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Question 1
Correct
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A 32-year-old male presents to your clinic with an 8-hour history of a red and painful leg. He sustained a cut while jogging in the park. Upon examination, his left leg is warm and tender. You diagnose him with cellulitis and inquire about any allergies. He reports having a widespread rash to amoxicillin in the past. What antibiotic would you recommend?
Your Answer: Clarithromycin
Explanation:Patients who are allergic to penicillin and have cellulitis can receive clarithromycin, erythromycin (during pregnancy), or doxycycline. Penicillins are known to cause allergies, and current guidelines recommend clarithromycin for patients with cellulitis who are allergic to penicillin. Clindamycin is an alternative, but it has more adverse effects than clarithromycin. Flucloxacillin and co-amoxiclav contain penicillin, and ceftriaxone is not used for cellulitis. Although ciprofloxacin can be given to children with varicella who have cellulitis and are allergic to penicillin, it is not appropriate for this patient.
Understanding Cellulitis: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment
Cellulitis is a common skin infection caused by Streptococcus pyogenes or Staphylococcus aureus. It is characterized by inflammation of the skin and subcutaneous tissues, usually on the shins, accompanied by erythema, pain, swelling, and sometimes fever. The diagnosis of cellulitis is based on clinical features, and no further investigations are required in primary care. However, bloods and blood cultures may be requested if the patient is admitted and septicaemia is suspected.
To guide the management of patients with cellulitis, NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend using the Eron classification. Patients with Eron Class III or Class IV cellulitis, severe or rapidly deteriorating cellulitis, very young or frail patients, immunocompromised patients, patients with significant lymphoedema, or facial or periorbital cellulitis (unless very mild) should be admitted for intravenous antibiotics. Patients with Eron Class II cellulitis may not require admission if the facilities and expertise are available in the community to give intravenous antibiotics and monitor the patient.
The first-line treatment for mild/moderate cellulitis is flucloxacillin, while clarithromycin, erythromycin (in pregnancy), or doxycycline is recommended for patients allergic to penicillin. Patients with severe cellulitis should be offered co-amoxiclav, cefuroxime, clindamycin, or ceftriaxone. Understanding the symptoms, diagnosis, and treatment of cellulitis is crucial for effective management and prevention of complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 9-year-old boy is brought in to your clinic by his father. His father is worried because two days ago he had been playing in the same room as a child who was subsequently diagnosed with Chickenpox.
He is completely asymptomatic and has no other significant illnesses or allergies. His father declined the varicella vaccine when he was a baby having assumed that it could not be given because one of his grandparents had a history of shingles and a distant relative was undergoing investigation for possible autoimmune disease.
How would you handle this situation?Your Answer: Offer immediate vaccination with MMR
Correct Answer: Reassure that no further action necessary
Explanation:Measles and MMR Vaccination Guidelines
Significant contact with measles is defined as being in the same room as an infected individual for 15 minutes or more. If an individual has not been fully immunised or has not previously had laboratory confirmed measles, it is assumed that they lack immunity. This is important to note for children who have not received the MMR vaccination for no good reason, as family history of epilepsy or autism is not a contraindication.
Ideally, the MMR vaccine should be given within three days of contact with a possible case of measles. A repeat MMR vaccine should be given after at least a month. The first dose of MMR should be given between 12 and 13 months of age, within a month of the first birthday. Immunisation before one year of age provides earlier protection in localities where the risk of measles is higher, but residual maternal antibodies may reduce the response rate to the vaccine. The optimal age chosen for scheduling children is therefore a compromise between risk of disease and level of protection.
If a dose of MMR is given before the first birthday, either because of travel to an endemic country or because of a local outbreak, then this dose should be ignored, and two further doses given at the recommended times between 12 and 13 months of age and at three years four months to five years of age. During the 2012-13 outbreak in Wales, a recommendation was made about the possibility of withdrawal from educational establishments for unvaccinated close contacts.
It is important to follow these guidelines to prevent the spread of measles and protect individuals who may be at risk.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 3
Correct
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Conjunctivitis has only one correct statement. What is it?
Your Answer: Simple bacterial conjunctivitis commonly resolves without treatment
Explanation:Managing Conjunctivitis in Children: Antibiotics Not Always Necessary
As of April 2010, ophthalmia neonatorum is no longer a notifiable disease. A randomized controlled trial published in the Lancet in 2005 compared placebo with chloramphenicol drops in children with conjunctivitis and concluded that prescribing antibiotic drops for conjunctivitis in children should be stopped. Instead, children should be advised to keep the eye clean and return for review if no better after one week. The Health Professionals Alliance’s guidance on infection control in schools and other childcare settings doesn’t recommend any time away for children with conjunctivitis. Simple bacterial conjunctivitis usually lasts 10-14 days and is self-limiting. A review if no better at one week to exclude corneal involvement or other complications is recommended. Adenoviral conjunctivitis is highly contagious and often rapidly becomes bilateral.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 4
Correct
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A 40-year-old male presents four days after returning from Thailand with complaints of severe muscle ache, fever, and headache. During the examination, a widespread maculopapular rash is observed. The following blood results are obtained: Hb 160 g/l, Plt 98 *109/l, WBC 2.5 *109/l, ALT 142 iu/l, and malaria film is negative. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Dengue fever
Explanation:A returning traveller presenting with retro-orbital headache, fever, facial flushing, rash, and thrombocytopenia is likely to have dengue fever. The characteristic low platelet count and elevated transaminase level support this diagnosis. The 2019 RCGP Curriculum includes Fever in the returning traveller and its possible causes, such as malaria, dengue, typhoid/paratyphoid, chikungunya, and viral haemorrhagic fevers, in its Knowledge and skills guide.
Understanding Dengue Fever
Dengue fever is a viral infection that can lead to viral haemorrhagic fever, which includes diseases like yellow fever, Lassa fever, and Ebola. The dengue virus is an RNA virus that belongs to the Flavivirus genus and is transmitted by the Aedes aegypti mosquito. The incubation period for dengue fever is seven days.
Patients with dengue fever can be classified into three categories: those without warning signs, those with warning signs, and those with severe dengue (dengue haemorrhagic fever). Symptoms of dengue fever include fever, headache (often retro-orbital), myalgia, bone pain, arthralgia (also known as ‘break-bone fever’), pleuritic pain, facial flushing, maculopapular rash, and haemorrhagic manifestations such as a positive tourniquet test, petechiae, purpura/ecchymosis, and epistaxis. Warning signs include abdominal pain, hepatomegaly, persistent vomiting, and clinical fluid accumulation (ascites, pleural effusion). Severe dengue (dengue haemorrhagic fever) is a form of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) that results in thrombocytopenia and spontaneous bleeding. Around 20-30% of these patients go on to develop dengue shock syndrome (DSS).
Typically, blood tests are used to diagnose dengue fever, which may show leukopenia, thrombocytopenia, and raised aminotransferases. Diagnostic tests such as serology, nucleic acid amplification tests for viral RNA, and NS1 antigen tests may also be used. Treatment for dengue fever is entirely symptomatic, including fluid resuscitation and blood transfusions. Currently, there are no antivirals available for the treatment of dengue fever.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 5
Incorrect
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Sarah is a 35-year-old woman who previously visited you with symptoms of vaginal discharge. A swab was taken and has confirmed a diagnosis of gonorrhoea. What recommendations would you make?
Your Answer: Doxycycline 100 mg twice a day for 7 days
Correct Answer: Attend GUM clinic
Explanation:To manage gonorrhoea, it is now recommended to use a combination of IM ceftriaxone 500 mg and oral azithromycin 1g due to the rising resistance. It is important to ensure strict partner notification and therefore, patients are advised to attend the GUM clinic.
Understanding Gonorrhoea: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Gonorrhoea is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the Gram-negative diplococcus Neisseria gonorrhoeae. It can occur on any mucous membrane surface, including the genitourinary tract, rectum, and pharynx. Symptoms in males include urethral discharge and dysuria, while females may experience cervicitis leading to vaginal discharge. However, rectal and pharyngeal infections are usually asymptomatic. Unfortunately, immunisation is not possible, and reinfection is common due to antigen variation of type IV pili and Opa proteins.
If left untreated, gonorrhoea can lead to local complications such as urethral strictures, epididymitis, and salpingitis, which may result in infertility. Disseminated infection may also occur, with gonococcal infection being the most common cause of septic arthritis in young adults. The pathophysiology of disseminated gonococcal infection is not fully understood but is thought to be due to haematogenous spread from mucosal infection.
Management of gonorrhoea involves the use of antibiotics. Ciprofloxacin used to be the treatment of choice, but there is now increased resistance to it. Cephalosporins are now more widely used, with a single dose of IM ceftriaxone 1g being the new first-line treatment. If sensitivities are known, a single dose of oral ciprofloxacin 500mg may be given. Disseminated gonococcal infection and gonococcal arthritis may also occur, with symptoms including tenosynovitis, migratory polyarthritis, and dermatitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 6
Correct
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A 24-year-old male presents with a purulent urethral discharge. A sample of the discharge reveals a Gram-negative diplococcus, but sensitivities are not yet available. What is the most suitable initial antimicrobial therapy?
Your Answer: Intramuscular ceftriaxone stat dose
Explanation:Gonorrhoea is best treated with intramuscular ceftriaxone, while ciprofloxacin should only be considered if the organism is confirmed to be susceptible, as resistance is becoming more common. Penicillin, which was previously the preferred treatment, is now seldom used due to widespread resistance.
Understanding Gonorrhoea: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Gonorrhoea is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the Gram-negative diplococcus Neisseria gonorrhoeae. It can occur on any mucous membrane surface, including the genitourinary tract, rectum, and pharynx. Symptoms in males include urethral discharge and dysuria, while females may experience cervicitis leading to vaginal discharge. However, rectal and pharyngeal infections are usually asymptomatic. Unfortunately, immunisation is not possible, and reinfection is common due to antigen variation of type IV pili and Opa proteins.
If left untreated, gonorrhoea can lead to local complications such as urethral strictures, epididymitis, and salpingitis, which may result in infertility. Disseminated infection may also occur, with gonococcal infection being the most common cause of septic arthritis in young adults. The pathophysiology of disseminated gonococcal infection is not fully understood but is thought to be due to haematogenous spread from mucosal infection.
Management of gonorrhoea involves the use of antibiotics. Ciprofloxacin used to be the treatment of choice, but there is now increased resistance to it. Cephalosporins are now more widely used, with a single dose of IM ceftriaxone 1g being the new first-line treatment. If sensitivities are known, a single dose of oral ciprofloxacin 500mg may be given. Disseminated gonococcal infection and gonococcal arthritis may also occur, with symptoms including tenosynovitis, migratory polyarthritis, and dermatitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 7
Correct
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What is the correct statement regarding HIV infection?
Your Answer: Antenatal screening in England has shown that 1 in 200 pregnant women in some inner-city areas are infected with HIV
Explanation:HIV and IV Drug Use: A Deadly Combination
Routine screening during pregnancy has revealed HIV prevalence rates ranging from 1 in 500 to 1 in 200 in certain areas of London, while parts of Edinburgh and Glasgow have estimated rates as high as 1 in 20 in areas with high IV drug abuse. At-risk groups in the UK now include an increasing number of heterosexual men. In sub-Saharan Africa and Latin America, heterosexuals account for the majority of cases, while HIV rates in the armies of the Democratic Republic of Congo and Angola are at least 50%.
Unfortunately, people who inject drugs face a higher risk of death, not just from HIV-related causes but also from drug overdose. However, early use of antiretroviral therapy has increased survival duration to near-normal and reduced the risk of developing AIDS. In fact, in the first five years of treatment, the death rate is the same as that of the general population, except for IV drug users, who have higher death rates.
In summary, HIV and IV drug use are a deadly combination, but with proper treatment and care, the risk of death can be significantly reduced.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old female scheduled an appointment with her GP. She was 28-weeks pregnant and reported a rash.
She mentioned being outside in the warm weather and feeling a bite on her left lower leg. The area became extremely itchy and she spent most of the night scratching it. The next morning, she woke up with a hot, swollen, and tender spot where she had been bitten. Throughout the day, she began to feel ill and developed a fever.
Upon examination, the patient appeared fatigued. Her temperature was 38ºC, oxygen saturation was 97% on air, heart rate was 100 beats per minute, respiratory rate was 20 breaths per minute, and blood pressure was 122/81 mmHg. The examination revealed a red, hot, swollen area of tender skin on her left lower leg, measuring approximately 4 cm in diameter. The diagnosis was cellulitis.
The patient had no significant medical history, but did have a documented allergy to penicillin.
Which of the following treatment options is the most appropriate?Your Answer: Clarithromycin
Correct Answer: Erythromycin
Explanation:If a pregnant patient has a penicillin allergy and is diagnosed with cellulitis, the recommended antibiotic is erythromycin as per the NICE antimicrobial guidance. Flucloxacillin and co-amoxiclav should not be prescribed in this case. It is important to note that doxycycline, a tetracycline antibiotic, is contraindicated in pregnancy and should not be prescribed.
Understanding Cellulitis: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment
Cellulitis is a common skin infection caused by Streptococcus pyogenes or Staphylococcus aureus. It is characterized by inflammation of the skin and subcutaneous tissues, usually on the shins, accompanied by erythema, pain, swelling, and sometimes fever. The diagnosis of cellulitis is based on clinical features, and no further investigations are required in primary care. However, bloods and blood cultures may be requested if the patient is admitted and septicaemia is suspected.
To guide the management of patients with cellulitis, NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend using the Eron classification. Patients with Eron Class III or Class IV cellulitis, severe or rapidly deteriorating cellulitis, very young or frail patients, immunocompromised patients, patients with significant lymphoedema, or facial or periorbital cellulitis (unless very mild) should be admitted for intravenous antibiotics. Patients with Eron Class II cellulitis may not require admission if the facilities and expertise are available in the community to give intravenous antibiotics and monitor the patient.
The first-line treatment for mild/moderate cellulitis is flucloxacillin, while clarithromycin, erythromycin (in pregnancy), or doxycycline is recommended for patients allergic to penicillin. Patients with severe cellulitis should be offered co-amoxiclav, cefuroxime, clindamycin, or ceftriaxone. Understanding the symptoms, diagnosis, and treatment of cellulitis is crucial for effective management and prevention of complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 9
Correct
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A 30-year-old man returned from a vacation visiting his parents in Pakistan on a long-haul flight 4 weeks ago. He is experiencing a persistent productive cough, haemoptysis and night sweats.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Tuberculosis
Explanation:Respiratory Symptoms and Differential Diagnosis
Persistent cough, haemoptysis, night sweats, and fever are classic symptoms of tuberculosis (TB), which accounts for 60% of respiratory cases in the UK. Acute bronchitis, on the other hand, is usually caused by a viral infection and resolves without treatment within three weeks. Lung cancer may present with productive cough and haemoptysis, but the patient’s age and immigrant status make TB more likely. Pulmonary embolism is a minor risk factor in this case, and whooping cough is a respiratory tract infection that affects both children and adults. Paroxysmal coughing followed by a whoop is a characteristic feature of whooping cough. It is important to consider the patient’s medical history and risk factors when making a differential diagnosis of respiratory symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 9-year-old girl presents with her mother. She has an itchy scalp and you diagnose head lice. You recommend malathion - the mother inquires about potential side effects. What is a typical side effect of malathion?
Your Answer: Skin irritation
Correct Answer: Hypothyroidism
Explanation:Malathion and Head Lice Treatment
Malathion, a common treatment for head lice, can cause skin irritation, especially if alcoholic lotions are used instead of aqueous solutions in those with eczema. If the scalp itself is eczematous or secondarily infected, irritation is more likely, which may affect compliance with the treatment regimen. However, in the author’s experience as a seasoned GP, the main issue with lotions in the treatment of head lice is their ineffectiveness.
Parents should be advised to regularly inspect their child’s hair for eggs and live lice, and regular wet combing can be effective. Keeping the hair short, where practical, can also help. Unfortunately, children are often at the mercy of their classmates’ diligence, as re-infection is common. Therefore, it is important for parents to be vigilant and take necessary precautions to prevent the spread of head lice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 5-year-old girl has had a spasmodic cough for 6 weeks. It is often followed by a vomit and a whooping sound sometimes accompanies the first inspiration following the coughing spasm. She doesn't seem ill and the lungs sound clear on auscultation. She has had courses of amoxicillin and erythromycin. Most of her immunisations in infancy were missed.
Select from the list the single most appropriate course of action for this patient.Your Answer: Refer for a paediatric opinion
Correct Answer: Advise the parents that the cough may last 100 days and nothing will influence it
Explanation:Whooping Cough: Symptoms, Treatment, and Risks for Infants
Whooping cough, caused by the bacterium Bordetella pertussis, is a highly contagious respiratory disease that can cause persistent coughing for up to 2-3 months. Commonly known as the 100 days’ cough, this disease is particularly severe in infants, with about 50% of cases requiring hospitalization.
While antibiotics do not alter the course of the disease, erythromycin, clarithromycin, or azithromycin can help reduce the period of infectivity when given for 7-14 days. Codeine linctus is often prescribed, but there is no evidence for its effectiveness.
It is important to note that the severity of whooping cough is related to the age of the patient, with morbidity and mortality being greatest in infants under 6 months of age. Therefore, it is crucial to take preventative measures, such as vaccination, and seek medical attention if symptoms arise.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 12
Correct
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What is the correct statement about infection with Epstein-Barr virus (infectious mononucleosis)?
Your Answer: Deranged liver function is common in infectious mononucleosis
Explanation:Infectious Mononucleosis: Symptoms, Transmission, and Complications
Infectious mononucleosis, commonly known as mono, is a viral infection caused by the Epstein-Barr virus (EBV). While many patients may not show any symptoms, studies suggest that 90% of people over the age of 25 have antibodies to EBV. The virus is transmitted through droplet exchange and can continue to be excreted for several months.
Symptoms of mono include deranged liver function, mild hepatomegaly, and splenomegaly, which can cause tenderness over the spleen. Jaundice is rare in young adults but can occur in up to 30% of infected elderly patients. It is important for patients to avoid contact sports for at least a month after infection to prevent the risk of splenic rupture.
It is crucial to note that ampicillin and amoxicillin should not be given to any patient who may have infectious mononucleosis, as they can cause an itchy maculopapular rash. The illness is typically self-limiting and of short duration, but fatigue and myalgia may persist for several months after the acute infection has resolved.
In conclusion, infectious mononucleosis is a viral infection that can cause various symptoms and complications. It is important to take precautions to prevent transmission and seek medical attention if symptoms persist.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 12-year-old girl has a sore throat.
Select from the list the single feature that would make it LESS likely that this is a streptococcal infection.Your Answer: Coated tongue with prominent papillae
Correct Answer: Cough
Explanation:Differentiating between Viral Sore Throat and Group A β-haemolytic Streptococcus
It can be challenging to distinguish between a viral sore throat and one caused by Group A β-haemolytic streptococcus (GABS) through examination alone. However, the Centor criteria can be useful in making this differentiation. These criteria include the presence of tonsillar exudate, tender anterior cervical lymph nodes, absence of cough, and a history of fever. If a patient has three of these signs, there is a 40-60% chance that they have GABS. Conversely, if a patient doesn’t have three of these signs, there is an 80% chance that they have a viral infection. Additionally, the presence of a scarlet fever-like rash, a flushed face, circumoral pallor, and a white or red strawberry tongue may also suggest the possibility of a streptococcal infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 14
Correct
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A patient who has just returned from the Ivory Coast is experiencing cyclical fever and headache. During the examination, splenomegaly is observed. After a blood film, the patient is diagnosed with Plasmodium vivax malaria. The patient, who is in his 50s, is initially treated with chloroquine and later given primaquine. What is the advantage of administering primaquine?
Your Answer: Destroy liver hypnozoites and prevent relapse
Explanation:To prevent relapse in non-falciparum malaria, primaquine is administered to eliminate liver hypnozoites.
Non-Falciparum Malaria: Causes, Features, and Treatment
Non-falciparum malaria is caused by Plasmodium vivax, Plasmodium ovale, Plasmodium malariae, and Plasmodium knowlesi. Plasmodium vivax is commonly found in Central America and the Indian Subcontinent, while Plasmodium ovale is typically found in Africa. Plasmodium malariae is associated with nephrotic syndrome. Plasmodium knowlesi is found predominantly in South East Asia.
The general features of non-falciparum malaria include fever, headache, and splenomegaly. Cyclical fever every 48 hours is associated with Plasmodium vivax and Plasmodium ovale, while Plasmodium malariae is associated with cyclical fever every 72 hours. Ovale and vivax malaria have a hypnozoite stage and may relapse following treatment.
In areas known to be chloroquine-sensitive, the World Health Organization recommends either an artemisinin-based combination therapy (ACT) or chloroquine for treatment. In areas known to be chloroquine-resistant, an ACT should be used. However, ACTs should be avoided in pregnant women. Patients with ovale or vivax malaria should be given primaquine following acute treatment with chloroquine to destroy liver hypnozoites and prevent relapse.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 15
Correct
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A woman who is 16 weeks pregnant is planning to travel with her husband to the Middle East and South America for his job. She wants to know which vaccinations are safe to receive during pregnancy.
Which of the following vaccinations can be given without significant risk to the woman and her developing fetus?Your Answer: Yellow fever
Explanation:Vaccinations for Travelers
Hepatitis A and B vaccinations are made from viral antigens and do not contain any living hepatitis virus component. For individuals traveling to countries with a high risk of hepatitis A, vaccination may be recommended. However, it is important to note that the other vaccines listed, such as polio, are live vaccinations. The polio vaccine can be administered orally or through an intramuscular injection, depending on the preparation used. It is crucial for travelers to consult with a healthcare professional to determine which vaccinations are necessary for their specific travel plans.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 16
Correct
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A 30-year-old woman has pyrexia of unknown origin. She has recently been in Africa. The laboratory reports that she has Plasmodium falciparum infection.
Select from the list the single correct statement regarding Plasmodium falciparum infection.Your Answer: Chemoprophylaxis is not a guarantee against infection
Explanation:Understanding Malaria: Symptoms, Severity, and Prevention
Malaria is a parasitic infection that can be transmitted through the bite of infected mosquitoes. The symptoms and severity of malaria can vary depending on the type of parasite causing the infection.
Plasmodium falciparum is the most severe form of malaria and can cause impaired consciousness, fits, renal failure, hypoglycemia, bleeding, and even death. Other types of malaria, such as P. vivax and P. ovale, may not present symptoms until months or even years after exposure.
The classic symptom of malaria is a cyclical occurrence of sudden coldness, followed by rigor, fever, and sweating lasting about 2 hours or more. The frequency of these cycles can vary depending on the type of parasite causing the infection. P. vivax and P. ovale infections typically occur every 2 days, while P. malariae infections occur every 3 days. P. falciparum infections can cause recurrent fever every 36-48 hours or a less pronounced and almost continuous fever.
Severe cases of malaria can lead to renal failure, jaundice, and even death. However, the use of effective chemoprophylaxis and insecticide-treated nets can prevent up to 90% of malaria cases. Travelers should be encouraged to use appropriate prophylaxis for their travel itinerary, but it’s important to note that this is not a guarantee against infection.
In summary, understanding the symptoms, severity, and prevention of malaria is crucial in protecting oneself from this potentially deadly infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 17
Correct
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A 5-year-old girl presents in the early evening with symptoms that have progressively worsened during the day. Her temperature is 39 oC and she has a cough, stridor, drooling of saliva and respiratory distress.
Select the single most likely diagnosis.Your Answer: Acute epiglottitis
Explanation:Acute Epiglottitis and Croup: Two Respiratory Conditions in Children
Acute epiglottitis is a rare but life-threatening condition that causes inflammation of the epiglottis and surrounding soft tissues. It is most common in children between the ages of 2 and 8 and is often caused by Haemophilus influenza type b. Throat examination with a tongue depressor should be avoided, and urgent referral for laryngoscopy is necessary. Intubation may be required in over 30% of patients, and prophylactic intubation may be carried out in those with dyspnoea or stridor.
Croup, on the other hand, is a relatively mild and self-limiting condition that causes a barking cough and stridor. It is typically associated with viral upper respiratory infections and affects children between 6 months and 3 years of age. Symptoms are often worse at night.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 18
Correct
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A 38-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner with an infected wound on his hand after being bitten by a dog outside his home yesterday. He has a history of rheumatoid arthritis. What is the most appropriate management in addition to copious irrigation?
Your Answer: Remove any foreign body and leave the wound open, administer co-amoxiclav.
Explanation:Management of Dog Bites: A Clinical Review
Dog bites can cause serious injuries and infections. Therefore, it is important to know how to manage them properly. According to a clinical review published in the British Medical Journal in 2007, the following steps should be taken:
1. Copious irrigation with tap water or normal saline is essential.
2. Any foreign body (e.g. teeth) should be removed, with debridement where necessary.
3. Closure of the wound should be delayed where possible.
4. Antibiotics should be administered according to the risk of infection.
5. Prophylactic antibiotics are indicated for all high-risk wounds and patients.
6. Bites to the hands, wrists, and genitalia are considered high-risk as are patients with rheumatoid arthritis.
7. Co-amoxiclav is the antibiotic of choice as it covers all commonly expected organisms.
8. For those with a true penicillin allergy, tetracycline or doxycycline plus metronidazole or a combination with clindamycin should be used.
9. Flucloxacillin or erythromycin alone should not be used for prophylaxis as they do not cover the virulent Pasteurella multocida, commonly found in dog bites.
10. Tetanus immunoglobulin and toxoid should be given to all patients with a history of two or fewer immunisations.It is important to note that if the patient was not bitten abroad, there is no risk of rabies.
Proper Management of Dog Bites: A Clinical Review
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old man visits the clinic seeking guidance on how to prevent acute mountain sickness (AMS) during his upcoming Andes expedition. He specifically asks for advice other than gradual ascent. What would be the most suitable recommendation?
Your Answer: Ensure maximal physical fitness prior to trip
Correct Answer: Acetazolamide (Diamox)
Explanation:There is evidence to suggest that Acetazolamide, a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor, can be effective in preventing AMS. It is worth noting that there seems to be a link between physical fitness and the likelihood of developing AMS.
Altitude-related disorders are caused by chronic hypobaric hypoxia at high altitudes and can be classified into three types: acute mountain sickness (AMS), high altitude pulmonary edema (HAPE), and high altitude cerebral edema (HACE). AMS is a self-limiting condition that typically occurs above 2,500-3,000m and presents with symptoms such as headache, nausea, and fatigue. Physical fitness may increase the risk of AMS, and gaining altitude at a rate of no more than 500m per day is recommended. Acetazolamide is a commonly used medication to prevent AMS, and descent is the recommended treatment.
HAPE and HACE are potentially fatal conditions that affect a minority of people above 4,000m. HAPE presents with pulmonary edema symptoms, while HACE presents with headache, ataxia, and papilloedema. The management of both conditions involves descent and the use of medications such as dexamethasone and nifedipine for HAPE, and dexamethasone for HACE. Oxygen may also be used if available. The effectiveness of different treatments for these conditions has only been studied in small trials, but they all seem to work by reducing systolic pulmonary artery pressure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 20
Correct
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A 65-year-old woman has pain and a rash made up of vesicles on an erythematous background. The rash is on the right flank and right side of the abdomen in an area corresponding to the T12 dermatome and started 3 days ago.
Select the single most suitable management option.Your Answer: Aciclovir 800 mg five times a day
Explanation:Treatment for Herpes Zoster (Shingles)
Herpes zoster, commonly known as shingles, can cause severe pain and complications. However, systemic antiviral treatment can reduce the severity and duration of pain, as well as viral shedding and complications. It is crucial to start treatment within 72 hours of the onset of rash and continue for 7-10 days.
Immunocompromised patients are at a higher risk of severe infection and should be treated with a parenteral antiviral drug. If the person is at a higher risk of severe shingles or complications, such as continued vesicle formation, older age, or severe pain, the drug can be started up to a week after the onset of symptoms.
Aciclovir is a common antiviral drug used to treat shingles, but alternatives such as valaciclovir 1000 mg three times a day or famciclovir 500 mg three times a day for 7 days can also be used. It is essential to seek medical attention promptly to receive appropriate treatment and prevent complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old student has a 5-day history of fever and sore throat that has not responded to penicillin. On examination his temperature is 38.8 °C, he has grey plaques on his tonsils, cervical lymphadenopathy and splenomegaly. You ask for a Monospot® test (test for heterophile antibody).
Select from the list the single correct statement regarding the heterophile antibody test.Your Answer: Antibody titres correlate with the severity of the disease
Correct Answer: It may be negative early in the course of the disease
Explanation:Understanding the Monospot® Test for Infectious Mononucleosis
The Monospot® test is a rapid diagnostic tool used to detect infectious mononucleosis caused by the Epstein-Barr virus. This test is based on the detection of heterophile antibodies produced by the human immune system in response to the virus. While the test is highly specific, it may not be sensitive during the incubation period or early stages of the illness. Additionally, the test doesn’t correlate with the severity of the disease and may not be positive after active infection has subsided.
The Monospot® test relies on the agglutination of horse red blood cells by heterophile antibodies in the patient’s serum. An alternative test, the Paul-Bunnell test, uses sheep red blood cells. However, heterophile antibody tests may be less sensitive in children under 12 years of age and may produce false-negative results in young children and elderly patients. False-positive results may also occur due to other infections, malignancies, or connective tissue diseases.
In summary, the Monospot® test is a useful tool for diagnosing infectious mononucleosis, but it should be interpreted in conjunction with other clinical and laboratory findings.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 22
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman is being seen at the genitourinary medicine clinic for vaginal discharge and dysuria. Upon examination, an endocervical swab revealed a Gram-negative coccus identified as Neisseria gonorrhoea, marking her third episode of gonorrhoea in the last two years. What is the probable outcome of repeated infections?
Your Answer: Infertility
Explanation:Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) resulting in infertility is frequently seen as a complication of gonorrhoea, with Chlamydia being the only cause of PID that is more common. Arthropathy is a rare occurrence in comparison. Chlamydia trachomatis is responsible for causing lymphogranuloma venereum.
Understanding Gonorrhoea: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Gonorrhoea is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the Gram-negative diplococcus Neisseria gonorrhoeae. It can occur on any mucous membrane surface, including the genitourinary tract, rectum, and pharynx. Symptoms in males include urethral discharge and dysuria, while females may experience cervicitis leading to vaginal discharge. However, rectal and pharyngeal infections are usually asymptomatic. Unfortunately, immunisation is not possible, and reinfection is common due to antigen variation of type IV pili and Opa proteins.
If left untreated, gonorrhoea can lead to local complications such as urethral strictures, epididymitis, and salpingitis, which may result in infertility. Disseminated infection may also occur, with gonococcal infection being the most common cause of septic arthritis in young adults. The pathophysiology of disseminated gonococcal infection is not fully understood but is thought to be due to haematogenous spread from mucosal infection.
Management of gonorrhoea involves the use of antibiotics. Ciprofloxacin used to be the treatment of choice, but there is now increased resistance to it. Cephalosporins are now more widely used, with a single dose of IM ceftriaxone 1g being the new first-line treatment. If sensitivities are known, a single dose of oral ciprofloxacin 500mg may be given. Disseminated gonococcal infection and gonococcal arthritis may also occur, with symptoms including tenosynovitis, migratory polyarthritis, and dermatitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of watery diarrhoea that has been ongoing for 10 days. He had recently returned from a two-month trip to northern India. On examination, he has no fever and his abdomen is soft and non-tender. What is the probable organism responsible for his symptoms?
Your Answer: Amoebiasis
Correct Answer: Giardiasis
Explanation:Giardiasis is suggested by the prolonged, non-bloody diarrhoea and the incubation period.
Understanding Giardiasis
Giardiasis is a disease caused by a type of protozoan called Giardia lamblia. It is transmitted through the faeco-oral route and can be contracted through various means such as foreign travel, drinking water from rivers or lakes, and even male-male sexual contact. While some people may not experience any symptoms, others may suffer from non-bloody diarrhea, bloating, abdominal pain, lethargy, flatulence, and weight loss. In some cases, malabsorption and lactose intolerance may also occur. To diagnose giardiasis, stool microscopy for trophozoite and cysts is usually done, although stool antigen detection assay and PCR assays are also being developed. Treatment for giardiasis involves the use of metronidazole.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 24
Correct
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A 25-year-old man has just arrived from Bangladesh and presents with sudden onset of nausea and vomiting associated with watery diarrhoea. The diarrhoea intensified and is now 'rice watery' character.
Select from the list the single most likely diagnosis.Your Answer: Cholera
Explanation:Cholera: Symptoms, Transmission, and Prevention
Cholera is a bacterial infection caused by the bacterium Vibrio cholerae. The incubation period for cholera is typically 2-5 days. The initial signs of cholera include vomiting and watery diarrhea. At first, the diarrhea may be modest and consist of faecal matter and watery stool. However, in some patients, the diarrhea becomes profound and can exceed 200 ml/kg body weight per day. The stool in these cases becomes ‘rice-watery’ in character, resembling the opaque white water discarded after rice has been washed. The diarrhea is painless, and patients are often incontinent of stool. Without antimicrobial treatment, the total stool volume during the illness can exceed total body weight.
Cholera is rarely imported from abroad, with an average of only 10 cases of cholera in the UK annually. The most common serotype is V. cholerae El Tor, and most infections are acquired on the Indian subcontinent. The risk of cholera for most travelers to endemic areas is very low, particularly in short-term travelers. However, the risk increases for those staying in areas of outbreaks. An oral cholera vaccine is now available in the UK and may be suitable for those who are unable to take adequate precautions in highly endemic or epidemic areas, such as disaster relief workers and adventurous backpackers.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 3-year-old girl has had a cold and a raised temperature for 4 days but now has a red rash on both sides of her face and a diffuse macular rash elsewhere.
Select from the list the single most likely diagnosis.Your Answer: Measles
Correct Answer: Erythema infectiosum
Explanation:Erythema Infectiosum: Symptoms, Causes, and Risks During Pregnancy
Erythema infectiosum, commonly known as ‘slapped cheek’ disease or fifth disease, is caused by parvovirus B19. It is called fifth disease because it is the fifth of the classic exanthems. The infection may be asymptomatic or present with nonspecific coryzal symptoms. It is most common between ages 3-15 years.
The prodromal symptoms of erythema infectiosum are mild and may include headache, rhinitis, low-grade fever, and malaise. In some cases, nausea, diarrhea, abdominal pain, or arthropathy may develop. After 3-7 days, the classic ‘slapped cheek’ rash appears as erythema on the cheeks, sparing the nose, perioral, and periorbital regions. This rash disappears after 2-4 days. About 1-4 days after the facial rash appears, an erythematous macular rash develops on the extremities, mainly on the extensor surfaces. This rash gradually fades but may take up to 3 weeks and can recur.
Any arthropathy associated with erythema infectiosum is symmetrical and affects the hands, wrists, knees, and ankles. It usually resolves within a few days but in some cases persists for 2 months or longer. It may appear like rheumatoid arthritis.
Identification of parvovirus B19 infection in a pregnant woman is crucial, as parvovirus infection in the first half of pregnancy may cause fetal hydrops. The outcome of fetal hydrops can be improved by intrauterine transfusion. Therefore, pregnant women should take extra precautions to avoid exposure to erythema infectiosum.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 26
Correct
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Of the following scenarios, which one would indicate it was inappropriate for the child to take an airline flight?
Your Answer: A 17-year-old flying back to the UK who broke his leg whilst skiing in Canada. Had a plaster cast applied 24 hours ago
Explanation:Patients should wait for 24 hours before taking short flights (< 2 hours) and 48 hours before taking longer flights after applying a plaster cast. This is necessary to avoid the possibility of air getting trapped beneath the cast. The CAA has issued guidelines on air travel for people with medical conditions. Patients with certain cardiovascular diseases, uncomplicated myocardial infarction, coronary artery bypass graft, and percutaneous coronary intervention may fly after a certain period of time. Patients with respiratory diseases should be clinically improved with no residual infection before flying. Pregnant women may not be allowed to travel after a certain number of weeks and may require a certificate confirming the pregnancy is progressing normally. Patients who have had surgery should avoid flying for a certain period of time depending on the type of surgery. Patients with haematological disorders may travel without problems if their haemoglobin is greater than 8 g/dl and there are no coexisting conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 27
Correct
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A 40-year-old patient comes to the clinic for a routine appointment. He has a history of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) and wants to discuss the result of his recent CD4 count.
Which statement concerning the T lymphocyte CD4 count is correct?Your Answer: It has a relationship with the risk of developing opportunistic infections
Explanation:The Importance of CD4 Count in HIV Diagnosis and Treatment
CD4 count plays a crucial role in the diagnosis and treatment of HIV. HIV binds to CD4 receptors on various cells, leading to immune dysfunction and increased susceptibility to opportunistic infections. A high CD4 count during the acute phase of HIV infection is common, but a count of ≤ 200 cells/mm3 is diagnosed as AIDS. CD4 tests are also used to determine the efficacy of treatment and when to initiate antiretroviral therapy. While not a direct HIV test, CD4 counts provide valuable information about a patient’s immune system.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 28
Correct
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You are working in a rural GP surgery in Scotland and you have an urgent appointment with an eight-year-old boy and his mother. The child has a history of mild asthma and flexural eczema and his mother is concerned because they went out walking yesterday and this morning she found a tick attached to his upper arm. The child appears well and all observations are normal. The tick has been removed, leaving a puncture mark. The mother is worried about Lyme disease and asks for a prescription. What is the most appropriate management option?
Your Answer: No antibiotics necessary - watchful waiting
Explanation:According to the 2018 NICE Guidance, it is not necessary to administer prophylactic antibiotics to individuals who have been bitten by a tick and show no symptoms of Lyme disease. Treatment should only be given if the patient develops erythema migrans or other symptoms associated with the disease. It is important to provide reassurance to the patient and advise them on what symptoms to watch out for.
Understanding Lyme Disease
Lyme disease is an illness caused by a type of bacteria called Borrelia burgdorferi, which is transmitted to humans through the bite of infected ticks. The disease can cause a range of symptoms, which can be divided into early and later features.
Early features of Lyme disease typically occur within 30 days of being bitten by an infected tick. These can include a distinctive rash known as erythema migrans, which often appears as a bulls-eye pattern around the site of the tick bite. Other early symptoms may include headache, lethargy, fever, and joint pain.
Later features of Lyme disease can occur after 30 days and may affect different parts of the body. These can include heart block or myocarditis, which affect the cardiovascular system, and facial nerve palsy or meningitis, which affect the nervous system.
To diagnose Lyme disease, doctors may look for the presence of erythema migrans or use blood tests to detect antibodies to Borrelia burgdorferi. Treatment typically involves antibiotics, such as doxycycline or amoxicillin, depending on the stage of the disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old is brought to the emergency department by his parents due to a fever and headache. Upon examination, the child appears ill, with a central capillary refill of 4 seconds, a heart rate of 150 beats/min, a respiratory rate of 45 breaths/min, a temperature of 38ºC, and a non-blanching rash on his right leg and torso.
What is the recommended course of action for the parents?Your Answer: IV cefotaxime
Correct Answer: Oral ciprofloxacin
Explanation:When suspected bacterial meningitis is being investigated and managed, it is important to prioritize timely antibiotic treatment to avoid negative consequences. Patients should be urgently transferred to the hospital, and if meningococcal disease is suspected in a prehospital setting, intramuscular benzylpenicillin may be given. An ABC approach should be taken initially, and senior review is necessary if any warning signs are present. A key decision is when to attempt a lumbar puncture, which should be delayed in certain circumstances. Management of patients without indication for delayed LP includes IV antibiotics, with cefotaxime or ceftriaxone recommended for patients aged 3 months to 50 years. Additional tests that may be helpful include blood gases and throat swab for meningococcal culture. Prophylaxis needs to be offered to households and close contacts of patients affected with meningococcal meningitis, and meningococcal vaccination should be offered to close contacts when serotype results are available.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 30
Incorrect
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You are contacted by the father of a 6-year-old boy who is in first grade. He is worried because a classmate has been absent for a week due to whooping cough, but the classmate's twin brother is still attending school while taking antibiotics. The father wants to know if his son could catch the illness from the twin brother and if he needs to take antibiotics as well.
His son has received all the recommended vaccinations up to this point.
What is your response?Your Answer: Explain that asymptomatic contacts of a case do not need exclusion
Correct Answer: Recommend the boy is excluded until he has finished his antibiotics
Explanation:Pertussis Guidelines for Asymptomatic Contacts
Asymptomatic contacts of suspected or confirmed pertussis do not need exclusion from school or nursery, even if they are being treated with antibiotics. It is important to follow current guidelines and advise parents accordingly. Prophylactic antibiotics are only recommended for close contacts, which include household contacts and those sharing a room overnight with a case. Antibiotics are only recommended if there is a vulnerable contact and the onset of illness in the case is within 21 days.
If more cases of pertussis were to be diagnosed at the nursery, this would constitute an outbreak, and advice may then change at the discretion of the outbreak control team. Vulnerable contacts include newborn infants born to symptomatic mothers, infants under 1-year-old who have received less than three doses of DTaP/IPV/Hib, unimmunised or partially immunised infants or children up to ten years, women in the last month of pregnancy, adults who work in a healthcare, social care or childcare facility, immunocompromised individuals, and those with the presence of other chronic illnesses.
It is important for GPs to understand and implement key national guidelines that influence healthcare provision for respiratory problems, as outlined in the RCGP Curriculum Statement 15.8. By following these guidelines, we can ensure the best possible care for our patients and prevent the spread of pertussis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 31
Incorrect
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A recently graduated nurse at the nearby hospital receives hepatitis B vaccination. After three months of completing the primary course, the following outcomes are observed:
Outcome Anti-HBs: 10 - 100 mIU/ml
Reference A protective immunity is indicated by an antibody level of >100 mIU/ml.
What is the best course of action to take?Your Answer: Repeat anti-HBs level in three months time
Correct Answer: Give one further dose of hepatitis B vaccine
Explanation:Understanding Hepatitis B: Causes, Symptoms, Complications, Prevention, and Management
Hepatitis B is a virus that spreads through exposure to infected blood or body fluids, including from mother to child during birth. The incubation period is typically 6-20 weeks. Symptoms of hepatitis B include fever, jaundice, and elevated liver transaminases. Complications of the infection can include chronic hepatitis, fulminant liver failure, hepatocellular carcinoma, glomerulonephritis, polyarteritis nodosa, and cryoglobulinemia.
Immunization against hepatitis B is recommended for at-risk groups, including healthcare workers, intravenous drug users, sex workers, close family contacts of an individual with hepatitis B, individuals receiving regular blood transfusions, chronic kidney disease patients, prisoners, and chronic liver disease patients. The vaccine is given in three doses and is typically effective, although around 10-15% of adults may not respond well to the vaccine.
Management of hepatitis B typically involves antiviral medications such as tenofovir, entecavir, and telbivudine, which aim to suppress viral replication. Pegylated interferon-alpha was previously the only treatment available and can still be used as a first-line treatment, but other medications are increasingly being used. A better response to treatment is predicted by being female, under 50 years old, having low HBV DNA levels, being non-Asian, being HIV negative, and having a high degree of inflammation on liver biopsy.
Overall, understanding the causes, symptoms, complications, prevention, and management of hepatitis B is important for both healthcare professionals and the general public. Vaccination and early detection and treatment can help prevent the spread of the virus and reduce the risk of complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 32
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old girl has been brought to see you by her father who is concerned that she has another episode of tonsillitis. A locum sent a throat swab 3 days earlier, which is reported as showing a Group A streptococcus.
Select the single most appropriate management.Your Answer: 7 days amoxicillin
Correct Answer: 10 days penicillin V
Explanation:Throat Swabs and Antibiotic Treatment for Sore Throat
Throat swabs are not always reliable in differentiating between infection and carriage, and their results take up to 48 hours to be reported. However, they may be useful in high-risk groups to guide treatment choices in case of treatment failure. Symptomatic treatment and a delayed prescription may be reasonable options for sore throat, but after three days, a prescription for antibiotics may be necessary. Penicillin V is the recommended antibiotic for a 10-day course, while erythromycin or clarithromycin should be given for 5 days if the patient is allergic to penicillin. Overall, careful consideration of the patient’s condition and risk factors is necessary in determining the appropriate treatment for sore throat.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 33
Correct
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A 65-year-old man has come to see you to discuss whether he requires antibiotics prior to undergoing a root canal procedure. His dentist has suggested that he consult with his GP due to his history of infective endocarditis. Upon reviewing his electronic medical record, you discover that he has hypertension and type 2 diabetes. Additionally, he has native valvular heart disease and his previous infection was caused by staphylococcus. Presently, he appears to be in good health and is not experiencing any acute medical problems.
As per NICE guidelines, what treatment is recommended in this case?Your Answer: No specific treatment
Explanation:In the UK, it is not standard practice to use antibiotic prophylaxis as a preventive measure against infective endocarditis during dental or other procedures.
Changes in Antibiotic Prophylaxis for Infective Endocarditis
In 2008, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) released new guidelines regarding antibiotic prophylaxis for infective endocarditis. These guidelines significantly altered the list of procedures for which prophylaxis is recommended. According to NICE, dental procedures, gastrointestinal and genitourinary tract procedures, and respiratory tract procedures no longer require prophylaxis. However, NICE does recommend that any infections in individuals at risk of infective endocarditis be promptly investigated and treated to reduce the risk of developing endocarditis. Additionally, if an individual at risk of infective endocarditis is receiving antimicrobial therapy due to a suspected infection at the site of a gastrointestinal or genitourinary procedure, they should be given an antibiotic that covers organisms that cause infective endocarditis.
It is important to note that these recommendations differ from those of the American Heart Association and European Society of Cardiology, which still advocate for antibiotic prophylaxis for high-risk patients undergoing dental procedures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 34
Correct
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A 25-year-old male patient complains of feeling unwell for the past three days with a low-grade fever. He has developed painful ulcers in his mouth and gums. During examination, submandibular lymphadenopathy is observed. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Herpes simplex virus infection
Explanation:Primary herpes simplex virus infection is indicated by gingivostomatitis, which this man is experiencing.
The herpes simplex virus (HSV) comes in two strains: HSV-1 and HSV-2. It was once believed that HSV-1 caused cold sores and HSV-2 caused genital herpes, but there is now significant overlap between the two. Symptoms of a primary infection may include severe gingivostomatitis, while cold sores and painful genital ulceration are also common. Treatment options include oral aciclovir and chlorhexidine mouthwash for gingivostomatitis, topical aciclovir for cold sores (although the evidence for its effectiveness is limited), and oral aciclovir for genital herpes. Pregnant women with herpes should be treated with suppressive therapy, and those who experience a primary attack during pregnancy after 28 weeks gestation should have an elective caesarean section. The risk of transmission to the baby is low for women with recurrent herpes. Pap smear images can show the cytopathic effect of HSV, including multinucleation, marginated chromatin, and molding of the nuclei.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 35
Incorrect
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A 6 month-old girl was seen 3 days earlier with a fever of 39 oC but no localising symptoms and signs. The fever responded well to ibuprofen and paracetamol and has resolved. The mother was warned to watch out for a rash and returns anxious because small pink spots have appeared on her body, arms and legs. The spots blanch on pressure.
Select from the list the single most likely diagnosis.Your Answer: Erythema infectiosum
Correct Answer: Roseola infantum
Explanation:Understanding Roseola Infantum: Symptoms, Causes, and Diagnosis
Roseola infantum is a common viral infection that primarily affects children between the ages of 6 months and 1 year. Caused by the herpesvirus 6 (HHV-6), this highly contagious illness is characterized by a sudden onset of high fever, which can reach up to 40°C and last for 3-4 days. Once the fever subsides, a rash of small pink spots typically appears on the body, arms, and legs, but not on the face. The rash usually lasts for about 12-14 hours and may be accompanied by a sore throat and swollen lymph nodes in the neck.
While the initial fever may cause concern for parents and healthcare providers, the sudden drop in temperature and the appearance of the characteristic rash are reassuring signs of roseola. However, it is important to rule out more serious conditions before making a diagnosis. With proper understanding of the symptoms, causes, and diagnostic process, parents and healthcare providers can effectively manage and treat roseola infantum.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 36
Correct
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A 25-year-old nursing student asks if she should be vaccinated against Chickenpox. She cannot recall having had the disease, although her mother tells her that she thinks her siblings have had it.
Select the single most appropriate course of action in this situation.Your Answer: Test for varicella antibodies and, if negative, vaccinate her
Explanation:Chickenpox Immunisation for Healthcare Workers
Most children in the UK will develop Chickenpox during their childhood, and it is rare for a child to avoid the disease if their siblings have it. However, for healthcare workers, it is important to be immune to prevent the spread of the disease to patients, especially those who are immunocompromised. To determine immunity, a varicella antibody test should be conducted. If the test is negative, the individual should be vaccinated with a live attenuated vaccine, as recommended by the Green Book guidelines. It is important to note that the vaccine is contraindicated for those who are immunocompromised themselves. While there are currently no plans to make Chickenpox immunisation routine for British children, healthcare workers and those in contact with immunocompromised individuals should take necessary precautions to prevent the spread of the disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 37
Incorrect
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A 49-year-old man with a severe cough and fever has blood taken for antibody titres when he fails to respond to amoxicillin. The results are shown below (CFT = complement fixation test).
Chlamydia psittaci Ab (CFT) 1/10
Coxiella burnetii (Q fever) phase 2 1/10
influenza A antibody (CFT) 1/40
influenza B antibody (CFT) 1/10
Legionella antibody (CFT) 1/10
Mycoplasma pneumoniae antibody (CFT) 1/640
Select from the list the single most likely diagnosis.Your Answer: No evidence of an atypical respiratory tract infection
Correct Answer: Recent infection with Mycoplasma pneumoniae
Explanation:Understanding Serology Tests for Mycoplasma Pneumonia Infection
Serology tests are used to detect antibodies in the blood that indicate the presence of an infection. In the case of Mycoplasma pneumonia, a positive result suggests an infection, but a second test is needed several weeks later to confirm this with a falling titre. The result is expressed as a dilution, with a larger denominator indicating a stronger antibody reaction. It’s important to note that antibody levels can remain raised for some time after the acute infection, which may explain the raised result for influenza A. Repeat serology is necessary to detect changing levels.
To support the diagnosis of Mycoplasma pneumonia, serology tests that demonstrate a 4-fold or greater increase or decrease in paired sera titres or a single titre greater than or equal to 1:32 are used. These tests include complement fixation, enzyme-linked immunoassay, and indirect hemagglutination. However, a sputum Gram stain is usually not helpful because M pneumonia lacks a cell wall and cannot be stained. Additionally, the bacteria is difficult to culture, requiring special culture media and up to 21 days to grow.
In summary, serology tests are an important tool for detecting Mycoplasma pneumonia infection, but a second test and careful interpretation of results are necessary for accurate diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 38
Correct
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One of your younger colleagues confides in you that she has just been diagnosed with hepatitis B. She has not told anyone else as she is worried she may lose her job. She is currently working as a nurse in the local hospital. You try to persuade her to inform occupational health but she refuses. What is the most appropriate action?
Your Answer: Inform your colleagues employing body
Explanation:Patient safety is the top priority, as stated in the updated GMC guidelines.
GMC Guidance on Confidentiality
Confidentiality is a crucial aspect of medical practice that must be upheld at all times. The General Medical Council (GMC) provides extensive guidance on confidentiality, which can be accessed through a link provided. As such, we will not attempt to replicate the detailed information provided by the GMC here. It is important for healthcare professionals to familiarize themselves with the GMC’s guidance on confidentiality to ensure that they are meeting the necessary standards and protecting patient privacy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 39
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old aid worker returns from a 6-month placement in the former Soviet Union with a severe sore throat. He has a fever and generalised weakness and is restless. Examination reveals a swollen neck, tender lymph nodes and a white membrane over his throat. When you take a swab from the throat there is contact bleeding.
Select from the list the single most likely diagnosis.Your Answer: Acute HIV infection
Correct Answer: Diphtheria
Explanation:Diphtheria: A Rare but Serious Disease
Diphtheria is a rare disease in Western Europe, but it still exists in the former USSR. The disease has an incubation period of 2-6 days and causes severe sore throat, malaise, and a pseudomembrane over the throat. Removing the pseudomembrane can cause bleeding. The toxin produced by Corynebacterium diphtheriae can lead to myocarditis and bulbar palsy. Diagnosis is done through a throat swab, and treatment involves macrolide antibiotics and antitoxin in severe cases. People traveling to areas where diphtheria is endemic should get vaccinated against the disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 40
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman complains of a yellowish-green frothy offensive vaginal discharge that started one week ago. On examination, her vagina is erythematous. She also has dysuria and dyspareunia.
What is the most suitable diagnostic method in General Practice?Your Answer: Potassium hydroxide 'whiff test'
Correct Answer: Culture of a vaginal swab
Explanation:Diagnostic Methods for Trichomoniasis in Women
Trichomoniasis is a sexually transmitted infection caused by Trichomonas vaginalis. In women, it can cause symptoms such as vaginal discharge, itching, and pain during sex. To diagnose trichomoniasis, several diagnostic methods are available.
Culture of a vaginal swab is the standard for diagnosis. It is more sensitive and specific than microscopy. Swab specimens may be obtained by the patient, making it useful in resource-poor settings. The GP may also consider testing for other sexually transmitted diseases such as chlamydia and gonorrhoea.
Cervical smear has a low sensitivity for detecting Trichomonas and is not used for this purpose. The ‘whiff test’ (amine odour test) and vaginal pH test are not accurate means of diagnosing trichomoniasis as they may also indicate bacterial vaginosis.
Wet-mount microscopy has historically been used to diagnose trichomoniasis in women. However, it has a low sensitivity in detecting T vaginalis and specimens have to be examined fresh.
In conclusion, culture of a vaginal swab is the most reliable method for diagnosing trichomoniasis in women.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 41
Correct
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A mother of a 7-month-old baby with cerebral palsy visits the GP clinic to inquire about influenza immunizations. What is the most suitable vaccination for her child?
Your Answer: Annual intramuscular influenza vaccine
Explanation:The annual intramuscular flu vaccination is offered to children between 6 months to 2 years who are at high risk of flu. This includes babies with cerebral palsy, who are classified as high-risk patients and are eligible for the inactivated intramuscular influenza vaccination from the age of 6 months. It is important to note that the routine immunisation schedule offers a live intranasal influenza vaccine to children from the age of 2 years.
influenza vaccination is recommended in the UK between September and early November, as the influenza season typically starts in the middle of November. There are three types of influenza virus, with types A and B accounting for the majority of clinical disease. Prior to 2013, flu vaccination was only offered to the elderly and at-risk groups. However, a new NHS influenza vaccination programme for children was announced in 2013, with the children’s vaccine given intranasally and annually after the first dose at 2-3 years. It is important to note that the type of vaccine given to children and the one given to the elderly and at-risk groups is different, which explains the different contraindications.
For adults and at-risk groups, current vaccines are trivalent and consist of two subtypes of influenza A and one subtype of influenza B. The Department of Health recommends annual influenza vaccination for all people older than 65 years and those older than 6 months with chronic respiratory, heart, kidney, liver, neurological disease, diabetes mellitus, immunosuppression, asplenia or splenic dysfunction, or a body mass index >= 40 kg/m². Other at-risk individuals include health and social care staff, those living in long-stay residential care homes, and carers of the elderly or disabled person whose welfare may be at risk if the carer becomes ill.
The influenza vaccine is an inactivated vaccine that cannot cause influenza, but a minority of patients may develop fever and malaise that lasts 1-2 days. It should be stored between +2 and +8ºC and shielded from light, and contraindications include hypersensitivity to egg protein. In adults, the vaccination is around 75% effective, although this figure decreases in the elderly. It takes around 10-14 days after immunisation before antibody levels are at protective levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 42
Correct
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A phlebotomist in the hospital sustains a needlestick injury whilst taking blood from a patient who is known to be HIV positive. After thoroughly washing the wound, what is the most suitable course of action?
Your Answer: Refer to Emergency Department + oral antiretroviral therapy for 4 weeks
Explanation:Oral antiretroviral therapy for 4 weeks is used as post-exposure prophylaxis for HIV.
Post-Exposure Prophylaxis for Viral Infections
Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) is a preventive treatment given to individuals who have been exposed to a viral infection. The type of PEP given depends on the virus and the clinical situation. For hepatitis A, either human normal immunoglobulin or the hepatitis A vaccine may be used. For hepatitis B, the PEP given depends on whether the source is known to be positive for HBsAg or not. If the person exposed is a known responder to the HBV vaccine, then a booster dose should be given. If they are a non-responder, they need to have hepatitis B immune globulin and a booster vaccine. For hepatitis C, monthly PCR is recommended, and if seroconversion occurs, interferon +/- ribavirin may be given. For HIV, a combination of oral antiretrovirals should be given as soon as possible for four weeks. The risk of HIV transmission depends on the incident and the current viral load of the patient. For varicella zoster, VZIG is recommended for IgG negative pregnant women or immunosuppressed individuals. The risk of transmission for single needlestick injuries varies depending on the virus, with hepatitis B having a higher risk than hepatitis C and HIV.
Overall, PEP is an important preventive measure for individuals who have been exposed to viral infections. It is crucial to determine the appropriate PEP based on the virus and the clinical situation to ensure the best possible outcome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 43
Correct
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A 65-year-old healthcare worker receives a needlestick injury from a patient who is not known to be a carrier of blood-borne viral infections and is thought to be a low risk of having such an infection.
Select from the list the single most appropriate action.Your Answer: Take blood for virology (HIV, hepatitis B, hepatitis C) from the injured worker
Explanation:Risks and Guidelines for Healthcare Workers Exposed to Bloodborne Pathogens
Healthcare workers are at risk of exposure to bloodborne pathogens such as HIV, hepatitis B, and hepatitis C. While the risk of transmission is low, it is important to follow clear guidelines from the Department of Health to ensure the safety of the worker.
If a healthcare worker is exposed to blood, they should have blood taken for virology to check for HIV, hepatitis B, and hepatitis C. If there is a significant risk of HIV, post-exposure prophylaxis with antiretroviral therapy should be started as soon as possible. HIV status and hepatitis serology should be rechecked at 3 and 6 months, and liver function tests should be performed and repeated at these intervals as well. Female workers should also have their β-hCG level checked to exclude pregnancy.
Ideally, a sample of blood should be obtained from the donor to determine if they are a potential source of infection. Healthcare workers should already be immune to hepatitis B from previous immunization, but if not, they may need to receive the vaccine.
In summary, healthcare workers should be aware of the risks associated with exposure to bloodborne pathogens and follow the appropriate guidelines to ensure their safety.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 44
Correct
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A 4-year-old boy presents to the clinic with a fever that developed at home this morning. According to his mother, he has vomited twice and is now feeling very tired. During the examination, the child is cooperative and doesn't resist. His temperature is 38.1 degrees Celsius, and a non-blanching rash is visible on both thighs. What is the most appropriate initial step in managing this child?
Your Answer: Give IM benzylpenicillin sodium 600mg
Explanation:For a child aged 1-9 years, the recommended single dose of benzylpenicillin sodium prior to hospitalisation is 600mg, provided that it doesn’t cause any delay in transferring the child to the hospital. Any other dosage would be inappropriate for children in this age group.
When suspected bacterial meningitis is being investigated and managed, it is important to prioritize timely antibiotic treatment to avoid negative consequences. Patients should be urgently transferred to the hospital, and if meningococcal disease is suspected in a prehospital setting, intramuscular benzylpenicillin may be given. An ABC approach should be taken initially, and senior review is necessary if any warning signs are present. A key decision is when to attempt a lumbar puncture, which should be delayed in certain circumstances. Management of patients without indication for delayed LP includes IV antibiotics, with cefotaxime or ceftriaxone recommended for patients aged 3 months to 50 years. Additional tests that may be helpful include blood gases and throat swab for meningococcal culture. Prophylaxis needs to be offered to households and close contacts of patients affected with meningococcal meningitis, and meningococcal vaccination should be offered to close contacts when serotype results are available.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 45
Correct
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A woman you are treating for tuberculosis mentions that she has observed her urine turning orange since commencing treatment. Which medication is causing this change?
Your Answer: Rifampicin
Explanation:One of the peculiar side effects of rifampicin, a medication used in TB treatment, is the discoloration of bodily secretions to orange. However, the other medications used in TB treatment do not cause such a side effect. The notes below provide information on the side effects of these medications.
Tuberculosis is a bacterial infection that can be treated with a combination of drugs. Each drug has a specific mechanism of action and can also cause side-effects. Rifampicin works by inhibiting bacterial DNA dependent RNA polymerase, which prevents the transcription of DNA into mRNA. However, it is a potent liver enzyme inducer and can cause hepatitis, orange secretions, and flu-like symptoms.
Isoniazid, on the other hand, inhibits mycolic acid synthesis. It can cause peripheral neuropathy, which can be prevented with pyridoxine (Vitamin B6). It can also cause hepatitis and agranulocytosis, but it is a liver enzyme inhibitor.
Pyrazinamide is converted by pyrazinamidase into pyrazinoic acid, which inhibits fatty acid synthase (FAS) I. However, it can cause hyperuricaemia, leading to gout, as well as arthralgia and myalgia. It can also cause hepatitis.
Finally, Ethambutol inhibits the enzyme arabinosyl transferase, which polymerizes arabinose into arabinan. However, it can cause optic neuritis, so it is important to check visual acuity before and during treatment. The dose also needs adjusting in patients with renal impairment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 46
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman returns from a 3-week holiday to Thailand with a 5-day history of feeling generally unwell, feverish, nauseous with a loss of appetite and right upper quadrant pain.
Upon examination, she appears unwell with a temperature of 38.2ºC and a heart rate of 102 beats per minute. Abdominal examination reveals tender hepatomegaly.
Blood tests are conducted, and the results are as follows:
Hb 148 g/L Male: (135-180)
Female: (115 - 160)
Platelets 456 * 109/L (150 - 400)
WBC 12.2 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
Na+ 142 mmol/L (135 - 145)
K+ 4.3 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
Urea 5.2 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
Creatinine 76 µmol/L (55 - 120)
CRP 32 mg/L (< 5)
Bilirubin 42 µmol/L (3 - 17)
ALP 164 u/L (30 - 100)
ALT 512 u/L (3 - 40)
γGT 86 u/L (8 - 60)
Albumin 38 g/L (35 - 50)
What is the most probable diagnosis from the options below?Your Answer: Hepatitis A
Explanation:Hepatitis A is a viral infection that affects the liver and typically presents with flu-like symptoms, nausea, fatigue, and pain in the upper right quadrant of the abdomen. The liver may also become enlarged and tender, and liver function tests may be abnormal. As the infection progresses, it can lead to significant liver inflammation and a cholestatic picture.
While an amoebic abscess is a possibility given the patient’s history of travel and symptoms of fever and right upper quadrant pain, the blood tests do not fully support this diagnosis, as the white blood cell count and C-reactive protein are only mildly elevated, and the alanine transaminase (ALT) is significantly raised.
Ascending cholangitis, which is characterized by fever, right upper quadrant pain, and jaundice, is less likely in this scenario, as the liver function tests show marked hepatic inflammation with the raised ALT in proportion to the slightly raised bilirubin.
Cholecystitis, which is inflammation of the gallbladder, would not typically cause such a significant rise in ALT or the development of jaundice.
Understanding Hepatitis A: Symptoms, Transmission, and Prevention
Hepatitis A is a viral infection that affects the liver. It is usually a mild illness that resolves on its own, with serious complications being rare. The virus is transmitted through the faecal-oral route, often in institutions. The incubation period is typically 2-4 weeks, and symptoms include a flu-like prodrome, abdominal pain (usually in the right upper quadrant), tender hepatomegaly, jaundice, and deranged liver function tests.
While complications are rare, there is no increased risk of hepatocellular cancer. An effective vaccine is available, and it is recommended for people travelling to or residing in areas of high or intermediate prevalence, those with chronic liver disease, patients with haemophilia, men who have sex with men, injecting drug users, and individuals at occupational risk (such as laboratory workers, staff of large residential institutions, sewage workers, and people who work with primates).
It is important to note that the vaccine requires a booster dose 6-12 months after the initial dose. By understanding the symptoms, transmission, and prevention of hepatitis A, individuals can take steps to protect themselves and others from this viral infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 47
Incorrect
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Which blood tests are included in the standard antenatal screening program for women in the UK?
Your Answer: HIV
Correct Answer: Listeriosis
Explanation:Antenatal Screening in the UK: HIV, Listeriosis, Strep B, Hepatitis B and Haemoglobinopathies
Antenatal screening is an important part of prenatal care in the UK. HIV testing is routinely offered to pregnant women, as appropriate interventions can reduce transmission rates to less than 1%. Listeriosis, although not routinely tested for, is a concern for pregnant women as it can cause pregnancy and birth complications, and even result in miscarriage or the death of the baby. Strep B is also not routinely tested for, but pregnant women with risk factors should be screened as the infection can be life-threatening for newborns. Hepatitis B is part of routine screening, but Hepatitis C is only tested for in women with risk factors. Finally, screening for haemoglobinopathies varies across the UK, with all women in England and Scotland offered screening for sickle cell and thalassaemia, while in Wales only those at increased risk are screened and in Northern Ireland no policy decision has been made. It is important for pregnant women to be aware of these screening options and to discuss them with their healthcare provider.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 48
Correct
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Four middle-aged patients returned from a trip to Spain with symptoms of cough, fever, and general malaise. They had traveled with a group of 60 people and participated in activities such as hiking in the mountains and swimming in rivers. The group stayed in various hotels, but the four patients who fell ill all stayed in the same hotel. Based on this information, what is the most probable organism responsible for their illness?
Your Answer: Mycoplasma pneumoniae
Explanation:Legionnaires’ Disease: A Deadly Outbreak
Legionnaires’ disease is a severe form of pneumonia caused by Legionella pneumophila. The condition was first described in a veterans’ legion conference, where a group of attendees became ill with similar symptoms. The disease is often linked to contaminated air conditioning units, which can spread the bacteria through the air.
Symptoms of Legionnaires’ disease include fever, cough, shortness of breath, muscle aches, and headaches. In severe cases, the disease can lead to respiratory failure, septic shock, and even death. It is important to seek medical attention immediately if you experience any of these symptoms, especially if you have been exposed to a potential source of Legionella bacteria.
It is important to note that Weil’s disease and Lyme disease are unlikely to be the cause of the symptoms described in this scenario. Weil’s disease is caused by a different type of bacteria, while Lyme disease is transmitted by ticks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 49
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old male presents with painful genital ulcers a few weeks after a trip to Kenya.
On examination, he has multiple eroded genital ulcers, as well as a tender, enlarged lymph node present in the right inguinal region. He is systemically well.
Swabs of a genital ulcer are taken and a sexually-transmitted infection screen is performed. The results are shown below.
NAAT test: negative
Swab culture: Haemophilus ducreyi grown
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Lymphogranuloma venereum
Correct Answer: Chancroid
Explanation:Chancroid is a sexually transmitted infection that causes genital ulcers in tropical regions. The ulcers are multiple, have ragged edges, and a granular base. Painful, unilateral inguinal lymphadenopathy may also be present. The bacterium Haemophilus ducreyi is responsible for this condition.
Syphilis, on the other hand, is caused by the bacterium Treponema pallidum. Chancres, which are similar to chancroid ulcers, are painless, singular lesions with bilateral lymphadenopathy. They can heal without treatment.
Herpes simplex virus types 1 and 2 are common causes of sexually transmitted ulceration in the UK.
Lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV) is caused by the bacterium Chlamydia trachomatis. It presents with a singular, painless ulcer that resolves spontaneously.
Klebsiella granulomatis is responsible for granuloma inguinale, which presents with painless genital ulceration and inguinal node abscesses.
Understanding Chancroid
Chancroid is a disease that is commonly found in tropical regions and is caused by a bacterium called Haemophilus ducreyi. This disease is characterized by the development of painful ulcers in the genital area, which are often accompanied by painful swelling of the lymph nodes in the groin area on one side of the body. The ulcers are typically defined by a sharp, ragged border that appears to be undermined.
Chancroid is a sexually transmitted disease that can be easily spread through sexual contact with an infected person. Treatment typically involves a course of antibiotics, which can help to clear up the infection and prevent further spread of the disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 50
Correct
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A 14-year-old male from France comes to the clinic complaining of feeling sick for the past 2 weeks. At first, he had a sore throat but now he is having occasional joint pains in his knees, hips, and ankles. During the examination, some pink, ring-shaped lesions are observed on his trunk, and he occasionally experiences jerking movements of his face and hands. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Rheumatic fever
Explanation:Rheumatic fever is a condition that occurs as a result of an immune response to a recent Streptococcus pyogenes infection, typically occurring 2-4 weeks after the initial infection. The pathogenesis of rheumatic fever involves the activation of the innate immune system, leading to antigen presentation to T cells. B and T cells then produce IgG and IgM antibodies, and CD4+ T cells are activated. This immune response is thought to be cross-reactive, mediated by molecular mimicry, where antibodies against M protein cross-react with myosin and the smooth muscle of arteries. This response leads to the clinical features of rheumatic fever, including Aschoff bodies, which are granulomatous nodules found in rheumatic heart fever.
To diagnose rheumatic fever, evidence of recent streptococcal infection must be present, along with 2 major criteria or 1 major criterion and 2 minor criteria. Major criteria include erythema marginatum, Sydenham’s chorea, polyarthritis, carditis and valvulitis, and subcutaneous nodules. Minor criteria include raised ESR or CRP, pyrexia, arthralgia, and prolonged PR interval.
Management of rheumatic fever involves antibiotics, typically oral penicillin V, as well as anti-inflammatories such as NSAIDs as first-line treatment. Any complications that develop, such as heart failure, should also be treated. It is important to diagnose and treat rheumatic fever promptly to prevent long-term complications such as rheumatic heart disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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