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  • Question 1 - As a junior doctor in the neonatal unit, you receive a call from...

    Correct

    • As a junior doctor in the neonatal unit, you receive a call from a nurse regarding a delivery where the baby's head has been delivered, but the shoulders are not descending with normal downward traction. What is your initial step in managing this situation?

      Your Answer: Ask the mother to hyperflex their legs and apply suprapubic pressure

      Explanation:

      In cases where the previous method is unsuccessful, an episiotomy may be necessary to facilitate internal maneuvers. Various alternatives may be considered, such as…

      Shoulder dystocia is a complication that can occur during vaginal delivery when the body of the fetus cannot be delivered after the head has already been delivered. This is usually due to the anterior shoulder of the fetus becoming stuck on the mother’s pubic bone. Shoulder dystocia can cause harm to both the mother and the fetus. Risk factors for shoulder dystocia include fetal macrosomia, high maternal body mass index, diabetes mellitus, and prolonged labor.

      If shoulder dystocia is identified, it is important to call for senior help immediately. The McRoberts’ maneuver is often performed, which involves flexing and abducting the mother’s hips to increase the angle of the pelvis and facilitate delivery. An episiotomy may be performed to provide better access for internal maneuvers, but it will not relieve the bony obstruction. Symphysiotomy and the Zavanelli maneuver are not recommended as they can cause significant maternal morbidity. Oxytocin administration is not indicated for shoulder dystocia.

      Complications of shoulder dystocia can include postpartum hemorrhage and perineal tears for the mother, and brachial plexus injury and neonatal death for the fetus. It is important to manage shoulder dystocia promptly and appropriately to minimize the risk of these complications.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 2 - A 22-year-old woman who is 26 weeks pregnant comes to the emergency department...

    Correct

    • A 22-year-old woman who is 26 weeks pregnant comes to the emergency department complaining of severe headache and epigastric pain that has been worsening for the past 48 hours. Upon examination, she has a heart rate of 110 beats/min, a respiratory rate of 21 /min, a temperature of 36.8ºC, mild pitting oedema of the ankles, and brisk tendon reflexes. As pre-eclampsia is the likely diagnosis, what is the most crucial sign to look for?

      Your Answer: Brisk tendon reflexes

      Explanation:

      Brisk reflexes are a specific clinical sign commonly linked to pre-eclampsia, unlike the other answers which are more general.

      Pre-eclampsia is a condition that occurs during pregnancy and is characterized by high blood pressure, proteinuria, and edema. It can lead to complications such as eclampsia, neurological issues, fetal growth problems, liver involvement, and cardiac failure. Severe pre-eclampsia is marked by hypertension, proteinuria, headache, visual disturbances, and other symptoms. Risk factors for pre-eclampsia include hypertension in a previous pregnancy, chronic kidney disease, autoimmune disease, diabetes, chronic hypertension, first pregnancy, and age over 40. Aspirin may be recommended for women with high or moderate risk factors. Treatment involves emergency assessment, admission for observation, and medication such as labetalol, nifedipine, or hydralazine. Delivery of the baby is the most important step in management, with timing depending on the individual case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 3 - A 33-year-old woman who is at 36 weeks gestation comes to the maternity...

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old woman who is at 36 weeks gestation comes to the maternity unit for a routine check-up. Her pregnancy has been without any complications so far, and her blood pressure, urine dipstick, and fundal height are all normal. During a previous examination, a vertical scar from her previous pregnancy is visible on her abdomen, as the child was delivered via a caesarean section. She wants to discuss her delivery options and is interested in having a home birth. What is the most suitable delivery method for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Planned caesarean section at 37 weeks gestation

      Explanation:

      A planned caesarean section at 37 weeks gestation is the appropriate course of action for a patient who has a classical caesarean scar. This type of scar, which is characterized by a vertical incision on the abdomen, is a contraindication for vaginal birth after caesarean due to the increased risk of uterine rupture. A vaginal delivery should not be considered in this scenario as it could be potentially fatal for both the mother and the baby. It is important to ensure that the caesarean section is performed in a hospital setting. A caesarean section at 36 weeks is not recommended, and guidelines suggest that the procedure should be performed at 37 weeks or later.

      Caesarean Section: Types, Indications, and Risks

      Caesarean section, also known as C-section, is a surgical procedure that involves delivering a baby through an incision in the mother’s abdomen and uterus. In recent years, the rate of C-section has increased significantly due to an increased fear of litigation. There are two main types of C-section: lower segment C-section, which comprises 99% of cases, and classic C-section, which involves a longitudinal incision in the upper segment of the uterus.

      C-section may be indicated for various reasons, including absolute cephalopelvic disproportion, placenta praevia grades 3/4, pre-eclampsia, post-maturity, IUGR, fetal distress in labor/prolapsed cord, failure of labor to progress, malpresentations, placental abruption, vaginal infection, and cervical cancer. The urgency of C-section may be categorized into four categories, with Category 1 being the most urgent and Category 4 being elective.

      It is important for clinicians to inform women of the serious and frequent risks associated with C-section, including emergency hysterectomy, need for further surgery, admission to intensive care unit, thromboembolic disease, bladder injury, ureteric injury, and death. C-section may also increase the risk of uterine rupture, antepartum stillbirth, placenta praevia, and placenta accreta in subsequent pregnancies. Other complications may include persistent wound and abdominal discomfort, increased risk of repeat C-section, readmission to hospital, haemorrhage, infection, and fetal lacerations.

      Vaginal birth after C-section (VBAC) may be an appropriate method of delivery for pregnant women with a single previous C-section delivery, except for those with previous uterine rupture or classical C-section scar. The success rate of VBAC is around 70-75%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 4 - You receive a call from a 27-year-old woman who is 8-weeks pregnant with...

    Incorrect

    • You receive a call from a 27-year-old woman who is 8-weeks pregnant with twins. Last week she had severe nausea and vomiting despite a combination of oral cyclizine and promethazine. She continued to vomit and was admitted to the hospital briefly where she was started on metoclopramide and ondansetron which helped control her symptoms.

      Today she tells you she read a pregnancy forum article warning about the potential risks of ondansetron use in pregnancy. She is concerned and wants advice on whether she should continue taking it.

      How would you counsel this woman regarding the use of ondansetron during pregnancy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: There is a small increased risk of cleft lip/palate in the newborn if used in the first trimester

      Explanation:

      The use of ondansetron during pregnancy has been associated with an increased risk of 3 oral clefts per 10,000 births, according to a study. However, this risk is not included in the RCOG guideline on nausea and vomiting of pregnancy, and there is currently no official NICE guidance on the matter. A draft of NICE antenatal care guidance, published in August 2021, acknowledges the increased risk of cleft lip or palate with ondansetron use, but notes that there is conflicting evidence regarding the drug’s potential to cause heart problems in babies. It is important to note that the risk of spontaneous miscarriage in twin pregnancies is not supported by evidence, and there is no established risk of severe congenital heart defects in newborns associated with ondansetron use.

      Hyperemesis gravidarum is an extreme form of nausea and vomiting of pregnancy that occurs in around 1% of pregnancies and is most common between 8 and 12 weeks. It is associated with raised beta hCG levels and can be caused by multiple pregnancies, trophoblastic disease, hyperthyroidism, nulliparity, and obesity. Referral criteria for nausea and vomiting in pregnancy include continued symptoms with ketonuria and/or weight loss, a confirmed or suspected comorbidity, and inability to keep down liquids or oral antiemetics. The diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidarum requires the presence of 5% pre-pregnancy weight loss, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalance. Management includes first-line use of antihistamines and oral cyclizine or promethazine, with second-line options of ondansetron and metoclopramide. Admission may be needed for IV hydration. Complications can include Wernicke’s encephalopathy, Mallory-Weiss tear, central pontine myelinolysis, acute tubular necrosis, and fetal growth issues.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 5 - A 28-year-old presents to the GP after a positive pregnancy test. She reports...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old presents to the GP after a positive pregnancy test. She reports her last menstrual period was 7 weeks ago and this is her first pregnancy. She has a medical history of SLE and asthma. After discussing vitamin D and folic acid supplements, you advise her to schedule a booking appointment with the midwife. What other advice would be appropriate to provide?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: To take low-dose aspirin from 12 weeks to term of pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Hypertension during pregnancy is a common occurrence that requires careful management. In normal pregnancies, blood pressure tends to decrease in the first trimester and then gradually increase to pre-pregnancy levels by term. However, in cases of hypertension during pregnancy, the systolic blood pressure is usually above 140 mmHg or the diastolic blood pressure is above 90 mmHg. Additionally, an increase of more than 30 mmHg systolic or 15 mmHg diastolic from the initial readings may also indicate hypertension.

      There are three categories of hypertension during pregnancy: pre-existing hypertension, pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH), and pre-eclampsia. Pre-existing hypertension refers to a history of hypertension before pregnancy or elevated blood pressure before 20 weeks gestation. PIH occurs in the second half of pregnancy and resolves after birth. Pre-eclampsia is characterized by hypertension and proteinuria, and may also involve edema.

      The management of hypertension during pregnancy involves the use of antihypertensive medications such as labetalol, nifedipine, and hydralazine. In cases of pre-existing hypertension, ACE inhibitors and angiotensin II receptor blockers should be stopped immediately and alternative medications should be prescribed. Women who are at high risk of developing pre-eclampsia should take aspirin from 12 weeks until the birth of the baby. It is important to carefully monitor blood pressure and proteinuria levels during pregnancy to ensure the health of both the mother and the baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 6 - A 33-week gestation woman presents for a follow-up ultrasound scan after her 20-week...

    Incorrect

    • A 33-week gestation woman presents for a follow-up ultrasound scan after her 20-week scan revealed a low-lying placenta. The repeat scan conducted in the department indicates that the placenta is partially covering the cervix's top. The obstetric consultant counsels her on the recommended mode of delivery. She has had four previous pregnancies, all of which she delivered vaginally, and has no medical or surgical history.

      What is the appropriate recommendation that should be offered to her regarding the mode of delivery?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Elective caesarean section at 37-38 weeks

      Explanation:

      Women with grade III/IV placenta praevia should have an elective caesarean section at 37-38 weeks to prevent the risk of haemorrhage during vaginal delivery. Induction of labour and offering a caesarean section at 39-40 weeks are not recommended.

      Management and Prognosis of Placenta Praevia

      Placenta praevia is a condition where the placenta is located wholly or partially in the lower uterine segment. If a low-lying placenta is detected at the 20-week scan, a rescan is recommended at 32 weeks. There is no need to limit activity or intercourse unless there is bleeding. If the placenta is still present at 32 weeks and is grade I/II, then a scan every two weeks is recommended. A final ultrasound at 36-37 weeks is necessary to determine the method of delivery. For grades III/IV, an elective caesarean section is recommended between 37-38 weeks. However, if the placenta is grade I, a trial of vaginal delivery may be offered. If a woman with known placenta praevia goes into labour before the elective caesarean section, an emergency caesarean section should be performed due to the risk of post-partum haemorrhage.

      In cases where placenta praevia is accompanied by bleeding, the woman should be admitted and an ABC approach should be taken to stabilise her. If stabilisation is not possible, an emergency caesarean section should be performed. If the woman is in labour or has reached term, an emergency caesarean section is also necessary.

      The prognosis for placenta praevia has improved significantly, and death is now extremely rare. The major cause of death in women with placenta praevia is post-partum haemorrhage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 7 - A 24-year-old woman presents to the labour suite after being admitted 45 minutes...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old woman presents to the labour suite after being admitted 45 minutes ago. She is unsure of her gestational age but believes she is around 8 months pregnant based on her positive pregnancy test. She has not received any antenatal care and is currently homeless due to a violent relationship. The patient has been experiencing contractions for the past 3 hours and her waters broke 5 hours ago. Upon examination, her cervix is soft, anterior, 90% effaced, and dilated to 7 cm. The foetus is in a breech position with the presenting part at station 0 and engaged. What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arrange caesarean section within 75 minutes

      Explanation:

      A category 2 caesarean section is the best management for a woman with an undiagnosed breech birth in labour who is not fully dilated. The decision to perform the caesarean section should be made within 75 minutes and the procedure should be arranged accordingly. Adopting an all-fours position or attempting external cephalic version with enhanced monitoring are not appropriate in this case. McRoberts manoeuvre is also not the correct management for breech birth.

      Caesarean Section: Types, Indications, and Risks

      Caesarean section, also known as C-section, is a surgical procedure that involves delivering a baby through an incision in the mother’s abdomen and uterus. In recent years, the rate of C-section has increased significantly due to an increased fear of litigation. There are two main types of C-section: lower segment C-section, which comprises 99% of cases, and classic C-section, which involves a longitudinal incision in the upper segment of the uterus.

      C-section may be indicated for various reasons, including absolute cephalopelvic disproportion, placenta praevia grades 3/4, pre-eclampsia, post-maturity, IUGR, fetal distress in labor/prolapsed cord, failure of labor to progress, malpresentations, placental abruption, vaginal infection, and cervical cancer. The urgency of C-section may be categorized into four categories, with Category 1 being the most urgent and Category 4 being elective.

      It is important for clinicians to inform women of the serious and frequent risks associated with C-section, including emergency hysterectomy, need for further surgery, admission to intensive care unit, thromboembolic disease, bladder injury, ureteric injury, and death. C-section may also increase the risk of uterine rupture, antepartum stillbirth, placenta praevia, and placenta accreta in subsequent pregnancies. Other complications may include persistent wound and abdominal discomfort, increased risk of repeat C-section, readmission to hospital, haemorrhage, infection, and fetal lacerations.

      Vaginal birth after C-section (VBAC) may be an appropriate method of delivery for pregnant women with a single previous C-section delivery, except for those with previous uterine rupture or classical C-section scar. The success rate of VBAC is around 70-75%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 8 - A woman attends at three weeks post-delivery with her baby for the general...

    Incorrect

    • A woman attends at three weeks post-delivery with her baby for the general practitioner (GP)’s 3-week postnatal test. She had an elective Caesarean section for breech presentation and is currently breastfeeding.
      Which of the following should be deferred until six weeks after delivery?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Performing a smear test if this was delayed because of pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Postnatal Check: What to Expect from Your GP

      After giving birth, it is important to have a postnatal check with your GP to ensure that you are recovering well and to address any concerns you may have. Here are some of the things you can expect during your 6-week postnatal check:

      Performing a Smear Test if Delayed Because of Pregnancy
      If you were due for a routine smear test during pregnancy, it will be deferred until at least three months post-delivery. This is to avoid misinterpreting cell changes that occur during pregnancy and to identify any precancerous changes in the cells of the cervix.

      Assessment of Mood
      Your GP will assess your mood and any psychological disturbance you may be experiencing. This is an opportunity to screen for postnatal depression and identify any need for additional support.

      Assessing Surgical Wound Healing and/or the Perineum if Required
      Depending on the mode of delivery, your GP will assess the healing of any surgical wounds or perineal tears. They will also check for signs of infection or abnormal healing.

      Blood Pressure Reading
      Your GP will perform a blood pressure reading, especially if you had hypertension during pregnancy. Urinalysis may also be performed if you had pre-eclampsia or signs of a urinary tract infection.

      Discussion of Contraceptive Options
      Your GP will discuss family planning and the need for additional contraception, as required. This is important to prevent unintended pregnancies, especially if you are not exclusively breastfeeding.

      Overall, the 6-week postnatal check is an important part of your recovery process and ensures that you receive the necessary care and support during this time.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 9 - In the Obstetric Outpatient Department, a patient with a history of hypertension and...

    Incorrect

    • In the Obstetric Outpatient Department, a patient with a history of hypertension and a BMI of 17 comes to you with concerns about pre-eclampsia. She is 28 years old, in her second pregnancy with the same partner, and has a four-year-old child. She has heard about pre-eclampsia from her friends and is worried about her risk. Which factor in her history is a risk factor for pre-eclampsia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Known hypertension

      Explanation:

      Risk Factors for Pre-eclampsia in Pregnancy

      Pre-eclampsia is a serious disorder of pregnancy that can lead to life-threatening complications if left untreated. It is important to identify risk factors for pre-eclampsia in order to provide appropriate monitoring and care for pregnant women.

      Known hypertension is a significant risk factor for pre-eclampsia. Women with hypertension should be closely monitored throughout their pregnancy.

      Age is also a factor, with women over 40 being at increased risk. However, the patient in this scenario is 28 years old and not at increased risk.

      First pregnancy or first pregnancy with a new partner is a risk factor for pre-eclampsia. However, as this is the patient’s second pregnancy with the same partner, she is not at increased risk.

      A high BMI is a risk factor for pre-eclampsia, particularly if a patient’s BMI is over 35. However, a low BMI, such as the patient’s BMI of 17, is not a risk factor.

      Finally, a period of ten years or more since the last pregnancy is a moderate risk factor for pre-eclampsia. As the patient has a child that is four years old, she is not at increased risk.

      In conclusion, identifying and monitoring risk factors for pre-eclampsia is crucial in ensuring the health and safety of pregnant women and their babies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 10 - A 30-year-old healthy pregnant woman is scheduled for a Caesarean section to deliver...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old healthy pregnant woman is scheduled for a Caesarean section to deliver her first child at 9 months’ gestation. What type of abdominal surgical incision is the obstetrician likely to use for the procedure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Suprapubic incision

      Explanation:

      Different Types of Incisions for Surgical Procedures

      When it comes to surgical procedures, there are various types of incisions that can be made depending on the specific operation being performed. Here are some common types of incisions and their uses:

      1. Suprapubic Incision: This is the most common incision site for Gynaecological and obstetric operations like Caesarean sections. It is made at the pubic hairline and is also known as the bikini (Pfannenstiel) incision.

      2. Transverse Incision just below the Umbilicus: This type of incision is usually too superior for a Caesarean section because the scar would be visible.

      3. Right Subcostal Incision: This incision is used to access the gallbladder and biliary tree. It is commonly used for operations such as an open cholecystectomy.

      4. Median Longitudinal Incision: This type of incision is not commonly used because of cosmetic scarring, as well as the fact that the linea alba is relatively avascular and can undergo necrosis if the edges are not aligned and stitched properly.

      5. McBurney’s Point Incision: This incision is made at the McBurney’s point, which is approximately one-third of the distance of a line starting at the right anterior superior iliac spine and ending at the umbilicus. It is used to access the vermiform appendix.

      In conclusion, the type of incision used in a surgical procedure depends on the specific operation being performed and the location of the area that needs to be accessed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Obstetrics (2/2) 100%
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