rubella, both of which allow for a return to school 4 days after the rash appears. Children with whooping cough can also return to school under certain circumstances.

      Scarlet fever is a condition caused by erythrogenic toxins produced by Group A haemolytic streptococci, usually Streptococcus pyogenes. It is more common in children aged 2-6 years, with the highest incidence at 4 years. The disease is spread through respiratory droplets or direct contact with nose and throat discharges. The incubation period is 2-4 days, and symptoms include fever, malaise, headache, sore throat, ‘strawberry’ tongue, and a rash that appears first on the torso and spares the palms and soles. Scarlet fever is usually a mild illness, but it may be complicated by otitis media, rheumatic fever, acute glomerulonephritis, or rare invasive complications.

      To diagnose scarlet fever, a throat swab is usually taken, but antibiotic treatment should be started immediately, rather than waiting for the results. Management involves oral penicillin V for ten days, while patients with a penicillin allergy should be given azithromycin. Children can return to school 24 hours after starting antibiotics, and scarlet fever is a notifiable disease. Desquamation occurs later in the course of the illness, particularly around the fingers and toes. The rash is often described as having a rough ‘sandpaper’ texture, and children often have a flushed appearance with circumoral pallor. Invasive complications such as bacteraemia, meningitis, and necrotizing fasciitis are rare but may present acutely with life-threatening illness.

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  • Question 26 - When is the infant blood spot screening test typically performed in the United...

    Incorrect

    • When is the infant blood spot screening test typically performed in the United Kingdom?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Between fifth and ninth day of life

      Explanation:

      Neonatal Blood Spot Screening: A Vital Test for Newborns

      Neonatal blood spot screening, also known as the Guthrie test or heel-prick test, is a crucial test performed on newborns between 5-9 days of life. This test screens for several conditions that may not be apparent at birth but can cause serious health problems if left undetected. The test involves pricking the baby’s heel and collecting a small amount of blood on a special filter paper. The paper is then sent to a laboratory for analysis.

      The conditions currently screened for include congenital hypothyroidism, cystic fibrosis, sickle cell disease, phenylketonuria, medium chain acyl-CoA dehydrogenase deficiency (MCADD), maple syrup urine disease (MSUD), isovaleric acidaemia (IVA), glutaric aciduria type 1 (GA1), and homocystinuria (pyridoxine unresponsive) (HCU). Early detection of these conditions can lead to prompt treatment and better outcomes for affected infants.

      Neonatal blood spot screening is a routine test that is recommended for all newborns. Parents should ensure that their baby receives this test to ensure their baby’s health and well-being.

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  • Question 27 - A mother brings her 4-year-old boy to see you with a sore throat,...

    Incorrect

    • A mother brings her 4-year-old boy to see you with a sore throat, fever and rash. On examination he has a punctate rash, strawberry tongue and cervical lymphadenopathy. You diagnose him with scarlet fever and decide to start phenoxymethylpenicillin. Do you need to notify the local health protection team (HPT)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Local HPT should be informed if scarlet fever is suspected

      Explanation:

      If there is suspicion of scarlet fever, it is important to inform the local HPT without waiting for laboratory confirmation, as detecting outbreaks quickly is a priority for Public Health England. Clinical suspicion of a notifiable infection is sufficient for reporting purposes since 1968.

      Scarlet fever is a condition caused by erythrogenic toxins produced by Group A haemolytic streptococci, usually Streptococcus pyogenes. It is more common in children aged 2-6 years, with the highest incidence at 4 years. The disease is spread through respiratory droplets or direct contact with nose and throat discharges. The incubation period is 2-4 days, and symptoms include fever, malaise, headache, sore throat, ‘strawberry’ tongue, and a rash that appears first on the torso and spares the palms and soles. Scarlet fever is usually a mild illness, but it may be complicated by otitis media, rheumatic fever, acute glomerulonephritis, or rare invasive complications.

      To diagnose scarlet fever, a throat swab is usually taken, but antibiotic treatment should be started immediately, rather than waiting for the results. Management involves oral penicillin V for ten days, while patients with a penicillin allergy should be given azithromycin. Children can return to school 24 hours after starting antibiotics, and scarlet fever is a notifiable disease. Desquamation occurs later in the course of the illness, particularly around the fingers and toes. The rash is often described as having a rough ‘sandpaper’ texture, and children often have a flushed appearance with circumoral pallor. Invasive complications such as bacteraemia, meningitis, and necrotizing fasciitis are rare but may present acutely with life-threatening illness.

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  • Question 28 - A childminder brings a boy for his routine 18 month vaccinations. The boy's...

    Incorrect

    • A childminder brings a boy for his routine 18 month vaccinations. The boy's father is at work and has provided a letter stating that he consents for his son to be vaccinated. The practice nurse is unsure whether it is appropriate to administer the vaccine without the father being present. What should be the nurse's course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The child can have the vaccine

      Explanation:

      Other Aspects of Immunisation

      Consent is an important aspect of immunisation, and the Greenbook provides useful information on this topic. Written consent is not required, and a person with parental responsibility may give consent on behalf of a child who is not competent to give or withhold consent. Parental responsibility is defined by the Children Act 1989, and unmarried fathers can acquire it if they are named on the child’s birth certificate. If parents disagree, immunisation cannot go ahead without specific court approval. A person with parental responsibility doesn’t need to be present at the time of immunisation, but the healthcare provider must be satisfied that consent has been given in advance.

      Vaccine storage is also crucial to ensure the effectiveness of immunisation. Vaccines should be stored in a fridge at +2ºC to +8ºC and kept in their original packaging to protect them from UV light. The temperature of the refrigerator should be monitored using a maximum-minimum thermometer and recorded daily. Ordinary domestic refrigerators should not be used, and surgeries should keep no more than 2 to 4 weeks’ supply of vaccines at any time. By following these guidelines, healthcare providers can ensure that vaccines are stored properly and administered safely to patients.

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  • Question 29 - While working at an urgent care centre, a 3-year-old girl comes in with...

    Incorrect

    • While working at an urgent care centre, a 3-year-old girl comes in with a typical barking cough of croup. As per the Wesley Croup Score, she has mild croup. After administering a dose of dexamethasone and observing her for a while, you discharge her. Her parents inquire if there are any remedies they can use at home to alleviate her symptoms. What suggestions should you offer to the parents?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Paracetamol or ibuprofen to control fever and pain

      Explanation:

      When dealing with a child suffering from mild, moderate, or severe croup, it is recommended to administer a one-off dose of 0.15mg/kg of dexamethasone or 1-2 mg/kg of prednisolone as an alternative. It is important to note that steam inhalation and decongestants should not be recommended, as they are not effective in treating the barking cough associated with croup. Antibiotics are also not necessary, as croup is caused by a virus, typically parainfluenza. Inhaled salbutamol is not mentioned in the guidance.

      Parents should be informed that croup is self-limiting and symptoms usually resolve within 48 hours, although they may last up to a week. Paracetamol or ibuprofen can be used to control fever and pain, but over- or under-dressing a child with a fever should be avoided. Tepid sponging is not recommended, and antipyretic drugs should not be given solely to reduce body temperature. Adequate fluid intake should be ensured.

      It is important to arrange a follow-up consultation within a few hours, either face-to-face or by telephone. Urgent medical advice should be sought if there is a progression from mild to moderate airways obstruction, if the child becomes toxic, or if the child becomes cyanosed, unusually sleepy, or struggles to breathe.

      Parents should be informed that cough medicines, decongestants, and short-acting beta-agonists are not effective in treating croup, as it is usually caused by a viral illness and antibiotics are not necessary.

      Croup is a respiratory infection that affects young children, typically those between 6 months and 3 years old. It is most common in the autumn and is caused by parainfluenza viruses. The main symptom is stridor, which is caused by swelling and secretions in the larynx. Other symptoms include a barking cough, fever, and cold-like symptoms. The severity of croup can be graded based on the child’s symptoms, with mild cases having occasional coughing and no audible stridor at rest, and severe cases having frequent coughing, prominent stridor, and significant distress or lethargy. Children with moderate or severe croup should be admitted to the hospital, especially if they are under 6 months old or have other airway abnormalities. Diagnosis is usually made based on clinical symptoms, but a chest x-ray can show subglottic narrowing. Treatment typically involves a single dose of oral dexamethasone or prednisolone, and emergency treatment may include high-flow oxygen or nebulized adrenaline.

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  • Question 30 - Which one of the following statements concerning toddler colic is incorrect? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements concerning toddler colic is incorrect?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Is most common at around 6 months of age

      Explanation:

      Babies who are under 3 months old are usually the ones who experience infantile colic.

      Understanding Infantile Colic

      Infantile colic is a common condition that affects infants under three months old. It is characterized by excessive crying and pulling up of the legs, usually worse in the evening. This condition affects up to 20% of infants, and its cause is unknown.

      Despite its prevalence, the use of simeticone and lactase drops is not recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. These drops are commonly used to alleviate the symptoms of infantile colic, but their effectiveness is not supported by evidence. Therefore, it is important to seek medical advice before using any medication to treat infantile colic.

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  • Question 31 - A child of 14 weeks is scheduled for vaccination. What would be a...

    Incorrect

    • A child of 14 weeks is scheduled for vaccination. What would be a contraindication to immunization?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Existing febrile illness

      Explanation:

      Vaccination Contraindications

      Vaccinations are generally safe and effective in preventing infectious diseases. However, certain conditions may raise concerns about the safety of immunisation. It is important to note that febrile convulsions, congenital heart disease, epilepsy in a sibling or first degree relative, and cystic fibrosis are not contraindications to vaccination.

      Nevertheless, appropriate measures should be taken to prevent fever from occurring at the time of immunisation. Any concurrent febrile illness, on the other hand, contraindicates vaccination. It is crucial to consult with a healthcare provider to determine the best course of action for individuals with underlying medical conditions before receiving any vaccines. By doing so, we can ensure that everyone receives the necessary protection against preventable diseases.

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  • Question 32 - At what age, typically, should a child be able to use a spoon...

    Incorrect

    • At what age, typically, should a child be able to use a spoon proficiently and drink from a cup without spilling it?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 2-2.5 years

      Explanation:

      At the age of 2, a child is expected to have the ability to use a spoon proficiently and drink from a cup without spilling. This is based on both the MRCPCH development guidelines and commonly accepted developmental milestones. As such, it appears that the child in question is progressing normally, and the mother can be given reassurance.

      Developmental Milestones in Social Behaviour, Feeding, Dressing, and Play

      Developmental milestones are important markers in a child’s growth and development. In terms of social behaviour and play, there are several milestones that parents and caregivers can look out for. At six weeks, a baby may start to smile, which develops into laughter by three months. At six months, they become less shy, but by nine months, they may exhibit shyness. Additionally, babies at this age tend to put everything in their mouths.

      In terms of feeding, a six-month-old may start to put their hand on the bottle while being fed. By 12-15 months, they can drink from a cup and use a spoon, which develops over a three-month period. At two years, they become competent with a spoon and don’t spill with a cup, and by three years, they can use a spoon and fork. Finally, at five years, they can use a knife and fork.

      When it comes to dressing, a child may start to help with getting dressed and undressed at 12-15 months. By 18 months, they can take off shoes and hats but may not be able to replace them. At two years, they can put on hats and shoes, and by four years, they can dress and undress independently, except for laces and buttons.

      Lastly, in terms of play, a nine-month-old may start to play peek-a-boo and wave bye-bye. By 12 months, they may play pat-a-cake, and at 18 months, they can play contentedly alone. At two years, they may play near others but not necessarily with them, and by four years, they can play with other children. These milestones can help parents and caregivers track a child’s development and ensure they are meeting age-appropriate goals.

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  • Question 33 - A 15-year-old sustains an injury playing football and presents with pain in the...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old sustains an injury playing football and presents with pain in the thigh and a shorter leg.

      Possible diagnoses include which of the following?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Slipped femoral epiphysis

      Explanation:

      Slipped Upper Femoral Epiphysis

      Slipped upper femoral epiphysis is a condition that primarily affects boys aged 10 to 15. It occurs when the upper femoral epiphysis slips in a posterior inferior direction with respect to the femur. The exact cause of this condition is unclear, but it has been suggested that hormonal or calcification abnormalities may play a role. Obese children with delayed secondary sexual development or tall thin boys are particularly susceptible.

      Symptoms of slipped upper femoral epiphysis include rest pain, limp, pain on movement, reduced range of abduction and internal rotation, and an externally rotated and shortened affected leg. It is important to note that musculoskeletal disease doesn’t typically present with a shortened leg.

      Other conditions that may be mistaken for slipped upper femoral epiphysis include Perthes’ disease, Osgood-Schlatter syndrome, and chondromalacia patellae. Perthes’ disease is avascular necrosis of the femoral head in childhood, while Osgood-Schlatter syndrome is an overuse syndrome associated with physical exertion before skeletal maturity. Chondromalacia patellae is softening of the articular cartilage of the patella usually caused by indirect trauma.

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  • Question 34 - A 10-year-old girl comes in for a follow-up appointment. She was diagnosed with...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old girl comes in for a follow-up appointment. She was diagnosed with asthma two years ago by her primary care physician. She is currently taking a salbutamol inhaler, using 2 puffs 3 times a day, and a low-dose beclomethasone inhaler. She also takes oral montelukast. Despite this treatment, she still experiences a nighttime cough and needs to use her blue inhaler most days. Unfortunately, the addition of montelukast has not provided much relief. On examination today, her chest is clear with no wheezing and a near-normal peak flow.

      What is the next step in managing her asthma?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stop montelukast and add salmeterol

      Explanation:

      For children between the ages of 5 and 16 with asthma that is not being effectively managed with a combination of a short-acting beta agonist (SABA), low-dose inhaled corticosteroids (ICS), and a leukotriene receptor antagonist, it is recommended to add a long-acting beta agonist (LABA) to the treatment plan and discontinue the use of the leukotriene receptor antagonist.

      Managing Asthma in Children: NICE Guidelines

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) released guidelines in 2017 for the management of asthma in children aged 5-16. These guidelines follow a stepwise approach, with treatment options based on the severity of the child’s symptoms. For newly-diagnosed asthma, short-acting beta agonists (SABA) are recommended. If symptoms persist or worsen, a combination of SABA and paediatric low-dose inhaled corticosteroids (ICS) may be used. Leukotriene receptor antagonists (LTRA) and long-acting beta agonists (LABA) may also be added to the treatment plan.

      For children under 5 years old, clinical judgement plays a greater role in diagnosis and treatment. The stepwise approach for this age group includes an 8-week trial of paediatric moderate-dose ICS for newly-diagnosed asthma or uncontrolled symptoms. If symptoms persist, a combination of SABA and paediatric low-dose ICS with LTRA may be used. If symptoms still persist, referral to a paediatric asthma specialist is recommended.

      It is important to note that NICE doesn’t recommend changing treatment for patients with well-controlled asthma simply to adhere to the latest guidelines. Additionally, maintenance and reliever therapy (MART) may be used for combined ICS and LABA treatment, but only for LABAs with a fast-acting component. The definitions for low, moderate, and high-dose ICS have also changed, with different definitions for children and adults.

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  • Question 35 - A 9-month-old boy has a temperature of 38.5°C. You first saw the child...

    Incorrect

    • A 9-month-old boy has a temperature of 38.5°C. You first saw the child two days ago and the child has been febrile since then. He now has a faint erythematous macular rash that blanches on pressure. The parents are anxious.
      Which option would be MOST IMPORTANT in making the decision to admit the child to hospital?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increasing family anxiety

      Explanation:

      Identifying Red Flags in Febrile Children

      Febrile illness in children can be a cause of concern for parents and healthcare providers. While most cases are self-limiting and resolve without complications, some may require urgent medical attention. It is important to identify red flags that indicate a potentially serious underlying condition.

      Factors that may increase family anxiety include a history of serious illness or death due to feverish illness, other illnesses affecting the child or family members, and parental instinct. Parents should not ignore their intuition and seek medical advice if they are concerned.

      While there are no set rules about how long a fever should last, parents should seek further advice if their child has been febrile for five days without resolution. In infants aged 0-3 months, a temperature of >38°C is a red flag, while a temperature of >39°C in infants aged 3-6 months is an amber flag. After six months of age, the temperature alone is no longer an indicator of intermediate or high risk.

      Reduced fluid intake, dry mucous membranes, reduced urine output, and reduced skin turgor are amber warning signs that require medical attention. A blanching erythematous rash is likely to indicate a viral infection and is not a cause for concern. However, non-blanching petechiae and patches in a sick child suggest meningococcal disease and require urgent medical attention.

      In conclusion, identifying red flags in febrile children is crucial for timely diagnosis and management of potentially serious conditions. Parents should seek medical advice if they are concerned about their child’s health.

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  • Question 36 - A 4-year-old child presents to the out of hours service with a two-night...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old child presents to the out of hours service with a two-night history of earache. The child has a fever, but no ear discharge. There is no vomiting, but loose stool was reported twice today and the child passed urine four hours ago. The child had a similar episode six months ago that resolved with antibiotics. The child has no significant medical history. On examination, the child is well hydrated, has no rash, and clear chest. The left ear has an erythematous bulging eardrum with no perforation or discharge. The right ear and throat show no abnormalities, and there is no cervical lymphadenopathy or mastoid tenderness. The child has a fever of 39°C, HR 130, RR 30, CRT <2 sec. Based on the NICE 'traffic light' system, what is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Advise on fluids and regular analgesia and send home with worsening advice as low risk of serious illness

      Explanation:

      Management of Unilateral Otitis Media in Primary Care

      This child doesn’t exhibit any life-threatening symptoms or signs of serious illness. Based on the NICE ‘traffic light’ system, there are no ‘red’ or ‘amber’ indicators. The most probable diagnosis is unilateral otitis media, which can be safely managed in primary care. Parents should be advised to administer Calpol and/or Nurofen for pain relief and encourage oral fluids. The average duration of acute otitis media is four days.

      Immediate antibiotics are only necessary for children with bilateral acute otitis media under the age of two, otorrhoea, systemic illness, symptoms and signs of serious illness and/or complications, or high risk of complications due to pre-existing comorbidity. Despite national guidelines, a large primary care study has shown that antibiotic prescribing remains high. Antibiotic prescriptions for otitis media have increased from 77% in 1995 to 85% in 2011. Therefore, it is crucial to educate patients on the natural duration of common infections and the potential harm of inappropriate antibiotic use.

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  • Question 37 - A father brings his 3-month-old baby to the pediatrician's office, reporting that the...

    Incorrect

    • A father brings his 3-month-old baby to the pediatrician's office, reporting that the infant has been vomiting and regurgitating after every feeding with a cow's milk-based formula. The vomiting is not forceful, and there is no unusual coloration with blood or bile. The baby doesn't appear to be in significant distress, but the father has also noticed that the child has persistent diarrhea. The father had to switch to formula as the mother was unable to produce enough breast milk. He tried a soy milk-based formula on the advice of a friend, but it did not make any difference.

      What would be the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Extensive hydrolysed formula milk

      Explanation:

      Soya milk may not be a suitable alternative for infants with cow’s milk protein allergy as many of them are also intolerant to it. Amino acid-based formula is the recommended management for severe cases or when extensive hydrolysed formula milk is ineffective.

      Breastfeeding is encouraged if the mother eliminates cows milk proteins from her diet, but it may not be practical if she cannot produce enough milk for the child. For infants with mild to moderate cows milk protein allergy who are formula-fed, extensive hydrolysed milk formula is the first-line management.

      Gastro-oesophageal reflux (GORD) may be managed with omeprazole or ranitidine, but only after a 1-2 week trial of alginate therapy. However, if the infant presents with persistent diarrhoea, cow’s milk protein allergy is a more likely diagnosis than GORD.

      Cow’s milk protein intolerance/allergy (CMPI/CMPA) is a condition that affects approximately 3-6% of children and typically presents in formula-fed infants within the first 3 months of life. However, it can also occur in exclusively breastfed infants, although this is rare. Both immediate (IgE mediated) and delayed (non-IgE mediated) reactions can occur, with CMPA usually used to describe immediate reactions and CMPI for mild-moderate delayed reactions. Symptoms of CMPI/CMPA include regurgitation and vomiting, diarrhea, urticaria, atopic eczema, colic symptoms such as irritability and crying, wheezing, chronic cough, and rarely, angioedema and anaphylaxis.

      Diagnosis of CMPI/CMPA is often based on clinical presentation, such as improvement with cow’s milk protein elimination. However, investigations such as skin prick/patch testing and total IgE and specific IgE (RAST) for cow’s milk protein may also be performed. If symptoms are severe, such as failure to thrive, referral to a pediatrician is necessary.

      Management of CMPI/CMPA depends on whether the child is formula-fed or breastfed. For formula-fed infants with mild-moderate symptoms, extensive hydrolyzed formula (eHF) milk is the first-line replacement formula, while amino acid-based formula (AAF) is used for infants with severe CMPA or if there is no response to eHF. Around 10% of infants with CMPI/CMPA are also intolerant to soy milk. For breastfed infants, mothers should continue breastfeeding while eliminating cow’s milk protein from their diet. Calcium supplements may be prescribed to prevent deficiency while excluding dairy from the diet. When breastfeeding stops, eHF milk should be used until the child is at least 12 months old and for at least 6 months.

      The prognosis for CMPI/CMPA is generally good, with most children eventually becoming milk tolerant. In children with IgE-mediated intolerance, around 55% will be milk tolerant by the age of 5 years, while in children with non-IgE mediated intolerance, most will be milk tolerant by the age of 3 years. However, a challenge is often performed in a hospital setting as anaphylaxis can occur.

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  • Question 38 - A mother brings her 4-year-old girl who is known to have Down's syndrome...

    Incorrect

    • A mother brings her 4-year-old girl who is known to have Down's syndrome to surgery, as she is worried about her vision. Which of the following eye issues is the least commonly linked with Down's syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Retinal detachment

      Explanation:

      Vision and Hearing Issues in Down’s Syndrome

      Individuals with Down’s syndrome are at a higher risk of experiencing vision and hearing problems. When it comes to vision, they are more likely to have refractive errors, which can cause blurred vision. Strabismus, a condition where the eyes do not align properly, is also common in 20-40% of individuals with Down’s syndrome. Cataracts, which can cause cloudiness in the eye lens, are more prevalent in those with Down’s syndrome, both congenital and acquired. Recurrent blepharitis, an inflammation of the eyelids, and glaucoma, a condition that damages the optic nerve, are also potential issues.

      In terms of hearing, otitis media and glue ear are very common in individuals with Down’s syndrome. These conditions can lead to hearing problems, which can affect speech and language development. It is important for individuals with Down’s syndrome to receive regular vision and hearing screenings to detect and address any issues early on.

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  • Question 39 - A father brings his 5-year-old daughter to the clinic. Despite the MMR scare,...

    Incorrect

    • A father brings his 5-year-old daughter to the clinic. Despite the MMR scare, he had her immunised. However, he is concerned about the recent increase in measles cases and wonders if she needs a booster shot. What should be done in this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Give MMR with repeat dose in 3 months

      Explanation:

      According to the Green Book, it is recommended to have a 3-month gap between doses for optimal response rate. However, if the child is over 10 years old, a 1-month gap is sufficient. In case of an emergency, such as an outbreak at the child’s school, younger children can have a shorter gap of 1 month.

      MMR Vaccine: Information on Administration, Contraindications, and Adverse Effects

      The Measles, Mumps and Rubella (MMR) vaccine is given to children in the UK twice before they enter primary school. The first dose is administered at 12-15 months, while the second dose is given at 3-4 years old. This vaccine is part of the routine immunisation schedule for children.

      However, there are certain contraindications to the MMR vaccine. Children with severe immunosuppression, allergies to neomycin, or those who have received another live vaccine by injection within four weeks should not receive the MMR vaccine. Pregnant women should also avoid getting vaccinated for at least one month following the MMR vaccine. Additionally, if a child has undergone immunoglobulin therapy within the past three months, there may be no immune response to the measles vaccine if antibodies are present.

      While the MMR vaccine is generally safe, some adverse effects may occur. After the first dose of the vaccine, children may experience malaise, fever, and rash. These symptoms typically occur after 5-10 days and last for around 2-3 days. It is important to note that the benefits of the MMR vaccine far outweigh the risks, as it protects against serious and potentially life-threatening diseases.

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  • Question 40 - Regarding croup, what is accurate? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding croup, what is accurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Both dexamethasone and prednisolone are approved for treating it

      Explanation:

      Croup is a respiratory infection that affects young children, typically those between 6 months and 3 years old. It is most common in the autumn and is caused by parainfluenza viruses. The main symptom is stridor, which is caused by swelling and secretions in the larynx. Other symptoms include a barking cough, fever, and cold-like symptoms. The severity of croup can be graded based on the child’s symptoms, with mild cases having occasional coughing and no audible stridor at rest, and severe cases having frequent coughing, prominent stridor, and significant distress or lethargy. Children with moderate or severe croup should be admitted to the hospital, especially if they are under 6 months old or have other airway abnormalities. Diagnosis is usually made based on clinical symptoms, but a chest x-ray can show subglottic narrowing. Treatment typically involves a single dose of oral dexamethasone or prednisolone, and emergency treatment may include high-flow oxygen or nebulized adrenaline.

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  • Question 41 - A 30-year-old woman brings her 4-year-old daughter to the surgery. According to both...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman brings her 4-year-old daughter to the surgery. According to both the family and the nursery she attends for day care, her left eye has become increasingly amblyopic, and she has developed a divergent squint. It appears also that she has become increasingly clumsy and has difficulty using stereoscopic vision to play with her lego.

      She was born two months premature but has achieved normal milestones since and has had all of her planned vaccinations.

      Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Check for red reflex

      Explanation:

      Importance of Red Reflex Assessment in Diagnosing Retinoblastoma

      In cases where a patient presents with loss of the red reflex, it is crucial to rule out the development of a retinoblastoma. This is because retinoblastoma is the most common intraocular malignancy of childhood, and delay in diagnosis can have negative prognostic implications. Therefore, urgent referral to an ophthalmologist is necessary.

      Diagnosis of retinoblastoma is typically confirmed through indirect dilated ophthalmoscopy under anaesthetic. Referral to a community optician or non-urgent referral to an ophthalmologist can result in significant delays in diagnosis, making both options inappropriate. While referral to an optician may seem like a viable option, testing the red reflex is a quick and easy procedure that a GP can perform themselves.

      Re-examining the patient in six weeks is not a suitable course of action as it will only delay diagnosis. In situations where loss of the red reflex is present, reassurance is not appropriate, and urgent referral for further assessment is necessary. Therefore, it is essential to prioritize red reflex assessment in diagnosing retinoblastoma.

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  • Question 42 - As an orthopaedic SHO in a paediatric orthopaedic outpatient clinic, Rina often receives...

    Incorrect

    • As an orthopaedic SHO in a paediatric orthopaedic outpatient clinic, Rina often receives GP referrals regarding limb development in children. What is a common normal variant in a child's limb development that can be managed with expectant care and referred back to the GP?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Flat feet aged 2 years old

      Explanation:

      Many referrals for orthopaedic outpatient care from general practitioners are actually normal variants. The defining characteristics of normal variants are that they are always symmetrical, painless, and improve with age.

      Genu varum, or bow legs, is a normal variant from birth until about 2 years of age. Referral should be considered if genu varum is asymmetrical or persists beyond 3 years of age. Severe cases may be indicative of vitamin D deficiency. Genu valgus, or knock knees, is a normal variant between 3-6 years of age. Again, referral should be considered if the valgus is severe or persists, and vitamin D deficiency may be a factor. Flat feet are a normal variant until age 3, and most cases resolve by age 8 as the foot arch develops. Arches should appear when the infant stands on their tip toes, and the foot should be flexible and painless. Painful rigid flat feet should always be referred and may suggest tarsal coalition.

      In-toeing has three main causes: metatarsus adductus (a congenital foot deformity), internal tibial torsion (feet internally rotated), and femoral anteversion (feet and knees internally rotated). The vast majority of cases resolve by around 8 years of age.

      Paediatric Orthopaedics: Common Conditions and Treatments

      Developmental dysplasia of the hip is a condition that is usually diagnosed in infancy through screening tests. It may be bilateral, and when it is unilateral, there may be leg length inequality. As the disease progresses, the child may limp and experience early onset arthritis. This condition is more common in extended breech babies. Treatment options include splints and harnesses or traction, and in later years, osteotomy and hip realignment procedures may be needed. In cases of arthritis, a joint replacement may be necessary, but it is best to defer this if possible as it will likely require revision. Initially, there may be no obvious changes on plain films, and ultrasound gives the best resolution until three months of age. On plain films, Shenton’s line should form a smooth arc.

      Perthes Disease is characterized by hip pain, which may be referred to the knee, and usually occurs between the ages of 5 and 12. Bilateral disease occurs in 20% of cases. Treatment involves removing pressure from the joint to allow for normal development and physiotherapy. If diagnosed and treated promptly, the condition is usually self-limiting. X-rays will show a flattened femoral head, and in untreated cases, the femoral head will eventually fragment.

      Slipped upper femoral epiphysis is typically seen in obese male adolescents. Pain is often referred to the knee, and limitation to internal rotation is usually seen. Knee pain is usually present two months prior to hip slipping, and bilateral disease occurs in 20% of cases. Treatment involves bed rest and non-weight bearing to avoid avascular necrosis. If severe slippage or risk of it occurring is present, percutaneous pinning of the hip may be required. X-rays will show the femoral head displaced and falling inferolaterally, resembling a melting ice cream cone. The Southwick angle gives an indication of disease severity.

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  • Question 43 - A 15-year-old girl asks to begin taking the combined oral contraceptive pill.

    Which of...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old girl asks to begin taking the combined oral contraceptive pill.

      Which of the following is not a fundamental aspect of the Fraser guidelines?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: They do not have, or have had in the past, a mental illness or learning disability

      Explanation:

      Fraser Guidelines: Assessing Competence of Minors for Consent to Treatment

      The Fraser guidelines are a set of criteria used to determine whether a minor under the age of 16 is competent to give consent for medical treatment, particularly in relation to contraception. To be considered competent, the minor must demonstrate an understanding of the healthcare professional’s advice and cannot be persuaded to inform their parents or allow the professional to contact them on their behalf. Additionally, the minor must be likely to engage in sexual activity with or without contraceptive treatment, and their physical or mental health is likely to suffer without it. Finally, it must be in the minor’s best interest to receive contraceptive advice or treatment, with or without parental consent.

      These guidelines are crucial in ensuring that minors have access to necessary medical treatment while also protecting their autonomy and privacy. By assessing their competence to give consent, healthcare professionals can ensure that minors are making informed decisions about their own health and wellbeing. The Fraser guidelines provide a framework for balancing the rights of minors with the duty of healthcare professionals to provide appropriate care.

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  • Question 44 - A 9-month-old girl has gradually become more short of breath following an upper...

    Incorrect

    • A 9-month-old girl has gradually become more short of breath following an upper respiratory tract infection and her mother is very worried about her. What is the single finding on examination that is a high-risk sign rather than an intermediate sign?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Respiratory rate 60/min

      Explanation:

      Assessing and Managing Respiratory Tract Infections in Children: NICE Traffic-Light System

      When a child presents with respiratory tract infection and chest signs, it is important to assess the underlying condition and level of risk. The NICE traffic-light system is a useful tool for identifying the likelihood of serious illness in a feverish child. High-risk (red) signs such as grunting, moderate or severe chest indrawing, and observed pallor of the skin require immediate hospital admission. Other signs, such as intermediate (amber) risk features, may require a safety net or referral to specialist paediatric care for further assessment. Effective assessment and management can help ensure the best possible outcomes for children with respiratory tract infections.

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  • Question 45 - A 6-month-old child is diagnosed with napkin/nappy rash.

    Which of the following is the...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-month-old child is diagnosed with napkin/nappy rash.

      Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment of mild napkin rash?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Exposure to air

      Explanation:

      Understanding Napkin Rash

      Napkin rash, also known as nappy rash, is a common skin condition that affects infants. It is caused by a variety of factors, including contact dermatitis, bacterial and fungal infections, psoriasis, and atopic dermatitis. The condition is often worsened by infantile eczema, but it is not an indicator of the condition.

      The primary cause of napkin rash is ammonia from urine, which can burn the skin. To prevent the condition, it is important to change nappies frequently and feed infants fluids early in the day to reduce night-time urination. Antifungal lotions may also be useful in treating the condition.

      Overall, understanding the causes and prevention of napkin rash is essential for parents and caregivers to ensure the comfort and health of infants.

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  • Question 46 - A 14-month-old boy presents with eye-rolling followed by generalised shaking of the limbs...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-month-old boy presents with eye-rolling followed by generalised shaking of the limbs for three minutes. He has had a cold for two days, but became very warm this morning just prior to the episode. He has no previous history of note, and had a full term normal delivery with no neonatal complications. His immunisations are up to date. There is no family history of note. On examination he is alert though febrile at 39.2°C, with flushed cheeks. He has a runny nose. Respiratory rate is 22/min and heart rate 130/min. His chest is clear and urinalysis is negative. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Febrile convulsion, simple

      Explanation:
      • Febrile Convulsion, Simple:
        • Characteristics:
          • Occurs between 6 months and 5 years of age.
          • Associated with fever, often due to viral infections.
          • Generalized tonic-clonic seizure lasting less than 15 minutes.
          • No recurrence within 24 hours.
          • Rapid return to baseline consciousness.
        • In this case: The seizure lasted three minutes and was generalized, fitting the criteria for a simple febrile seizure.
      • Febrile Convulsion, Complex:
        • Characteristics:
          • Lasts longer than 15 minutes.
          • Focal (affects only part of the body) or recurrent within 24 hours.
          • May not return to baseline quickly.
        • In this case: The seizure was generalized and lasted only three minutes, making it unlikely to be a complex febrile seizure.
      • Encephalitis:
        • Characteristics:
          • Typically presents with fever, seizures, altered mental status, and focal neurological deficits.
          • Seizures may be recurrent or focal.
        • In this case: The child does not exhibit altered mental status or focal neurological signs post-seizure.
      • Meningitis:
        • Characteristics:
          • Presents with fever, irritability, poor feeding, lethargy, and possibly neck stiffness or bulging fontanelle in infants.
          • May include seizures, but other symptoms like irritability and lethargy are more pronounced.
        • In this case: The child is alert post-seizure, and there are no signs of meningismus or altered mental status.
      • Cerebral Abscess:
        • Characteristics:
          • Usually presents with focal neurological signs, headache, fever, and possibly seizures.
          • More common in children with a history of sinusitis or otitis media.
        • In this case: There is no focal neurological deficit or history suggestive of conditions leading to an abscess.

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  • Question 47 - A child is born at term after an uneventful pregnancy and full antenatal...

    Incorrect

    • A child is born at term after an uneventful pregnancy and full antenatal care. The delivery is normal and the child was discharged after 48 hours. At five days old the child is jaundiced. There are no other worrying features.
      According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence, what is the most appropriate first-line investigation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Transcutaneous bilirubin level

      Explanation:

      Jaundice is a common condition in newborns, affecting up to 60% of term infants and 80% of preterm infants. Physiological jaundice, which is more common in breastfed babies, typically appears after the first 24 hours of life and resolves by 14 days after birth. To diagnose physiological jaundice, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence recommends measuring the baby’s total bilirubin level within 6 hours of presentation using a transcutaneous monitor or serum blood test. If the bilirubin level is not above the phototherapy threshold, further tests are usually not necessary unless the baby becomes unwell, more jaundiced, or the jaundice persists past 10 days of age. Liver function tests may be considered if a pathological cause is suspected, but are not typically indicated for physiological jaundice. Direct Coombs’ test may be necessary if haemolysis is suspected, but this is less likely if the mother received standard antenatal care. An accurate bilirubin measurement is important to prevent the development of kernicterus, a severe neurological condition. Split bilirubin levels may be considered if the jaundice persists for more than 14 days or if the baby is unwell.

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  • Question 48 - When is it suitable to give a pertussis vaccine? ...

    Incorrect

    • When is it suitable to give a pertussis vaccine?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: To a child who is HIV positive

      Explanation:

      Reasons to Withhold Vaccination

      Vaccination is an important aspect of healthcare, but there are certain situations where it may be necessary to withhold it. For example, pertussis immunisation should not be given to individuals with a history of prolonged seizures and encephalopathy within seven days of the first vaccine. However, a history of convulsions or a family history of epilepsy doesn’t warrant withholding immunisation. It is important to seek specialist opinion if an individual has an evolving neurological condition or poorly controlled epilepsy.

      In general, any vaccination should be postponed if an individual is suffering from a significant acute illness with fever or systemic upset. However, HIV-infected infants should still receive all appropriate killed vaccines according to the usual schedule. They should also receive polio, measles, mumps, and rubella vaccines, as the risk of these infections outweighs the risks of immunisation. The inactivated polio vaccine may be preferable in this case.

      It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of these reasons to withhold vaccination to avoid unnecessary missed opportunities for vaccination and to ensure the safety and effectiveness of immunisation.

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  • Question 49 - Liam is a 9 month old infant who has been experiencing coryzal symptoms...

    Incorrect

    • Liam is a 9 month old infant who has been experiencing coryzal symptoms for the past 4 days. Despite this, he seems to be in good spirits and his physical examination is normal. He is playing with his toys and seems to favor using his left hand. What is the appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer to paediatrics due to right hand dominance

      Explanation:

      Referring Jay to paediatrics is the correct course of action due to his right hand dominance, which is a red flag sign in development. This could indicate a hemiparesis or an early sign of cerebral palsy, and therefore requires further investigation.

      It would not be appropriate to wait and review Jay’s development again after a period of time, as he is already exhibiting a red flag sign. Other red flags in gross motor development include persistent fisting beyond 3 months, early rolling over, early pulling to a stand instead of sitting, and persistent toe walking, which may indicate spasticity. Spontaneous postures, such as scissoring in a child with spasticity or a frog-level position in a hypotonic infant, are also important visual clues to motor abnormalities.

      Reference: Paediatrics Textbook p32 by Lloyd Brown and Lee Miller 2005.

      Fine Motor and Vision Developmental Milestones

      Fine motor and vision developmental milestones are important indicators of a child’s growth and development. At three months, a baby can reach for objects and hold a rattle briefly if given to their hand. They are visually alert, particularly to human faces, and can fix and follow to 180 degrees. By six months, they can hold objects in a palmar grasp and pass them from one hand to another. They become visually insatiable, looking around in every direction. At nine months, they can point with their finger and develop an early pincer grip. By 12 months, they have a good pincer grip and can bang toys together.

      In terms of bricks, a 15-month-old can build a tower of two, while an 18-month-old can build a tower of three. A two-year-old can build a tower of six, and a three-year-old can build a tower of nine. When it comes to drawing, an 18-month-old can make circular scribbles, while a two-year-old can copy a vertical line. A three-year-old can copy a circle, a four-year-old can copy a cross, and a five-year-old can copy a square and triangle.

      It’s important to note that hand preference before 12 months is abnormal and may indicate cerebral palsy. These milestones serve as a guide for parents and caregivers to monitor a child’s development and ensure they are meeting their milestones appropriately.

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  • Question 50 - You are seeing a 4-year-old child who has been brought back to the...

    Incorrect

    • You are seeing a 4-year-old child who has been brought back to the clinic one afternoon having been seen by a colleague in the morning.

      You review the notes from this morning's consultation which show that the child presented with a fever and malaise and that a suspected viral infection was diagnosed and advice given accordingly. The mother reports that the child has become increasingly drowsy and hasn't really drunk anything since being seen earlier. Despite regular paracetamol a fever has persisted.

      You examine the child who is clearly lethargic. Tympanic temperature is 38.1°C. The child is undressed and you find several non-blanching spots on the lower legs.

      The clinical record states that the child is allergic to penicillin; you ask the mother who says that when he was given it in the past for a sore throat he came out in a rash on his trunk which resolved when the antibiotics were stopped.

      What is the most appropriate initial treatment to institute acutely in the community?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gentamicin

      Explanation:

      Management of Suspected Meningococcal Septicaemia in Children

      When a child presents with suspected meningococcal septicaemia, it is crucial to note the presence of a non-blanching rash. Immediate administration of parenteral antibiotics is necessary, and it will not delay hospital transfer. In such cases, calling a 999 ambulance and administering antibiotics in the interim is recommended.

      Benzylpenicillin can be given intramuscularly or intravenously, except in children with a clear history of anaphylaxis after a previous dose. A history of rash following penicillin use is not a contraindication.

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  • Question 51 - A 4-year-old boy presents with recurrent urinary tract infections (UTIs). His parents want...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old boy presents with recurrent urinary tract infections (UTIs). His parents want to know what is causing these infections.
      What is the most common cause of this problem in a child of this age?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vesicoureteric reflux (VUR)

      Explanation:

      Pediatric Urinary Tract Conditions: Causes and Symptoms

      Recurrent urinary infections in children can be caused by various conditions that lead to urinary stasis. One of the most common causes is vesicoureteric reflux (VUR), which occurs in 41% of cases. VUR is found in about 1% of normal infants and can resolve over several years, but it is a risk factor for pyelonephritis and renal scarring. Other causes of recurrent urinary infections include renal calculi, obstructive uropathy, poor urine flow, impaired immune or renal function, and sexual abuse.

      Posterior urethral valves, a less common condition than VUR, can cause urinary tract infections, diurnal enuresis, voiding pain or dysfunction, and an abnormal urinary stream. Bilateral polycystic kidney disease, which rarely causes major symptoms during childhood, can lead to progressive kidney failure and present with loin pain, haematuria, UTIs, and stones. Neurogenic bladder, caused by spina bifida, spinal trauma, or tumour, can cause urine leakage and retention, and is less common than VUR. Renal calculi, caused by metabolic abnormalities or unknown factors, are less common in childhood than VUR and may present with urinary infections.

      In summary, recurrent urinary infections in children can be caused by various conditions, each with its own set of symptoms and risk factors. Early diagnosis and treatment are crucial to prevent complications and ensure proper kidney function.

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  • Question 52 - A 15-month old girl is brought to you by her father, concerned about...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-month old girl is brought to you by her father, concerned about her fine motor skills development. She was born at term without any complications during pregnancy or delivery. Her father feels that she is not progressing in the same way as her older siblings did at this age.

      At 12 months old, she was able to pick up small objects using her thumb and index finger. What is the next fine motor developmental milestone that you would expect this child to have achieved by now?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pincer grip

      Explanation:

      The fully formed pincer grip is the latest fine motor development that can be expected at 12 months old. While finger pointing typically develops around 9 months old, there is no indication that the child in question has achieved this milestone yet. The palmar grasp, which is typically present at 6 months old, was only achieved at 9 months old, suggesting a potential developmental delay. Passing an object from one hand to another should be present at 6 months old but was only achieved at 12 months old. Reaching for an object is expected at 3 months old in normal development.

      Fine Motor and Vision Developmental Milestones

      Fine motor and vision developmental milestones are important indicators of a child’s growth and development. At three months, a baby can reach for objects and hold a rattle briefly if given to their hand. They are visually alert, particularly to human faces, and can fix and follow to 180 degrees. By six months, they can hold objects in a palmar grasp and pass them from one hand to another. They become visually insatiable, looking around in every direction. At nine months, they can point with their finger and develop an early pincer grip. By 12 months, they have a good pincer grip and can bang toys together.

      In terms of bricks, a 15-month-old can build a tower of two, while an 18-month-old can build a tower of three. A two-year-old can build a tower of six, and a three-year-old can build a tower of nine. When it comes to drawing, an 18-month-old can make circular scribbles, while a two-year-old can copy a vertical line. A three-year-old can copy a circle, a four-year-old can copy a cross, and a five-year-old can copy a square and triangle.

      It’s important to note that hand preference before 12 months is abnormal and may indicate cerebral palsy. These milestones serve as a guide for parents and caregivers to monitor a child’s development and ensure they are meeting their milestones appropriately.

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  • Question 53 - A 12-week-old baby is brought to the clinic with persistent regurgitation that causes...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-week-old baby is brought to the clinic with persistent regurgitation that causes significant distress. The infant is exclusively breastfed and appears otherwise healthy. The baby was born a week before the due date through a normal vaginal delivery. The mother experienced significant blood loss during delivery and required overnight observation. She was found to be slightly anemic and was given ferrous sulfate supplementation. What initial treatment would you suggest for this baby?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Alginate therapy

      Explanation:

      When breastfed infants display symptoms of gastro-oesophageal reflux, it is important for a qualified individual to conduct a breastfeeding assessment. Simply observing the infant without providing any treatment is not appropriate, as the reported distress of the infant must be taken into consideration. While a proton pump inhibitor is a viable treatment option, an alginate is preferred due to its lower risk of side effects, provided it is effective. Alginates can be administered to breastfed infants by mixing them with cooled boiled water or expressed breast milk.

      Gastro-oesophageal reflux is a common cause of vomiting in infants, with around 40% of babies experiencing some degree of regurgitation. However, certain risk factors such as preterm delivery and neurological disorders can increase the likelihood of developing this condition. Symptoms typically appear before 8 weeks of age and include vomiting or regurgitation, milky vomits after feeds, and excessive crying during feeding. Diagnosis is usually made based on clinical observation.

      Management of gastro-oesophageal reflux in infants involves advising parents on proper feeding positions, ensuring the infant is not overfed, and considering a trial of thickened formula or alginate therapy. However, proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) are not recommended as a first-line treatment for isolated symptoms of regurgitation. PPIs may be considered if the infant experiences unexplained feeding difficulties, distressed behavior, or faltering growth. Metoclopramide, a prokinetic agent, should only be used with specialist advice.

      Complications of gastro-oesophageal reflux can include distress, failure to thrive, aspiration, frequent otitis media, and dental erosion in older children. If medical treatment is ineffective and severe complications arise, fundoplication may be considered. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of the risk factors, symptoms, and management options for gastro-oesophageal reflux in infants.

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  • Question 54 - A 6-year-old boy is admitted to surgery with a worsening of his asthma...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old boy is admitted to surgery with a worsening of his asthma symptoms. According to the British Thoracic Society guidelines, it is classified as a moderate attack. How should his salbutamol inhaler and spacer device be used correctly?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Give 1 puff every 30-60 seconds up to a maximum of 10 puffs

      Explanation:

      The management of acute asthma attacks in children depends on the severity of the attack. Children with severe or life-threatening asthma should be immediately transferred to the hospital. For children with mild to moderate acute asthma, bronchodilator therapy and steroid therapy should be given. The dosage of prednisolone depends on the age of the child. It is important to monitor SpO2, PEF, heart rate, respiratory rate, use of accessory neck muscles, and other clinical features to determine the severity of the attack.

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  • Question 55 - A 5-year-old boy is brought to clinic by his parents. He had a...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old boy is brought to clinic by his parents. He had a fever for three days, and as this disappeared he was noted to have a rash.

      On examination he is noted to be apyrexial, but has a macular rash on the trunk and lower limbs.

      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Roseola infantum

      Explanation:

      Common Rashes and Their Characteristics

      Roseola infantum is a viral infection caused by herpesvirus 6. It is known to cause a rash with lymphadenopathy. The rash is macular in nature and is usually seen in infants and young children.

      Erythema multiforme is a skin condition that causes target lesions with blistering. It is often caused by an allergic reaction to medication or an infection.

      Idiopathic thrombocytopenia is a condition that causes a petechial rash. This rash is caused by a low platelet count and can be seen in individuals of all ages.

      Henoch-Schönlein purpura is a condition that causes a purpuric rash on the buttocks and lower limbs. It is often seen in children and is caused by inflammation of the blood vessels.

      Meningococcal septicaemia is a serious bacterial infection that can cause a non-blanching purpuric rash. This rash is a medical emergency and requires immediate treatment.

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  • Question 56 - During a localised outbreak of measles your practice is inundated with requests for...

    Incorrect

    • During a localised outbreak of measles your practice is inundated with requests for MMR vaccine from worried parents of young children.

      In which of the following age groups is MMR vaccine contraindicated?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pregnant women

      Explanation:

      Who Should Not Receive the MMR Vaccine?

      There are only a few circumstances where the MMR vaccine cannot be given. Firstly, pregnant women should not receive the vaccine. Secondly, those with a confirmed anaphylactic reaction to gelatin or neomycin should not receive the vaccine. Thirdly, those who are immunocompromised should not receive the vaccine. Lastly, those who have had a confirmed anaphylactic reaction to a previous dose of measles, mumps or rubella-containing vaccine should not receive the vaccine.

      Breastfeeding is not a contraindication to MMR immunisation, and MMR can be given to breastfeeding mothers without any risk to the baby. While two MMR vaccinations are needed for 99% protection, there is no limit to the number of MMR vaccinations an individual can receive. The risk of adverse reactions becomes less with increasing doses of MMR. Additionally, there is no upper age limit to receiving the MMR vaccine, and a 1-year-old child could theoretically receive the vaccine.

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  • Question 57 - A 28-year-old woman brings in her 4-year-old son. She explains that she and...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman brings in her 4-year-old son. She explains that she and her husband have a history of familial hypercholesterolaemia and are worried about their son's health. She asks if he can be screened for the condition.

      What would be the best course of action in this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arrange an LDL cholesterol test and refer to a specialist for diagnostic testing and further management

      Explanation:

      It is recommended by NICE guidelines that children with both parents affected by familial hypercholesterolaemia should undergo testing before the age of 5 or as soon as possible thereafter. This is because children can develop cardiovascular disease without any visible symptoms. It is important to investigate the child regardless of whether or not they display any symptoms and to refer them to a specialist if they are thought to be at risk of familial hypercholesterolaemia.

      Familial Hypercholesterolaemia: Causes, Diagnosis, and Management

      Familial hypercholesterolaemia (FH) is a genetic condition that affects approximately 1 in 500 people. It is an autosomal dominant disorder that results in high levels of LDL-cholesterol, which can lead to early cardiovascular disease if left untreated. FH is caused by mutations in the gene that encodes the LDL-receptor protein.

      To diagnose FH, NICE recommends suspecting it as a possible diagnosis in adults with a total cholesterol level greater than 7.5 mmol/l and/or a personal or family history of premature coronary heart disease. For children of affected parents, testing should be arranged by age 10 if one parent is affected and by age 5 if both parents are affected.

      The Simon Broome criteria are used for clinical diagnosis, which includes a total cholesterol level greater than 7.5 mmol/l and LDL-C greater than 4.9 mmol/l in adults or a total cholesterol level greater than 6.7 mmol/l and LDL-C greater than 4.0 mmol/l in children. Definite FH is diagnosed if there is tendon xanthoma in patients or first or second-degree relatives or DNA-based evidence of FH. Possible FH is diagnosed if there is a family history of myocardial infarction below age 50 years in second-degree relatives, below age 60 in first-degree relatives, or a family history of raised cholesterol levels.

      Management of FH involves referral to a specialist lipid clinic and the use of high-dose statins as first-line treatment. CVD risk estimation using standard tables is not appropriate in FH as they do not accurately reflect the risk of CVD. First-degree relatives have a 50% chance of having the disorder and should be offered screening, including children who should be screened by the age of 10 years if there is one affected parent. Statins should be discontinued in women 3 months before conception due to the risk of congenital defects.

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  • Question 58 - At what age would a typical child develop a vocabulary of 200 words?...

    Incorrect

    • At what age would a typical child develop a vocabulary of 200 words?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 2 ½ years

      Explanation:

      Developmental Milestones in Speech and Hearing

      As children grow and develop, they reach various milestones in their speech and hearing abilities. These milestones are important indicators of a child’s progress and can help parents and caregivers identify any potential issues early on.

      At three months old, a baby will begin to quieten down when they hear their parents’ voices and turn towards sounds. They may also start to make high-pitched squeals. By six months, they will begin to produce double syllables such as adah and erleh.

      At nine months, a baby will typically say mama and dada and understand the word no. By 12 months, they will know and respond to their own name and understand simple commands like give it to mummy.

      Between 12 and 15 months, a baby will know about 2-6 words and understand more complex commands. By two years old, they will be able to combine two words and point to parts of their body. They will also have a vocabulary of around 200 words by 2 1/2 years old.

      At three years old, a child will begin to talk in short sentences and ask what and who questions. They will also be able to identify colors and count to 10. By four years old, they will start asking why, when, and how questions.

      Overall, these milestones provide a helpful guide for parents and caregivers to track a child’s speech and hearing development. If there are any concerns, it is important to seek advice from a healthcare professional.

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  • Question 59 - A 7-year-old girl is brought to the pediatrician's office by her father. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old girl is brought to the pediatrician's office by her father. She has been experiencing nighttime itching around her bottom and has reported seeing small white strands in her stool. She is not experiencing constipation and is in good health otherwise. No one else in the household is experiencing similar symptoms. The girl lives with her father and her four-month-old brother.

      What should be the next course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mebendazole and hygiene measures for the patient and his parents, as his sister is too young

      Explanation:

      It is recommended to treat asymptomatic household contacts of patients with threadworms, even if they show no symptoms. In this case, the appropriate treatment would be Mebendazole and hygiene measures for the patient and his parents, but not for his three-month-old sister who is too young for the medication. While a sample can be sent to confirm the diagnosis, empirical treatment is appropriate in most cases. Advising on hygiene and fluid intake alone would not be sufficient to treat the threadworm infection. Permethrin is not a suitable treatment for threadworms, as it is used for scabies.

      Threadworms: A Common Infestation Among Children in the UK

      Infestation with threadworms, also known as pinworms, is a prevalent condition among children in the UK. The infestation occurs when individuals swallow eggs present in their environment. Although around 90% of cases are asymptomatic, some possible features include perianal itching, especially at night, and vulval symptoms in girls.

      Diagnosis can be made by applying Sellotape to the perianal area and sending it to the laboratory for microscopy to see the eggs. However, most patients are treated empirically, and this approach is supported in the CKS guidelines.

      The recommended management for threadworm infestation is a combination of anthelmintic with hygiene measures for all members of the household. Mebendazole is used as a first-line treatment for children over six months old, with a single dose given unless the infestation persists. By following these guidelines, individuals can effectively manage and prevent the spread of threadworms.

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  • Question 60 - A 4-year-old child has been started on montelukast due to recurrent episodes of...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old child has been started on montelukast due to recurrent episodes of viral-induced wheezing that have resulted in hospitalization. What is a typical side effect of this medication that should be cautioned to the parents?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nightmares

      Explanation:

      Nightmares are a frequent and distressing side effect of montelukast. It is recommended that children take the medication in the morning instead of at night if they experience this issue. Montelukast is not associated with exacerbating coughs (which are usually caused by ramipril), blurred vision (which can be caused by Olanzapine), ringing in the ears (which is often caused by furosemide), or increased appetite (which is often a side effect of antidepressants like sertraline).

      Preschool Wheeze in Children: Classification and Management

      Wheeze is a common occurrence in Preschool children, with around 25% experiencing it before they reach 18 months old. Viral-induced wheeze is now one of the most frequently diagnosed conditions in paediatric wards. However, there is still ongoing debate about how to classify wheeze in this age group and the most appropriate management strategies.

      The European Respiratory Society Task Force has proposed a classification system for Preschool wheeze, dividing children into two groups: episodic viral wheeze and multiple trigger wheeze. Episodic viral wheeze occurs only during a viral upper respiratory tract infection and is symptom-free in between episodes. On the other hand, multiple trigger wheeze can be triggered by various factors, such as exercise, allergens, and cigarette smoke. Episodic viral wheeze is not associated with an increased risk of asthma in later life, while a proportion of children with multiple trigger wheeze may develop asthma.

      For parents who smoke, it is strongly recommended that they quit smoking. The management of episodic viral wheeze is symptomatic, with first-line treatment involving short-acting beta 2 agonists or anticholinergic via a spacer. If symptoms persist, the next step is intermittent leukotriene receptor antagonist or inhaled corticosteroids, or both. Oral prednisolone is no longer considered necessary for children who do not require hospital treatment. For multiple trigger wheeze, a trial of inhaled corticosteroids or a leukotriene receptor antagonist is typically recommended for 4-8 weeks.

      Overall, the classification and management of Preschool wheeze in children is an ongoing area of research and debate, with the aim of providing the most effective and appropriate care for these young patients.

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  • Question 61 - Samantha is a five-year-old caucasian girl who visits her GP due to her...

    Incorrect

    • Samantha is a five-year-old caucasian girl who visits her GP due to her mother's concern about her swollen tummy. She has no previous medical history and was born at full term. During the examination, she seems a little pale. A smooth mass is palpable in the right upper quadrant of her abdomen. There is no tenderness in her abdomen, and her cardiovascular and respiratory examinations are normal. There is no significant family history to note.

      What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urgent paediatric review within 48 hours

      Explanation:

      A possible diagnosis for an unexplained enlarged abdominal mass in children is Wilms tumour, which is the most common renal malignancy in this age group. It typically presents as a unilateral mass in the abdomen. Therefore, it is crucial to arrange an urgent paediatric review within 48 hours for assessment and imaging, in accordance with NICE guidelines.

      Delaying diagnosis by opting for an ultrasound scan within 2 weeks or a routine referral to paediatrics is not recommended. While a renal function test will be performed in secondary care, it will not alter the management of the patient.

      It is worth noting that sickle cell disease can be diagnosed using haemoglobin electrophoresis, and it may present with splenomegaly (a left-sided mass). However, in the case of an unexplained enlarged abdominal mass in children, Wilms tumour should be considered as a potential diagnosis and prompt action should be taken.

      Wilms’ Tumour: A Common Childhood Malignancy

      Wilms’ tumour, also known as nephroblastoma, is a prevalent type of cancer in children, with a median age of diagnosis at 3 years old. It is often associated with Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome, hemihypertrophy, and a loss-of-function mutation in the WT1 gene on chromosome 11. The most common presenting feature is an abdominal mass, which is usually painless, but other symptoms such as haematuria, flank pain, anorexia, and fever may also occur. In 95% of cases, the tumour is unilateral, and metastases are found in 20% of patients, most commonly in the lungs.

      If a child presents with an unexplained enlarged abdominal mass, it is crucial to arrange a paediatric review within 48 hours to rule out Wilms’ tumour. The management of this cancer typically involves nephrectomy, chemotherapy, and radiotherapy if the disease is advanced. Fortunately, the prognosis for Wilms’ tumour is good, with an 80% cure rate.

      Histologically, Wilms’ tumour is characterized by epithelial tubules, areas of necrosis, immature glomerular structures, stroma with spindle cells, and small cell blastomatous tissues resembling the metanephric blastema. Overall, early detection and prompt treatment are essential for a successful outcome in children with Wilms’ tumour.

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  • Question 62 - You are conducting a 12-week postnatal check on a baby boy and his...

    Incorrect

    • You are conducting a 12-week postnatal check on a baby boy and his mother. During the examination, you inquire about the child's immunisation schedule. The mother expresses concern about recent measles outbreaks and asks when her son will receive his first MMR vaccine.

      At what age is the first dose of the MMR vaccine typically administered?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: At 12-13 months of age

      Explanation:

      At the age of 12-13 months, the MMR vaccine is administered as a routine, followed by a Preschool booster at 3-4 years of age.

      The UK immunisation schedule recommends certain vaccines at different ages. At birth, the BCG vaccine is given if the baby is at risk of tuberculosis. At 2, 3, and 4 months, the ‘6-1 vaccine’ (diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough, polio, Hib and hepatitis B) and oral rotavirus vaccine are given, along with Men B and PCV at specific intervals. At 12-13 months, the Hib/Men C, MMR, PCV, and Men B vaccines are given. At 3-4 years, the ‘4-in-1 Preschool booster’ (diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough and polio) and MMR vaccines are given. At 12-13 years, the HPV vaccination is given, and at 13-18 years, the ‘3-in-1 teenage booster’ (tetanus, diphtheria and polio) and Men ACWY vaccines are given. Additionally, the flu vaccine is recommended annually for children aged 2-8 years.

      It is important to note that the meningitis ACWY vaccine has replaced meningitis C for 13-18 year-olds due to an increased incidence of meningitis W disease in recent years. The ACWY vaccine is also offered to new students up to the age of 25 years at university. GP practices will automatically send letters inviting 17-and 18-year-olds in school year 13 to have the Men ACWY vaccine, while students going to university or college for the first time should contact their GP to have the vaccine before the start of the academic year.

      The Men C vaccine used to be given at 3 months but has now been discontinued as there are almost no cases of Men C disease in babies or young children in the UK. All children will continue to be offered the Hib/Men C vaccine at one year of age, and the Men ACWY vaccine at 14 years of age to provide protection across all age groups.

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  • Question 63 - A mother is worried because her 2-year-old girl was exposed to measles two...

    Incorrect

    • A mother is worried because her 2-year-old girl was exposed to measles two days ago.

      Which one of the following statements is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Immunisation with the live attenuated virus is advised within 72 hours to confer protection

      Explanation:

      Measles Treatment and Complications

      If a person has been exposed to measles within the past 72 hours, the measles vaccine is the preferred treatment option. This vaccine can provide lifelong immunity, although it is not 100% effective in preventing the disease. If the vaccine is not an option, immune globulin can be given within six days of exposure.

      Complications from measles are common, with one-third of those infected experiencing issues such as pneumonia, otitis media, and diarrhea. However, the most serious complication is the development of subacute sclerosing pan-encephalitis.

      Measles typically begins with coryzal symptoms, followed by the appearance of a rash several days later.

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  • Question 64 - What is the definition of a Child Protection Plan? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the definition of a Child Protection Plan?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A plan to assess the likelihood of the child suffering harm and decide goals to reduce the risk of harm and how to best protect the child while clarifying the responsibilities of the people involved

      Explanation:

      Child Protection Plans

      At an initial Child Protection conference, the decision to make a child subject to a Protection Plan is made. This plan is created if a child is at continuing risk of significant harm. The purpose of the Child Protection Plan is to assess the likelihood of the child suffering harm and to decide on goals to reduce the risk of harm and protect the child. It should also clarify the responsibilities of the people involved and actions to be taken. Additionally, the plan should outline how the processes will be monitored and evaluated.

      Overall, the Child Protection Plan is a crucial tool in ensuring the safety and well-being of vulnerable children. It provides a framework for all parties involved to work together towards a common goal of protecting the child from harm. By setting clear goals and responsibilities, the plan helps to ensure that everyone is on the same page and working towards the same objectives. Regular monitoring and evaluation of the plan also help to ensure that it remains effective and relevant over time.

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  • Question 65 - A 38-year-old woman has just found out that she has Huntington disease and...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old woman has just found out that she has Huntington disease and is worried that she may have passed it on to her children. The father of the children doesn't have the disease.

      What is the probability that each of her children has inherited the condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 50%

      Explanation:

      Huntington disease is an autosomal dominant condition, which implies that the patient has one normal and one faulty copy of the gene. The faulty copy is dominant and causes the disease. If an affected patient has a child, the child has a 50% chance of inheriting the faulty gene and developing the condition, and a 50% chance of inheriting the normal gene and not developing the disease.

      Autosomal Dominant Inheritance: Characteristics and Complicating Factors

      Autosomal dominant diseases are genetic disorders that are inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern. This means that both homozygotes and heterozygotes manifest the disease, and there is no carrier state. Both males and females can be affected, and only affected individuals can pass on the disease. The disease is passed on to 50% of children, and it normally appears in every generation. The risk remains the same for each successive pregnancy.

      However, there are complicating factors that can affect the inheritance of autosomal dominant diseases. One of these factors is non-penetrance, which refers to the lack of clinical signs and symptoms despite having an abnormal gene. For example, 40% of individuals with otosclerosis may not show any symptoms. Another complicating factor is spontaneous mutation, which occurs when there is a new mutation in one of the gametes. This means that 80% of individuals with achondroplasia have unaffected parents.

      In summary, autosomal dominant inheritance is characterized by certain patterns of inheritance, but there are also complicating factors that can affect the expression of the disease. Understanding these factors is important for genetic counseling and for predicting the risk of passing on the disease to future generations.

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  • Question 66 - A 10-week-old boy comes for his routine baby check. His parents are curious...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-week-old boy comes for his routine baby check. His parents are curious about what will be evaluated during the check-up.
      What is the most probable abnormality that will be detected as a new finding during this stage (not previously identified at or shortly after birth)? Choose ONE option only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Congenital heart disease

      Explanation:

      The Importance of Routine Six-Week Baby Checks

      Routine six-week baby checks are crucial in identifying potential health issues in newborns. While some conditions may be identified before or just after birth, others may not present symptoms until later in childhood. It is important to note that even a normal cardiac examination at six weeks doesn’t completely rule out congenital heart disease, as it may still manifest later on.

      Congenital hypothyroidism is typically tested for soon after birth in the heel-prick Guthrie test, along with other conditions such as phenylketonuria and cystic fibrosis. Congenital cataracts are usually diagnosed at newborn examination by the identification of absence of the red reflex, and surgery should ideally be performed before two months of age to prevent irreversible amblyopia.

      While a check for developmental dysplasia of the hip is usually carried out at or soon after birth, some late diagnoses still occur. Undescended testicles should also be detected at birth, with surgery indicated if they remain undescended at 12 months.

      In summary, routine six-week baby checks are essential in identifying potential health issues in newborns, including congenital heart disease, congenital hypothyroidism, congenital cataracts, developmental dysplasia of the hip, and undescended testicles. It is important for parents and healthcare providers to remain vigilant in monitoring a child’s health and development.

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  • Question 67 - A mother brings her 2-year-old child to see you. The child has had...

    Incorrect

    • A mother brings her 2-year-old child to see you. The child has had diarrhoea and been vomiting for the last 48 hours.

      On further questioning, the child has had four very loose stools today and vomited three times. The child has no significant past medical history and is usually well. There has been no blood in the faeces. There is no history of foreign travel. On examination the child has a temperature of 37.5°C, is not dehydrated and has a soft abdomen with no focal findings. You diagnose gastroenteritis.

      What is the most appropriate way of managing this child?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Conservative treatment with advice regarding hydration and when to seek further advice

      Explanation:

      Managing Gastroenteritis in Children

      Gastroenteritis is a common childhood illness that requires effective management to determine whether the child can be treated at home or needs referral to a hospital. It is important to note that not all children develop lactose intolerance after gastroenteritis, so switching to lactose-free formula is not recommended. Antibiotics are also usually unnecessary, as gastroenteritis is typically viral. The decision to manage the illness at home depends on the child’s hydration status and the parents’ ability to maintain that hydration.

      Hydration status is assessed clinically based on various factors such as alertness, pulse rate, capillary refill time, mucous membranes, skin turgor, and urine output. In primary care, taking blood to check for signs of dehydration is not routinely recommended. Referral to paediatrics should not be the default option for children under 12 months of age; the decision to treat at home or refer should be based on the clinical assessment. If the child is not clinically dehydrated and there are no atypical features, it would be reasonable to monitor them at home with advice on how to maintain hydration and when to seek review if their condition worsens.

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  • Question 68 - You see a six-year-old girl one evening during your out of hours shift....

    Incorrect

    • You see a six-year-old girl one evening during your out of hours shift. She has become very sick quite suddenly, with a high fever, sore throat, and difficulty breathing.

      When you examine her, she is sitting upright with her mouth open, and you observe that saliva is drooling down her chin. She has a soft stridor audible at rest.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acute tonsillitis

      Explanation:

      Causes of Acute Stridor

      A sudden onset of stridor without any warning signs such as cough and runny nose may indicate epiglottitis. Symptoms to look out for include respiratory distress, cyanosis, agitation, and drooling. However, there are other causes of acute stridor such as croup, bacterial tracheitis, subglottic stenosis, foreign body inhalation, and retropharyngeal abscess. Smoke inhalation, diphtheria, and angioneurotic edema can also lead to stridor. In all cases, it is important to administer oxygen to maintain adequate saturation. Severe cases may require ventilation. Enlarged adenoids and tonsils can also cause snoring.

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  • Question 69 - A 14-year-old boy is referred by his GP with a two-week history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old boy is referred by his GP with a two-week history of general malaise, fatigue and pharyngitis. On examination, multiple small lymph nodes were palpable in the neck, axillae and groins.

      Investigations revealed:
      Haemoglobin 125 g/L (130-180)
      WBC 16.0 ×109/L (4-11)
      Platelets 160 ×109/L (150-400)
      Blood film Lymphocytosis noted

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Epstein-Barr virus infection (EBV)

      Explanation:

      Differentiating between Acute EBV, CMV, and Toxoplasmosis

      Acute EBV typically presents with symptoms such as fatigue, malaise, fever, pharyngitis, and bilateral lymphadenopathy. Heterophil antibody tests are usually positive. On the other hand, CMV mononucleosis has a lower incidence of pharyngitis and cervical adenopathy. The clinical presentation of CMV infectious mononucleosis may be similar to EBV, but it is usually not accompanied by posterior cervical adenopathy, and non-exudative pharyngitis is minimal or absent.

      Primary toxoplasmosis is acquired through the ingestion of undercooked meat containing toxoplasma cysts or fresh food contaminated by toxoplasma excreted in cats’ faeces. The infection is asymptomatic in 80-90% of immunocompetent patients. Highly characteristic of toxoplasmosis is asymmetrical lymphadenopathy limited to an isolated lymph node group. Patients with toxoplasmosis have little or no fever, fatigue, or pharyngitis.

      Mild transient thrombocytopenia is not uncommon in EBV infectious mononucleosis. In contrast, patients with toxoplasmosis have little or no fever, fatigue, or pharyngitis. The diagnosis of ALL and HD is made by a combination of blood film examination, bone marrow aspiration and biopsy, and lymph node biopsy.

      In summary, while EBV and CMV mononucleosis may have similar clinical presentations, the absence of posterior cervical adenopathy and minimal or absent non-exudative pharyngitis may indicate CMV. Asymmetrical lymphadenopathy limited to an isolated lymph node group is highly characteristic of toxoplasmosis.

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  • Question 70 - At what age is precocious puberty in females defined as the development of...

    Incorrect

    • At what age is precocious puberty in females defined as the development of secondary sexual characteristics before?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 8 years of age

      Explanation:

      Understanding Precocious Puberty

      Precocious puberty is a condition where secondary sexual characteristics develop earlier than expected, before the age of 8 in females and 9 in males. It is more common in females and can be classified into two types: gonadotrophin dependent and gonadotrophin independent. The former is caused by premature activation of the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis, while the latter is due to excess sex hormones. In males, precocious puberty is uncommon and usually has an organic cause, such as gonadotrophin release from an intracranial lesion, gonadal tumor, or adrenal cause. In females, it is usually idiopathic or familial and follows the normal sequence of puberty. Organic causes are rare and associated with rapid onset, neurological symptoms and signs, and dissonance, such as in McCune Albright syndrome. Understanding precocious puberty is important for early detection and management of the condition.

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  • Question 71 - A 4-year-old girl is brought in by her mother who is worried about...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old girl is brought in by her mother who is worried about her occasional wheezing. The child is not experiencing any symptoms at the moment and her wheezing seems to only occur during upper respiratory tract infections. There is no history of atopy in the family or the child's medical history. The girl was previously seen by another doctor 4 months ago and was given salbutamol to use as needed, but her mother reports that it doesn't seem to help. What should be the next appropriate step to take?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reassure and plan a review

      Explanation:

      The father has reported that the child experiences wheezing only during upper respiratory tract infections and not at any other time. This suggests that the child may not have asthma and instead may be experiencing viral-induced wheezing, which is common in children of this age.

      Managing Asthma in Children: NICE Guidelines

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) released guidelines in 2017 for the management of asthma in children aged 5-16. These guidelines follow a stepwise approach, with treatment options based on the severity of the child’s symptoms. For newly-diagnosed asthma, short-acting beta agonists (SABA) are recommended. If symptoms persist or worsen, a combination of SABA and paediatric low-dose inhaled corticosteroids (ICS) may be used. Leukotriene receptor antagonists (LTRA) and long-acting beta agonists (LABA) may also be added to the treatment plan.

      For children under 5 years old, clinical judgement plays a greater role in diagnosis and treatment. The stepwise approach for this age group includes an 8-week trial of paediatric moderate-dose ICS for newly-diagnosed asthma or uncontrolled symptoms. If symptoms persist, a combination of SABA and paediatric low-dose ICS with LTRA may be used. If symptoms still persist, referral to a paediatric asthma specialist is recommended.

      It is important to note that NICE doesn’t recommend changing treatment for patients with well-controlled asthma simply to adhere to the latest guidelines. Additionally, maintenance and reliever therapy (MART) may be used for combined ICS and LABA treatment, but only for LABAs with a fast-acting component. The definitions for low, moderate, and high-dose ICS have also changed, with different definitions for children and adults.

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  • Question 72 - What could be the cause of stridor in a 6-month-old infant? ...

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    • What could be the cause of stridor in a 6-month-old infant?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Laryngomalacia

      Explanation:

      Causes of Stridor: An Overview

      Stridor is a high-pitched, wheezing sound that occurs during breathing and is often a sign of an underlying respiratory problem. One common cause of stridor is laryngomalacia, a congenital condition that results in flaccidity of supraglottic structures. This condition may not present until the child is a few months old.

      It is important to note that stridor doesn’t occur in bronchiolitis, asthma, or reflux. In the UK, viral croup is the most common cause of stridor in general practice, while epiglottitis is a much rarer cause that can produce severe stridor with distress and cyanosis very quickly. Structural abnormalities such as micrognathia and trachea-oesophageal fistula can also cause stridor.

      It is worth noting that stridor doesn’t occur with pertussis but used to be seen with diphtheria. Other causes of stridor include smoke inhalation, angio-oedema, and foreign body. Understanding the various causes of stridor is crucial for prompt diagnosis and treatment.

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  • Question 73 - A 3-month-old boy presents with a runny nose, cough and a temperature of...

    Incorrect

    • A 3-month-old boy presents with a runny nose, cough and a temperature of 38.5°C. On auscultation, he has widespread, fine inspiratory crackles and a faint wheeze. He is not tachypnoeic, he remains alert and is taking most feeds. There is slight intercostal and subcostal recession.
      What is the most appropriate management option?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Paracetamol, ibuprofen and review in 24 hours

      Explanation:

      Management of Bronchiolitis in Infants

      Bronchiolitis is an acute infectious disease of the lower respiratory tract that commonly affects infants aged between two and six months. It is caused by respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) and peaks during the winter months. Supportive measures such as fluid input, feeding, and temperature control are the mainstay of treatment. Antibiotics are not indicated as bronchiolitis is usually caused by a virus. Hospital admission is only necessary in severe cases or if there are significant comorbidities. Salbutamol via a spacer is not indicated in bronchiolitis. Careful safety netting is important to teach parents to spot deterioration and seek medical attention if necessary. Most infants with bronchiolitis have a mild, self-limiting illness that lasts for seven to ten days.

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  • Question 74 - A 9-year-old child is waiting in the GP's office when he suddenly experiences...

    Incorrect

    • A 9-year-old child is waiting in the GP's office when he suddenly experiences facial swelling and difficulty breathing. An elderly patient is snacking on a bag of cashew nuts in the waiting room. The patient is in good health and had come with his mother for her appointment. As the attending GP, you diagnose the child with anaphylaxis. What would be the appropriate dosage of adrenaline to administer?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Adrenaline 300 mcg IM STAT

      Explanation:

      If a child between the ages of 6 and 11 is experiencing an anaphylactic reaction, they should be given a dose of 300 micrograms (0.3ml) of adrenaline. This dose can be repeated every 5 minutes if necessary. Based on the patient’s age of 8 years old, it is recommended to administer the adrenaline at a dose of 300 micrograms IM immediately, as stated in the BNF. It is likely that the child is having an anaphylactic reaction to the nuts they were exposed to in the GP waiting room.

      Anaphylaxis is a severe and potentially life-threatening allergic reaction that affects the entire body. It can be caused by various triggers, including food, drugs, and insect venom. The symptoms of anaphylaxis typically develop suddenly and progress rapidly, affecting the airway, breathing, and circulation. Swelling of the throat and tongue, hoarse voice, and stridor are common airway problems, while respiratory wheeze and dyspnea are common breathing problems. Hypotension and tachycardia are common circulation problems. Skin and mucosal changes, such as generalized pruritus and widespread erythematous or urticarial rash, are also present in around 80-90% of patients.

      The most important drug in the management of anaphylaxis is intramuscular adrenaline, which should be administered as soon as possible. The recommended doses of adrenaline vary depending on the patient’s age, with the highest dose being 500 micrograms for adults and children over 12 years old. Adrenaline can be repeated every 5 minutes if necessary. If the patient’s respiratory and/or cardiovascular problems persist despite two doses of IM adrenaline, IV fluids should be given for shock, and expert help should be sought for consideration of an IV adrenaline infusion.

      Following stabilisation, non-sedating oral antihistamines may be given to patients with persisting skin symptoms. Patients with a new diagnosis of anaphylaxis should be referred to a specialist allergy clinic, and an adrenaline injector should be given as an interim measure before the specialist allergy assessment. Patients should be prescribed two adrenaline auto-injectors, and training should be provided on how to use them. A risk-stratified approach to discharge should be taken, as biphasic reactions can occur in up to 20% of patients. The Resus Council UK recommends a fast-track discharge for patients who have had a good response to a single dose of adrenaline and have been given an adrenaline auto-injector and trained how to use it. Patients who require two doses of IM adrenaline or have had a previous biphasic reaction should be observed for a minimum of 6 hours after symptom resolution, while those who have had a severe reaction requiring more than two doses of IM adrenaline or have severe asthma should be observed for a minimum of 12 hours after symptom resolution. Patients who present late at night or in areas where access to emergency care may be difficult should also be observed for a minimum of 12

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  • Question 75 - A mother brings her 4-year-old daughter, Lily, to the clinic. Lily has been...

    Incorrect

    • A mother brings her 4-year-old daughter, Lily, to the clinic. Lily has been experiencing discomfort in her genital area and has difficulty urinating, often dribbling. During the examination, with a chaperone present, you observe that she has a labial adhesion that is causing a small opening over the urethra. What is the most suitable course of action for management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oestrogen cream applied for 6 weeks until membrane dissolves, and then emollient for 2 months

      Explanation:

      In most cases, labial adhesion can be resolved through conservative methods. However, if the individual experiences symptoms such as pain, difficulty urinating, or dribbling, it is recommended to apply oestrogen cream for a period of 6 weeks until the membrane dissolves. Following this, an emollient should be applied for a duration of 2 months.

      Labial Adhesions: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Labial adhesions refer to the fusion of the labia minora in the middle, which is commonly observed in girls aged between 3 months and 3 years. This condition can be treated conservatively, and spontaneous resolution usually occurs around puberty. It is important to note that labial adhesions are different from an imperforate hymen.

      Symptoms of labial adhesions include problems with urination, such as pooling in the vagina. Upon examination, thin semitranslucent adhesions covering the vaginal opening between the labia minora may be seen, which can sometimes cover the vaginal opening completely.

      Conservative management is usually appropriate for most cases of labial adhesions. However, if there are associated problems such as recurrent urinary tract infections, oestrogen cream may be tried. If this fails, surgical intervention may be necessary.

      In summary, labial adhesions are a common condition in young girls that can cause problems with urination. While conservative management is usually effective, medical intervention may be necessary in some cases.

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  • Question 76 - A 10-year-old girl presents with her father to the General Practitioner, as her...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old girl presents with her father to the General Practitioner, as her father is concerned that she may have attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). He reports that she achieves well in school academically but has difficulty taking turns in games at break times and often interrupts the teacher by blurting out the answer to a question before she has finished it. She can get cross with her father at home when he asks her to carry out chores and sometimes gets in physical fights with her sister.
      Which of the following is one of the diagnostic criteria for ADHD and is displayed by this child?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Impulsivity

      Explanation:

      Understanding ADHD: Symptoms and Diagnostic Criteria

      Attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) is a neurodevelopmental disorder that affects both children and adults. One of the diagnostic criteria for ADHD is impulsivity, which can manifest as difficulty waiting turns, interrupting others, or blurting out answers prematurely. However, restricted, repetitive behaviors are not a symptom of ADHD but rather a diagnostic criterion for autism spectrum disorder. Similarly, aggression towards people and animals is not a symptom of ADHD but is included in the diagnostic criteria for conduct disorder. Argumentative or defiant behavior is also not a symptom of ADHD but is a diagnostic criterion for oppositional defiant disorder. It is important to note that high educational attainment is not a diagnostic criterion for ADHD, as individuals with ADHD may struggle in school due to inattention and difficulty concentrating. Understanding the symptoms and diagnostic criteria for ADHD can aid in early identification and appropriate treatment.

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  • Question 77 - You see a 35-year-old male patient who is interested in starting a family...

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    • You see a 35-year-old male patient who is interested in starting a family with his partner. However, he is worried about the possibility of passing on a learning difficulty to his child. He mentions that his cousin has a learning difficulty that he believes is inherited. What is the most common cause of inherited learning difficulty that his cousin may have?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fragile X syndrome

      Explanation:

      The most common cause of inherited learning disability is Fragile X syndrome (FXS), although not all individuals with FXS have a learning disability. FXS can range from mild to severe cognitive or intellectual disabilities and is also the most common known cause of autism or ‘autistic-like’ behaviors. Down’s syndrome, on the other hand, is caused by an extra chromosome 21 and all individuals with Down’s syndrome have some form of learning disability. Williams syndrome (WS) is a rare genetic condition affecting chromosome 7 and typically results in mild to moderate intellectual disability with particular difficulties in visual-spatial tasks. Autism spectrum disorder (ASD) is not an inherited cause of learning difficulty and its exact cause is currently unknown, although it may be a result of genetic predisposition, environmental factors, or unknown factors.

      Childhood syndromes are a group of medical conditions that affect children and are characterized by a set of common features. Patau syndrome, also known as trisomy 13, is a syndrome that presents with microcephaly, small eyes, cleft lip/palate, polydactyly, and scalp lesions. Edward’s syndrome, or trisomy 18, is characterized by micrognathia, low-set ears, rocker bottom feet, and overlapping of fingers. Fragile X syndrome is a condition that causes learning difficulties, macrocephaly, a long face, large ears, and macro-orchidism. Noonan syndrome presents with a webbed neck, pectus excavatum, short stature, and pulmonary stenosis. Pierre-Robin syndrome is characterized by micrognathia, posterior displacement of the tongue, and cleft palate. Prader-Willi syndrome presents with hypotonia, hypogonadism, and obesity. William’s syndrome is characterized by short stature, learning difficulties, a friendly and extroverted personality, and transient neonatal hypercalcaemia. Finally, Cri du chat syndrome, also known as chromosome 5p deletion syndrome, presents with a characteristic cry due to larynx and neurological problems, feeding difficulties and poor weight gain, learning difficulties, microcephaly, micrognathism, and hypertelorism. It is important to note that Pierre-Robin syndrome has many similarities with Treacher-Collins syndrome, but the latter is autosomal dominant and usually has a family history of similar problems.

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  • Question 78 - A 12-year-old girl presents to your clinic with her mother, complaining of a...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old girl presents to your clinic with her mother, complaining of a rash of small red dots on both arms that has been gradually worsening over the past month. The patient reports feeling generally well, but has been experiencing increased fatigue lately. Upon examination, you note a petechial rash on both forearms and her left calf, as well as hepatomegaly and splenomegaly (3 cm and 2cm below the costal margin, respectively). What is the best course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer her for an immediate specialist assessment

      Explanation:

      The presence of a deteriorating petechial rash, fatigue, and hepatosplenomegaly indicates a possible case of leukemia in this patient. As per NICE guidelines, an urgent referral for specialist evaluation is advised. The specialist will conduct additional tests, including blood tests and bone marrow biopsy, and discuss potential hospitalization and treatment options.

      Understanding Acute Lymphoblastic Leukaemia

      Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL) is a type of cancer that commonly affects children, accounting for 80% of childhood leukaemias. It is most prevalent in children aged 2-5 years, with boys being slightly more affected than girls. Symptoms of ALL can be divided into those caused by bone marrow failure, such as anaemia, neutropaenia, and thrombocytopenia, and other features like bone pain, splenomegaly, hepatomegaly, fever, and testicular swelling.

      There are three types of ALL: common ALL, T-cell ALL, and B-cell ALL. Common ALL is the most common type, accounting for 75% of cases, and is characterized by the presence of CD10 and pre-B phenotype. T-cell ALL accounts for 20% of cases, while B-cell ALL accounts for only 5%.

      Certain factors can affect the prognosis of ALL, including age, white blood cell count at diagnosis, T or B cell surface markers, race, and sex. Children under 2 years or over 10 years of age, those with a WBC count over 20 * 109/l at diagnosis, and those with T or B cell surface markers, non-Caucasian, and male sex have a poorer prognosis.

      Understanding the different types and prognostic factors of ALL can help in the early detection and management of this cancer. It is important to seek medical attention if any of the symptoms mentioned above are present.

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  • Question 79 - A mother has coeliac disease. She is concerned that her 18-month-old daughter may...

    Incorrect

    • A mother has coeliac disease. She is concerned that her 18-month-old daughter may have the condition.
      Which of the following is the most commonly presenting feature of coeliac disease in a child of 18 months?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Diarrhoea

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Symptoms of Coeliac Disease

      Coeliac disease is a condition that affects the digestive system and is caused by an intolerance to gluten. The incidence of this disease is higher in relatives of patients than in the general population. The symptoms of coeliac disease can vary depending on the age of the patient.

      In children, the most common presenting symptom is diarrhoea, which occurs due to poor digestion and absorption of nutrients. Other symptoms include weight loss, vomiting, anorexia, irritability, constipation, abdominal protrusion, and eversion of the umbilicus. Children may also experience growth problems and delayed puberty.

      In older children, teenagers, and young adults, anaemia is a common symptom due to malabsorption of iron and vitamins B12 and folate. Dermatitis herpetiformis, an itchy blistering disorder of the elbows, knees, and buttocks, may also be associated with coeliac disease in teenagers and adults.

      Bloating and flatulence are common symptoms of coeliac disease, but they are more likely to be complained of in older people with the condition. Peripheral oedema, or swelling in the limbs, may rarely occur due to protein loss from enteropathy, but other causes such as nephrotic syndrome should be considered first.

      In conclusion, understanding the symptoms of coeliac disease is important for early diagnosis and treatment. If you or a loved one is experiencing any of these symptoms, it is important to consult a healthcare professional for proper evaluation and management.

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  • Question 80 - You come across a mother with her 6-month-old baby boy who has just...

    Incorrect

    • You come across a mother with her 6-month-old baby boy who has just been released from the hospital after being admitted for bloody stools. The baby has been diagnosed with cow's milk protein allergy and the mother is seeking further information on the condition.

      Which of the following statements is accurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cows milk protein allergy can occur in exclusively breastfed infants

      Explanation:

      Cow’s milk protein intolerance/allergy (CMPI/CMPA) is a condition that affects approximately 3-6% of children and typically presents in formula-fed infants within the first 3 months of life. However, it can also occur in exclusively breastfed infants, although this is rare. Both immediate (IgE mediated) and delayed (non-IgE mediated) reactions can occur, with CMPA usually used to describe immediate reactions and CMPI for mild-moderate delayed reactions. Symptoms of CMPI/CMPA include regurgitation and vomiting, diarrhea, urticaria, atopic eczema, colic symptoms such as irritability and crying, wheezing, chronic cough, and rarely, angioedema and anaphylaxis.

      Diagnosis of CMPI/CMPA is often based on clinical presentation, such as improvement with cow’s milk protein elimination. However, investigations such as skin prick/patch testing and total IgE and specific IgE (RAST) for cow’s milk protein may also be performed. If symptoms are severe, such as failure to thrive, referral to a pediatrician is necessary.

      Management of CMPI/CMPA depends on whether the child is formula-fed or breastfed. For formula-fed infants with mild-moderate symptoms, extensively hydrolyzed formula (eHF) milk is the first-line replacement formula, while amino acid-based formula (AAF) is used for infants with severe CMPA or if there is no response to eHF. Around 10% of infants with CMPI/CMPA are also intolerant to soy milk. For breastfed infants, mothers should continue breastfeeding while eliminating cow’s milk protein from their diet. Calcium supplements may be prescribed to prevent deficiency while excluding dairy from the diet. When breastfeeding stops, eHF milk should be used until the child is at least 12 months old and for at least 6 months.

      The prognosis for CMPI/CMPA is generally good, with most children eventually becoming milk tolerant. In children with IgE-mediated intolerance, around 55% will be milk tolerant by the age of 5 years, while in children with non-IgE mediated intolerance, most will be milk tolerant by the age of 3 years. However, a challenge is often performed in a hospital setting as anaphylaxis can occur.

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  • Question 81 - A 4-year-old boy is brought to the General Practitioner (GP) by his mother...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old boy is brought to the General Practitioner (GP) by his mother because he is experiencing diarrhoea and vomiting. He has no significant medical history and has been unwell for 48 hours with fever (up to 38.5 °C) and gastroenteritis symptoms. The GP examines the child.
      Which of the following findings would most strongly suggest the need for urgent admission to hospital?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reduced skin turgor

      Explanation:

      Assessing the Severity of Dehydration in Young Children

      When evaluating the likelihood of serious illness in young children, reduced skin turgor is the only red (high risk) option according to National Institute for Health and Care Excellence guidelines. Poor feeding, apex rate of 160 per minute, dry mucous membrane, and reduced urine output are all amber signs (intermediate risk) that require careful monitoring and safety netting. The pinch test (skin turgor) is the most reliable clinical assessment of dehydration when used alongside other clinical indicators. While these amber signs may not necessitate admission, they do require stringent safety netting and review.

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  • Question 82 - Which one of the following is not a risk factor for sudden toddler...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following is not a risk factor for sudden toddler death syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Female sex

      Explanation:

      Sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) is more likely to occur in infants who sleep on their stomachs, have parents who smoke, share a bed with their parents, experience overheating or have their heads covered, and are born prematurely. Additionally, male infants are at a higher risk for SIDS than female infants.

      Sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) is the leading cause of death in infants during their first year of life, with the highest incidence occurring at three months of age. There are several major risk factors associated with SIDS, including placing the baby to sleep on their stomach, parental smoking, prematurity, bed sharing, and hyperthermia or head covering. These risk factors are additive, meaning that the more risk factors present, the higher the likelihood of SIDS. Other risk factors include male sex, multiple births, lower social classes, and maternal drug use. SIDS incidence also tends to increase during the winter months. However, there are protective factors that can reduce the risk of SIDS, such as breastfeeding, room sharing (but not bed sharing), and the use of pacifiers. In the event of a SIDS case, it is important to screen siblings for potential sepsis and inborn errors of metabolism.

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  • Question 83 - A 3-year-old child is brought to see you by their parents. They report...

    Incorrect

    • A 3-year-old child is brought to see you by their parents. They report that for the last couple of days the child has been unwell with a runny nose and 'wheezy cough'. There is no history of apnoea.

      The child was born at 37 weeks via a normal vaginal delivery. There is no significant antenatal or postnatal history. The parents tell you that this is the first time the child has been significantly unwell.

      The child usually eats well but over the last two days has been eating less and becoming breathless during meals. Despite the reduced amounts taken per meal, the child is maintaining their eating frequency.

      On examination, the child looks comfortable at rest. Temperature is recorded as 37.9°C. There is no respiratory distress and no nasal flaring or grunting. Respiratory rate is 38/minute. Auscultation of the chest reveals fine inspiratory crackles and a slight high pitched wheeze heard throughout both lung fields. Oxygen saturations are 96% in room air.

      Which of the following factors in this case should prompt acute hospital admission for paediatric assessment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oxygen saturations

      Explanation:

      Bronchiolitis in Infants: When to Seek Hospital Admission

      Bronchiolitis is a common respiratory illness in infants that can range from mild to severe. While most cases can be managed at home, severe cases may require hospital admission. It is important to be aware of the signs that indicate more severe disease and prompt immediate hospitalization. These signs include reduced feeding, lethargy, history of apnoea, respiratory rate over 60 breaths per minute, respiratory distress, cyanosis, and oxygen saturations of 95% or less.

      It is especially important to seek medical attention for infants under 3 months of age and those born at less than 35 weeks gestation, as the threshold for admission should be lowered for these vulnerable populations.

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  • Question 84 - You have diagnosed measles in a 7-year-old child who did not receive the...

    Incorrect

    • You have diagnosed measles in a 7-year-old child who did not receive the MMR vaccine when younger.

      The child's father has called the clinic to inquire about when his child can return to school because he needs to plan for childcare arrangements and it is affecting his work schedule.

      What is the recommended duration for a measles case to stay away from school or work?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 4 days after the onset of the rash

      Explanation:

      Measles Exclusion Guidelines for Schools and Workplaces

      Measles is a highly infectious disease that spreads through airborne or droplet transmission. To prevent the spread of the disease, individuals who have contracted measles should be excluded from school or work for four days after the onset of the rash. This exclusion period is outlined in the infection control guidelines published by Public Health England for schools and other childcare settings.

      It is important to note that individuals are infectious from the beginning of the prodromal period, when the first symptoms appear, until four days after the onset of the rash. Therefore, it is crucial to follow the exclusion guidelines to prevent the spread of measles in schools and workplaces. By doing so, we can protect the health and well-being of everyone in the community.

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  • Question 85 - A 9-month-old girl is presented to your clinic by her foster parents, reporting...

    Incorrect

    • A 9-month-old girl is presented to your clinic by her foster parents, reporting an atypical sequence of movements observed in their daughter. They recorded a video of the episode, and upon reviewing it, you observe mild bilateral flexion of her neck and legs, succeeded by extension of her arms. She repeats this pattern approximately 40 times before ceasing.

      What is the probable diagnosis for this scenario?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Infantile spasms

      Explanation:

      Understanding Infantile Spasms

      Infantile spasms, also known as West syndrome, is a form of epilepsy that typically occurs in infants between 4 to 8 months old, with a higher incidence in male infants. This condition is often associated with an underlying serious medical condition and has a poor prognosis.

      The characteristic feature of infantile spasms is the salaam attack, which involves the flexion of the head, trunk, and arms followed by the extension of the arms. These attacks last only 1-2 seconds but can be repeated up to 50 times. Infants with this condition may also experience progressive mental handicap.

      To diagnose infantile spasms, an EEG is typically performed, which may show hypsarrhythmia in two-thirds of infants. A CT scan may also be done, which can reveal diffuse or localized brain disease in 70% of cases, such as tuberous sclerosis.

      Unfortunately, infantile spasms carry a poor prognosis. However, there are treatment options available. Vigabatrin is now considered first-line therapy, and ACTH is also used.

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  • Question 86 - A 15-year-old female presents to surgery with her mother. Her mother is worried...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old female presents to surgery with her mother. Her mother is worried about her daughter's persistent fatigue, recurrent coughs and sore throats, and recent appearance of small purple spots on her skin. The patient also reports intermittent feverishness. Blood tests for EBV serology were normal a few weeks ago. On examination, the patient appears pale, with unremarkable observations. There is no lymphadenopathy or hepatosplenomegaly, but small petechiae are present on the torso and arms. Based on NICE guidelines, which finding in the history and examination of this adolescent would warrant immediate specialist evaluation for leukemia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Unexplained petechiae

      Explanation:

      Chronic myeloid leukemia (CML) makes up to 5% of all leukemia cases.

      Understanding Acute Lymphoblastic Leukaemia

      Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL) is a type of cancer that commonly affects children, accounting for 80% of childhood leukaemias. It is most prevalent in children aged 2-5 years, with boys being slightly more affected than girls. Symptoms of ALL can be divided into those caused by bone marrow failure, such as anaemia, neutropaenia, and thrombocytopenia, and other features like bone pain, splenomegaly, hepatomegaly, fever, and testicular swelling.

      There are three types of ALL: common ALL, T-cell ALL, and B-cell ALL. Common ALL is the most common type, accounting for 75% of cases, and is characterized by the presence of CD10 and pre-B phenotype. T-cell ALL accounts for 20% of cases, while B-cell ALL accounts for only 5%.

      Certain factors can affect the prognosis of ALL, including age, white blood cell count at diagnosis, T or B cell surface markers, race, and sex. Children under 2 years or over 10 years of age, those with a WBC count over 20 * 109/l at diagnosis, and those with T or B cell surface markers, non-Caucasian, and male sex have a poorer prognosis.

      Understanding the different types and prognostic factors of ALL can help in the early detection and management of this cancer. It is important to seek medical attention if any of the symptoms mentioned above are present.

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  • Question 87 - Which patient among these needs diagnostic evaluation? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which patient among these needs diagnostic evaluation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A 15-year-old girl with primary amenorrhea who has normal secondary sexual characteristics

      Explanation:

      Puberty and Menarche

      Puberty typically starts around the age of 10, with menarche occurring between 11 and 15 years old. If there are no signs of secondary sexual characteristic development by the age of 14, it may be necessary to investigate. However, if other secondary sexual characteristics are developing normally, it is reasonable to wait until the age of 16 before considering further investigation.

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  • Question 88 - A 10-month-old child presents with difficulty opening its bowels. The child is having...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-month-old child presents with difficulty opening its bowels. The child is having to strain to pass hard stools and is only going once a week. On reviewing the history, the child was born at full term with no perinatal complications. The baby passed meconium within 24 hours of birth and has had no previous issues with constipation. Examination shows a normal abdomen, perianal area, legs, and spine with no focal neurological signs. What is the best initial management approach?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Start laxative treatment with a macrogol laxative (e.g. polyethylene glycol 3350 with electrolytes)

      Explanation:

      Management of Constipation in a 12-Month-Old Child

      This 12-month-old child has presented with constipation. Referral for specialist assessment or further investigation is not necessary at this stage, as there are no red flags in the history or examination. Treatment should be initiated in primary care.

      A rectal examination is not necessary for the primary care assessment. A thorough history and examination, as discussed in the stem, is sufficient to make an accurate diagnosis and identify the presence of any impaction.

      The first-line treatment for constipation is laxative treatment. A good first-line agent is macrogol polyethylene glycol 3350 with electrolytes (Movicol® Paediatric Plain). If there is a lack of effect, a stimulant laxative such as senna can be added to the treatment. In addition to laxative use, the patient and carers should be advised on lifestyle factors such as diet, including adequate fluid intake.

      Behavioural interventions, such as scheduled toileting, encouragement, and reward systems, may be appropriate depending on the age of the patient. Advice on exercise in older children may also be helpful. However, dietary interventions should not be used alone as a first-line treatment. Early use of a laxative is indicated and is the most appropriate option.

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  • Question 89 - A 6-year-old boy is brought to see you by his mother due to...

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    • A 6-year-old boy is brought to see you by his mother due to concerns about his hearing. The school has raised concerns about his lack of attention in class and his speech and language development. The mother reports that at home, she has noticed her son sitting close to the television and frequently having to repeat herself when speaking to him.

      Upon reviewing the medical records, it is noted that the child has had recurrent episodes of acute otitis media affecting both ears over the past 18 months. He was last seen by a colleague at the practice three months ago and was treated for right-sided acute otitis media with a course of oral amoxicillin.

      On examination, the child appears to be in good health, but both tympanic membranes are intact and have a grey color with absent light reflexes.

      What is the most appropriate initial management strategy for this child?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer for specialist assessment

      Explanation:

      Management of Otitis Media with Effusion (Glue Ear)

      Eighty percent of children under 10-years-old will have experienced at least one episode of otitis media with effusion (OME), commonly known as glue ear. This condition is characterized by relapsing and remitting episodes that can last for 6-10 weeks, with bimodal peaks at 2 and 5 years of age. The main concern with glue ear is the associated conductive hearing impairment, which can have significant repercussions for a child’s education and speech and language development.

      In cases where symptoms persist, specialist referral to audiometry or ENT for hearing assessment is indicated, probably leading to the need for ENT intervention (grommet insertion) based on the clinical picture (developmental issues are present and the problems are persistent). It is worth noting that antibiotics, topical and systemic steroids, decongestants, mucolytics, and antihistamines are not recommended in the routine management of OME.

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines recommend a period of watchful waiting for three months, with two pure-tone audiograms three months apart, to confirm and quantify the hearing loss. Audiometry is important to ensure there is not a more significant hearing deficit. Ultimately, surgical treatment in the form of ventilation tube (grommet) insertion is effective in managing OME.

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  • Question 90 - A 6-year-old girl is referred to the enuresis clinic by her pediatrician. Her...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old girl is referred to the enuresis clinic by her pediatrician. Her mother initially contacted the pediatrician concerned with ongoing bedwetting and it turns out that the girl has never had a 'dry night'.

      The pediatrician has provided general advice on diet, fluid intake, and toileting behavior, though the mother says the bedwetting has not resolved. Despite the use of a reward system, the girl still wets the bed at night and the mother is getting worried.

      She speaks to the enuresis clinic and is sent home with an intervention.

      What intervention is likely to be recommended?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Enuresis alarm

      Explanation:

      If general advice has not been effective in treating nocturnal enuresis in a child, an enuresis alarm is typically the first-line option recommended by NICE guidelines. However, it may be worth exploring alternative reward systems to ensure the child is motivated to make the necessary effort. It is assumed that the mother can appropriately motivate their child, so this may not be a route taken by the clinic. If the enuresis alarm doesn’t work, pharmacological interventions such as desmopressin, oxybutynin, and unlicensed tolterodine may be considered.

      Managing Nocturnal Enuresis in Children

      Nocturnal enuresis, also known as bedwetting, is a common condition in children. It is defined as the involuntary discharge of urine during sleep in children aged 5 years or older who have not yet achieved continence. There are two types of nocturnal enuresis: primary and secondary. Primary enuresis occurs when a child has never achieved continence, while secondary enuresis occurs when a child has been dry for at least 6 months before.

      When managing nocturnal enuresis, it is important to look for possible underlying causes or triggers such as constipation, diabetes mellitus, or recent onset urinary tract infections. General advice includes monitoring fluid intake and encouraging regular toileting patterns, such as emptying the bladder before sleep. Lifting and waking techniques and reward systems, such as star charts, can also be effective.

      The first-line treatment for nocturnal enuresis is an enuresis alarm, which has a high success rate. These alarms have sensor pads that detect wetness and wake the child up when they start to wet the bed. If an enuresis alarm is not effective or not acceptable to the family, desmopressin can be used for short-term control, such as for sleepovers. It is important to note that reward systems should be given for agreed behavior rather than dry nights, such as using the toilet to pass urine before sleep. By following these management strategies, children with nocturnal enuresis can achieve continence and improve their quality of life.

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  • Question 91 - A mother has brought her 4-year-old son to see you as she is...

    Incorrect

    • A mother has brought her 4-year-old son to see you as she is worried about a lump in his neck.

      Which of the following characteristics would worry you the most and would warrant an urgent referral?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Firm, supraclavicular lymphadenopathy

      Explanation:

      When to Worry About Lymph Node Enlargement in Children

      Lymphadenopathy, or lymph node enlargement, is a common occurrence in children. In most cases, it is benign and resolves on its own. However, there are certain characteristics that warrant urgent referral to a healthcare provider. These include non-tender, firm or hard lymph nodes, nodes larger than 2 cm, progressively enlarging nodes, general ill-health, fever or weight loss, involvement of axillary nodes (in the absence of local infection or dermatitis), or involvement of supraclavicular nodes.

      It is important to note that these characteristics are particularly concerning if there is no evidence of local infection.

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  • Question 92 - A mother brings her daughter to an appointment with the Practice Nurse for...

    Incorrect

    • A mother brings her daughter to an appointment with the Practice Nurse for her routine 4-month immunisations, which includes the new Meningitis B vaccine, introduced in 2015. What guidance should be provided regarding post-vaccination care at home?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Give paracetamol post-vaccination

      Explanation:

      It is common for individuals to experience a fever of over 38 degrees after receiving the Meningitis B vaccine. To prevent this from occurring, it is recommended that infants receive three doses of paracetamol, with the first dose administered immediately after vaccination. If necessary, parents should continue to administer paracetamol every 4-6 hours for up to 48 hours after vaccination. It is believed that the use of paracetamol doesn’t affect the effectiveness of the vaccine.

      Meningitis B Vaccine Now Part of Routine NHS Immunisation

      Children in the UK have been receiving immunisation against meningococcus serotypes A and C for many years. However, this led to meningococcal B becoming the most common cause of bacterial meningitis in the country. To address this, a vaccine against meningococcal B called Bexsero was developed and introduced to the UK market.

      Initially, the Joint Committee on Vaccination and Immunisation (JCVI) rejected the use of Bexsero after conducting a cost-benefit analysis. However, this decision was eventually reversed, and meningitis B has now been added to the routine NHS immunisation. Children will receive three doses of the vaccine at 2 months, 4 months, and 12-13 months.

      Moreover, Bexsero will also be available on the NHS for patients at high risk of meningococcal disease, such as those with asplenia, splenic dysfunction, or complement disorder. With the inclusion of meningitis B vaccine in the routine NHS immunisation, the UK hopes to reduce the incidence of bacterial meningitis and protect more children and high-risk patients from the disease.

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  • Question 93 - A 16-year-old mother brings her 8-month-old son to the emergency surgery, concerned about...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old mother brings her 8-month-old son to the emergency surgery, concerned about his breathing pattern. She thinks he may have asthma as he seems to be breathing faster than her 5-year-old nephew.

      The mother reports no cough or wheeze, and the child has no fever or rash. He is happily playing in the clinic room, and there are no developmental issues or family history of atopy.

      Upon clinical examination, there is no respiratory distress, and the chest is clear bilaterally. All other systems appear normal. The following are the child's observations:
      Heart Rate 125 beats per minute
      Respiratory Rate 32 breaths per minute
      Saturations 98% on air
      Temperature 37.2ºC

      What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reassure the mother findings are normal

      Explanation:

      A child under 1 typically has a normal respiratory rate of 30-40 breaths per minute. The AKT may test knowledge of normal ranges, and sometimes the best course of action is to do nothing.

      If a mother expresses concern about her child’s respiratory rate being higher than an older child’s, but the child’s rate is within the normal range for their age group (such as 34 breaths per minute), referral or medication would not be necessary and would be a misuse of resources.

      During a physical examination of a child, certain vital signs are checked to ensure that they fall within normal ranges. These ranges vary depending on the age of the child. For example, a heart rate of 110-160 beats per minute is considered normal for a child under the age of one, while a heart rate of 80-100 beats per minute is normal for a child over the age of 12. Similarly, systolic blood pressure, which measures the pressure in the arteries when the heart beats, and respiratory rate, which measures the number of breaths per minute, also have different normal ranges depending on the child’s age. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of these normal ranges in order to identify any potential health concerns in children.

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  • Question 94 - You are asked to organise a tutorial on child protection for nursing students...

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    • You are asked to organise a tutorial on child protection for nursing students attached to the pediatric ward. When discussing patterns of behaviour which may point towards child abuse, which one of the following is least likely to be relevant?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Frequent attendances to see the GP

      Explanation:

      If parents take their child to the A&E department instead of a GP on a regular basis, it could be an indication of child abuse. This is because they may assume that seeing a different doctor each time will decrease the likelihood of any suspicions being raised.

      Recognizing Child Abuse: Signs and Symptoms

      Child abuse is a serious issue that can have long-lasting effects on a child’s physical and emotional well-being. It is important to recognize the signs and symptoms of child abuse in order to protect vulnerable children. One way that abuse may come to light is through a child’s own disclosure. However, there are other factors that may indicate abuse, such as inconsistencies in a child’s story or repeated visits to emergency departments. Children who appear frightened or withdrawn may also be experiencing abuse, exhibiting a state of frozen watchfulness.

      Physical signs of abuse can also be indicative of maltreatment. Bruising, fractures (especially in the metaphyseal area or posterior ribs), and burns or scalds are all possible signs of abuse. Additionally, a child who is failing to thrive or who has contracted a sexually transmitted infection may be experiencing abuse. It is important to be aware of these signs and to report any concerns to the appropriate authorities. By recognizing and addressing child abuse, we can help protect vulnerable children and promote their safety and well-being.

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  • Question 95 - A 16-year-old-girl comes to the clinic with complaints of not having started her...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old-girl comes to the clinic with complaints of not having started her periods yet. During the examination, it is observed that she has a high-arched palate, underdeveloped external genitalia, and no breast development. Her height is 151cm, which is at the 2nd centile for her age and gender.

      What condition is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Turner's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Turner’s syndrome is the likely diagnosis for a patient with short stature and primary amenorrhoea. Hypothyroidism may also cause these symptoms, but the presence of a high-arched palate makes it less likely. While gonadal dysgenesis (46, XX) can cause primary amenorrhoea, it doesn’t typically present with the characteristic dysmorphic features seen in Turner’s syndrome.

      Understanding Turner’s Syndrome

      Turner’s syndrome is a genetic condition that affects approximately 1 in 2,500 females. It is caused by the absence of one sex chromosome (X) or a deletion of the short arm of one of the X chromosomes. This condition is identified as 45,XO or 45,X.

      The features of Turner’s syndrome include short stature, a shield chest with widely spaced nipples, a webbed neck, a bicuspid aortic valve (present in 15% of cases), coarctation of the aorta (present in 5-10% of cases), primary amenorrhea, cystic hygroma (often diagnosed prenatally), a high-arched palate, a short fourth metacarpal, multiple pigmented naevi, lymphoedema in neonates (especially in the feet), and elevated gonadotrophin levels. Hypothyroidism is also more common in individuals with Turner’s syndrome, as well as an increased incidence of autoimmune diseases such as autoimmune thyroiditis and Crohn’s disease.

      In summary, Turner’s syndrome is a chromosomal disorder that affects females and is characterized by various physical features and health conditions. Early diagnosis and management can help individuals with Turner’s syndrome lead healthy and fulfilling lives.

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  • Question 96 - A 12-year-old boy who is undergoing investigations for nephrotic syndrome with the local...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old boy who is undergoing investigations for nephrotic syndrome with the local nephrologists is brought to the surgery by his mother.

      He has been complaining of pleuritic chest pain for the past 24 hours and told his mother that he has coughed up some blood. On one occasion he became distressed and vomited. Other past medical history of note includes asthma and some problems with tonsillitis.

      On examination his BP is 90/60 mmHg, his pulse 105 regular. He looks in pain, but there are no focal signs on respiratory examination.

      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lower respiratory tract infection

      Explanation:

      Pulmonary Embolism in Nephrotic Syndrome

      Pulmonary embolus is a rare but potentially life-threatening condition that may be missed due to its rarity. However, its presentation in children is similar to that in adults, with symptoms such as hypotension, tachycardia, pleuritic chest pain, and possibly haemoptysis. In children with nephrotic syndrome, the risk of pulmonary embolism is increased due to abnormalities in clotting factors and hypercoagulability. Therefore, it is important for healthcare providers to be aware of this potential complication and consider it in the differential diagnosis of children with nephrotic syndrome presenting with respiratory symptoms. Proper diagnosis and management can prevent serious consequences and improve outcomes for these patients.

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  • Question 97 - A mother has noticed that her 2-year-old daughter takes little interest in other...

    Incorrect

    • A mother has noticed that her 2-year-old daughter takes little interest in other children. She comes to clinic concerned the child may have autism.
      Which of the following features is most suggestive of a diagnosis of autistic spectrum disorder in a child of this age?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lack of gestures (eg pointing, waving goodbye)

      Explanation:

      Identifying Early Signs of Autism Spectrum Disorder

      Autism spectrum disorder is a complex developmental condition that affects social interactions and restricts interests. Early identification is crucial for effective intervention. Here are some important indicators that should lead to further evaluation in a young child:

      – Lack of gestures (e.g. pointing, waving goodbye) by 12 months
      – No use of single words by 16 months
      – No use of two-word phrases by 24 months
      – Regression of language or social skills at any time
      – Reduced or missing ‘make-believe’ play

      It’s important to note that not all children with autism will display these signs, and some may develop typically before showing symptoms. However, if you have concerns about your child’s development, it’s always best to seek professional advice.

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  • Question 98 - A 5-year-old girl is presented to the emergency surgery department with a fever...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old girl is presented to the emergency surgery department with a fever and a blotchy rash. Her mother reports that the rash started behind her ears and has now spread all over her body. During the examination, you observe clusters of white lesions on the buccal mucosa. The child has not received any vaccinations.

      What is the potential complication that this child may face?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pneumonia

      Explanation:

      Pneumonia is a common complication of measles and can be fatal, especially in children. The measles virus can damage the lower respiratory tract epithelium, which weakens the local immunity in the lungs and leads to pneumonia.

      Aside from pneumonia, measles can also cause other complications such as otitis media, encephalitis, subacute sclerosing panencephalitis, keratoconjunctivitis, corneal ulceration, diarrhea, increased risk of appendicitis, and myocarditis. Treatment for measles usually involves rest, fluids, and pain relief.

      If a person has measles, it is important to inform the local Health Protection Team (HPT) and avoid going to school or work for at least four days after the rash appears.

      Mumps, on the other hand, can cause complications such as orchitis, oophoritis, pancreatitis, and viral meningitis. Symptoms of mumps include fever, headache, swelling of the parotid glands, and general malaise.

      Kawasaki disease, a different illness, can lead to coronary artery aneurysm. Symptoms of Kawasaki disease include high fever, rash, conjunctival injection, red and cracked hands, feet, and lips, and swollen lymph glands.

      It is important to note that otitis media, not otitis externa, is a complication of measles.

      Measles: A Highly Infectious Disease

      Measles is a viral infection caused by an RNA paramyxovirus. It is one of the most infectious viruses known and is spread through aerosol transmission. The incubation period is 10-14 days, and the virus is infective from the prodromal phase until four days after the rash starts. Measles is now rare in developed countries due to immunization programs, but outbreaks can occur when vaccination rates drop.

      The prodromal phase of measles is characterized by irritability, conjunctivitis, fever, and Koplik spots. These white spots on the buccal mucosa typically develop before the rash. The rash starts behind the ears and then spreads to the whole body, becoming a discrete maculopapular rash that may become blotchy and confluent. Desquamation may occur after a week, typically sparing the palms and soles. Diarrhea occurs in around 10% of patients.

      Measles is mainly managed through supportive care, and admission may be considered for immunosuppressed or pregnant patients. It is a notifiable disease, and public health should be informed. Complications of measles include otitis media, pneumonia, encephalitis, subacute sclerosing panencephalitis, febrile convulsions, keratoconjunctivitis, corneal ulceration, diarrhea, increased incidence of appendicitis, and myocarditis.

      If an unvaccinated child comes into contact with measles, MMR should be offered within 72 hours. Vaccine-induced measles antibody develops more rapidly than that following natural infection.

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  • Question 99 - A father brings his 9-month-old to the pediatrician with concerns about a rash....

    Incorrect

    • A father brings his 9-month-old to the pediatrician with concerns about a rash. The infant developed a fever and cold-like symptoms a few days ago, and the rash appeared yesterday evening. It's worth noting that the baby started daycare two weeks ago. During the examination, the child is alert and responsive with good muscle tone. The baby has no fever, and all vital signs are normal. There is some nasal congestion, and a papular rash is present on the trunk, which disappears when pressed.

      What is the probable cause of the rash?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Roseola infantum

      Explanation:

      Understanding Roseola Infantum

      Roseola infantum, also known as exanthem subitum or sixth disease, is a common illness that affects infants and is caused by the human herpesvirus 6 (HHV6). The incubation period for this disease is between 5 to 15 days, and it typically affects children between the ages of 6 months to 2 years.

      The symptoms of roseola infantum include a high fever that lasts for a few days, followed by a maculopapular rash. Other symptoms that may be present include Nagayama spots, which are papular enanthems on the uvula and soft palate, as well as cough and diarrhea. In some cases, febrile convulsions may occur in around 10-15% of cases.

      While roseola infantum can lead to other complications such as aseptic meningitis and hepatitis, school exclusion is not necessary.

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  • Question 100 - You are summoned from a bustling city GP practice to visit a 5-year-old...

    Incorrect

    • You are summoned from a bustling city GP practice to visit a 5-year-old child by their parents, having been seen earlier in the same day.

      Despite the absence of a rash, you suspect that the child may have bacterial meningitis. The medical record indicates that the child is allergic to penicillin. You inquire with the mother who confirms that the child had a previous serious reaction immediately after taking penicillin a few years ago that necessitated hospitalization.

      You have benzylpenicillin in your bag, but would need to return to the surgery to retrieve a different antibiotic. An ambulance is waiting to transport the child directly to a nearby hospital.

      What is the most appropriate course of action to take urgently in the community?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: No antibiotic treatment, urgent hospital transfer only

      Explanation:

      Treatment for Suspected Bacterial Meningitis

      When a child is suspected of having bacterial meningitis, urgent hospital transfer should be the priority if possible. If transfer is delayed, parenteral antibiotics should be administered, with intramuscular or intravenous benzylpenicillin being the antibiotic of choice. However, benzylpenicillin should only be withheld in a child with a clear history of anaphylaxis after a previous dose. A history of rash following the use of penicillin is not a contraindication. If hospital transfer is not possible, parenteral antibiotics should be given. The British National Formulary advises that cefotaxime may be an alternative in penicillin allergy, and chloramphenicol may be used if there is a history of immediate hypersensitivity reaction to penicillin or cephalosporins. It is important to note that if a child is suspected of having bacterial meningitis without a non-blanching rash, they should be transferred directly to secondary care without giving parenteral antibiotics. This information is based on guidelines from NICE CG102.

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