-
Question 1
Incorrect
-
A 28-year-old woman presents at 16 weeksâ gestation, requesting an abortion. Her relationship has ended; she has moved back in with her parents, and her anxiety has worsened. She feels overwhelmed and states that, at this point, she cannot handle a baby. She has undergone a comprehensive consultation, and her decision remains the same.
What is the most suitable course of action for managing this patient?Your Answer: Oral mifepristone followed by vaginal misoprostol as an outpatient
Correct Answer: Surgical evacuation of products of conception
Explanation:Management Options for Termination of Pregnancy at 16 Weeks’ Gestation
Termination of pregnancy at 16 weeks’ gestation can be managed through surgical evacuation of the products of conception or medical management using oral mifepristone followed by vaginal misoprostol. The decision ultimately lies with the patient, and it is important to explain the potential risks and complications associated with each option.
Surgical Evacuation of Products of Conception
This procedure involves vacuum aspiration before 14 weeks’ gestation or dilation of the cervix and evacuation of the uterine cavity after 14 weeks. Common side-effects include infection, bleeding, cervical trauma, and perforation of the uterus. It is important to inform the patient that the procedure may need to be repeated if the uterus is not emptied completely.No Management Required at Present
While termination of pregnancy is legal in the UK until 24 weeks’ gestation, it is the patient’s right to make the decision. However, if the patient is unsure, it may be appropriate to reassess in two weeks.Oral Mifepristone
Mifepristone is an anti-progesterone medication that is used in combination with misoprostol to induce termination of pregnancy. It is not effective as monotherapy.Oral Mifepristone Followed by Vaginal Misoprostol as an Outpatient
This is the standard medication regime for medical termination of pregnancy. However, after 14 weeks’ gestation, it is recommended that the procedure be performed in a medical setting for appropriate monitoring.Vaginal Misoprostol
Vaginal misoprostol can be used in conjunction with mifepristone for medical termination of pregnancy or as monotherapy in medical management of miscarriage or induction of labour. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 2
Correct
-
A 20-year-old primigravida at 8 weeks comes in with suprapubic pain and vaginal bleeding. She has passed tissue through her vagina and blood is pooled in the vaginal area. The cervix is closed and an ultrasound reveals an empty uterine cavity. What is the diagnosis?
Your Answer: Complete miscarriage
Explanation:A complete miscarriage occurs when the entire fetus is spontaneously aborted and expelled through the cervix. Once the fetus has been expelled, the pain and uterine contractions typically cease. An ultrasound can confirm that the uterus is now empty.
Miscarriage is a common complication that can occur in up to 25% of all pregnancies. There are different types of miscarriage, each with its own set of symptoms and characteristics. Threatened miscarriage is painless vaginal bleeding that occurs before 24 weeks, typically at 6-9 weeks. The bleeding is usually less than menstruation, and the cervical os is closed. Missed or delayed miscarriage is when a gestational sac containing a dead fetus is present before 20 weeks, without the symptoms of expulsion. The mother may experience light vaginal bleeding or discharge, and the symptoms of pregnancy may disappear. Pain is not usually a feature, and the cervical os is closed. Inevitable miscarriage is characterized by heavy bleeding with clots and pain, and the cervical os is open. Incomplete miscarriage occurs when not all products of conception have been expelled, and there is pain and vaginal bleeding. The cervical os is open in this type of miscarriage.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 3
Correct
-
A 30-year-old G1P0 woman in her 12th week of pregnancy presents to the emergency department with severe nausea and vomiting that has been worsening over the past week. She reports difficulty keeping any food down over the past 24 hours and noticed a small amount of fresh blood in her vomit. She denies any abdominal pain or change in bowel habits. Despite using cyclizine tablets, her symptoms have not improved. The patient has no significant medical history.
The following blood tests were taken and revealed abnormal results: Na+ 140 mmol/l (reference range 135-145 mmol/l), K+ 3.3 mmol/l (reference range 3.5-5.0 mmol/l), Cl- 100 mmol/l (reference range 95-105 mmol/l), HCO3- 23 mmol/l (reference range 22-28 mmol/l), urea 13 mmol/l (reference range 2.0-7.0 mmol/l), creatinine 80 mmol/l (reference range 55-120 umol/l), and blood glucose 6.0 mmol/l (reference range 4.0-7.8 mmol/l). A urine dipstick revealed 4+ ketonuria but no white or red cells.
What is the most appropriate course of action for this patient?Your Answer: Admit for IV fluid and electrolyte replacement, anti-emetics and trial of bland diet
Explanation:In cases where pregnant women experience severe nausea and vomiting leading to ketonuria and dehydration, admission to the hospital should be considered. This is especially true if they have already tried oral anti-emetics without success. Such symptoms are indicative of hyperemesis gravidarum, which can be confirmed by urine dipstick and increased blood urea levels. While pyridoxine is not recommended by the Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (RCOG), ondansetron is effective as a second-line option. However, inpatient treatment is necessary. Gastroscopy is unlikely to be helpful at this stage, even if there is a small amount of blood in the vomit, which is likely due to a Mallory-Weiss tear caused by constant retching. Low K+ levels due to vomiting need to be replaced, and anti-emetics are necessary. Therefore, admission to the hospital for IV fluids, anti-emetics, and a trial of a bland diet is the appropriate course of action.
Hyperemesis gravidarum is an extreme form of nausea and vomiting of pregnancy that occurs in around 1% of pregnancies and is most common between 8 and 12 weeks. It is associated with raised beta hCG levels and can be caused by multiple pregnancies, trophoblastic disease, hyperthyroidism, nulliparity, and obesity. Referral criteria for nausea and vomiting in pregnancy include continued symptoms with ketonuria and/or weight loss, a confirmed or suspected comorbidity, and inability to keep down liquids or oral antiemetics. The diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidarum requires the presence of 5% pre-pregnancy weight loss, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalance. Management includes first-line use of antihistamines and oral cyclizine or promethazine, with second-line options of ondansetron and metoclopramide. Admission may be needed for IV hydration. Complications can include Wernicke’s encephalopathy, Mallory-Weiss tear, central pontine myelinolysis, acute tubular necrosis, and fetal growth issues.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 4
Correct
-
A 25-year-old woman has just given birth to a baby boy. She has a complicated medical history including bipolar disorder, epilepsy, and antiphospholipid syndrome. Additionally, she frequently takes codeine and naproxen for chronic back pain resulting from a car accident. The new mother has informed you that she plans to breastfeed her baby. Which of her regular medications can she safely continue to take while breastfeeding?
Your Answer: Lamotrigine
Explanation:Breastfeeding is generally safe with most anti-epileptic drugs, except for a few exceptions. Lamotrigine is one of the drugs that is considered safe for breastfeeding, but infants should still be monitored for certain symptoms. Aspirin, codeine, and lithium are not recommended for breastfeeding mothers due to potential risks to the infant’s health. Aspirin can cause metabolic acidosis and Reye’s syndrome, while codeine is excreted in breast milk and lithium can cause renal and thyroid dysfunction in neonates.
Pregnancy and breastfeeding can be a concern for women with epilepsy. It is generally recommended that women continue taking their medication during pregnancy, as the risks of uncontrolled seizures outweigh the potential risks to the fetus. However, it is important for women to take folic acid before pregnancy to reduce the risk of neural tube defects. The use of antiepileptic medication during pregnancy can increase the risk of congenital defects, but this risk is still relatively low. It is recommended to aim for monotherapy and there is no need to monitor drug levels. Sodium valproate is associated with neural tube defects, while carbamazepine is considered the least teratogenic of the older antiepileptics. Phenytoin is associated with cleft palate, and lamotrigine may require a dose increase during pregnancy. Breastfeeding is generally safe for mothers taking antiepileptics, except for barbiturates. Pregnant women taking phenytoin should be given vitamin K in the last month of pregnancy to prevent clotting disorders in the newborn.
A warning has been issued about the use of sodium valproate during pregnancy and in women of childbearing age. New evidence suggests a significant risk of neurodevelopmental delay in children following maternal use of this medication. Therefore, it should only be used if clearly necessary and under specialist neurological or psychiatric advice. It is important for women with epilepsy to discuss their options with their healthcare provider and make informed decisions about their treatment during pregnancy and breastfeeding.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 5
Incorrect
-
During her prenatal appointment, a mother informs her obstetrician that she was previously diagnosed with immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP). What is the procedure that poses the highest risk of bleeding in the newborn?
Your Answer: Forceps delivery
Correct Answer: Prolonged ventouse delivery
Explanation:During pregnancies, immune thrombocytopenia (ITP) can become a complication if maternal antiplatelet antibodies pass through the placenta. In such cases, ventouse delivery can cause bleeding in the neonate due to the high vacuum pressure. This can worsen conditions like cephalohaematoma or subgaleal haemorrhage, especially if the neonate has thrombocytopenia. While forceps and fetal blood sampling can be used with caution, they are not as risky.
Understanding the Difference between Gestational Thrombocytopenia and Immune Thrombocytopenia (ITP)
Gestational thrombocytopenia and immune thrombocytopenia (ITP) are two conditions that affect platelet count during pregnancy. Gestational thrombocytopenia is a common condition that results from a combination of factors such as dilution, decreased production, and increased destruction of platelets. On the other hand, ITP is an autoimmune condition that is usually associated with acute purpuric episodes in children, but a chronic relapsing course may be seen more frequently in women.
Differentiating between the two conditions can be challenging and often relies on a careful history. Gestational thrombocytopenia may be considered more likely if the platelet count continues to fall as pregnancy progresses, but this is not a reliable sign. If the patient becomes dangerously thrombocytopenic, she will usually be treated with steroids, and a diagnosis of ITP assumed. Pregnant women found to have low platelets during a booking visit or those with a previous diagnosis of ITP may need to be tested for serum antiplatelet antibodies for confirmation.
It is important to note that gestational thrombocytopenia does not affect the neonate, but ITP can do if maternal antibodies cross the placenta. Depending on the degree of thrombocytopenia in the newborn, platelet transfusions may be indicated. Serial platelet counts can also be performed to see whether there is an inherited thrombocytopenia. Understanding the difference between these two conditions is crucial in ensuring proper diagnosis and management during pregnancy.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 6
Incorrect
-
A 25-year-old woman is currently being assessed in the labour ward. She is at 38 weeks gestation and reports that her waters broke 1 hour ago. This is her first pregnancy, and she has had an uncomplicated pregnancy without significant medical history. Upon examination, her Bishop's score is calculated to be 9, and a vaginal exam confirms that her amniotic sac has ruptured. There are no signs of contractions at this time, and the foetal heart rate is reassuring at 135/min. What is the most appropriate immediate management plan for this patient?
Your Answer: Oxytocin infusion
Correct Answer: Reassure and monitor
Explanation:If a woman’s Bishop’s score is 8 or higher, it indicates that her cervix is ripe and there is a high likelihood of spontaneous labor or response to labor-inducing interventions. In the case of a woman whose amniotic sac has ruptured but is not yet showing signs of labor, a Bishop’s score can be used to determine the likelihood of spontaneous labor. If her score is 8 or higher, there is no need to intervene and the best course of action is to monitor and reassure her. Inserting a Cook balloon, performing a membrane sweep, or administering an oxytocin infusion would not be appropriate in this situation.
Induction of labour is a process where labour is artificially started and is required in about 20% of pregnancies. It is indicated in cases of prolonged pregnancy, prelabour premature rupture of the membranes, maternal medical problems, diabetic mother over 38 weeks, pre-eclampsia, obstetric cholestasis, and intrauterine fetal death. The Bishop score is used to assess whether induction of labour is necessary and includes cervical position, consistency, effacement, dilation, and fetal station. A score of less than 5 indicates that labour is unlikely to start without induction, while a score of 8 or more indicates a high chance of spontaneous labour or response to interventions made to induce labour.
Possible methods of induction include membrane sweep, vaginal prostaglandin E2, oral prostaglandin E1, maternal oxytocin infusion, amniotomy, and cervical ripening balloon. The NICE guidelines recommend vaginal prostaglandins or oral misoprostol if the Bishop score is less than or equal to 6, while amniotomy and an intravenous oxytocin infusion are recommended if the score is greater than 6.
The main complication of induction of labour is uterine hyperstimulation, which refers to prolonged and frequent uterine contractions that can interrupt blood flow to the intervillous space and result in fetal hypoxemia and acidemia. Uterine rupture is a rare but serious complication. Management includes removing vaginal prostaglandins and stopping the oxytocin infusion if one has been started, and considering tocolysis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 7
Incorrect
-
A 29-year-old lady who is 30 weeks pregnant with her second child presents in a very anxious state. She has just been at a friendâs party and has discovered that one of the children there had just developed a rash suggesting chickenpox. She is terrified the disease is going to harm her unborn child. She cannot recall if she had chickenpox as a child. Her medical record does not shed any light on the situation, and it is unclear if she has had vaccination against varicella. She does not have a rash herself and feels well. Her pregnancy has been uncomplicated to date.
What is the most appropriate next course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urgently test for varicella antibodies (varicella-zoster IgG)
Explanation:The patient’s immunity to varicella-zoster needs to be determined urgently by testing for varicella-zoster IgG antibodies in the blood, as she has had some exposure to chickenpox and is unsure of her immunity status. If antibodies are detected, she is considered immune and no further action is required, but she should seek medical care immediately if she develops a rash. Varicella-zoster immunoglobulin should only be administered to non-immune patients within 10 days of exposure. It is important to note that if the patient contracts chickenpox during pregnancy, there is a risk of fetal varicella syndrome if infected before 28 weeks’ gestation. Immunisation during pregnancy is not recommended, but the patient can receive the vaccine postpartum if found to be non-immune. It is safe to receive the vaccine while breastfeeding.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 8
Incorrect
-
A 32-year-old G3P2 woman at 16 weeks gestation visits her doctor with concerns about a new rash on her 6-year-old daughter's arm that appeared 2 days ago. The rash looks vesicular, and the mother reports that there is a chickenpox outbreak at school. The patient is unsure if she had chickenpox in her childhood.
What should be the next step in managing this situation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Check the patient's varicella-zoster antibodies
Explanation:The first step in managing chickenpox exposure during pregnancy is to confirm the patient’s immunity by checking her varicella-zoster antibodies. If the woman is unsure about her past exposure to chickenpox, this test will determine if she has antibodies to the virus. If the test confirms her immunity, no further action is necessary. Administering the varicella-zoster vaccine or IV immunoglobulin is not appropriate in this situation. Neglecting to check the patient’s immunity status can put her and her unborn child at risk.
Chickenpox exposure in pregnancy can pose risks to both the mother and fetus, including fetal varicella syndrome. Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) with varicella-zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG) or antivirals should be given to non-immune pregnant women, with timing dependent on gestational age. If a pregnant woman develops chickenpox, specialist advice should be sought and oral acyclovir may be given if she is â„ 20 weeks and presents within 24 hours of onset of the rash.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 9
Incorrect
-
A woman in her late twenties at 28 weeks gestation, complains of painless bright red vaginal bleeding. She mentions experiencing two previous instances of slight painless vaginal bleeding, but believes that this episode is much more severe. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Placenta praevia
Explanation:Placenta praevia is characterized by painless and bright red bleeding, while placental abruption is accompanied by dark red bleeding and pain. The history of previous bleeding also suggests placenta praevia. Vasa praevia may also cause painless vaginal bleeding, but fetal bradycardia and membrane rupture are expected symptoms.
Understanding Placenta Praevia
Placenta praevia is a condition where the placenta is located wholly or partially in the lower uterine segment. It is a relatively rare condition, with only 5% of women having a low-lying placenta when scanned at 16-20 weeks gestation. However, the incidence at delivery is only 0.5%, as most placentas tend to rise away from the cervix.
There are several factors associated with placenta praevia, including multiparity, multiple pregnancy, and embryos implanting on a lower segment scar from a previous caesarean section. Clinical features of placenta praevia include shock in proportion to visible loss, no pain, a non-tender uterus, abnormal lie and presentation, and a usually normal fetal heart. Coagulation problems are rare, and small bleeds may occur before larger ones.
Diagnosis of placenta praevia should not involve digital vaginal examination before an ultrasound, as this may provoke severe haemorrhage. The condition is often picked up on routine 20-week abdominal ultrasounds, but the Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists recommends the use of transvaginal ultrasound for improved accuracy and safety. Placenta praevia is classified into four grades, with grade IV being the most severe, where the placenta completely covers the internal os.
In summary, placenta praevia is a rare condition that can have serious consequences if not diagnosed and managed appropriately. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of the associated factors and clinical features, and to use appropriate diagnostic methods for accurate grading and management.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 10
Incorrect
-
A 28-year-old pregnant woman is undergoing screening for gestational diabetes. She has no significant medical history and this is her first pregnancy. During the screening, her fasting blood glucose level is measured at 7.2 mmol/L. What is the best course of action for management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Start insulin only
Explanation:The most appropriate course of action for gestational diabetes with a fasting glucose level of >= 7 mmol/L at diagnosis is to commence insulin. While lifestyle changes and co-prescribing metformin should also be discussed, starting insulin is the priority according to NICE guidelines. Re-checking glucose in 2 weeks, starting exenatide, or relying on lifestyle changes alone would not be appropriate. Metformin alone may not be sufficient for glucose levels above 7 mmol/L, but it can be used in combination with insulin. If glucose levels are below 7 mmol/L, lifestyle changes can be trialed before considering metformin.
Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder affecting around 4% of pregnancies. Risk factors include a high BMI, previous gestational diabetes, and family history of diabetes. Screening is done through an oral glucose tolerance test, and diagnostic thresholds have recently been updated. Management includes self-monitoring of blood glucose, diet and exercise advice, and medication if necessary. For pre-existing diabetes, weight loss and insulin are recommended, and tight glycemic control is important. Targets for self-monitoring include fasting glucose of 5.3 mmol/l and 1-2 hour post-meal glucose levels.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 11
Incorrect
-
A 29-year-old primigravida is currently in labor for ten hours and has progressed through the first stage without any complications. However, the midwife has observed CTG abnormalities and palpated the umbilical cord. The obstetric registrar is called and upon checking the CTG, variable decelerations are noted. What is the primary course of action for addressing the cause of these decelerations?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Place hand into vagina to elevate presenting part
Explanation:The situation involves cord prolapse leading to cord compression and variable decelerations on the CTG. The RCOG has issued guidelines (Green-top Guidelines No.50) for managing cord prolapse. The guidelines recommend elevating the presenting part either manually or by filling the urinary bladder to prevent cord compression. If fetal heart rate anomalies persist despite using mechanical methods to prevent compression, tocolysis (such as terbutaline) can be considered while preparing for a caesarean section.
Understanding Umbilical Cord Prolapse
Umbilical cord prolapse is a rare but serious complication that can occur during delivery. It happens when the umbilical cord descends ahead of the presenting part of the fetus, which can lead to compression or spasm of the cord. This can cause fetal hypoxia and potentially irreversible damage or death. Certain factors increase the risk of cord prolapse, such as prematurity, multiparity, polyhydramnios, twin pregnancy, cephalopelvic disproportion, and abnormal presentations like breech or transverse lie.
Around half of all cord prolapses occur when the membranes are artificially ruptured. Diagnosis is usually made when the fetal heart rate becomes abnormal and the cord is palpable vaginally or visible beyond the introitus. Cord prolapse is an obstetric emergency that requires immediate management. The presenting part of the fetus may be pushed back into the uterus to avoid compression, and the cord should be kept warm and moist to prevent vasospasm. The patient may be asked to go on all fours or assume the left lateral position until preparations for an immediate caesarian section have been carried out. Tocolytics may be used to reduce uterine contractions, and retrofilling the bladder with saline can help elevate the presenting part. Although caesarian section is the usual first-line method of delivery, an instrumental vaginal delivery may be possible if the cervix is fully dilated and the head is low.
In conclusion, umbilical cord prolapse is a rare but serious complication that requires prompt recognition and management. Understanding the risk factors and appropriate interventions can help reduce the incidence of fetal mortality associated with this condition.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 12
Incorrect
-
A 28-year-old multiparous woman arrives at 38 weeks gestation in active labour. She has recently moved from a low-income country and has not received any prenatal care or screening tests. The patient delivers a healthy 3.5kg baby boy vaginally. However, the newborn develops respiratory distress, fever, and tachycardia shortly after birth. What is the probable cause of these symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Group B septicaemia
Explanation:Newborn infants are most commonly affected by severe early-onset (< 7 days) infection caused by Group B streptococcus. Group B Streptococcus (GBS) is a common cause of severe infection in newborns. It is estimated that 20-40% of mothers carry GBS in their bowel flora, which can be passed on to their infants during labor and lead to serious infections. Prematurity, prolonged rupture of membranes, previous sibling GBS infection, and maternal pyrexia are all risk factors for GBS infection. The Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (RCOG) has published guidelines on GBS management, which include not offering universal screening for GBS to all women and not offering screening based on maternal request. Women who have had GBS detected in a previous pregnancy should be offered intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis (IAP) or testing in late pregnancy and antibiotics if still positive. IAP should also be offered to women with a previous baby with GBS disease, women in preterm labor, and women with a fever during labor. Benzylpenicillin is the preferred antibiotic for GBS prophylaxis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 13
Incorrect
-
A 27-year-old woman comes in for her regular prenatal check-up at 30 weeks gestation. She reports feeling well and has had an uncomplicated pregnancy thus far. Her vital signs are as follows:
Respiratory rate: 18 breaths/min
Heart rate: 70 beats/min
Blood pressure: 130/88 mmHg
Temperature: 37.2ÂșC
Oxygen saturation: 97% on room air
Urinalysis results show:
Protein: +
Glucose: -
Nitrites: -
What is the most appropriate course of action for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Routine management
Explanation:If a pregnant woman has new-onset BP â„ 140/90 mmHg after 20 weeks AND â„ 1 of proteinuria, organ dysfunction, she is diagnosed with pre-eclampsia. However, if a patient presents to a routine antenatal appointment at 28 weeks gestation and her blood pressure does not meet the threshold of â„ 140/90 mmHg, she should continue with routine management even if her urine is positive for protein. Therefore, commencing nifedipine and fluid restriction is incorrect as they are only used in the management of severe pre-eclampsia. Similarly, commencing prophylactic aspirin, prophylactic aspirin and labetalol, or prophylactic aspirin and nifedipine is incorrect as they are only used if the patient is diagnosed with pre-eclampsia.
Pre-eclampsia is a condition that occurs during pregnancy and is characterized by high blood pressure, proteinuria, and edema. It can lead to complications such as eclampsia, neurological issues, fetal growth problems, liver involvement, and cardiac failure. Severe pre-eclampsia is marked by hypertension, proteinuria, headache, visual disturbances, and other symptoms. Risk factors for pre-eclampsia include hypertension in a previous pregnancy, chronic kidney disease, autoimmune disease, diabetes, chronic hypertension, first pregnancy, and age over 40. Aspirin may be recommended for women with high or moderate risk factors. Treatment involves emergency assessment, admission for observation, and medication such as labetalol, nifedipine, or hydralazine. Delivery of the baby is the most important step in management, with timing depending on the individual case.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 14
Incorrect
-
A 34-year-old multiparous patient has an uncomplicated delivery at 39 weeks gestation. One hour following delivery, the patient experiences severe postpartum hemorrhage that is immediately managed in the labor ward. After seven weeks, the patient reports difficulty breastfeeding due to insufficient milk production. What is the most probable explanation for this medical history?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sheehan's syndrome
Explanation:Based on the clinical history provided, it appears that the patient may be suffering from Sheehan’s syndrome. This condition is typically caused by severe postpartum hemorrhage, which can lead to ischemic necrosis of the pituitary gland and subsequent hypopituitarism. Common symptoms of Sheehan’s syndrome include a lack of milk production and amenorrhea following childbirth. Diagnosis is typically made through inadequate prolactin and gonadotropin stimulation tests in patients with a history of severe postpartum hemorrhage. It is important to note that hyperprolactinemia, D2 receptor antagonist medication, and pituitary adenoma are not typically associated with a lack of milk production, but rather with galactorrhea.
Understanding Postpartum Haemorrhage
Postpartum haemorrhage (PPH) is a condition where a woman experiences blood loss of more than 500 ml after giving birth vaginally. It can be classified as primary or secondary. Primary PPH occurs within 24 hours after delivery and is caused by the 4 Ts: tone, trauma, tissue, and thrombin. The most common cause is uterine atony. Risk factors for primary PPH include previous PPH, prolonged labour, pre-eclampsia, increased maternal age, emergency Caesarean section, and placenta praevia.
In managing PPH, it is important to involve senior staff immediately and follow the ABC approach. This includes two peripheral cannulae, lying the woman flat, blood tests, and commencing a warmed crystalloid infusion. Mechanical interventions such as rubbing up the fundus and catheterisation are also done. Medical interventions include IV oxytocin, ergometrine, carboprost, and misoprostol. Surgical options such as intrauterine balloon tamponade, B-Lynch suture, ligation of uterine arteries, and hysterectomy may be considered if medical options fail to control the bleeding.
Secondary PPH occurs between 24 hours to 6 weeks after delivery and is typically due to retained placental tissue or endometritis. It is important to understand the causes and risk factors of PPH to prevent and manage this life-threatening emergency effectively.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 15
Incorrect
-
A woman who is 20 weeks pregnant is worried after her recent antenatal scan revealed increased nuchal translucency. Besides Down's syndrome, which condition is most commonly linked to this discovery?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Congenital heart defects
Explanation:Ultrasound in Pregnancy: Nuchal Scan and Hyperechogenic Bowel
During pregnancy, ultrasound is a common diagnostic tool used to monitor the health and development of the fetus. One type of ultrasound is the nuchal scan, which is typically performed between 11 and 13 weeks of gestation. This scan measures the thickness of the nuchal translucency, or the fluid-filled space at the back of the fetus’s neck. An increased nuchal translucency can be a sign of certain conditions, including Down’s syndrome, congenital heart defects, and abdominal wall defects.
Another ultrasound finding that may indicate a potential health issue is hyperechogenic bowel. This refers to an area of the fetus’s bowel that appears brighter than usual on the ultrasound image. Possible causes of hyperechogenic bowel include cystic fibrosis, Down’s syndrome, and cytomegalovirus infection.
It is important to note that these ultrasound findings do not necessarily mean that the fetus has a health problem. Further testing and evaluation may be needed to confirm a diagnosis and determine the best course of action. Ultrasound is just one tool that healthcare providers use to monitor fetal health and ensure the best possible outcome for both mother and baby.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 16
Incorrect
-
A 34-year-old female who is 28 weeks pregnant presents to the emergency department with severe lower abdominal pain. She is tachycardic but is otherwise stable. On examination, her uterus is tender and hard, but fetal lie is normal. Cardiotocography shows no signs of fetal distress.
What is the most appropriate course of action for management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Admit her and administer steroids
Explanation:When managing placental abruption in a case where the fetus is alive, less than 36 weeks old, and not displaying any signs of distress, the appropriate course of action is to admit the patient and administer steroids. Admitting the patient is necessary for monitoring and providing necessary care. Steroids are given to aid in the maturation of fetal lungs. It is recommended to deliver the baby at 37-38 weeks due to the increased risk of stillbirth. Tocolytics are not routinely given due to their controversial nature and potential for maternal cardiovascular side effects. Discharging the patient with safety netting is not appropriate as the patient is symptomatic. Activating the major haemorrhage protocol, calling 2222, and performing an emergency caesarean section are not the most suitable options as the patient is not hypotensive and there are no signs of fetal distress.
Placental Abruption: Causes, Management, and Complications
Placental abruption is a condition where the placenta separates from the uterine wall, leading to maternal haemorrhage. The severity of the condition depends on the extent of the separation and the gestational age of the fetus. Management of placental abruption is crucial to prevent maternal and fetal complications.
If the fetus is alive and less than 36 weeks, immediate caesarean delivery is recommended if there is fetal distress. If there is no fetal distress, close observation, administration of steroids, and no tocolysis are recommended. The decision to deliver depends on the gestational age of the fetus. If the fetus is alive and more than 36 weeks, immediate caesarean delivery is recommended if there is fetal distress. If there is no fetal distress, vaginal delivery is recommended. If the fetus is dead, vaginal delivery should be induced.
Placental abruption can lead to various maternal complications, including shock, disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), renal failure, and postpartum haemorrhage (PPH). Fetal complications include intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR), hypoxia, and death. The condition is associated with a high perinatal mortality rate and is responsible for 15% of perinatal deaths.
In conclusion, placental abruption is a serious condition that requires prompt management to prevent maternal and fetal complications. Close monitoring and timely intervention can improve the prognosis for both the mother and the baby.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 17
Incorrect
-
A 28-year-old woman is in labor with her first baby. In the second stage, fetal distress is detected, and instrumental delivery is being considered. What would be a contraindication to this procedure?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Head palpable abdominally
Explanation:Instrumental delivery is a method used to expedite delivery during the second stage of labor in order to prevent fetal and maternal morbidity. It involves the use of traction and is indicated in cases of prolonged active second stage, maternal exhaustion, fetal distress, breech presentation, and prophylactic use in medical conditions such as cardiovascular disease and hypertension. It can also be used to rotate a malpositioned fetal head.
To be eligible for instrumental delivery, the following requirements must be met, which can be remembered using the acronym FORCEPS:
– Fully dilated cervix, indicating that the second stage of labor has been reached
– Occiput anterior (OA) position, preferably with the head in the occiput posterior (OP) position, as delivery is possible with Kielland’s forceps and ventouse. The position of the head must be known to avoid maternal or fetal trauma and failure.
– Ruptured membranes
– Cephalic presentation
– Engaged presenting part, meaning that the head is at or below the ischial spines and cannot be palpated abdominally
– Pain relief
– Sphincter (bladder) empty, which usually requires catheterizationIt is important to note that there must be a clear indication for instrumental delivery.
When is a Forceps Delivery Necessary?
A forceps delivery may be necessary in certain situations during childbirth. These situations include fetal distress, maternal distress, failure to progress, and the need to control the head in a breech delivery. Fetal distress occurs when the baby is not receiving enough oxygen and can be detected through changes in the baby’s heart rate. Maternal distress can occur when the mother is exhausted or experiencing complications such as high blood pressure. Failure to progress refers to a situation where the mother has been pushing for an extended period of time without making progress. In a breech delivery, the baby’s head may need to be controlled to prevent injury. In these situations, a forceps delivery may be recommended by the healthcare provider to safely deliver the baby.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 18
Incorrect
-
A 28-year-old woman attends her regular antenatal check at 16 weeks gestation. It is her second pregnancy and she has had no complications.
The nurse is discussing the results of previous tests, checking her urine and measuring her blood pressure. The patient has no protein in her urine and her blood pressure is 102/70 mmHg.
Which of the following describes a normal physiological change in this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: An increase in heart rate and stroke volume lead to an increase in cardiac output
Explanation:Physiological Changes in Pregnancy
Pregnancy is a time of significant physiological changes in a woman’s body. These changes are mainly driven by progesterone rather than oestrogen. One of the changes is vasodilation, which leads to a drop in blood pressure initially, but it normalizes by term. However, an increase in heart rate and stroke volume leads to an increase in cardiac output.
Another change is a decrease in lower oesophageal sphincter tone and vascular resistance, which causes a drop in blood pressure. This decrease occurs over the first trimester but starts to increase to normal by term. Oestrogen is responsible for this change, and it also causes symptoms of reflux.
Pregnancy also causes a mild anaemia due to a drop in red cell volume. However, this is a dilutional anaemia caused by an increase in plasma volume. Additionally, there is an increase in clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X, which makes pregnancy a hypercoagulable state.
The functional residual capacity (FRC) increases in pregnancy, leading to more rapid breathing and smaller tidal volumes. This decrease in FRC means that oxygen reserve is less in pregnant women. Minute ventilation increases due to increased oxygen consumption and increased CO2 production. This is by increased tidal volume rather than respiratory rate.
Finally, the glomerular filtration rate (GFR) decreases secondary to progesterone, facilitating an increase in fluid retention and an increase in plasma volume. However, there is also an increase in aldosterone, which acts on the kidneys producing water and sodium retention, therefore causing an increase in plasma volume.
In conclusion, pregnancy causes significant physiological changes in a woman’s body, which are mainly driven by progesterone. These changes affect various systems, including the cardiovascular, respiratory, and renal systems.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 19
Incorrect
-
A 30-year-old multiparous female at 10 weeks gestation visits her general practitioner to book her pregnancy. She has a history of gestational diabetes and returns the next day for an oral glucose tolerance test. Her blood results show a fasting glucose level of 7.2 mmol/L and a 2-hour glucose level of 8.9 mmol/L. What is the recommended course of action based on these findings?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Patient to be started on insulin
Explanation:If the fasting glucose level is equal to or greater than 7 mmol/l at the time of gestational diabetes diagnosis, immediate administration of insulin (with or without metformin) is necessary. For patients with a fasting plasma glucose level below 7.0 mmol/L, a trial of diet and exercise with follow-up in 1-2 weeks is appropriate. Within a week of diagnosis, the patient should be seen in a joint antenatal and diabetic clinic. Statins are not recommended during pregnancy due to potential congenital abnormalities resulting from reduced cholesterol synthesis. Sitagliptin, a DPP-4 inhibitor, is also not recommended for use during pregnancy or breastfeeding.
Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder affecting around 4% of pregnancies. Risk factors include a high BMI, previous gestational diabetes, and family history of diabetes. Screening is done through an oral glucose tolerance test, and diagnostic thresholds have recently been updated. Management includes self-monitoring of blood glucose, diet and exercise advice, and medication if necessary. For pre-existing diabetes, weight loss and insulin are recommended, and tight glycemic control is important. Targets for self-monitoring include fasting glucose of 5.3 mmol/l and 1-2 hour post-meal glucose levels.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 20
Incorrect
-
A 25-year-old female patient visits her GP seeking guidance on conceiving. She has a medical history of epilepsy and is currently taking lamotrigine. Her last seizure occurred 1 year ago. She is worried about the safety of epilepsy medications during pregnancy and wonders if there are any supplements she should take. What are the key counseling points to address her concerns?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Folic acid 5mg, continue lamotrigine
Explanation:When women who are taking antiepileptic medication plan to conceive, they should be given a higher dose of folic acid (5mg) instead of the usual 400 mcg once daily. Folic acid is recommended during pregnancy to prevent neural tube defects, and a higher dose is necessary for women with epilepsy due to their increased risk of low serum folate levels. It is important to note that certain antiepileptic medications can interfere with folate metabolism, and switching to sodium valproate is not recommended as it is a known teratogen. It is also important for women to continue taking their medication during pregnancy to avoid an increased risk of seizures.
Folic Acid: Importance, Deficiency, and Prevention
Folic acid is a vital nutrient that is converted to tetrahydrofolate (THF) in the body. It is found in green, leafy vegetables and plays a crucial role in the transfer of 1-carbon units to essential substrates involved in the synthesis of DNA and RNA. However, certain factors such as phenytoin, methotrexate, pregnancy, and alcohol excess can cause a deficiency in folic acid. This deficiency can lead to macrocytic, megaloblastic anemia and neural tube defects.
To prevent neural tube defects during pregnancy, it is recommended that all women take 400mcg of folic acid until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women at higher risk of conceiving a child with a neural tube defect should take 5mg of folic acid from before conception until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women are considered higher risk if they or their partner has a neural tube defect, they have had a previous pregnancy affected by a neural tube defect, or they have a family history of a neural tube defect. Additionally, women with certain medical conditions such as coeliac disease, diabetes, or thalassaemia trait, or those taking antiepileptic drugs, or who are obese (BMI of 30 kg/m2 or more) are also considered higher risk.
In summary, folic acid is an essential nutrient that plays a crucial role in DNA and RNA synthesis. Deficiency in folic acid can lead to serious health consequences, including neural tube defects. However, taking folic acid supplements during pregnancy can prevent these defects and ensure a healthy pregnancy.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 21
Incorrect
-
A 28-year-old woman is admitted to the Acute Gynaecology Ward with per vaginum bleeding. She is 14 weeks pregnant and has had a scan confirming an intrauterine pregnancy. She reports lower abdominal cramping and bleeding for the last two days, which prompted admission to await an ultrasound scan. You are an FY1 doctor and are called to see her as she has increasing pain and is crying in distress. On examination, she is sweaty and uncomfortable. Abdomen is soft in the upper region, but firm and very tender suprapubically. Observations show temperature 38.7 °C, heart rate 130 bpm, blood pressure 95/65, respiratory rate 22 and oxygen saturations 97% on air. Checking her pad shows fresh bleeding and speculum examination is difficult due to pain, but there is a smelly discharge and you think you see tissue sitting in the os. You manage to get IV access and starts fluid resuscitation.
What is the most important next step in management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Call your registrar
Explanation:Immediate Management of Septic Miscarriage: Steps to Take
Septic miscarriage is a life-threatening condition that requires urgent medical attention. If a patient presents with increasing pain, bleeding, and fever, along with clinical signs of sepsis, it is important to inform senior doctors immediately. Here are the steps to take:
1. Call your registrar: Senior doctors need to know about the patient urgently, coming to review and liaising with coordinators to get the patient to theatre as soon as possible.
2. Bloods and blood cultures: This is the most important thing to do after informing seniors. She is already shocked, so getting IV access now is essential. Bloods such as a group and crossmatch need to be sent, along with blood cultures.
3. Transvaginal ultrasound scan: Transvaginal ultrasound scan has no place in the immediate management. The diagnosis is obvious from the history and examination.
4. Ultrasound abdomen: Abdominal ultrasound can be performed after the patient is initially managed and is out of danger. For the current scenario, it is important to inform a senior registrar as the condition may deteriorate. After giving the call to registrar emergency management should be initiated according to A-E assessment.
5. Give analgesia and try to repeat the speculum examination: She is already shocked, and to delay treatment to try and examine again would be dangerous.
By following these steps, you can ensure that the patient receives the urgent care she needs to manage septic miscarriage.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 22
Incorrect
-
A 27-year-old G4P3 woman presents with a lump in the breast, having ceased breastfeeding her youngest child two weeks prior. Her past medical history is significant for previous episodes of mastitis when breastfeeding her older children. On examination the lump is in the right breast at the six o'clock position, 3 cm from the nipple. The lump is non-tender and the overlying skin seems unaffected. Her observations are as follows:
Heart rate: 90,
Respiratory rate: 14,
Blood pressure: 112/72 mmHg,
Oxygen saturation: 99%,
Temperature: 37.5 CÂș.
What is the probable diagnosis, and what is the most appropriate next step in investigation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Galactocele, no further investigation necessary
Explanation:Galactocele and breast abscess can be distinguished based on clinical history and examination findings, without the need for further investigation.
Recent discontinuation of breastfeeding is a risk factor for both mastitis/abscess formation and galactocele formation. Galactoceles are distinguishable from breast abscesses because they are painless and non-tender upon examination, and there are no signs of infection locally or systemically.
Although the patient’s history of mastitis increases the likelihood of a breast abscess, the clinical presentation strongly suggests a galactocele (i.e. painless lump, no localized redness, and absence of fever).Understanding Galactocele
Galactocele is a condition that commonly affects women who have recently stopped breastfeeding. It occurs when a lactiferous duct becomes blocked, leading to the accumulation of milk and the formation of a cystic lesion in the breast. Unlike an abscess, galactocele is usually painless and does not cause any local or systemic signs of infection.
In simpler terms, galactocele is a type of breast cyst that develops when milk gets trapped in a duct. It is not a serious condition and can be easily diagnosed by a doctor. Women who experience galactocele may notice a lump in their breast, but it is usually painless and does not require any treatment. However, if the lump becomes painful or infected, medical attention may be necessary. Overall, galactocele is a common and harmless condition that can be managed with proper care and monitoring.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 23
Incorrect
-
You are observing an antenatal clinic and your next patient is a 26-year-old woman who is 16 weeks pregnant with her first child. Take a brief history of this patient.
The patient has a past medical history of coeliac disease and hypothyroidism. She takes no regular medications and has no known drug allergies. Her family history is relevant for her father has type 1 diabetes. She has never smoked and since pregnancy, has stopped drinking alcohol.
What additional tests, if any, should be arranged for this patient based on her medical history?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oral glucose tolerance test at 24-28 weeks
Explanation:Pregnant women with a first-degree relative with diabetes should be screened for gestational diabetes with an OGTT at 24-28 weeks. No further tests are required, but thyroid function tests should be done in each trimester for those with an existing diagnosis of hypothyroidism. OGTT should not be done at 18-22 weeks.
Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder affecting around 4% of pregnancies. Risk factors include a high BMI, previous gestational diabetes, and family history of diabetes. Screening is done through an oral glucose tolerance test, and diagnostic thresholds have recently been updated. Management includes self-monitoring of blood glucose, diet and exercise advice, and medication if necessary. For pre-existing diabetes, weight loss and insulin are recommended, and tight glycemic control is important. Targets for self-monitoring include fasting glucose of 5.3 mmol/l and 1-2 hour post-meal glucose levels.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 24
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old pregnant woman presents with anaemia at 20 weeks gestation. Her full blood count reveals a serum Hb of 104 g/L and MCV of 104 fL. Hypersegmented neutrophils are observed on a blood film. The patient has a medical history of coeliac disease. What is the probable reason for her anaemia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Folate deficiency
Explanation:The macrocytic anaemia revealed by the full blood count is indicative of a megaloblastic anaemia, as per the blood films. This type of anaemia can be caused by a deficiency in folate or B12. Given that folic acid deficiency is prevalent during pregnancy, it is the most probable cause in this instance. Additionally, the likelihood of coeliac disease exacerbating malabsorption further supports this conclusion.
Folic Acid: Importance, Deficiency, and Prevention
Folic acid is a vital nutrient that is converted to tetrahydrofolate (THF) in the body. It is found in green, leafy vegetables and plays a crucial role in the transfer of 1-carbon units to essential substrates involved in the synthesis of DNA and RNA. However, certain factors such as phenytoin, methotrexate, pregnancy, and alcohol excess can cause a deficiency in folic acid. This deficiency can lead to macrocytic, megaloblastic anemia and neural tube defects.
To prevent neural tube defects during pregnancy, it is recommended that all women take 400mcg of folic acid until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women at higher risk of conceiving a child with a neural tube defect should take 5mg of folic acid from before conception until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women are considered higher risk if they or their partner has a neural tube defect, they have had a previous pregnancy affected by a neural tube defect, or they have a family history of a neural tube defect. Additionally, women with certain medical conditions such as coeliac disease, diabetes, or thalassaemia trait, or those taking antiepileptic drugs, or who are obese (BMI of 30 kg/m2 or more) are also considered higher risk.
In summary, folic acid is an essential nutrient that plays a crucial role in DNA and RNA synthesis. Deficiency in folic acid can lead to serious health consequences, including neural tube defects. However, taking folic acid supplements during pregnancy can prevent these defects and ensure a healthy pregnancy.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 25
Incorrect
-
A 29-year-old female attends the antenatal clinic for a booking appointment. What should be recognized as a risk factor for pre-eclampsia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pre-existing renal disease
Explanation:Identify the following as potential risk factors:
– Being 40 years old or older
– Never having given birth
– Having a pregnancy interval of over 10 years
– Having a family history of pre-eclampsia
– Having previously experienced pre-eclampsia
– Having a body mass index (BMI) of 30 kg/m^2 or higher
– Having pre-existing vascular disease, such as hypertension.Pre-eclampsia is a condition that occurs during pregnancy and is characterized by high blood pressure, proteinuria, and edema. It can lead to complications such as eclampsia, neurological issues, fetal growth problems, liver involvement, and cardiac failure. Severe pre-eclampsia is marked by hypertension, proteinuria, headache, visual disturbances, and other symptoms. Risk factors for pre-eclampsia include hypertension in a previous pregnancy, chronic kidney disease, autoimmune disease, diabetes, chronic hypertension, first pregnancy, and age over 40. Aspirin may be recommended for women with high or moderate risk factors. Treatment involves emergency assessment, admission for observation, and medication such as labetalol, nifedipine, or hydralazine. Delivery of the baby is the most important step in management, with timing depending on the individual case.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 26
Incorrect
-
A 25-year-old woman is on her second day postpartum, following a Caesarean section. She is taking regular paracetamol for pain around the wound site, which has not alleviate her symptoms.
She is breastfeeding and is asking whether there are any other safe analgesics to help with her pain.
What is the recommended medication for this patient's pain management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ibuprofen
Explanation:Safe Pain Management Options for Breastfeeding Mothers
Breastfeeding mothers who experience pain may require medication to manage their symptoms. However, certain drugs can be harmful to both the mother and the baby. Here are some safe pain management options for breastfeeding mothers:
Ibuprofen: This is the drug of choice for managing pain in breastfeeding mothers. Although it is contraindicated in pregnancy, its transfer into breast milk is very low.
Codeine: This opioid analgesic can be used during pregnancy, but it should be avoided as the mother approaches delivery due to the risk of respiratory depression in the infant. It should also be avoided when breastfeeding, as it can cause symptoms of overdose in the baby.
Aspirin: While aspirin is used during pregnancy for prophylaxis, its use as an analgesic should be avoided during breastfeeding as it can cause Reye’s syndrome or impair neonatal platelet function.
Indometacin: This NSAID can be used for analgesia in breastfeeding, as the concentration that transfers into breast milk is relatively low.
Tramadol: Although only small amounts of this opioid analgesic are present in breast milk, the manufacturers advise avoidance due to the risk of respiratory depression in the baby.
It is important to consult with a healthcare provider before taking any medication while breastfeeding. Additionally, mothers should be aware of any contraindications and potential side effects of the medication they are taking.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 27
Incorrect
-
A 32-year-old primigravida woman is 41 weeks pregnant and has been offered a vaginal examination and membrane sweeping at her antenatal visit. Despite these efforts, she has not gone into labor after 6 hours. Upon examination, her cervix is firm, 1 cm dilated, 1.5 cm in length, and in the middle position. The fetal head station is -3, but there have been no complications during the pregnancy. What should be the next appropriate step?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vaginal prostaglandin gel
Explanation:If the Bishop score is less than or equal to 6, the recommended method for inducing labor is through vaginal PGE2 or oral misoprostol. In this case, since the Bishop score was less than 5, labor is unlikely without induction. One option could be to repeat a membrane sweep, but the most appropriate course of action would be to use a vaginal prostaglandin gel.
Induction of labour is a process where labour is artificially started and is required in about 20% of pregnancies. It is indicated in cases of prolonged pregnancy, prelabour premature rupture of the membranes, maternal medical problems, diabetic mother over 38 weeks, pre-eclampsia, obstetric cholestasis, and intrauterine fetal death. The Bishop score is used to assess whether induction of labour is necessary and includes cervical position, consistency, effacement, dilation, and fetal station. A score of less than 5 indicates that labour is unlikely to start without induction, while a score of 8 or more indicates a high chance of spontaneous labour or response to interventions made to induce labour.
Possible methods of induction include membrane sweep, vaginal prostaglandin E2, oral prostaglandin E1, maternal oxytocin infusion, amniotomy, and cervical ripening balloon. The NICE guidelines recommend vaginal prostaglandins or oral misoprostol if the Bishop score is less than or equal to 6, while amniotomy and an intravenous oxytocin infusion are recommended if the score is greater than 6.
The main complication of induction of labour is uterine hyperstimulation, which refers to prolonged and frequent uterine contractions that can interrupt blood flow to the intervillous space and result in fetal hypoxemia and acidemia. Uterine rupture is a rare but serious complication. Management includes removing vaginal prostaglandins and stopping the oxytocin infusion if one has been started, and considering tocolysis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 28
Incorrect
-
A woman who is 38 weeks pregnant has arrived at the hospital in labor. The midwife observes that she has a temperature of 38.5ÂșC and recommends that the woman receive antibiotic treatment. The woman has had a regular and uncomplicated pregnancy thus far and has no known drug allergies. What type of Group B Streptococcus prophylaxis should the woman receive?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Benzylpenicillin
Explanation:According to the guidelines of the Royal College, women who experience a fever of over 38 degrees Celsius during labor should be administered benzylpenicillin as a prophylactic measure against GBS.
Group B Streptococcus (GBS) is a common cause of severe infection in newborns. It is estimated that 20-40% of mothers carry GBS in their bowel flora, which can be passed on to their infants during labor and lead to serious infections. Prematurity, prolonged rupture of membranes, previous sibling GBS infection, and maternal pyrexia are all risk factors for GBS infection. The Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (RCOG) has published guidelines on GBS management, which include not offering universal screening for GBS to all women and not offering screening based on maternal request. Women who have had GBS detected in a previous pregnancy should be offered intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis (IAP) or testing in late pregnancy and antibiotics if still positive. IAP should also be offered to women with a previous baby with GBS disease, women in preterm labor, and women with a fever during labor. Benzylpenicillin is the preferred antibiotic for GBS prophylaxis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 29
Incorrect
-
A 28-year-old female patient presents to the clinic at 36 weeks of pregnancy. She reports a decrease in fetal movement over the past few days and is concerned. She has no significant medical history or family history and has had two uncomplicated pregnancies in the past. Physical examination is normal, and vital signs are stable. A handheld Doppler scan reveals no fetal heartbeat.
What is the next course of action in managing this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ultrasound scan
Explanation:If a woman reports reduced fetal movements and no heartbeat is detected with a handheld Doppler after 28 weeks of gestation, an immediate ultrasound should be offered according to RCOG guidelines. Repeating Doppler after an hour is not recommended. If a heartbeat is detected, cardiotocography should be used to monitor the heart rate for at least 20 minutes. Fetal blood sampling is not necessary in this situation.
Understanding Reduced Fetal Movements
Introduction:
Reduced fetal movements can indicate fetal distress and are a response to chronic hypoxia in utero. This can lead to stillbirth and fetal growth restriction. It is believed that placental insufficiency may also be linked to reduced fetal movements.Physiology:
Quickening is the first onset of fetal movements, which usually occurs between 18-20 weeks gestation and increases until 32 weeks gestation. Multiparous women may experience fetal movements sooner. Fetal movements should not reduce towards the end of pregnancy. There is no established definition for what constitutes reduced fetal movements, but less than 10 movements within 2 hours (in pregnancies past 28 weeks gestation) is an indication for further assessment.Epidemiology:
Reduced fetal movements affect up to 15% of pregnancies, with 3-5% of pregnant women having recurrent presentations with RFM. Fetal movements should be established by 24 weeks gestation.Risk factors for reduced fetal movements:
Posture, distraction, placental position, medication, fetal position, body habitus, amniotic fluid volume, and fetal size can all affect fetal movement awareness.Investigations:
Fetal movements are usually based on maternal perception, but can also be objectively assessed using handheld Doppler or ultrasonography. Investigations are dependent on gestation at onset of RFM. If concern remains, despite normal CTG, urgent (within 24 hours) ultrasound can be used.Prognosis:
Reduced fetal movements can represent fetal distress, but in 70% of pregnancies with a single episode of reduced fetal movement, there is no onward complication. However, between 40-55% of women who suffer from stillbirth experience reduced fetal movements prior to diagnosis. Recurrent RFM requires further investigations to consider structural or genetic fetal abnormalities. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 30
Incorrect
-
A 28-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes mellitus, well controlled on insulin, attends the Fetal Medicine Clinic for a growth scan at 36 weeks. The scan has been unremarkable, and the consultant will discuss the mode and timing of delivery today. The baby is cephalic, and the placenta is posterior and high.
Which of the following statements regarding the mode and timing of delivery in patients with diabetes is correct?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Women with gestational diabetes should give birth no later than 40+6 weeksâ gestation
Explanation:Managing Delivery in Women with Diabetes during Pregnancy
Women with diabetes during pregnancy require special attention during delivery to ensure the safety of both the mother and the baby. Here are some important considerations:
Delivery should not be delayed beyond 40+6 weeksâ gestation to avoid the risk of stillbirth.
Delivery before 37 weeks is not recommended unless there are metabolic or other maternal or fetal complications.
Vaginal delivery is not recommended in the presence of a macrosomic fetus, but the woman should be informed of the risks and make an informed decision.
Induction or elective Caesarean section should be considered between 37+0 and 38+6 weeksâ gestation to minimize the risk of stillbirth and fetal macrosomia.
Women with a previous Caesarean section can opt for vaginal birth after Caesarean section (VBAC) if the indication for the previous Caesarean section is not recurring.
During delivery, intrapartum glucose levels should be monitored closely, and appropriate interventions should be taken to maintain glucose levels between 4 and 7 mmol/l.
By following these guidelines, healthcare providers can ensure a safe delivery for women with diabetes during pregnancy.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 31
Incorrect
-
A 32-year-old multiparous woman presents very anxious on day 10 postpartum. She is struggling with breastfeeding; her nipples are sore, and she feels her son is not feeding enough, as he is fussy and crying for most of the day. Breast examination reveals bilateral breast engorgement, but no evidence of infection. The patient tells you she felt embarrassed to ask the nurse for advice when she had her first postnatal visit, as she did not want her to think she was incompetent as a mother.
What is the most appropriate course of action for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Arrange a one-to-one appointment with a health visitor
Explanation:Management options for breastfeeding problems in new mothers
Breastfeeding is a common challenge for new mothers, and it is important to provide them with effective management options. The first-line option recommended by NICE guidelines is a one-to-one visit from a health visitor or breastfeeding specialist nurse. This allows for observation and advice on optimal positioning, milk expressing techniques, and pain management during breastfeeding. Information leaflets and national breastfeeding support organisation websites can supplement this training, but they are not as effective as one-to-one observation. Prescribing formula milk may be an option if there is evidence of significant weight loss in the baby. It is important to reassure the mother that establishing a good breastfeeding technique can take time, but active support should be provided to maximise the chances of success.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 32
Incorrect
-
A 25-year-old woman has a vaginal delivery of her first child. Although the birth was uncomplicated, she suffers a tear which extends from the vaginal mucosa into the submucosal tissue, but not into the external anal sphincter. Which degree tear is this classed as?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Second degree
Explanation:– First degree: a tear that only affects the vaginal mucosa
– Second degree: a tear that extends into the subcutaneous tissue
– Third degree: a laceration that reaches the external anal sphincter
– Fourth degree: a laceration that goes through the external anal sphincter and reaches the rectal mucosaPerineal tears are a common occurrence during childbirth, and the Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (RCOG) has developed guidelines to classify them based on their severity. First-degree tears are superficial and do not require any repair, while second-degree tears involve the perineal muscle and require suturing by a midwife or clinician. Third-degree tears involve the anal sphincter complex and require repair in theatre by a trained clinician, with subcategories based on the extent of the tear. Fourth-degree tears involve the anal sphincter complex and rectal mucosa and also require repair in theatre by a trained clinician.
There are several risk factors for perineal tears, including being a first-time mother, having a large baby, experiencing a precipitant labour, and having a shoulder dystocia or forceps delivery. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these risk factors and to provide appropriate care and management during childbirth to minimize the risk of perineal tears. By following the RCOG guidelines and providing timely and effective treatment, healthcare providers can help ensure the best possible outcomes for both mother and baby.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 33
Incorrect
-
A 31-year-old woman in the fifteenth week of pregnancy comes to the Emergency Department with vomiting and vaginal bleeding. During the examination, the doctor observes that her uterus is larger than expected for her stage of pregnancy. An ultrasound scan shows a snowstorm appearance with numerous highly reflective echoes and vacuolation areas within the uterine cavity.
What is the most probable diagnosis in this scenario?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Trophoblastic disease
Explanation:Understanding Different Pregnancy Complications: Trophoblastic Disease, Ectopic Pregnancy, Threatened Miscarriage, Confirmed Miscarriage, and Septic Abortion
Pregnancy can be a wonderful experience, but it can also come with complications. Here are some of the common pregnancy complications and their symptoms:
Trophoblastic Disease
This disease usually occurs after 14 weeks of pregnancy and is characterized by vaginal bleeding. It is often misdiagnosed as a threatened miscarriage. The uterus may also be larger than expected. High levels of human chorionic gonadotrophin hormone can cause clinical thyrotoxicosis, exaggerated pregnancy symptoms, and passing of products of conception vaginally. Ultrasound scans can show a snowstorm appearance with multiple highly reflective echoes and areas of vacuolation within the uterine cavity.Ectopic Pregnancy
This type of pregnancy occurs outside the uterine cavity, most commonly in the ampullary region of the Fallopian tube.Threatened Miscarriage
This condition can also present with vaginal bleeding, but ultrasound scans would show a gestational sac and fetal heartbeat instead.Confirmed Miscarriage
After a miscarriage is confirmed, the products of conception have passed from the uterus. Sometimes, small fragments of tissue may remain, which can be managed with surgical evacuation or expectant management for another two weeks.Septic Abortion
This condition is characterized by infection of the products of conception and can present with vaginal bleeding and vomiting. Other signs of infection, such as fever and rigors, may also be present.It is important to seek medical attention if you experience any of these symptoms during pregnancy. Early detection and treatment can help prevent further complications.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 34
Incorrect
-
A 29-year-old woman is admitted to the Labour Suite, 2 weeks post-due date, for induction of labour. She is assessed using the Bishopâs scoring system and is noted to have a score of 5.
What is the recommended treatment for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vaginal PGE2, then reassess 6 h later
Explanation:Induction of Labour: Methods and Indications
Induction of labour is a medical procedure that is carried out when the risks of continuing the pregnancy outweigh the risks of delivery. It is usually done in the interest of foetal wellbeing, rather than maternal wellbeing. There are various methods of inducing labour, and the choice of method depends on the individual case.
Vaginal PGE2 is a commonly used method of induction. The Bishop’s score is assessed, and if it is less than 6, vaginal PGE2 is administered. The cervix is reassessed after 6 hours, and if the score is still less than 7, further prostaglandin is given.
Other methods of induction include artificial rupture of membranes, which is performed when the woman is in active labour and her waters have not broken. A membrane sweep is offered at the 40- and 41-week checks for nulliparous women and at the 41-week check for multiparous women. Anti-progesterone is rarely used in the induction of labour.
Induction of labour is indicated in cases of foetal indications such as post-due date of more than 10 days, foetal growth restriction, deteriorating foetal abnormalities, and deteriorating haemolytic disease. It is also indicated in cases of maternal indications such as pre-eclampsia, deteriorating medical conditions, certain diabetic pregnancies, and if treatment is required for malignancy.
If vaginal PGE2 fails and the woman is not in active labour, artificial rupture of membranes with SyntocinonÂź may be performed. The choice of method depends on the individual case and the judgement of the healthcare provider.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 35
Incorrect
-
A 28-year-old Indian woman contacts her doctor for guidance. She is currently 12 weeks pregnant and had been taking care of her nephew who has chickenpox. The patient spent a considerable amount of time with her nephew and had close physical contact like hugging. The patient is feeling fine and has no noticeable symptoms. She is unsure if she has had chickenpox before.
What would be the best course of action in this scenario?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Check antibody levels
Explanation:When a pregnant woman is exposed to chickenpox, it can lead to serious complications for both her and the developing fetus. To prevent this, the first step is to check the woman’s immune status by testing for varicella antibodies. If she is found to be non-immune, she should be given varicella-zoster immune globulin (VZIG) as soon as possible for post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP). This can be arranged by the GP, although the midwife should also be informed.
If the woman is less than 20 weeks pregnant and non-immune, VZIG should be given within 10 days of exposure. If she is more than 20 weeks pregnant and develops chickenpox, oral acyclovir or an equivalent antiviral should be started within 24 hours of rash onset. If the woman is less than 20 weeks pregnant, specialist advice should be sought.
It is important to take action if the woman is found to be non-immune, as providing only reassurance is not appropriate in this situation. By administering VZIG or antivirals, the risk of complications for both the woman and the fetus can be greatly reduced.
Chickenpox exposure in pregnancy can pose risks to both the mother and fetus, including fetal varicella syndrome. Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) with varicella-zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG) or antivirals should be given to non-immune pregnant women, with timing dependent on gestational age. If a pregnant woman develops chickenpox, specialist advice should be sought and oral acyclovir may be given if she is â„ 20 weeks and presents within 24 hours of onset of the rash.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 36
Incorrect
-
A 20-year-old G3P2 woman presents to the Emergency Department with vaginal bleeding. She reports no pain or fever and has not received prenatal care for this pregnancy. Her last menstrual period was 8 weeks ago. Upon examination, her heart rate is 76 bpm, blood pressure is 112/68 mmHg, and temperature is 37.1 ÂșC. A serum ÎČ-human chorionic gonadotropin level is 10,000 iu. A pelvic exam reveals a closed cervical os. A bedside ultrasound confirms the presence of an intrauterine gestational sac with cardiac activity. What is the diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Threatened miscarriage
Explanation:Differentiating between types of miscarriage: A case study
A patient presents with vaginal bleeding and cramping at 8 weeks gestation. An ultrasound shows a viable pregnancy with fetal cardiac activity and a gestational sac within the uterus. The cervical os is closed. What type of miscarriage is this?
Threatened miscarriage is the most likely diagnosis in this case. The patient can be reassured with precautions, as over 75% of pregnancies with threatened miscarriage do not abort. However, there is an increased risk of growth restriction and abnormal placentation in the third trimester.
Ectopic pregnancy can be ruled out as the ultrasound has established the gestational sac within the uterus, not within the adnexa. Septic miscarriage is also unlikely as the patient does not demonstrate signs of infection, such as fever, and the cervical os is closed.
A missed miscarriage can be ruled out as fetal cardiac activity was seen on ultrasound. In a complete miscarriage, the uterus would not have a gestational sac.
In conclusion, differentiating between types of miscarriage is important in determining appropriate management and counseling for patients. In this case, a diagnosis of threatened miscarriage allows for reassurance and monitoring of potential complications later in pregnancy.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 37
Incorrect
-
A 25-year-old woman who is 32 weeks pregnant presents to the Emergency Department with sudden onset abdominal pain and some very light vaginal bleeding which has subsequently stopped. On examination her abdomen is tense and tender. The mother says she has not noticed any reduction in foetal movements. Her vital signs are as follows:
HR 105 bpm
BP 120/80 mmHg
Temperature 37.1ÂșC
Respiratory Rate 20 min-1
Cardiotocography (CTG) was performed and showed a foetal heart rate of 140 bpm, with beat-beat variability of 5-30 bpm and 3 accelerations were seen in a 20 minute period.
Ultrasound demonstrates normal foetal biophysical profile and liquor volume. There is a small collection of retroplacental blood.
What is the most appropriate course of action for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Admit for IV corticosteroids and monitor maternal and foetal condition
Explanation:In the case of a small placental abruption without signs of foetal distress and a gestational age of less than 36 weeks, the recommended management is to admit the patient and administer steroids. While vitamin K can aid in blood clotting, it is not the optimal choice in this situation. A caesarean section is not immediately necessary as the foetus is not in distress and is under 36 weeks. Antibiotics are not indicated as there are no signs of infection and the patient is not experiencing a fever. Continuous monitoring with CTG for 24 hours is not necessary if the foetus is not displaying any distress on initial presentation and the mother has not reported a decrease in foetal movements.
Placental Abruption: Causes, Management, and Complications
Placental abruption is a condition where the placenta separates from the uterine wall, leading to maternal haemorrhage. The severity of the condition depends on the extent of the separation and the gestational age of the fetus. Management of placental abruption is crucial to prevent maternal and fetal complications.
If the fetus is alive and less than 36 weeks, immediate caesarean delivery is recommended if there is fetal distress. If there is no fetal distress, close observation, administration of steroids, and no tocolysis are recommended. The decision to deliver depends on the gestational age of the fetus. If the fetus is alive and more than 36 weeks, immediate caesarean delivery is recommended if there is fetal distress. If there is no fetal distress, vaginal delivery is recommended. If the fetus is dead, vaginal delivery should be induced.
Placental abruption can lead to various maternal complications, including shock, disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), renal failure, and postpartum haemorrhage (PPH). Fetal complications include intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR), hypoxia, and death. The condition is associated with a high perinatal mortality rate and is responsible for 15% of perinatal deaths.
In conclusion, placental abruption is a serious condition that requires prompt management to prevent maternal and fetal complications. Close monitoring and timely intervention can improve the prognosis for both the mother and the baby.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 38
Incorrect
-
A woman at 28 weeks gestation presents to the maternity assessment unit with complaints of reduced fetal movements (RFM). She reports that she has not felt her baby move for the past 10 hours. There is no history of vaginal bleeding or pain. The midwife is unable to detect a fetal heartbeat using the handheld Doppler. What further investigations would be carried out to assess the reduced fetal movements?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ultrasound
Explanation:Understanding Reduced Fetal Movements
Introduction:
Reduced fetal movements can indicate fetal distress and are a response to chronic hypoxia in utero. This can lead to stillbirth and fetal growth restriction. It is believed that placental insufficiency may also be linked to reduced fetal movements.Physiology:
Quickening is the first onset of fetal movements, which usually occurs between 18-20 weeks gestation and increases until 32 weeks gestation. Multiparous women may experience fetal movements sooner. Fetal movements should not reduce towards the end of pregnancy. There is no established definition for what constitutes reduced fetal movements, but less than 10 movements within 2 hours (in pregnancies past 28 weeks gestation) is an indication for further assessment.Epidemiology:
Reduced fetal movements affect up to 15% of pregnancies, with 3-5% of pregnant women having recurrent presentations with RFM. Fetal movements should be established by 24 weeks gestation.Risk factors for reduced fetal movements:
Posture, distraction, placental position, medication, fetal position, body habitus, amniotic fluid volume, and fetal size can all affect fetal movement awareness.Investigations:
Fetal movements are usually based on maternal perception, but can also be objectively assessed using handheld Doppler or ultrasonography. Investigations are dependent on gestation at onset of RFM. If concern remains, despite normal CTG, urgent (within 24 hours) ultrasound can be used.Prognosis:
Reduced fetal movements can represent fetal distress, but in 70% of pregnancies with a single episode of reduced fetal movement, there is no onward complication. However, between 40-55% of women who suffer from stillbirth experience reduced fetal movements prior to diagnosis. Recurrent RFM requires further investigations to consider structural or genetic fetal abnormalities. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 39
Incorrect
-
A 29-year-old woman who is 10 weeks pregnant presents to the early pregnancy assessment unit with vaginal bleeding and abdominal pain that started yesterday. She has a history of Von Willebrand disease. A trans-vaginal ultrasound scan confirms a missed miscarriage. The patient is currently stable without fever or hemodynamic instability. What is the most suitable initial approach to manage this patient's miscarriage?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vaginal misoprostol
Explanation:The recommended medical management for a miscarriage is the administration of vaginal misoprostol, as stated in the 2018 NICE guidelines. This is particularly suitable for patients with a medical history of coagulopathy, such as Von Willebrand disease, as it is a safer option than expectant management. Oral methotrexate is not appropriate for a miscarriage, as it is used for the medical management of ectopic pregnancies. Salpingectomy is a surgical procedure used for tubular ectopic pregnancies, but not for miscarriages. Vacuum aspiration is a surgical option for miscarriages, but medical management is preferred as it is safer and allows the patient to have more control over the process.
Management Options for Miscarriage
Miscarriage can be a difficult and emotional experience for women. In the 2019 NICE guidelines, three types of management for miscarriage were discussed: expectant, medical, and surgical. Expectant management involves waiting for a spontaneous miscarriage and is considered the first-line option. However, if it is unsuccessful, medical or surgical management may be offered.
Medical management involves using tablets to expedite the miscarriage. Vaginal misoprostol, a prostaglandin analogue, is used to cause strong myometrial contractions leading to the expulsion of tissue. It is important to advise patients to contact their doctor if bleeding does not start within 24 hours. Antiemetics and pain relief should also be given.
Surgical management involves undergoing a surgical procedure under local or general anaesthetic. The two main options are vacuum aspiration (suction curettage) or surgical management in theatre. Vacuum aspiration is done under local anaesthetic as an outpatient, while surgical management is done in theatre under general anaesthetic. This was previously referred to as ‘Evacuation of retained products of conception’.
It is important to note that some situations are better managed with medical or surgical management, such as an increased risk of haemorrhage, being in the late first trimester, having coagulopathies or being unable to have a blood transfusion, previous adverse and/or traumatic experience associated with pregnancy, evidence of infection, and more. Ultimately, the management option chosen should be based on the individual patient’s needs and preferences.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 40
Incorrect
-
A 25-year-old patient with a history of well-controlled epilepsy visits the general practice with her partner. They have been attempting to conceive through regular sexual intercourse for the past 10 months. The patient is currently taking omeprazole, levetiracetam, folic acid 400 micrograms, and paracetamol as needed. What medication adjustments would be most suitable?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Folic acid 5 milligrams
Explanation:Women on antiepileptics trying to conceive should receive 5mg folic acid. Letrozole and clomiphene are not appropriate for this patient. Adequate control of epilepsy is important and medication changes should be made by a specialist. This patient should be started on a high dose of folic acid due to the risk of neural tube defects.
Folic Acid: Importance, Deficiency, and Prevention
Folic acid is a vital nutrient that is converted to tetrahydrofolate (THF) in the body. It is found in green, leafy vegetables and plays a crucial role in the transfer of 1-carbon units to essential substrates involved in the synthesis of DNA and RNA. However, certain factors such as phenytoin, methotrexate, pregnancy, and alcohol excess can cause a deficiency in folic acid. This deficiency can lead to macrocytic, megaloblastic anemia and neural tube defects.
To prevent neural tube defects during pregnancy, it is recommended that all women take 400mcg of folic acid until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women at higher risk of conceiving a child with a neural tube defect should take 5mg of folic acid from before conception until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women are considered higher risk if they or their partner has a neural tube defect, they have had a previous pregnancy affected by a neural tube defect, or they have a family history of a neural tube defect. Additionally, women with certain medical conditions such as coeliac disease, diabetes, or thalassaemia trait, or those taking antiepileptic drugs, or who are obese (BMI of 30 kg/m2 or more) are also considered higher risk.
In summary, folic acid is an essential nutrient that plays a crucial role in DNA and RNA synthesis. Deficiency in folic acid can lead to serious health consequences, including neural tube defects. However, taking folic acid supplements during pregnancy can prevent these defects and ensure a healthy pregnancy.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Secs)