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  • Question 1 - A 76-year-old man presents with back pain after a fall. He has a...

    Incorrect

    • A 76-year-old man presents with back pain after a fall. He has a history of prostate cancer with metastases to the liver and bones. He takes tamsulosin and bendroflumethiazide daily and paracetamol as needed. Upon admission, his renal function is stable, but his liver function is abnormal with an INR of 2, ALT of 210 U/L, AST of 90 U/L, ALP of 180 U/L, bilirubin of 30 mmol/L, and albumin of 24 g/L. What pain relief medication would you recommend for him?

      Your Answer: Fentanyl 25 mcg/hr topical patch

      Correct Answer: Paracetamol 1 g QDS with codeine phosphate 30 mg QDS PRN

      Explanation:

      Medication Considerations for Patients with Liver Dysfunction

      When prescribing medication for patients with liver dysfunction, it is important to exercise caution and consider the potential risks. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) should be avoided, especially in patients with coagulopathy, as they can increase the risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Opiates should also be prescribed with caution, particularly in patients who are opiate naïve.

      In cases of acute or acute-on-chronic liver failure, paracetamol may not be recommended. However, in patients with fully compensated cirrhosis, it can be used with caution and at a reduced dose. It is crucial for healthcare providers to carefully evaluate the potential risks and benefits of any medication before prescribing it to a patient with liver dysfunction. By doing so, they can help minimize the risk of adverse effects and ensure the best possible outcomes for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 2 - You are researching the effects of ageing on the various body systems as...

    Incorrect

    • You are researching the effects of ageing on the various body systems as part of your geriatrics rotation.
      Which of the following are consistent with normal ageing with respect to the endocrine system in individuals over 70 years old?

      Your Answer: Low levels of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinising hormone (LH) in both men and women in early postmenopausal period

      Correct Answer: Increased incidence of auto-immune disease

      Explanation:

      Ageing and Hormonal Changes: Common Issues in Older Adults

      As we age, our bodies undergo various changes that can lead to hormonal imbalances and health issues. One common problem is an increased incidence of autoimmune diseases, such as rheumatoid arthritis, which can be caused by a combination of genetic and environmental factors. However, immunosuppression is not a normal part of ageing.

      Another issue is azoospermia in men, which refers to the absence of sperm in semen. While postmenopausal women are infertile, over 50% of men over 70 years old still have the ability to father children.

      In both men and women, low levels of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinising hormone (LH) are common in the early postmenopausal period. However, postmenopausal women typically have high levels of FSH and LH, while older men have normal levels.

      Additionally, older adults may experience low levels of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) and morning cortisol, which are typically normal but may be reduced due to a decreased stress response. These hormonal changes can contribute to various health issues and should be monitored by healthcare professionals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 3 - A 40-year-old woman presents to her GP with complaints of fatigue, lethargy, flu-like...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old woman presents to her GP with complaints of fatigue, lethargy, flu-like myalgias, and syncopal episodes. She also reports feeling low in mood. Upon investigation, the following results were obtained:
      Serum:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Sodium (Na+) 127 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 5.7 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Short adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) stimulation test:
      Plasma cortisol:
      0900 h 145 nmol/l
      30 min after ACTH 210 nmol/l
      60 min after ACTH 350 nmol/l
      0900 h ACTH: 4 pg/ml (<5 pg/ml low)
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Cushing’s disease

      Correct Answer: Hypopituitarism

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing between Hypopituitarism and Other Conditions: A Biochemical Analysis

      Hypopituitarism is a condition characterized by reduced ACTH production, leading to decreased adrenal activity and a deficiency in cortisol. This deficiency results in sodium loss and potassium retention, as seen in the patient’s biochemistry. However, the mineralocorticoid is mostly under the influence of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone axis and would not be greatly affected. An initial blood sample is taken to assess the baseline level of cortisol, followed by an injection to stimulate the body’s production of cortisol. A sluggish rise in cortisol is observed due to adrenal atrophy resulting from chronically low stimulation by endogenous ACTH.

      Other conditions, such as Conn’s syndrome, tuberculosis, anorexia nervosa, and Cushing’s disease, can present with similar symptoms but have distinct biochemical profiles. Conn’s syndrome results in hypernatraemia and hypokalaemia due to high aldosterone levels. Tuberculosis can cause Addison’s disease, resulting in a similar biochemical picture but with high ACTH at baseline. Anorexia nervosa patients are typically hypokalaemic, and the short ACTH stimulation test would likely be normal. Cushing’s disease, on the other hand, results in hypernatraemia and hypokalaemia due to cortisol’s mineralocorticoid activity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 4 - A 60-year-old man with a previous diagnosis of multiple endocrine neoplasia type 2...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old man with a previous diagnosis of multiple endocrine neoplasia type 2 (MEN 2) presents to you 2 days after having undergone a total thyroidectomy. He reports experiencing cramps in his calves and thighs and tingling around his lips. Upon examination, you observe positive Chvostek’s sign and Trousseau sign. Further investigations reveal his serum calcium level to be 2 mmol/l and his serum phosphate level to be 1.8 mmol/l. What is the most likely explanation for these findings?

      Your Answer: Acquired hypoparathyroidism

      Explanation:

      Differential diagnosis of hypocalcaemia and hyperphosphataemia

      Acquired hypoparathyroidism is a likely cause of the biochemical abnormalities observed in a patient who recently underwent a total thyroidectomy. This condition results from damage to the parathyroid glands during surgery, leading to insufficient secretion of parathyroid hormone and subsequent hypocalcaemia and hyperphosphataemia. Other potential causes of these abnormalities include chronic renal failure and vitamin D deficiency, but these do not match the patient’s clinical history. Pseudohypoparathyroidism, a rare genetic disorder characterized by target tissue resistance to parathyroid hormone, is not a likely explanation either. Pseudopseudohypoparathyroidism, another rare inherited disorder that mimics the physical features of pseudohypoparathyroidism without the biochemical changes, is not relevant to this case. Therefore, acquired hypoparathyroidism is the most probable diagnosis, and appropriate management should include calcium and vitamin D supplementation, as well as monitoring for potential complications such as seizures and tetany.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 5 - A 38-year-old woman presents with complaints of fever, malaise and pain in the...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old woman presents with complaints of fever, malaise and pain in the neck, particularly when swallowing. She reports having had a viral respiratory infection a week ago. Upon examination, an enlarged thyroid, heart palpitations and excessive sweating are noted. Further tests reveal elevated ESR, leukocytosis, thyroid antibodies and low TSH levels. Additionally, a radionuclide thyroid uptake test shows decreased iodide uptake. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Graves' disease

      Correct Answer: de Quervain's thyroiditis

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Thyroid Disorders: A Comparison of De Quervain’s, Graves’, Hashimoto’s, Subacute Lymphocytic, and Riedel’s Thyroiditis

      Thyroid disorders can present with similar symptoms, making it challenging to differentiate between them. De Quervain’s thyroiditis, also known as subacute granulomatous thyroiditis, typically affects women after a viral respiratory infection. Symptoms of thyrotoxicosis may occur initially, but the disease can progress to hypothyroidism with thyroid gland destruction. In contrast, Graves’ disease is characterized by a markedly increased uptake of iodine on a radionuclide thyroid test. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis is an autoimmune disease that can present with a hyperthyroid phase, but the patient is unlikely to experience fever and neck pain. Subacute lymphocytic thyroiditis occurs only after pregnancy, while Riedel’s thyroiditis is a rare disorder characterized by extensive fibrosis of the thyroid gland, mimicking a carcinoma. Understanding the unique features of each thyroid disorder is crucial for accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 6 - A 50-year-old male presents to the endocrinology clinic with symptoms of hypogonadism. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old male presents to the endocrinology clinic with symptoms of hypogonadism. He reports consuming five cans of lager per week, which is believed to be the cause of his abnormal liver function tests. The patient has a history of type 2 diabetes and osteoarthritis affecting his hips and knees. What tests should be performed to determine the underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: MRI scan pituitary gland

      Correct Answer: Serum ferritin and iron studies

      Explanation:

      Haemochromatosis as a Cause of Hypogonadism

      The patient’s medical history suggests that haemochromatosis may be the underlying cause of their hypogonadism. While their moderate alcohol consumption of 10 units per week may contribute to liver dysfunction, other potential explanations should be explored. Additionally, the patient’s history of type 2 diabetes and seronegative arthropathy are consistent with iron storage diseases. Haemochromatosis can lead to reduced insulin production, resulting in a presentation similar to type 2 diabetes. To confirm the diagnosis, serum ferritin and transferrin saturation levels should be evaluated, as elevated levels of both are highly indicative of haemochromatosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 7 - A 35-year-old woman with a body mass index of 33 kg/m2 has a...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman with a body mass index of 33 kg/m2 has a fasting blood sugar of 10 mmol/l and 11.7 mmol/l on two separate occasions. Her family history includes diabetes mellitus in her father and maternal uncle. Despite attempting to lose weight through diet and exercise, she has been unsuccessful in achieving a balanced diet. She is open to taking either orlistat or an anorexigenic agent. Further investigation reveals that her blood insulin level tends to be relatively high.
      What is the most likely hormonal change to be observed in this patient?

      Your Answer: Reduced adiponectin

      Explanation:

      Endocrine Factors Predisposing to Type II Diabetes Mellitus

      Type II diabetes mellitus is a metabolic disorder characterized by insulin resistance and high blood sugar levels. Several endocrine factors can predispose individuals to this condition. In obese patients with a positive family history of diabetes, adiponectin levels are reduced. Adiponectin is a hormone secreted by adipocytes that plays a role in glucose metabolism. In contrast, leptin levels are increased in these patients and usually correlate with the degree of insulin resistance. Growth hormone levels are increased in acromegaly, which can also predispose individuals to type II diabetes. Phaeochromocytoma, a rare tumor of the adrenal gland, can cause increased epinephrine levels and predispose individuals to diabetes. Similarly, Cushing syndrome, a condition characterized by increased cortisol levels, can also predispose individuals to type II diabetes. Understanding these endocrine factors can help clinicians identify individuals at risk for type II diabetes and implement appropriate preventive measures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 8 - Which gland produces thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) in the endocrine system? ...

    Correct

    • Which gland produces thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) in the endocrine system?

      Your Answer: Anterior pituitary

      Explanation:

      The Thyroid Hormone Axis

      The thyroid hormone axis is a complex system that involves the hypothalamus, pituitary gland, and thyroid gland. The hypothalamus produces a hormone called thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH), which stimulates the anterior pituitary gland to release thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH). TSH then stimulates the thyroid gland to produce and release the thyroid hormones thyroxine (T4) and tri-iodothyronine (T3).

      Both T4 and T3 are primarily bound to proteins in the bloodstream, but it is the free, unbound hormones that are biologically active. The secretion of TSH is inhibited by the presence of thyroid hormones in the bloodstream. This negative feedback loop helps to regulate the levels of thyroid hormones in the body.

      In summary, the thyroid hormone axis is a tightly regulated system that involves multiple hormones and glands working together to maintain proper levels of thyroid hormones in the body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 9 - A 72-year-old man comes to the clinic for his yearly check-up and expresses...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old man comes to the clinic for his yearly check-up and expresses worry about osteoporosis. He has questions about bone formation and calcium homeostasis, and you explain the role of parathyroid hormone (PTH) in regulating calcium levels.
      Which of the following statements about PTH is accurate?

      Your Answer: It causes indirect osteoclastic activation via RANK-L

      Explanation:

      Parathyroid hormone (PTH) indirectly activates osteoclasts by increasing the production of RANK-L by osteoblasts. This leads to bone degradation and the release of calcium. PTH also decreases the release of osteoprotegerin, which is a decoy receptor for RANK-L. This further enhances osteoclast activity and bone degradation. Additionally, PTH causes a decrease in serum calcium by promoting calcium release from bone. It also enhances renal phosphate excretion by decreasing phosphate reabsorption.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      36
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  • Question 10 - A 32-year-old woman presents with sudden onset of abdominal pain. She has a...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman presents with sudden onset of abdominal pain. She has a medical history of polycystic kidney disease and is currently taking alfacalcidol, ramipril, Renagel, and EPO injections. Her eGFR upon admission is 24 ml/min/1.73 m2. What analgesic would you recommend for her pain?

      Your Answer: Paracetamol 1 g QDS

      Explanation:

      Medication Considerations for Patients with Renal Dysfunction

      Patients with renal dysfunction should avoid taking NSAIDs as they can worsen their condition and increase the risk of gastrointestinal bleeding, which is already a common complication of chronic renal failure. Instead, alternative pain management options should be explored. If opiates are necessary, they should be prescribed with caution as they can accumulate in the body due to reduced renal excretion, especially in patients who have not previously taken them. It is important for healthcare providers to carefully consider the potential risks and benefits of any medication before prescribing it to a patient with renal dysfunction. Proper medication management can help prevent further damage to the kidneys and improve overall patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 11 - A 78-year-old man with diabetes mellitus came in with abrupt onset of uncontrolled...

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old man with diabetes mellitus came in with abrupt onset of uncontrolled flinging movements of the right arm that ceased during sleep. What could be the probable cause?

      Your Answer: Ipsilateral cerebellar infarction

      Correct Answer: Contralateral subthalamic nucleus infarction

      Explanation:

      Hemiballismus and its Causes

      Hemiballismus is a medical condition characterized by involuntary flinging motions of the extremities, which can be violent and continuous. It usually affects only one side of the body and can involve proximal, distal, or facial muscles. The movements worsen with activity and decrease with relaxation. This condition is caused by a decrease in activity of the subthalamic nucleus of the basal ganglia, which results in decreased suppression of involuntary movements.

      Hemiballismus can be caused by a variety of factors, including strokes, traumatic brain activity, amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, hyperglycemia, malignancy, vascular malformations, tuberculomas, and demyelinating plaques. In patients with diabetes, it is likely due to a vascular event in the contralateral subthalamic nucleus.

      Treatment for hemiballismus should begin with identifying and treating the underlying cause. If pharmacological treatment is necessary, an antidopaminergic such as haloperidol or chlorpromazine may be used. Other options include topiramate, intrathecal baclofen, botulinum toxin, and tetrabenazine. In cases where other treatments have failed, functional neurosurgery may be an option.

      In summary, hemiballismus is a condition that causes involuntary flinging motions of the extremities and can be caused by various factors. Treatment should begin with identifying and treating the underlying cause, and pharmacological and surgical options may be necessary in some cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 12 - A 52-year-old woman presents with complaints of irregular periods, weight loss, and excessive...

    Correct

    • A 52-year-old woman presents with complaints of irregular periods, weight loss, and excessive sweating. She reports that her symptoms have been gradually worsening over the past few months and she also experiences itching. During the examination, her blood pressure is measured at 140/80 mmHg and her resting pulse is 95 bpm.
      What is the most suitable test to perform for this patient?

      Your Answer: Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) and T4 levels

      Explanation:

      Investigations for Suspected Endocrine Disorder

      When a patient presents with signs and symptoms of an endocrine disorder, several investigations may be necessary to confirm the diagnosis. Here are some tests that may be useful in different scenarios:

      Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) and T4 levels: These tests are essential when thyrotoxicosis is suspected. In rare cases, pruritus may also occur as a symptom.

      Plasma renin and aldosterone levels: This investigation may be useful if Conn syndrome is suspected, but it is not necessary in patients without significant hypertension. Electrolyte levels should be checked before this test.

      Full blood count and ferritin levels: These tests may be helpful in checking for anaemia, but they are less appropriate than TSH/T4 levels.

      Midnight cortisol level: This test is useful when Cushing’s syndrome is suspected. In this case, the only symptom that is compatible with this disorder is irregular menses.

      Test the urine for 24-hour free catecholamines: This test is used to investigate suspected phaeochromocytoma, which can cause similar symptoms to those seen in this case. However, hypertension is an important feature that is not present in this patient.

      In conclusion, the choice of investigations depends on the suspected endocrine disorder and the patient’s clinical presentation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 13 - A 56-year-old male with a past medical history of alcoholic liver disease arrives...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old male with a past medical history of alcoholic liver disease arrives at the Emergency department complaining of chest pain. After conducting an ECG and measuring troponin levels, it is confirmed that the patient is experiencing NSTEMI. What beta blocker would you prescribe to prevent any future myocardial events?

      Your Answer: Bisoprolol 20 mg OD

      Correct Answer: Propranolol 40 mg BD

      Explanation:

      Safe Use of Beta Blockers in Liver Disease

      Beta blockers are commonly used to prevent variceal bleeding. The recommended dose for this purpose is typically lower than the normal dose, but it can be increased if necessary. However, in patients with liver disease, the manufacturer recommends using a lower dose to avoid potential complications. Bisoprolol is one beta blocker that is safe to use in liver disease, but the maximum recommended dose is 10 mg once daily. Other beta blockers should be avoided in patients with liver disease due to the risk of adverse effects. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider to determine the appropriate dose and medication for each individual patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 14 - A 67-year-old woman with a history of renal stones and osteoporosis presents with...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old woman with a history of renal stones and osteoporosis presents with abnormal laboratory results. Her bone density scan shows a T score of -3.2 in the femur and -2.7 in the spine. She has no other symptoms and is not taking any medications. Upon further investigation, a right-sided parathyroid nodule is discovered through Sestamibi Technetium (99mTc) and ultrasound scan. The patient's laboratory results are as follows: calcium 2.9 mmol/l (normal range 2.20-2.6 mmol/l), phosphate 0.6 mmol/l (normal range 0.7-1.5 mmol/l), PTH 80 ng/l (normal range 15-60 ng/l), creatinine 72 μmol/l (normal range 50-120 μmol/l), and 24-hour urinary calcium : creatinine 0.03 (normal range <0.02). What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: Bisphosphonate therapy

      Correct Answer: Parathyroid surgery

      Explanation:

      Management of Primary Hyperparathyroidism: Indications for Surgery and Treatment Options

      Primary hyperparathyroidism is a condition characterized by persistent hypercalcemia with an inappropriately elevated or normal parathyroid hormone (PTH). Patients with this condition may also have hypercalciuria, which can lead to renal stones and nephrocalcinosis. Parathyroidectomy is the recommended treatment for primary hyperparathyroidism, with success rates of about 97%.

      Indications for parathyroidectomy include symptomatic disease, age under 50 years, adjusted serum calcium concentration that is 0.25 mmol/l or more above the upper end of the reference range, estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) less than 60 ml/min/1.73 m2, renal stones or presence of nephrocalcinosis on ultrasound or CT, and presence of osteoporosis or osteoporotic fracture.

      Patients with calcium >3.4 mmol/l or who are significantly symptomatic or have an acute kidney injury and dehydration should be admitted for urgent treatment and assessment. However, asymptomatic patients with normal renal function and likely longstanding hypercalcemia may not require hospitalization.

      For patients who are not candidates for surgery or decline it, other treatment options include bisphosphonate therapy, cinacalcet, and vitamin D replacement. Bisphosphonate therapy can improve bone mineral density but will not prevent further renal stones. Cinacalcet is an allosteric modulator of the calcium-sensing receptor that can be used in patients who meet hypercalcemia criteria for parathyroidectomy but cannot undergo surgery. However, it can cause mild-to-moderate adverse events such as nausea, vomiting, arthralgia, diarrhea, myalgia, and paraesthesia. Vitamin D replacement should be considered if vitamin D levels are low, but careful monitoring is required to avoid masking hypercalcemia and increasing the risk of parathyroid tumorigenesis.

      In summary, the management of primary hyperparathyroidism involves identifying indications for parathyroidectomy and considering alternative treatment options for patients who are not candidates for surgery or decline it. Close monitoring and follow-up are essential to ensure optimal outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 15 - A 50-year-old woman has been diagnosed with Addison's disease. What would be advantageous...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman has been diagnosed with Addison's disease. What would be advantageous to prescribe for her along with hydrocortisone?

      Your Answer: Fludrocortisone

      Explanation:

      Medications for Addison’s Disease: What Works and What Doesn’t

      Addison’s disease is a condition where the adrenal glands do not produce enough hormones. Patients with this condition require replacement therapy with both glucocorticoid and mineralocorticoid medications. Fludrocortisone is a common mineralocorticoid replacement therapy used in Addison’s disease. However, medications such as aspirin, the combined oral contraceptive pill, and the progesterone only pill have no role in treating this condition. Additionally, dexamethasone is not used as a replacement therapy for Addison’s disease. It is important for patients with Addison’s disease to work closely with their healthcare provider to determine the appropriate medications for their individual needs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 16 - A 35-year-old male is scheduled for his annual diabetic review. During the examination,...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old male is scheduled for his annual diabetic review. During the examination, it is noted that his body mass index has increased to 31.5 kg/m2. How do you calculate body mass index?

      Your Answer: Weight/(Height)2

      Explanation:

      BMI is a calculation of weight over height squared and is used to determine if someone is underweight, normal weight, overweight, or obese. A BMI above 30 indicates obesity and is associated with increased risks for various health issues and surgical complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 17 - A 46-year-old man with type 1 diabetes for 20 years presents with an...

    Correct

    • A 46-year-old man with type 1 diabetes for 20 years presents with an ulcer on his right foot. The ulcer is located on the outer aspect of his right big toe and measures 2 cm in diameter. Despite having palpable peripheral pulses, he experiences peripheral neuropathy to the mid shins. The ulcer has an erythematosus margin and is covered by slough. What is the most probable infective organism?

      Your Answer: Staphylococcus aureus

      Explanation:

      Diabetic foot ulcers can be categorized into neuropathic and ischemic. Infections in diabetic feet are serious and can range from superficial to deep infections and gangrene. Diabetics are more susceptible to foot ulceration due to neuropathy, vascular insufficiency, and reduced neutrophil function. Local signs of wound infection include friable granulation tissue, yellow or grey moist tissue, purulent discharge, and an unpleasant odor. Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) is more common in previously hospitalized or antibiotic-treated patients. Deep swab and tissue samples should be sent for culture and broad-spectrum antibiotics started if infection is suspected. Urgent surgical intervention is indicated for a large area of infected sloughy tissue, localised fluctuance and expression of pus, crepitus in the soft tissues on radiological examination, and purplish discoloration of the skin. Antibiotic treatment should be tailored according to the clinical response, culture results, and sensitivity. If osteomyelitis is present, surgical resection should be considered, and antibiotics continued for four to six weeks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 18 - What is the recommended course of treatment for a 16-year-old boy with Reifenstein...

    Incorrect

    • What is the recommended course of treatment for a 16-year-old boy with Reifenstein syndrome who has hypospadias, micropenis, and small testes in the scrotum?

      Your Answer: Surgical management

      Correct Answer: Testosterone replacement

      Explanation:

      Management of Reifenstein Syndrome: Hormonal and Surgical Options

      Reifenstein syndrome is a rare X-linked genetic disease that results in partial androgen insensitivity. In phenotypic males with this condition, testosterone replacement therapy is recommended to increase the chances of fertility. However, if the patient had been raised as a female and chose to continue this way, oestrogen replacement therapy would be appropriate. Surgical management may be necessary if the patient has undescended testes, but in this case, orchidectomy is not indicated as the patient has small testes in the scrotum. While psychological counselling is always necessary, it is not the first line of treatment. Overall, the management of Reifenstein syndrome involves a combination of hormonal and surgical options tailored to the individual patient’s needs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 19 - A 32-year-old woman visits her GP with complaints of palpitations, tremors, sweating, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman visits her GP with complaints of palpitations, tremors, sweating, and diarrhoea. She has a medical history of gestational hypertension and type 1 diabetes, which is managed with insulin. The patient gave birth to her first child 8 weeks ago without any complications.

      Upon examination, the patient is alert and oriented. Her vital signs are as follows: heart rate of 109 bpm, respiratory rate of 19 breaths/minute, temperature of 37.7ºC, oxygen saturation of 98%, blood pressure of 129/88 mmHg, and blood glucose of 4 mmol/L.

      What is the most likely diagnosis, and what is the appropriate treatment?

      Your Answer: Carbimazole

      Correct Answer: Propranolol

      Explanation:

      The recommended treatment for the thyrotoxicosis phase of postpartum thyroiditis is typically propranolol alone. This is because the condition is usually temporary and self-resolving, with thyroid function returning to normal within a year after childbirth. Carbimazole is not necessary as it is typically reserved for more severe cases of hyperthyroidism. Dexamethasone is not appropriate as it is used to treat thyroid storm, a complication of thyrotoxicosis that is not present in this case. Levothyroxine is also not indicated as it is used to treat hypothyroidism, which is the opposite of the patient’s current condition.

      Understanding Postpartum Thyroiditis: Stages and Management

      Postpartum thyroiditis is a condition that affects some women after giving birth. It is characterized by three stages: thyrotoxicosis, hypothyroidism, and normal thyroid function. During the thyrotoxicosis phase, the thyroid gland becomes overactive, leading to symptoms such as anxiety, palpitations, and weight loss. In the hypothyroidism phase, the thyroid gland becomes underactive, causing symptoms such as fatigue, weight gain, and depression. However, in the final stage, the thyroid gland returns to normal function, although there is a high recurrence rate in future pregnancies.

      Thyroid peroxidase antibodies are found in 90% of patients with postpartum thyroiditis, which suggests an autoimmune component to the condition. Management of postpartum thyroiditis depends on the stage of the condition. During the thyrotoxic phase, symptom control is the main focus, and propranolol is typically used. Antithyroid drugs are not usually used as the thyroid gland is not overactive. In the hypothyroid phase, treatment with thyroxine is usually necessary to restore normal thyroid function.

      It is important to note that many causes of hypothyroidism may have an initial thyrotoxic phase, as shown in a Venn diagram. Therefore, it is crucial to properly diagnose and manage postpartum thyroiditis to ensure the best possible outcomes for both the mother and the baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 20 - A teenager comes to see you in general practice with a swelling in...

    Correct

    • A teenager comes to see you in general practice with a swelling in the region of their throat. They are worried because they have read about an extremely invasive cancer which is difficult to treat.
      Which of the following is the patient referring to?

      Your Answer: Anaplastic thyroid cancer

      Explanation:

      Types of Thyroid Cancer and Their Prognosis

      Thyroid cancer is a type of cancer that affects the thyroid gland, a small butterfly-shaped gland located in the neck. There are different types of thyroid cancer, each with its own characteristics and prognosis.

      Anaplastic thyroid cancer is a rare but aggressive form of thyroid cancer that mostly affects the elderly. It presents as a hard mass within the thyroid and is responsible for a significant number of deaths from thyroid cancer.

      Follicular thyroid cancer is the second most common type of thyroid cancer. Although it is more aggressive than papillary thyroid cancer, it still has a good prognosis.

      Medullary thyroid cancer originates from the thyroid C cells and is associated with multiple endocrine neoplasia syndromes. Early diagnosis and treatment can improve the prognosis.

      Thyroid lymphoma is a rare form of lymphoma that affects the thyroid gland. It has a good prognosis with proper treatment.

      Papillary thyroid cancer is the most common type of thyroid cancer, occurring mostly in people between the ages of 25 and 50. It presents as an irregular mass arising from a normal thyroid and has a good prognosis.

      In summary, understanding the different types of thyroid cancer and their prognosis can help with early detection and treatment, leading to better outcomes for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 21 - What is the underlying cause of primary hyperthyroidism associated with Graves' disease? ...

    Correct

    • What is the underlying cause of primary hyperthyroidism associated with Graves' disease?

      Your Answer: Anti-TSH receptor antibodies

      Explanation:

      Graves’ Disease

      Graves’ disease is a medical condition that is characterized by the presence of anti-TSH receptor antibodies that stimulate the thyroid gland. This results in hyperthyroidism and a diffusely enlarged thyroid gland, also known as a goitre. Patients with Graves’ disease may also experience other symptoms such as exophthalmos, which is the protrusion of the eyes, lid retraction, lid lag, and ophthalmoplegia.

      It is important to note that Graves’ disease is often associated with other autoimmune diseases such as vitiligo, Addison’s disease, and type 1 diabetes. This means that patients with Graves’ disease may be at a higher risk of developing these conditions as well.

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  • Question 22 - A 15-year-old boy was diagnosed with Reifenstein syndrome. He had hypospadias, micropenis and...

    Correct

    • A 15-year-old boy was diagnosed with Reifenstein syndrome. He had hypospadias, micropenis and small testes in the scrotum.
      What would be the next course of treatment?

      Your Answer: Testosterone replacement

      Explanation:

      Management of Reifenstein Syndrome: Hormonal and Surgical Options

      Reifenstein syndrome is a rare X-linked genetic disease that results in partial androgen insensitivity. In phenotypic males with this condition, testosterone replacement therapy is recommended to increase the chances of fertility. However, if the patient had been raised as a female and chose to continue this way, oestrogen replacement therapy would be appropriate. Surgical management may be necessary if the patient has undescended testes, but in this case, orchidectomy is not indicated as the patient has small testes in the scrotum. While psychological counselling is always necessary, it is not the first line of treatment. Overall, the management of Reifenstein syndrome involves a combination of hormonal and surgical options tailored to the individual patient’s needs.

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      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 23 - A 42-year-old obese woman, with a history of type II diabetes mellitus, complains...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old obese woman, with a history of type II diabetes mellitus, complains of weight gain during the past 3 years, despite her adherence to a balanced diet. She has diffuse skeletal pain. She is not married and does not have a sexual partner. Her family history is unremarkable. Her blood pressure is 160/105 mmHg. Her face is plethoric and round and she has hypertrichosis of the upper lip (hirsutism). There are purple striae on the abdomen and thigh, and mild wasting of the upper and lower limb muscles. Her full blood count shows a slight increase in the polymorphonuclear leukocyte count, without a left shift. Her haemoglobin is 180 (115–155 g/l).
      Which of the following changes in serum calcium, phosphate and parathyroid hormone concentrations would you expect to find in this patient?

      Your Answer: Calcium, phosphate and parathyroid normal

      Correct Answer: Calcium - decreased; phosphate - decreased; parathyroid hormone - increased

      Explanation:

      Interpreting Calcium, Phosphate, and Parathyroid Hormone Levels in a Patient with Prolonged Hypercortisolism

      A patient presents with diffuse bone pain and laboratory results show decreased calcium and phosphate levels, along with increased parathyroid hormone levels. This is indicative of secondary hyperparathyroidism, which is a common complication of hypercortisolism. Elevated serum cortisol levels can lead to hypocalcaemia and secondary hyperparathyroidism, causing increased osteoclast activity and osteoblast dysfunction, ultimately resulting in osteoporosis and pathological fractures.

      If the patient had increased phosphate levels instead of decreased levels, it would suggest renal impairment. If the patient had increased calcium levels and decreased phosphate levels, it would suggest primary hyperparathyroidism. If the patient had decreased calcium levels and increased phosphate levels, it would suggest hypoparathyroidism. If all levels were normal, it may be too early in the course of hypercortisolism to see changes in these markers.

      In summary, interpreting calcium, phosphate, and parathyroid hormone levels can provide valuable information in diagnosing and managing complications of hypercortisolism.

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  • Question 24 - A 50-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of gynaecomastia. He is currently...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of gynaecomastia. He is currently undergoing treatment for heart failure and gastro-oesophageal reflux. Which medication that he is taking is the most probable cause of his gynaecomastia?

      Your Answer: Spironolactone

      Explanation:

      Medications Associated with Gynaecomastia

      Gynaecomastia, the enlargement of male breast tissue, can be caused by various medications. Spironolactone, ciclosporin, cimetidine, and omeprazole are some of the drugs that have been associated with this condition. Ramipril has also been linked to gynaecomastia, but it is a rare occurrence.

      Aside from these medications, other drugs that can cause gynaecomastia include digoxin, LHRH analogues, cimetidine, and finasteride. It is important to note that not all individuals who take these medications will develop gynaecomastia, and the risk may vary depending on the dosage and duration of treatment.

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  • Question 25 - A 38-year-old woman comes to you with a swollen neck and upon examination,...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old woman comes to you with a swollen neck and upon examination, you find an unusual neck mass that raises suspicion of thyroid cancer. You arrange for a fine-needle aspiration and a histology report from a thyroid lobectomy reveals chromatin clearing, nuclear shape alteration, and irregularity of the nuclear membrane. There is no evidence of C cell differentiation, and the patient has no family history of cancer. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Anaplastic carcinoma of the thyroid

      Correct Answer: Papillary carcinoma of the thyroid

      Explanation:

      Thyroid cancer can take different forms, with papillary carcinoma being the most common and typically affecting women between 35 and 40 years old. This type of cancer has a good long-term prognosis. Medullary carcinoma arises from C cells that produce calcitonin and CEA, and can be sporadic or associated with a genetic syndrome. Follicular carcinoma is difficult to diagnose through FNA and requires a full histological specimen to confirm, with distinguishing features being vascular and capsule invasion. Anaplastic carcinoma is the most aggressive thyroid tumor, typically affecting older individuals and lacking biological features of the original thyroid cells. Thyroid lymphomas are rare and typically affect women over 50 with Hashimoto’s thyroiditis.

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  • Question 26 - A 55-year-old woman visits her GP with concerns about her susceptibility to osteoporosis....

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old woman visits her GP with concerns about her susceptibility to osteoporosis. She underwent a hysterectomy and oophorectomy due to uterine fibroids five years ago, which resulted in mild hot flashes that have since subsided. The patient is anxious about the possibility of fractures after her mother broke her hip at the age of 72. She inquires about osteoporosis medications. Her BMI is 17.3 kg/m2, and her T score is <−2.5. She was on Depo-Provera from the age of 39 to 45, during which time she experienced amenorrhea. The physical examination, including breast examination, is normal. What would you suggest to her?

      Your Answer: Bisphosphonate

      Explanation:

      Treatment for Osteoporosis in a High-Risk Patient

      Osteoporosis is a condition characterized by low bone density and increased risk of fractures. This condition is more common in women, especially those with a low body mass index (BMI), a positive family history, and those who have undergone oophorectomy. In this case, the patient has multiple risk factors for osteoporosis, but she no longer experiences menopausal symptoms.

      To diagnose severe osteoporosis, a T score of <−2.5 SD is required, along with one or more fragility fractures. In this patient's case, the most appropriate therapy would be a bisphosphonate. This medication helps to increase bone density and reduce the risk of fractures. It is important to note that bisphosphonates have potential side effects, such as gastrointestinal upset and osteonecrosis of the jaw, but the benefits generally outweigh the risks. In summary, this patient’s high-risk factors for osteoporosis make her a candidate for treatment with a bisphosphonate. It is important to discuss the potential benefits and risks of this medication with the patient before starting treatment.

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  • Question 27 - A 31-year-old woman presents with amenorrhoea and periodic breast discharge. She has never...

    Correct

    • A 31-year-old woman presents with amenorrhoea and periodic breast discharge. She has never been pregnant and has not been sexually active for the past 2 years. She is not on any regular medications and has had regular menstrual cycles in the past. On breast examination, there are no abnormalities and she has normal secondary sexual characteristics.
      What is the most suitable initial investigation for this patient?

      Your Answer: Prolactin level

      Explanation:

      Investigating Hyperprolactinaemia: Tests and Imaging

      Hyperprolactinaemia is a condition characterized by elevated levels of prolactin, commonly caused by a microadenoma in the pituitary gland. While no single test can determine the cause of hyperprolactinaemia, a prolactinoma is likely if the prolactin level is above 250 ng/ml. FSH levels may be low due to the inhibitory effect of raised prolactin, but this is not diagnostic. A skull X-ray may show an enlarged pituitary fossa, but only with large adenomas, making it an inappropriate investigation. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is preferable to CT for further investigation into the cause of hyperprolactinaemia. Additionally, thyroid function tests may be necessary to investigate mildly raised prolactin levels in the absence of pituitary pathology.

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      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 28 - A 40-year-old man comes to his GP with a painless neck lump. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old man comes to his GP with a painless neck lump. He has a history of hyperparathyroidism. During the examination, the lump is found to be irregular and fixed at his thyroid. He is worried about cancer, as his father died in his 50s due to a phaeochromocytoma. What type of thyroid cancer is most likely in this patient?

      Your Answer: Follicular

      Correct Answer: Medullary

      Explanation:

      Understanding Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia Type 2 and its Associated Neoplasms

      Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia (MEN) is a genetic disorder that affects the endocrine system. There are three types of MEN, namely MEN1, MEN2a, and MEN2b. Each type is associated with specific neoplasms. MEN1 is associated with pituitary, parathyroid, and pancreatic tumors, while MEN2a is associated with phaeochromocytoma, parathyroid, and medullary thyroid cancer. MEN2b, on the other hand, is associated with phaeochromocytoma, medullary thyroid cancer, and marfanoid habitus/mucosal neuromas.

      Medullary thyroid cancer is a neoplasm associated with both MEN2a and MEN2b. Patients with a family history of phaeochromocytoma, previous hyperparathyroidism, and suspected thyroid cancer are at high risk of having MEN2. However, lymphoma, anaplastic thyroid cancer, follicular thyroid cancer, and papillary thyroid cancer are not associated with MEN2.

      Understanding the different types of MEN and their associated neoplasms is crucial in the diagnosis and management of patients with endocrine disorders. Early detection and treatment can improve the prognosis and quality of life of affected individuals.

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  • Question 29 - A 50-year-old woman comes to you with a thyroid lump and you suspect...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman comes to you with a thyroid lump and you suspect she may have follicular carcinoma of the thyroid. What is the most appropriate course of action in this scenario?

      Your Answer: The prognosis is poor even if cancer is confined to the gland

      Correct Answer: Spreads mainly via blood

      Explanation:

      Thyroid Carcinoma: Diagnosis and Management

      Thyroid carcinoma is a type of cancer that affects the thyroid gland. There are different types of thyroid carcinoma, including follicular, papillary, anaplastic, and medullary carcinomas. The spread of the cancer varies depending on the type of carcinoma.

      Follicular carcinoma spreads mainly via the bloodstream, while papillary and medullary carcinomas spread via the lymphatic system. Anaplastic cancer spreads locally. The prognosis for thyroid carcinoma is generally good, with a 90% survival rate at 10 years, especially in young people without local or metastatic spread.

      The initial treatment for differentiated thyroid carcinoma, such as follicular and papillary carcinomas, is total or near-total thyroidectomy. Fine needle aspiration cytology can help differentiate between follicular adenoma and carcinoma, but a thyroid lobectomy is often necessary to confirm the diagnosis. The distinguishing features of follicular carcinoma are vascular invasion and capsule invasion, which can only be seen accurately on a full histological specimen.

      Solitary thyroid nodules are best investigated using a combination of clinical examination, thyroid function tests, ultrasound and radio-isotope scans, and often FNA. Thyroid tumours can be classified as adenomas, carcinomas, and lymphomas. Carcinomas can be further sub-classified as papillary, follicular, anaplastic, or medullary.

      In conclusion, the diagnosis and management of thyroid carcinoma require a multidisciplinary approach. Early detection and treatment can lead to a good prognosis, but accurate diagnosis is crucial for effective management.

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  • Question 30 - In addition to its effects on bone, PTH primarily acts on which organ?...

    Correct

    • In addition to its effects on bone, PTH primarily acts on which organ?

      Your Answer: Kidney

      Explanation:

      The Effects of PTH on Bone and Kidney

      Parathyroid hormone (PTH) has two main targets in the body: the bone and the kidney. Its primary goal in the bone is to increase calcium levels by stimulating the activity of osteoclasts, which break down bone tissue to release calcium into the bloodstream. In the kidney, PTH has a different effect. It increases the reabsorption of calcium and decreases the absorption of phosphate, which helps to maintain the balance of these minerals in the body. Additionally, PTH stimulates the production of 1-alpha hydroxylation of vitamin D in the kidney, which is important for calcium absorption and bone health. Overall, PTH plays a crucial role in regulating calcium and phosphate levels in the body, and its effects on bone and kidney function are essential for maintaining healthy bones and overall health.

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  • Question 31 - A 38-year-old woman comes to her doctor with concerns about weight gain and...

    Correct

    • A 38-year-old woman comes to her doctor with concerns about weight gain and irregular periods. She reports feeling fatigued and sad. There are several purple stretch marks on her stomach and bruises on her legs. Blood tests show normal thyroid hormone levels and an elevated amount of cortisol being produced. If this patient has adrenal hyperactivity, what other symptoms might she experience?

      Your Answer: Hirsutism

      Explanation:

      Effects of Cortisol on the Body: Misconceptions and Clarifications

      Cortisol, a hormone produced by the adrenal glands, plays a crucial role in regulating various bodily functions. However, there are some misconceptions about the effects of cortisol on the body. Here are some clarifications:

      Hirsutism: Elevated cortisol levels can cause a condition called Cushingoid, which may result in hirsutism in women. This is characterized by excessive hair growth in areas such as the face, chest, and back.

      Hypoglycemia: Contrary to popular belief, cortisol does not cause hypoglycemia. Instead, it increases gluconeogenesis (the production of glucose from non-carbohydrate sources) and reduces glucose uptake in peripheral tissues, resulting in hyperglycemia.

      Enhanced glucose uptake: Cortisol actually has the opposite effect on glucose uptake. It reduces the uptake of glucose into peripheral tissues and accelerates gluconeogenesis.

      Hypotension: Patients with adrenal hyperfunction (excessive cortisol production) often suffer from hypertension (high blood pressure), not hypotension (low blood pressure). This is because excessive mineralocorticoids are released, which can cause fluid retention and increase blood pressure.

      Hypocalciuria: Cortisol can lead to osteopenia and osteoporosis by increasing bone breakdown. This may result in hypercalcemia (high levels of calcium in the blood), which can cause hypercalciuria (excessive calcium in the urine), not hypocalciuria.

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  • Question 32 - A 30-year-old female patient complains of anxiety and weight loss. During the examination,...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old female patient complains of anxiety and weight loss. During the examination, a fine tremor of the outstretched hands, lid lag, and a moderate goitre with a bruit are observed. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Graves' disease

      Explanation:

      Thyroid Disorders and their Differentiation

      Thyroid disorders are a common occurrence, and their diagnosis is crucial for effective treatment. One such disorder is Graves’ disease, which is characterized by a goitre with a bruit. Unlike MNG, Graves’ disease is associated with angiogenesis and thyroid follicular hypertrophy. Other signs of Graves’ disease include eye signs such as conjunctival oedema, exophthalmos, and proptosis. Additionally, pretibial myxoedema is a dermatological manifestation of this disease.

      De Quervain’s thyroiditis is another thyroid disorder that follows a viral infection and is characterized by painful thyroiditis. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis, on the other hand, is a chronic autoimmune degradation of the thyroid. Multinodular goitre (MNG) is the most common form of thyroid disorder, leading to the formation of multiple nodules over the gland. Lastly, a toxic thyroid nodule is a solitary lesion on the thyroid that produces excess thyroxine.

      In conclusion, the different types of thyroid disorders and their symptoms is crucial for accurate diagnosis and effective treatment.

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  • Question 33 - A 32-year-old woman reports to her community midwife with complaints of failure to...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman reports to her community midwife with complaints of failure to lactate, lethargy, dizziness upon standing, and weight loss after a difficult childbirth complicated by placental abruption. What blood test results are expected?

      Your Answer: Decreased cortisol; increased aldosterone

      Correct Answer: Decreased cortisol; normal aldosterone

      Explanation:

      Interpreting Cortisol and Aldosterone Levels in Sheehan’s Syndrome

      Sheehan’s syndrome is a condition that results in hypopituitarism, causing reduced adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) production and secondary adrenal insufficiency. This can lead to postural hypotension and reduced cortisol levels, while aldosterone levels remain normal as they are not dependent on pituitary function.

      An increased cortisol level with decreased aldosterone would be an unusual result and does not fit the clinical picture of hypocortisolism. Similarly, an increased cortisol level with increased aldosterone may occur in rare cases of adrenal adenoma but does not fit the clinical picture of Sheehan’s syndrome.

      A decreased cortisol level with decreased aldosterone would be true in primary adrenal insufficiency, which is not the case in Sheehan’s syndrome. Finally, a decreased cortisol level with increased aldosterone would also be an unusual result as aldosterone levels are not affected in Sheehan’s syndrome.

      Therefore, when interpreting cortisol and aldosterone levels in a patient with Sheehan’s syndrome, a decreased cortisol level with normal aldosterone is expected.

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  • Question 34 - A 28-year-old woman visited her GP with complaints of low mood, weight gain,...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman visited her GP with complaints of low mood, weight gain, and irregular menstrual cycles. The GP conducted some tests and referred her to the hospital. The results of the investigations are as follows:
      - Sodium: 150 mmol/l (normal value: 135-145 mmol/l)
      - Potassium: 2.5 mmol/l (normal value: 3.5-5.0 mmol/l)
      - Fasting blood glucose: 7.7 mmol/l (normal value: <7 mmol/l)
      - 24-hour urinary cortisol excretion: 840 nmol/24 h
      - Plasma ACTH (0900 h): 132 ng/l (normal value: 0-50 ng/l)
      - Dexamethasone suppression test:
      - 0800 h serum cortisol after dexamethasone 0.5 mg/6 h orally (po) for two days: 880 nmol/l (<50 nmol/l).
      - 0800 h serum cortisol after dexamethasone 2 mg/6 h PO for two days: 875 nmol/l (<50 nmol/l).

      What is the most likely diagnosis for this 28-year-old woman?

      Your Answer: Cushing’s disease

      Correct Answer: Paraneoplastic syndrome secondary to small cell carcinoma of the lung

      Explanation:

      Paraneoplastic Syndrome Secondary to Small Cell Carcinoma of the Lung Causing Cushing Syndrome

      Cushing syndrome is a clinical state resulting from chronic glucocorticoid excess and lack of normal feedback mechanisms of the hypothalamo-pituitary-adrenal axis. While Cushing’s disease, paraneoplastic syndrome secondary to small cell carcinoma of the lung, and adrenocortical tumor are specific conditions resulting in Cushing syndrome, this patient’s symptoms are caused by paraneoplastic syndrome secondary to small cell carcinoma of the lung.

      In some cases of small cell carcinoma of the lung, ectopic adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) production occurs, leading to elevated plasma ACTH and cortisol levels. The mineralocorticoid activity of cortisol results in sodium retention and potassium excretion, leading to glucose intolerance and hyperglycemia. The differentiation between Cushing’s disease and ectopic ACTH secretion is made by carrying out low- and high-dose dexamethasone suppression tests. In cases of ectopic ACTH secretion, there is usually no response to dexamethasone, as pituitary ACTH secretion is already maximally suppressed by high plasma cortisol levels.

      The absence of response to dexamethasone suggests an ectopic source of ACTH production, rather than Cushing’s disease. Other differential diagnoses for Cushing syndrome include adrenal neoplasia, Conn’s syndrome, and premature menopause. However, in this case, the blood test results suggest ectopic production of ACTH, indicating paraneoplastic syndrome secondary to small cell lung carcinoma as the most likely cause.

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  • Question 35 - These results were obtained on a 30-year-old male who has presented with tiredness:
    Free...

    Correct

    • These results were obtained on a 30-year-old male who has presented with tiredness:
      Free T4 9.3 pmol/L (9.8-23.1)
      TSH 49.31 mU/L (0.35-5.50)
      What signs might be expected in this case?

      Your Answer: Slow relaxation of biceps reflex

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis and Symptoms of Hypothyroidism

      Hypothyroidism is diagnosed through blood tests that show low levels of T4 and elevated levels of TSH. Physical examination may reveal slow relaxation of tendon jerks, bradycardia, and goitre. A bruit over a goitre is associated with Graves’ thyrotoxicosis, while palmar erythema and fine tremor occur in thyrotoxicosis. In addition to these common symptoms, hypothyroidism may also present with rarer features such as cerebellar features, compression neuropathies, hypothermia, and macrocytic anaemia. It is important to diagnose and treat hypothyroidism promptly to prevent further complications.

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  • Question 36 - A patient with lipoprotein lipase deficiency visits his General Practitioner (GP) for his...

    Incorrect

    • A patient with lipoprotein lipase deficiency visits his General Practitioner (GP) for his regular blood test.
      Which of the following results would you expect?

      Your Answer: Elevated levels of low-density lipoprotein (LDL) and no other changes

      Correct Answer: Elevated levels of both chylomicrons and VLDLs

      Explanation:

      Understanding Lipoprotein Lipase and its Effects on Lipid Levels

      Lipoprotein lipase plays a crucial role in the metabolism of lipids in the body. Its deficiency can result in various lipid abnormalities, which can be classified according to the Fredrickson classification of hyperlipoproteinaemias. Familial hyperchylomicronaemia, a type I primary hyperlipidaemia, is characterized by elevated levels of both chylomicrons and VLDLs due to lipoprotein lipase deficiency. On the other hand, lipoprotein lipase is not directly involved in LDL levels, which are influenced by LDL-receptor and lipoprotein lipase C. Similarly, low VLDL levels are not expected in the absence of lipoprotein lipase, as it is important in hydrolysing both chylomicrons and VLDLs. Overall, understanding the role of lipoprotein lipase can help in identifying and managing lipid abnormalities.

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  • Question 37 - A 63-year-old, non-smoking woman without previous cardiac history, has a total cholesterol of...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old, non-smoking woman without previous cardiac history, has a total cholesterol of 9.0 mmol/l. She is overweight and has sleep apnoea. On examination you notice her skin is particularly dry and there appears to be some evidence of hair loss. Her blood pressure is 140/95 mmHg and pulse rate 60 bpm.
      What would be the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Measure her 24-hour urinary free cortisol

      Correct Answer: Check her thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) and free thyroxine (T4) level

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic and Treatment Options for a Patient with High Cholesterol

      When a patient presents with symptoms such as dry skin, hair loss, obesity, sleep apnea, hypertension, and slow pulse, it is important to consider hypothyroidism as a possible cause. To confirm this diagnosis, checking the patient’s thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) and free thyroxine (T4) levels is recommended. Hypothyroidism can also cause dyslipidemia, which may be the underlying cause of the patient’s high cholesterol levels. Therefore, treating the hypothyroidism should be the initial step, and if cholesterol levels remain high, prescribing a statin may be appropriate.

      It is also important to consider the possibility of familial hypercholesterolemia, especially if the patient’s cholesterol levels are very high (≥8 mmol/l). In this case, screening family members for raised cholesterol may be necessary if cholesterol levels do not decrease with l-thyroxine treatment.

      While diabetes can increase the risk of thyroid disorders, checking the patient’s fasting blood glucose level may not be necessary initially. Additionally, measuring 24-hour urinary free cortisol is not recommended as the patient’s symptoms do not suggest Cushing syndrome as the diagnosis.

      In summary, considering hypothyroidism as a possible cause of high cholesterol levels and checking TSH and T4 levels should be the initial step in diagnosis. Treating the underlying cause and prescribing a statin if necessary can help manage the patient’s cholesterol levels. Screening family members for familial hypercholesterolemia may also be necessary.

      Diagnostic and Treatment Options for High Cholesterol in Patients with Suspected Hypothyroidism

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  • Question 38 - An investigator intended to test the antiglycaemic action of a new drug, which...

    Correct

    • An investigator intended to test the antiglycaemic action of a new drug, which acts by increasing the peripheral uptake of glucose and reduces postprandial glucose level. He noted that in the elderly control group, subjects receiving an oral glucose load have higher postprandial insulin concentrations and more rapid glucose clearance, compared to subjects receiving isoglycaemic intravenous glucose infusion.
      Which of the following is the most likely mediator of this effect?

      Your Answer: Glucagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1)

      Explanation:

      Gastrointestinal Hormones and their Functions

      The gastrointestinal tract secretes various hormones that play important roles in digestion and metabolism. One such hormone is glucagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1), which is an incretin hormone that enhances insulin secretion in response to oral glucose intake. On the other hand, cholecystokinin induces gallbladder contraction and bile release, while secretin increases pancreatic and biliary bicarbonate secretion and reduces gastric acid secretion. Gastrin, on the other hand, stimulates gastric acid secretion. Lastly, somatostatin inhibits the secretion of gastric acid and other gastrointestinal hormones. Understanding the functions of these hormones is crucial in maintaining a healthy digestive system.

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  • Question 39 - A 26-year-old man with a 10-year history of type I diabetes presents with...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old man with a 10-year history of type I diabetes presents with a 1-day history of vomiting and a 4-day history of myalgia and sore throat. He appears dehydrated, BP 120/74 mmHg, pulse 101 bpm, temperature 37.9 °C, oxygen saturation 97% on room air. There is mild erythema in his throat and nil else to find on clinical examination. The following are his laboratory investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      pH 7.12 7.35–7.45
      Ketones 5 mmol/l <0.6
      Glucose 32 mmol/l 4–10 mmol/l
      Potassium 4.2 mmol/l 3.5–5 mmol/l
      Bicarbonate 10 mmol/l 24–30 mmol/l
      Base excess -5 mEq/l −2 to +2 mEg/l
      C-reactive protein (CRP) 22 mg/l 0–10 mg/l
      White Cell Count (WCC) 12.7 × 109/l 4-11
      Which of the following initial treatment plans should be commenced?

      Your Answer: IV insulin, IV fluids, potassium supplementation

      Explanation:

      Management of Diabetic Ketoacidosis

      Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a serious complication of diabetes that requires prompt management. The initial stages of DKA should involve the administration of IV insulin, IV fluids, and potassium supplementation. If the patient’s systolic blood pressure is below 90 mmHg, 500 ml of IV sodium chloride 0.9% should be given over 10-15 minutes, with repeat doses if necessary. Once blood pressure is over 90 mmHg, sodium chloride 0.9% should be given by intravenous infusion at a rate that replaces the deficit and provides maintenance. Potassium chloride should be included in the fluids, unless anuria is suspected or potassium levels are above 5.5 mmol/l. IV insulin should be infused at a fixed rate of 0.1 units/kg/hour, diluted with sodium chloride 0.9% to a concentration of 1 unit/ml.

      If there are no signs of bacterial infection, antibiotics may not be necessary. In cases where there are symptoms of viral infection, such as a red sore throat and myalgia, IV antibiotics may not be required. Subcutaneous rapid-acting insulin should not be used, as IV insulin is more effective in rapidly treating hyperglycemia and can be titrated as needed on an hourly basis. Oral antibiotics may be considered if there are signs of bacterial infection.

      In cases where the patient has established diabetes, long-acting insulin should be continued even if on IV insulin. Once blood glucose levels fall below 14 mmol/litre, glucose 10% should be given by intravenous infusion at a rate of 125 ml/hour, in addition to the sodium chloride 0.9% infusion. Glucose levels of 32 require the use of saline with potassium initially. Overall, prompt and appropriate management of DKA is crucial in preventing serious complications and improving patient outcomes.

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  • Question 40 - A 35-year-old diabetic is discovered in an unconscious state and is transported to...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old diabetic is discovered in an unconscious state and is transported to the Emergency Department. Upon admission, the patient's body mass index (BMI) is measured at 26 kg/m2, and a diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is established.
      Regarding diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), which of the following statements is accurate?

      Your Answer: Hypokalaemia is common at presentation

      Correct Answer: Patients with DKA are at high risk of thromboembolism

      Explanation:

      Understanding Diabetic Ketoacidosis: Myths and Facts

      Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a serious complication of diabetes that can lead to life-threatening consequences. However, there are several myths and misconceptions surrounding this condition. Here are some important facts to help you better understand DKA:

      Patients with DKA are at high risk of thromboembolism: Patients with DKA are at an increased risk of developing venous thromboembolism (VTE), especially in the pediatric age group and in patients with type-1 diabetes. Low-molecular-weight heparin is recommended to prevent this risk.

      DKA can be treated with oral hypoglycemics: This is a myth. Oral hypoglycemics are ineffective in managing DKA as the underlying cause is an imbalance between insulin and other regulatory hormones.

      Respiratory acidosis is typical: Metabolic acidosis occurs in DKA, and patients may develop a compensatory respiratory alkalosis (Kussmaul respiration).

      Hypokalemia is common at presentation: There is a risk of developing hypokalemia during admission due to insulin administration, but potassium levels are usually normal or high on admission.

      It often occurs in type II diabetes: This is a myth. DKA usually occurs in people with type I diabetes as it is related to low insulin levels, which leads to ketogenesis.

      Understanding these facts about DKA can help in its early recognition and prompt management, leading to better outcomes for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 41 - What is the probable diagnosis for a 15-year-old girl who experiences recurring pelvic...

    Incorrect

    • What is the probable diagnosis for a 15-year-old girl who experiences recurring pelvic pain but has not yet begun menstruating?

      Your Answer: Anovulatory cycles

      Correct Answer: Haematocolpos

      Explanation:

      Haematocolpos: A Condition of Blood Accumulation in the Vagina

      Haematocolpos is a medical condition characterized by the accumulation of blood in the vagina. This condition is usually caused by an imperforate hymen, which prevents menstrual blood from flowing out of the body. As a result, the blood accumulates in the vagina, leading to discomfort and pain. Haematocolpos is a rare condition that affects mostly young girls who have not yet started menstruating. It can also occur in women who have undergone surgery to remove the cervix or uterus. Treatment for haematocolpos usually involves surgical intervention to remove the blockage and allow the blood to flow out of the body. With prompt diagnosis and treatment, most women with haematocolpos can recover fully and resume their normal activities.

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      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 42 - A 65-year-old male with a diagnosis of lung cancer presents with fatigue and...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old male with a diagnosis of lung cancer presents with fatigue and lightheadedness. Upon examination, the following results are obtained:

      Plasma sodium concentration 115 mmol/L (137-144)
      Potassium 3.5 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)
      Urea 3.2 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
      Creatinine 67 µmol/L (60-110)

      What is the probable reason for his symptoms based on these findings?

      Your Answer: Syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion

      Explanation:

      Syndrome of Inappropriate ADH Secretion

      Syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion (SIADH) is a condition characterized by low levels of sodium in the blood. This is caused by the overproduction of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) by the posterior pituitary gland. Tumors such as bronchial carcinoma can cause the ectopic elaboration of ADH, leading to dilutional hyponatremia. The diagnosis of SIADH is one of exclusion, but it can be supported by a high urine sodium concentration with high urine osmolality.

      Hypoadrenalism is less likely to cause hyponatremia, as it is usually associated with hyperkalemia and mild hyperuricemia. On the other hand, diabetes insipidus is a condition where the kidneys are unable to reabsorb water, leading to excessive thirst and urination.

      It is important to diagnose and treat SIADH promptly to prevent complications such as seizures, coma, and even death. Treatment options include fluid restriction, medications to block the effects of ADH, and addressing the underlying cause of the condition.

      In conclusion, SIADH is a condition that can cause low levels of sodium in the blood due to the overproduction of ADH. It is important to differentiate it from other conditions that can cause hyponatremia and to treat it promptly to prevent complications.

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      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 43 - A 14-year-old boy presents with bilateral gynaecomastia. He stands at a height of...

    Correct

    • A 14-year-old boy presents with bilateral gynaecomastia. He stands at a height of 150 cm and weighs 60 kg, which is at the 50th centile. His sexual maturity rating is stage 2. What is the most probable cause of his gynaecomastia?

      Your Answer: Pubertal gynaecomastia

      Explanation:

      Pubertal Gynaecomastia in Young Boys

      Pubertal gynaecomastia is a common occurrence in young boys, with unilateral disease being more prevalent than bilateral. However, it typically disappears within two years. While prolactinomas can cause gynaecomastia, they are not the most likely cause and are rare in this age group. It is important to note that the height and weight of the child are within normal range.

      Overall, pubertal gynaecomastia is a temporary condition that affects many young boys during puberty. While it can be concerning for parents and children, it is typically not a cause for alarm and will resolve on its own. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider to rule out any underlying medical conditions, but in most cases, no treatment is necessary.

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      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 44 - A 32-year-old woman who has three children presents to the general practice clinic...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman who has three children presents to the general practice clinic with complaints of feeling tired and overwhelmed. She had previously been prescribed citalopram for about 6 months after the birth of her first child. Her medical history includes the use of depo progesterone for contraception, which she believes is hindering her ability to lose weight. On examination, her BMI is 29 and her blood pressure is 142/72 mmHg. Laboratory tests reveal a slightly elevated TSH level of 4.5 µU/l. Based on these findings, what is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Subclinical hypothyroidism

      Explanation:

      Understanding Thyroid Function and Sub-Clinical Hypothyroidism

      Thyroid function can be assessed through the levels of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) and free T4 in the blood. Subclinical hypothyroidism is diagnosed when TSH is mildly elevated, while free T4 remains within the normal range. This indicates that the thyroid is working hard to produce even this amount of T4. Treatment with thyroxine replacement is debated and usually reserved for patients with symptoms and thyroid autoantibodies.

      Hypothyroidism is diagnosed when free T4 levels fall below the minimum range, while thyrotoxicosis is ruled out when free T4 is not raised and there are no symptoms. Depression may be a plausible diagnosis, but an elevated TSH level suggests otherwise. Sick euthyroid syndrome may occur in critically ill patients and involves abnormal levels of free T4 and T3 despite seemingly normal thyroid function.

      Overall, understanding thyroid function and sub-clinical hypothyroidism can help guide appropriate diagnosis and treatment decisions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 45 - A 42-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of gynaecomastia.

    What is the...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of gynaecomastia.

      What is the most probable reason for his gynaecomastia?

      Your Answer: Prolactinoma

      Correct Answer: Seminoma

      Explanation:

      The causes of Gynaecomastia are varied and can be indicative of underlying health issues. This condition is characterized by the enlargement of male breast tissue, which is caused by an imbalance in the testosterone to oestradiol ratio. It is important to note that hyperprolactinaemia and hypopituitarism do not affect this ratio and are not commonly associated with gynaecomastia.

      It is also important to note that hypothyroidism and CAH are not known to cause this condition. However, gynaecomastia can be a symptom of seminoma, a type of testicular cancer, due to the secretion of human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG). Therefore, seeking medical attention if gynaecomastia is present is crucial.

      Prolactinoma, on the other hand, is a benign tumour of the pituitary gland that is typically asymptomatic. It is not known to cause gynaecomastia, but it is important to monitor its growth and seek medical attention if any symptoms arise. Understanding the causes of gynaecomastia can help individuals identify potential health issues and seek appropriate treatment.

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      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 46 - You review a 56-year-old man who has type II diabetes. He is taking...

    Correct

    • You review a 56-year-old man who has type II diabetes. He is taking metformin 2 g per day and his HbA1c is 62 mmol/mol. You consider adding sitagliptin to his regime.
      Which of the following fits best with the mode of action of sitagliptin?

      Your Answer: It is an inhibitor of DPP-IV

      Explanation:

      Different Mechanisms of Action for Diabetes Medications

      Sitagliptin is a medication that inhibits dipeptidyl peptidase IV (DPP-IV), an enzyme responsible for breaking down glucagon-like peptide 1 (GLP-1). By inhibiting DPP-IV, sitagliptin promotes an increase in GLP-1 levels, which leads to a decrease in glucagon release and lower blood glucose levels.

      On the other hand, an increase in DPP-IV activity would promote glucagon release and inhibit insulin secretion, worsening hyperglycemia. This is why sitagliptin inhibition of DPP-IV is beneficial for managing diabetes.

      Pioglitazone, a thiazolidinedione medication, is a PPAR-gamma agonist. This means that it activates peroxisome proliferator-activated receptor gamma (PPAR-gamma), a protein that regulates glucose and lipid metabolism. By activating PPAR-gamma, pioglitazone increases insulin sensitivity and decreases insulin resistance, leading to lower blood glucose levels.

      Glucokinase activators are a type of medication that is currently undergoing trials for the management of type II diabetes. These medications activate glucokinase, an enzyme that plays a crucial role in glucose metabolism. By activating glucokinase, these medications increase glucose uptake and utilization, leading to lower blood glucose levels.

      In summary, different diabetes medications work through different mechanisms of action to manage blood glucose levels. Sitagliptin inhibits DPP-IV to increase GLP-1 levels, pioglitazone activates PPAR-gamma to increase insulin sensitivity, and glucokinase activators activate glucokinase to increase glucose uptake and utilization.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 47 - A 65-year-old woman is referred to the Diabetes Clinic with a new diagnosis...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman is referred to the Diabetes Clinic with a new diagnosis of type 2 diabetes mellitus. She has a body mass index (BMI) of 34 kg/m2. Her finger-prick blood glucose test is 9 mmol/l. She has a past history of ischaemic heart disease and chronic kidney disease. Her medications include ramipril 10 mg daily, atorvastatin 40 mg, aspirin 75 mg and bisoprolol 5 mg. Her laboratory test results are as follows:
      Investigation Result Normal range
      HbA1C 61 mmol/mol < 53 mmol/mol (<7.0%)
      Creatinine 178 µmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Glomerular filtration rate (GFR) 26 ml/min > 90 ml/min
      Which of the following drugs would be the most appropriate to manage this patient’s diabetes?

      Your Answer: Glargine insulin

      Correct Answer: Linagliptin

      Explanation:

      Common Anti-Diabetic Medications and Their Mechanisms of Action

      Linagliptin: This medication is a DPP-4 inhibitor that works by blocking the degradation of GLP-1, which increases insulin secretion and lowers blood sugar levels.

      Glargine insulin: Glargine is a long-acting insulin that is preferred for people needing baseline control of sugar throughout the day and those at risk of hypoglycaemia. It has a lower risk of causing hypoglycaemia compared to other insulin types and may cause weight gain.

      Rosiglitazone: This thiazolidinedione medication is an agonist for the peroxisome proliferator-activated receptors and is used for diabetes control. However, it can exacerbate heart conditions and cause weight gain, and is no longer recommended by BNF due to increased risk of heart attacks.

      Metformin: This biguanide medication is commonly used as first-line treatment for diabetes, but its use is limited by gastrointestinal upset and is contraindicated in patients with poor renal function and low GFR.

      Gliclazide: This sulfonylurea medication is an insulin secretagogue that stimulates the release of insulin. It is often used as a second-line medication, but its use is limited by the risk of hypoglycaemia and weight gain.

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      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 48 - A 28-year-old woman is being evaluated by her physician for potential issues in...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman is being evaluated by her physician for potential issues in her hypothalamic-pituitary-thyroid axis. The following findings were noted: TSH <0.1 mu/l (0.4-4.0 mu/l), fT4 32 pmol/l (9.0-26.0 pmol/l), fT3 12 pmol/l (3.0-9.0 pmol/l). What condition is indicated by these results?

      Your Answer: Graves’ disease

      Explanation:

      Thyroid Disorders: Causes and Effects

      Graves’ Disease: This condition is characterized by the presence of circulating thyroid hormones under the influence of thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH). The release of thyroid hormones in response to TRH causes TSH antibodies to bind to TSH receptors, leading to smooth thyroid enlargement and increased hormone production. This results in raised fT4 and fT3 levels, which act via negative feedback to reduce TSH release from the pituitary.

      Early Treatment of Hyperthyroidism: In the early stages of hyperthyroidism treatment, fT4 levels normalize while TSH remains low.

      Hashimoto’s Thyroiditis: This autoimmune condition is caused by autoantibodies to thyroid peroxidase and thyroglobulin, and sometimes TSH receptor-blocking antibodies. It results in goitre due to lymphocytic and plasma cell infiltration. It is common in women aged 60-70 years. Patients may be euthyroid or hypothyroid, and rarely, there is an initial period of hyperthyroidism (Hashitoxicosis).

      Post-Thyroidectomy: After a thyroidectomy, without replacement therapy, fT4 levels would be low and TSH raised.

      Sick Euthyroidism: Non-thyroidal illness causes a reduction in TSH, fT3, and fT4 levels, leading to sick euthyroidism.

      Understanding Thyroid Disorders and Their Effects

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      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 49 - A 52-year-old man comes to his General Practice for a routine check-up of...

    Correct

    • A 52-year-old man comes to his General Practice for a routine check-up of his type 2 diabetes. He was diagnosed with diabetes eight months ago and has been taking metformin 1 g twice daily. His BMI is 30 kg/m2. The results of his laboratory tests are as follows:
      Investigation Result Normal range
      HbA1C 62 mmol/mol < 53 mmol/mol (<7.0%)
      Creatinine 80 µmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Glomerular filtration rate (GFR) 92 ml/min > 90 ml/min
      What would be the most appropriate choice for managing this patient's diabetes?

      Your Answer: Dipeptidyl peptidase-4 (DPP4) inhibitor

      Explanation:

      Comparing Anti-Diabetic Medications: Choosing the Best Option for a Patient with High BMI

      When selecting an anti-diabetic medication for a patient with a high BMI, it is important to consider the potential for weight gain and hypoglycaemia. Here, we compare four options:

      1. Dipeptidyl peptidase-4 (DPP4) inhibitor: This medication sustains the release of insulin and lowers blood sugar levels without causing weight gain.

      2. Sulfonylurea: This medication stimulates the release of insulin and is often used as a second-line agent, but can cause weight gain.

      3. Acarbose: This medication does not significantly improve glucose control and can exacerbate gastrointestinal side-effects when used with metformin.

      4. Insulin basal bolus regimen and pre-mixed insulin 70:30: These options provide optimal glucose control but carry the risk of hypoglycaemia and weight gain.

      For this patient, a DPP4 inhibitor is the best option as it provides additional glucose control without causing weight gain. Sulfonylurea may also be considered, but the risk of weight gain should be monitored. Insulin regimens are not necessary at this time, but may be considered in the future if oral medications do not provide adequate control.

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      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 50 - A 50-year-old woman from the UK presents with lethargy, and dizziness when she...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman from the UK presents with lethargy, and dizziness when she gets out of bed in the mornings and stands from sitting. She has noticed that her appetite has been reduced for the last month but has not noticed any weight loss. On examination you notice that she has an area of hypopigmented skin on her back, but hyperpigmented skin around her mouth, and you suspect a diagnosis of Addison’s disease.
      What is the most common cause of Addison’s disease in the UK?

      Your Answer: Autoimmune destruction

      Explanation:

      Addison’s disease is most commonly caused by autoimmune destruction in the UK, accounting for up to 80% of cases. Therefore, it is crucial to screen individuals with Addison’s for other autoimmune conditions like thyroid diseases and diabetes. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia is a rare cause of Addison’s that typically presents in childhood with symptoms such as failure to thrive and grow. While tuberculosis is the most common cause of Addison’s worldwide, it is not the primary cause in the UK. Adrenal haemorrhage, which can result from severe bacterial infections like meningococcal, can also lead to Addison’s disease in a condition known as Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome. Finally, metastatic cancer is a rare but significant cause of addisonism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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Endocrinology (28/50) 56%
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