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  • Question 1 - You are assessing a 55-year-old man who has been admitted with pneumonia. His...

    Correct

    • You are assessing a 55-year-old man who has been admitted with pneumonia. His medical history indicates that he consumes approximately 70-80 units of alcohol per week. Which medication would be the most suitable to administer to prevent the onset of alcohol withdrawal symptoms?

      Your Answer: Chlordiazepoxide

      Explanation:

      Alcohol withdrawal occurs when an individual who has been consuming alcohol chronically suddenly stops or reduces their intake. Chronic alcohol consumption enhances the inhibitory effects of GABA in the central nervous system, similar to benzodiazepines, and inhibits NMDA-type glutamate receptors. However, alcohol withdrawal leads to the opposite effect, resulting in decreased inhibitory GABA and increased NMDA glutamate transmission. Symptoms of alcohol withdrawal typically start at 6-12 hours and include tremors, sweating, tachycardia, and anxiety. Seizures are most likely to occur at 36 hours, while delirium tremens, which includes coarse tremors, confusion, delusions, auditory and visual hallucinations, fever, and tachycardia, peak at 48-72 hours.

      Patients with a history of complex withdrawals from alcohol, such as delirium tremens, seizures, or blackouts, should be admitted to the hospital for monitoring until their withdrawals stabilize. The first-line treatment for alcohol withdrawal is long-acting benzodiazepines, such as chlordiazepoxide or diazepam, which are typically given as part of a reducing dose protocol. Lorazepam may be preferable in patients with hepatic failure. Carbamazepine is also effective in treating alcohol withdrawal, while phenytoin is said to be less effective in treating alcohol withdrawal seizures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 2 - A 25-year-old man presents to the clinic with persistent beliefs that his coworkers...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man presents to the clinic with persistent beliefs that his coworkers are plotting against him and trying to sabotage his work, despite reassurance and evidence to the contrary. He has had multiple heated arguments with his colleagues and after each one, he becomes aggressive and blames them for his outbursts. He sometimes feels like he cannot function without them, but also sometimes feels that they are out to get him. He has a history of a recent suicide attempt and has difficulties trusting his family as he feels they are part of the conspiracy. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Paranoid personality disorder

      Correct Answer: Borderline personality disorder

      Explanation:

      The young man in question is likely suffering from borderline personality disorder (BPD), also known as emotionally unstable personality disorder (EUPD). This condition is characterized by unstable relationships, alternating between idealization and devaluation of others, recurrent self-harm, unstable self-image and self-esteem, suicidal behavior, difficulty controlling anger, and efforts to avoid abandonment. All of these traits are present in this patient, making BPD the most likely diagnosis.

      Narcissistic personality disorder is not a likely diagnosis for this patient, as it is characterized by a grandiose sense of self-importance, lack of empathy, and a sense of entitlement. These traits are not present in this patient, and his periods of devaluing her partner are temporary and not pervasive.

      Dependent personality disorder is also an unlikely diagnosis, as this condition is characterized by a pervasive need for others to make decisions for the patient and constant reassurance. While the patient has felt that he cannot live without his partner in the past, his labile mood and alternating view of his partner make this diagnosis less likely.

      Paranoid personality disorder is also an unlikely diagnosis, as patients with this condition tend to be reluctant to confide in others and have an unforgiving attitude when insulted or questioned. The patient in question does not exhibit these traits, and his difficulty with trusting friends is likely due to his belief that he is undeserving of them.

      Personality disorders are a set of personality traits that are maladaptive and interfere with normal functioning in life. It is estimated that around 1 in 20 people have a personality disorder, which are typically categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes Odd or Eccentric disorders such as Paranoid, Schizoid, and Schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes Dramatic, Emotional, or Erratic disorders such as Antisocial, Borderline (Emotionally Unstable), Histrionic, and Narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes Anxious and Fearful disorders such as Obsessive-Compulsive, Avoidant, and Dependent.

      Paranoid individuals exhibit hypersensitivity and an unforgiving attitude when insulted, a reluctance to confide in others, and a preoccupation with conspirational beliefs and hidden meanings. Schizoid individuals show indifference to praise and criticism, a preference for solitary activities, and emotional coldness. Schizotypal individuals exhibit odd beliefs and magical thinking, unusual perceptual disturbances, and inappropriate affect. Antisocial individuals fail to conform to social norms, deceive others, and exhibit impulsiveness, irritability, and aggressiveness. Borderline individuals exhibit unstable interpersonal relationships, impulsivity, and affective instability. Histrionic individuals exhibit inappropriate sexual seductiveness, a need to be the center of attention, and self-dramatization. Narcissistic individuals exhibit a grandiose sense of self-importance, lack of empathy, and excessive need for admiration. Obsessive-compulsive individuals are occupied with details, rules, and organization to the point of hampering completion of tasks. Avoidant individuals avoid interpersonal contact due to fears of criticism or rejection, while dependent individuals have difficulty making decisions without excessive reassurance from others.

      Personality disorders are difficult to treat, but a number of approaches have been shown to help patients, including psychological therapies such as dialectical behavior therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 3 - A 17-year-old girl presents to her General Practitioner (GP) with a 3-year history...

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    • A 17-year-old girl presents to her General Practitioner (GP) with a 3-year history of restricting food intake weight loss and excessive exercise. She attends her GP for the first time with her sibling reporting a recent worsening of her symptoms. The GP suspects anorexia nervosa.
      Which is the most appropriate investigation to determine whether the patient requires urgent hospital admission?

      Your Answer: Electrocardiogram (ECG)

      Explanation:

      Medical Investigations for Anorexia Nervosa: Which Ones Are Necessary?

      When assessing a patient with anorexia nervosa, certain medical investigations may be necessary to evaluate their overall health and identify any potential complications. However, not all investigations are routinely required. Here is a breakdown of some common investigations and when they may be necessary:

      Electrocardiogram (ECG): A baseline ECG is important to assess for any cardiovascular instability, including heart rate and QT interval. Electrolyte abnormalities from eating disorders can impact cardiac stability.

      24-hour Holter monitor: This investigation may be considered if there is a problem with the baseline ECG or a history of cardiac symptoms such as palpitations.

      Chest X-ray (CXR): A CXR is not routinely required unless there is clinical concern of other respiratory symptoms.

      Serum prolactin: This investigation is not routinely required unless there is a history of galactorrhoea or amenorrhoea.

      Transthoracic echocardiography: This investigation is not routinely required unless there is a clinical history or examination findings to suggest imaging of the heart is required.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 4 - A 25-year-old woman is brought into the emergency department by the police after...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman is brought into the emergency department by the police after being arrested in a local bar for odd and aggressive behaviour. Whilst taking a history she tells you that she can't understand why she has been arrested as she was just celebrating the fact that she has recently figured out how to solve world hunger and she wants to share this with everyone. You struggle to keep up with her pace of speech and throughout the consultation, she is aggressive and at times sexually inappropriate. An initial drug screen is clear and her bloods are unremarkable.
      What is the most likely cause of her behaviour?

      Your Answer: Manic episode

      Explanation:

      The woman is exhibiting clear indications of a manic episode, including rapid speech, uninhibited behavior, and grandiose delusions. Tests for drugs and alcohol have ruled out intoxication or drug-induced psychosis. Schizophrenia is unlikely as a first-time diagnosis, and the symptoms suggest mania or bipolar disorder. However, a diagnosis of bipolar disorder cannot be made without evidence of depressive symptoms. Therefore, the correct diagnosis in this case is an isolated manic episode of unknown origin.

      Understanding the Difference between Hypomania and Mania

      Hypomania and mania are two terms that are often used interchangeably, but they actually refer to two different conditions. While both conditions share some common symptoms, there are some key differences that set them apart.

      Mania is a more severe form of hypomania that lasts for at least seven days and can cause significant impairment in social and work settings. It may require hospitalization due to the risk of harm to oneself or others and may present with psychotic symptoms such as delusions of grandeur or auditory hallucinations.

      On the other hand, hypomania is a lesser version of mania that lasts for less than seven days, typically 3-4 days. It does not impair functional capacity in social or work settings and is unlikely to require hospitalization. It also does not exhibit any psychotic symptoms.

      Both hypomania and mania share common symptoms such as elevated or irritable mood, pressured speech, flight of ideas, poor attention, insomnia, loss of inhibitions, increased appetite, and risk-taking behavior. However, the length of symptoms, severity, and presence of psychotic symptoms help differentiate mania from hypomania.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 5 - A 30-year-old female arrives at the Emergency Department after intentionally overdosing on paracetamol....

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old female arrives at the Emergency Department after intentionally overdosing on paracetamol. What is the most significant indicator of an ongoing high risk of suicide?

      Your Answer: Made efforts to avoid herself being found by friends and family

      Explanation:

      Although deliberate self-harm is more prevalent among females, completed suicide is more prevalent among males.

      Suicide Risk Factors and Protective Factors

      Suicide risk assessment is a common practice in psychiatric care, with patients being stratified into high, medium, or low risk categories. However, there is a lack of evidence on the positive predictive value of individual risk factors. A review in the BMJ concluded that such assessments may not be useful in guiding decision-making, as 50% of suicides occur in patients deemed low risk. Nevertheless, certain factors have been associated with an increased risk of suicide, including male sex, history of deliberate self-harm, alcohol or drug misuse, mental illness, depression, schizophrenia, chronic disease, advancing age, unemployment or social isolation, and being unmarried, divorced, or widowed.

      If a patient has attempted suicide, there are additional risk factors to consider, such as efforts to avoid discovery, planning, leaving a written note, final acts such as sorting out finances, and using a violent method. On the other hand, there are protective factors that can reduce the risk of suicide, such as family support, having children at home, and religious belief. It is important to consider both risk and protective factors when assessing suicide risk and developing a treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 6 - A 27-year-old female is brought in under Section 2 of the Mental Health...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old female is brought in under Section 2 of the Mental Health Act. She was discovered at home, sitting on her bedroom floor in filthy clothes and in unsanitary conditions. Her attire indicated significant weight loss and she appeared severely dehydrated. She did not cooperate with the evaluation, seeming to ignore the team.

      Upon admission, her blood tests revealed hyperkalaemia and an acute kidney injury. While receiving treatment for this, she made no effort to eat or drink, remove her cannula, or leave the ward, nor did she show any signs of distress. She did not communicate with any staff, instead spending hours lying in bed staring into space.

      According to her GP, she has no prior medical history and has never been prescribed psychiatric medication before. What is the most appropriate course of treatment?

      Your Answer: Citalopram and short term lorazepam

      Correct Answer: Electroconvulsive therapy

      Explanation:

      When a patient is suffering from life-threatening major depressive disorder and is exhibiting catatonia, ECT is recommended. In this case, the patient is experiencing severe dehydration, suicidal thoughts, and catatonia, indicating the need for urgent treatment. While the patient has not previously taken any psychiatric medication, an SSRI like citalopram, even with augmentation, would not be suitable due to the severity of the illness. ECT is the best option for achieving rapid results.

      Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is a viable treatment option for patients who suffer from severe depression that does not respond to medication, such as catatonia, or those who experience psychotic symptoms. The only absolute contraindication for ECT is when a patient has raised intracranial pressure.

      Short-term side effects of ECT include headaches, nausea, short-term memory impairment, memory loss of events prior to the therapy, and cardiac arrhythmia. However, these side effects are typically temporary and resolve quickly.

      Long-term side effects of ECT are less common, but some patients have reported impaired memory. It is important to note that the benefits of ECT often outweigh the potential risks, and it can be a life-changing treatment for those who have not found relief from other forms of therapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 7 - Which one of the following is not an example of an atypical antipsychotic...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following is not an example of an atypical antipsychotic medication?

      Your Answer: Clozapine

      Correct Answer: Flupentixol

      Explanation:

      Atypical antipsychotics are now recommended as the first-line treatment for patients with schizophrenia, as per the 2005 NICE guidelines. These medications have the advantage of significantly reducing extrapyramidal side-effects. However, they can also cause adverse effects such as weight gain, hyperprolactinaemia, and in the case of clozapine, agranulocytosis. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued warnings about the increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients. Examples of atypical antipsychotics include clozapine, olanzapine, risperidone, quetiapine, amisulpride, and aripiprazole.

      Clozapine, one of the first atypical antipsychotics, carries a significant risk of agranulocytosis and requires full blood count monitoring during treatment. Therefore, it should only be used in patients who are resistant to other antipsychotic medication. The BNF recommends introducing clozapine if schizophrenia is not controlled despite the sequential use of two or more antipsychotic drugs, one of which should be a second-generation antipsychotic drug, each for at least 6-8 weeks. Adverse effects of clozapine include agranulocytosis, neutropaenia, reduced seizure threshold, constipation, myocarditis, and hypersalivation. Dose adjustment of clozapine may be necessary if smoking is started or stopped during treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 8 - A 50-year-old man who is on antipsychotic medication for schizophrenia complains of extreme...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man who is on antipsychotic medication for schizophrenia complains of extreme restlessness. Which side-effect of the medication could be causing this?

      Your Answer: Tardive dyskinesia

      Correct Answer: Akathisia

      Explanation:

      Severe restlessness may be caused by antipsychotics, known as akathisia.

      Antipsychotics are a group of drugs used to treat schizophrenia, psychosis, mania, and agitation. They are divided into two categories: typical and atypical antipsychotics. The latter were developed to address the extrapyramidal side-effects associated with the first generation of typical antipsychotics. Typical antipsychotics work by blocking dopaminergic transmission in the mesolimbic pathways through dopamine D2 receptor antagonism. They are associated with extrapyramidal side-effects and hyperprolactinaemia, which are less common with atypical antipsychotics.

      Extrapyramidal side-effects (EPSEs) are common with typical antipsychotics and include Parkinsonism, acute dystonia, sustained muscle contraction, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. The latter is a late onset of choreoathetoid movements that may be irreversible and occur in 40% of patients. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients, including an increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism. Other side-effects include antimuscarinic effects, sedation, weight gain, raised prolactin, impaired glucose tolerance, neuroleptic malignant syndrome, reduced seizure threshold, and prolonged QT interval.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 9 - A 30-year-old man with a history of schizophrenia presents to the Emergency Department...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man with a history of schizophrenia presents to the Emergency Department with drowsiness. Upon examination, he appears rigid. The medical team suspects neuroleptic malignant syndrome. Which of the following is not a feature of this condition?

      Your Answer: Renal failure

      Correct Answer: Usually occurs after prolonged treatment

      Explanation:

      Patients who have recently started treatment are commonly affected by neuroleptic malignant syndrome, which can lead to renal failure due to rhabdomyolysis.

      Understanding Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome

      Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a rare but serious condition that can occur in patients taking antipsychotic medication. It can also happen with dopaminergic drugs used for Parkinson’s disease. The exact cause of this condition is unknown, but it is believed that dopamine blockade induced by antipsychotics triggers massive glutamate release, leading to neurotoxicity and muscle damage. Symptoms of neuroleptic malignant syndrome typically appear within hours to days of starting an antipsychotic and include fever, muscle rigidity, autonomic lability, and agitated delirium with confusion.

      A raised creatine kinase is present in most cases, and acute kidney injury may develop in severe cases. Management of neuroleptic malignant syndrome involves stopping the antipsychotic medication and transferring the patient to a medical ward or intensive care unit. Intravenous fluids may be given to prevent renal failure, and dantrolene or bromocriptine may be used in selected cases. It is important to differentiate neuroleptic malignant syndrome from serotonin syndrome, which has similar symptoms but is caused by excessive serotonin activity.

      In summary, neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a rare but potentially life-threatening condition that can occur in patients taking antipsychotic medication or dopaminergic drugs. Early recognition and management are crucial to prevent complications and improve outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 10 - A 40-year-old inpatient experienced an episode of acute psychosis. He was given a...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old inpatient experienced an episode of acute psychosis. He was given a medication on the ward and later developed severe torticollis.
      What is the most probable drug that was administered to the patient?

      Your Answer: Lithium

      Correct Answer: Haloperidol

      Explanation:

      Common Psychiatric Medications and Their Side-Effects

      Haloperidol: A typical antipsychotic drug that can cause extrapyramidal side-effects (EPSEs), including acute dystonic reactions. Treatment is with anticholinergic drugs or benzodiazepines.

      Clozapine: An atypical antipsychotic mainly used in treatment-resistant schizophrenia. Common side-effects include sedation, constipation, hypersalivation, weight gain, and metabolic syndrome. Rare but important side-effects include agranulocytosis, arrhythmias, and myocarditis. EPSEs are possible but rare.

      Diazepam: A benzodiazepine used in anxiety, insomnia, seizures, and muscle spasms. Side-effects include sedation, muscle weakness, drowsiness, and confusion. EPSEs are not a recognised side-effect and may improve with the use of benzodiazepines.

      Lithium: A mood stabiliser used in the treatment of mania, depression, and bipolar disorder. Side-effects include gastrointestinal disturbances, tremor, polydipsia, polyuria, and electrolyte disturbances. Lithium-induced hypothyroidism is common. EPSEs are not a side-effect of lithium.

      Olanzapine: An atypical antipsychotic used in the treatment of schizophrenia and acute mania. Common side-effects include sedation, weight gain, and metabolic symptoms. EPSEs can occur but are not a typical side-effect of olanzapine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 11 - Which of the following is a side-effect of lithium therapy? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is a side-effect of lithium therapy?

      Your Answer: Hypothyroidism

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Side-Effects of Lithium Maintenance Therapy

      Lithium maintenance therapy is a common treatment for bipolar disorder, but it can also cause a range of side-effects. One of the most common is hypothyroidism, which affects up to 5% of patients on lithium and requires regular thyroid function tests. Weight gain, acne, tremors, and polydipsia are also common, as well as ankle edema and a metallic taste in the mouth. Lithium can also cause renal toxicity, so regular urea and electrolyte tests are necessary. However, lithium does not cause abnormal liver function or fever, and actually causes leukocytosis rather than leucopenia. Cystitis is also not a typical side-effect of lithium. Overall, understanding the potential side-effects of lithium maintenance therapy is crucial for managing bipolar disorder effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 12 - Which one of the following is not a recognized feature of anorexia nervosa...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following is not a recognized feature of anorexia nervosa in adolescents?

      Your Answer: Reduced growth hormone levels

      Explanation:

      Anorexia is characterized by low levels of various substances, including growth hormone, glucose, salivary glands, cortisol, cholesterol, and carotene.

      Characteristics of Anorexia Nervosa

      Anorexia nervosa is a disorder that is characterized by a number of clinical signs and physiological abnormalities. The most notable feature of this disorder is a reduced body mass index, which is often accompanied by bradycardia and hypotension. In addition, individuals with anorexia nervosa may experience enlarged salivary glands, which can cause discomfort and difficulty swallowing.

      Physiological abnormalities associated with anorexia nervosa include hypokalaemia, which is a deficiency of potassium in the blood, as well as low levels of FSH, LH, oestrogens, and testosterone. Individuals with anorexia nervosa may also have raised levels of cortisol and growth hormone, impaired glucose tolerance, hypercholesterolaemia, hypercarotinaemia, and low T3.

      Overall, anorexia nervosa is a complex disorder that can have a significant impact on an individual’s physical and emotional well-being. It is important for individuals who are struggling with this disorder to seek professional help in order to receive the support and treatment they need to recover.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 13 - A 27-year-old man visits his GP and insists on getting a CT scan...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old man visits his GP and insists on getting a CT scan of his abdomen, claiming that he is certain he has cancer despite previous negative test results. What type of disorder does this behavior exemplify?

      Your Answer: Hypochondrial disorder

      Explanation:

      Somatisation refers to the manifestation of physical symptoms that cannot be explained by any underlying medical condition. On the other hand, hypochondria is a condition where a person constantly worries about having a serious illness, often believing that minor symptoms are signs of a life-threatening disease such as cancer.

      Psychiatric Terms for Unexplained Symptoms

      There are various psychiatric terms used to describe patients who exhibit symptoms for which no organic cause can be found. One such disorder is somatisation disorder, which involves the presence of multiple physical symptoms for at least two years, and the patient’s refusal to accept reassurance or negative test results. Another disorder is illness anxiety disorder, which is characterized by a persistent belief in the presence of an underlying serious disease, such as cancer, despite negative test results.

      Conversion disorder is another condition that involves the loss of motor or sensory function, and the patient does not consciously feign the symptoms or seek material gain. Patients with this disorder may be indifferent to their apparent disorder, a phenomenon known as la belle indifference. Dissociative disorder, on the other hand, involves the process of ‘separating off’ certain memories from normal consciousness, and may manifest as amnesia, fugue, or stupor. Dissociative identity disorder (DID) is the most severe form of dissociative disorder and was previously known as multiple personality disorder.

      Factitious disorder, also known as Munchausen’s syndrome, involves the intentional production of physical or psychological symptoms. Finally, malingering is the fraudulent simulation or exaggeration of symptoms with the intention of financial or other gain. Understanding these psychiatric terms can help healthcare professionals better diagnose and treat patients with unexplained symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 14 - A 25-year-old man has recurrent, persistent, intrusive, distressing thoughts and images of his...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man has recurrent, persistent, intrusive, distressing thoughts and images of his friends getting hurt. He reports that these thoughts seem to originate from his own mind, but he considers them to be irrational.
      Which symptom is he reporting?

      Your Answer: Delusions

      Correct Answer: Obsessions

      Explanation:

      Understanding Psychiatric Symptoms: Obsessions, Compulsions, Delusions, Hallucinations, and Thought Interference

      Psychiatric symptoms can be complex and difficult to understand. Here are some explanations of common symptoms:

      Obsessions are intrusive thoughts, images, or impulses that repetitively and stereotypically enter a person’s mind. They are often distressing and patients try unsuccessfully to resist them. Common themes include aggression, dirt and contamination, fear of causing harm, religion, and sex.

      Compulsions are repetitive and stereotyped acts or rituals that are often carried out as an attempt to neutralize distressing obsessional thoughts. Patients typically recognize these behaviors as pointless and ineffective, and try to resist them, often unsuccessfully.

      Delusions are false, fixed, and firmly held beliefs that are not in keeping with a person’s social, cultural, and religious background. Patients typically do not recognize them as false or irrational and do not try to resist them, even if they find them distressing.

      Hallucinations are sensory experiences that occur without an external stimulus that could produce such perception. They can be perceptions in any sensory modality, such as hearing a voice in the absence of anyone actually talking.

      Thought interference consists of a patient’s firm belief that an external entity is interfering with their thoughts, usually by introducing thoughts in their mind, stealing thoughts from them, or being able to access their thoughts. Patients usually lack insight into these pathological experiences.

      Understanding these symptoms can help individuals and their loved ones seek appropriate treatment and support.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 15 - A 14-year-old girl has been found to be regularly skipping school, frequently arguing...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old girl has been found to be regularly skipping school, frequently arguing with other students and has been caught smoking on several occasions. Her general practitioner suspects a diagnosis of conduct disorder. She has already been diagnosed with anxiety disorder. She is not currently on any medications.
      Given the new suspected diagnosis of conduct disorder, what is the most appropriate initial management option for this patient?

      Your Answer: Referral to Child and Adolescent Mental Health Services (CAMHS) for another primary assessment by the team

      Correct Answer: Refer for cognitive behavioural therapy

      Explanation:

      Management of Conduct Disorder: Interventions and Referrals

      Conduct disorder is a psychiatric condition characterized by persistent patterns of aggressive and antisocial behavior. The management of conduct disorder involves a combination of pharmacological and psychosocial interventions. Here are some of the key interventions and referrals for managing conduct disorder:

      Cognitive Behavioral Therapy (CBT): CBT techniques are used as part of the psychosocial interventions for conduct disorder. These techniques are considered as part of the first-line management of conduct disorder.

      Methylphenidate: Methylphenidate is a medication that is used in the treatment of ADHD, which is often a coexisting condition with conduct disorder. This medication should only be initiated and coordinated by a specialist in secondary care (such as CAMHS).

      Antidepressant Medications: Antidepressant medications should not be the first line in the management of conduct disorder, particularly with no coexisting health conditions. If there were depressive symptoms, these medications could be considered but are generally avoided in this age group.

      Psychosocial Interventions: Psychosocial interventions are important in the management of conduct disorder. These include child-focussed programmes, multimodal interventions and parent training programmes. These interventions would be considered first-line management for conduct disorder if there was not the co-existing complicating factor of ADHD.

      Referral to Child and Adolescent Mental Health Services (CAMHS): Patients presenting with symptoms of conduct disorder with a significant complicating factor should be referred to CAMHS for specialist assessment. These factors include mental health problems, neurodevelopmental disorder, learning disability or difficulty, and substance misuse. However, if the patient has already been referred to CAMHS, re-referral would not be necessary.

      Managing Conduct Disorder: Interventions and Referrals

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 16 - A 67-year-old male with a history of ischaemic heart disease is experiencing depression...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old male with a history of ischaemic heart disease is experiencing depression after a recent heart attack. Which antidepressant would be the most suitable to initiate?

      Your Answer: Sertraline

      Explanation:

      Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are commonly used as the first-line treatment for depression. Citalopram and fluoxetine are the preferred SSRIs, while sertraline is recommended for patients who have had a myocardial infarction. However, caution should be exercised when prescribing SSRIs to children and adolescents. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and patients taking SSRIs are at an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Patients should also be aware of the possibility of increased anxiety and agitation after starting a SSRI. Fluoxetine and paroxetine have a higher propensity for drug interactions.

      The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) has issued a warning regarding the use of citalopram due to its association with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation. As a result, citalopram and escitalopram should not be used in patients with congenital long QT syndrome, known pre-existing QT interval prolongation, or in combination with other medicines that prolong the QT interval. The maximum daily dose of citalopram is now 40 mg for adults, 20 mg for patients older than 65 years, and 20 mg for those with hepatic impairment.

      When initiating antidepressant therapy, patients should be reviewed by a doctor after 2 weeks. Patients under the age of 25 years or at an increased risk of suicide should be reviewed after 1 week. If a patient responds well to antidepressant therapy, they should continue treatment for at least 6 months after remission to reduce the risk of relapse. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period, except for fluoxetine. Paroxetine has a higher incidence of discontinuation symptoms, including mood changes, restlessness, difficulty sleeping, unsteadiness, sweating, gastrointestinal symptoms, and paraesthesia.

      When considering the use of SSRIs during pregnancy, the benefits and risks should be weighed. Use during the first trimester may increase the risk of congenital heart defects, while use during the third trimester can result in persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn. Paroxetine has an increased risk of congenital malformations, particularly in the first trimester.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 17 - A 22-year-old woman presents to her GP for a follow-up appointment regarding her...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old woman presents to her GP for a follow-up appointment regarding her generalised anxiety disorder (GAD). During her previous visit, she was provided with information about GAD and referred for individual guided self-help. However, she continues to experience persistent worry throughout the day and has difficulty relaxing. Her family has also noticed that she is more irritable. The patient expresses interest in trying medication for her anxiety. What would be the most suitable medication to prescribe for her?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sertraline

      Explanation:

      Sertraline is the recommended first-line medication for treating generalised anxiety disorder (GAD). This patient exhibits typical symptoms of GAD and has already undergone step 1 and step 2 of treatment without improvement. Therefore, she requires step 3, which involves either high-intensity psychological intervention or drug treatment. As the patient prefers drug treatment, sertraline is the appropriate choice as it is the most cost-effective SSRI for GAD according to NICE guidelines. Citalopram and fluoxetine are also SSRIs that may be used as second-line treatments if sertraline is not effective or tolerated. Diazepam, a benzodiazepine, is not recommended for GAD due to the risk of dependence, except in short-term crisis situations.

      Anxiety is a common disorder that can manifest in various ways. According to NICE, the primary feature is excessive worry about multiple events associated with heightened tension. It is crucial to consider potential physical causes when diagnosing anxiety disorders, such as hyperthyroidism, cardiac disease, and medication-induced anxiety. Medications that may trigger anxiety include salbutamol, theophylline, corticosteroids, antidepressants, and caffeine.

      NICE recommends a step-wise approach for managing generalised anxiety disorder (GAD). This includes education about GAD and active monitoring, low-intensity psychological interventions, high-intensity psychological interventions or drug treatment, and highly specialist input. Sertraline is the first-line SSRI for drug treatment, and if it is ineffective, an alternative SSRI or a serotonin-noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor (SNRI) such as duloxetine or venlafaxine may be offered. If the patient cannot tolerate SSRIs or SNRIs, pregabalin may be considered. For patients under 30 years old, NICE recommends warning them of the increased risk of suicidal thinking and self-harm and weekly follow-up for the first month.

      The management of panic disorder also follows a stepwise approach, including recognition and diagnosis, treatment in primary care, review and consideration of alternative treatments, review and referral to specialist mental health services, and care in specialist mental health services. NICE recommends either cognitive behavioural therapy or drug treatment in primary care. SSRIs are the first-line drug treatment, and if contraindicated or no response after 12 weeks, imipramine or clomipramine should be offered.

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  • Question 18 - You are on a GP placement and seeing a 44-year-old woman with a...

    Incorrect

    • You are on a GP placement and seeing a 44-year-old woman with a history of depression. She has recently gone through a divorce and admits to having thoughts of taking an overdose. She has never attempted suicide before, but feels like she has no other options. She has the pills at home and is considering taking them. She denies any substance abuse. What is the appropriate course of action in this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Speak to the CRISIS team

      Explanation:

      This scenario requires you to demonstrate your ability to evaluate and handle a patient who is contemplating suicide. The patient in question has several risk factors, including being male, having a history of depression, recently going through a separation, and expressing a desire to end his life in the future. It is crucial to respond appropriately in this situation. The most suitable team to evaluate and manage this patient is the CRISIS team, who can provide urgent assessment and care.

      The other options are not as effective. Transferring the patient to the Emergency Department would only delay the referral to the crisis team. CAMH, which stands for child and adolescent mental health, is not the appropriate team to handle this case. It is not within your professional scope to initiate relationship counseling. Given the patient’s numerous risk factors, it would not be safe to discharge him without a psychiatric evaluation.

      In 2022, NICE updated its guidelines on managing depression and now classifies it as either less severe or more severe based on a patient’s PHQ-9 score. For less severe depression, NICE recommends discussing treatment options with patients and considering the least intrusive and resource-intensive treatment first. Antidepressant medication should not be routinely offered as first-line treatment unless it is the patient’s preference. Treatment options for less severe depression include guided self-help, group cognitive behavioral therapy, group behavioral activation, individual CBT or BA, group exercise, group mindfulness and meditation, interpersonal psychotherapy, SSRIs, counseling, and short-term psychodynamic psychotherapy. For more severe depression, NICE recommends a shared decision-making approach and suggests a combination of individual CBT and an antidepressant as the preferred treatment option. Other treatment options for more severe depression include individual CBT or BA, antidepressant medication, individual problem-solving, counseling, short-term psychodynamic psychotherapy, interpersonal psychotherapy, guided self-help, and group exercise.

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  • Question 19 - A 50-year-old man who is being treated for schizophrenia with chlorpromazine experiences involuntary...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man who is being treated for schizophrenia with chlorpromazine experiences involuntary puckering of the lips. Which side effect of antipsychotic medication does this exemplify?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tardive dyskinesia

      Explanation:

      Tardive dyskinesia can be caused by antipsychotics.

      Antipsychotics are a group of drugs used to treat schizophrenia, psychosis, mania, and agitation. They are divided into two categories: typical and atypical antipsychotics. The latter were developed to address the extrapyramidal side-effects associated with the first generation of typical antipsychotics. Typical antipsychotics work by blocking dopaminergic transmission in the mesolimbic pathways through dopamine D2 receptor antagonism. They are associated with extrapyramidal side-effects and hyperprolactinaemia, which are less common with atypical antipsychotics.

      Extrapyramidal side-effects (EPSEs) are common with typical antipsychotics and include Parkinsonism, acute dystonia, sustained muscle contraction, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. The latter is a late onset of choreoathetoid movements that may be irreversible and occur in 40% of patients. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients, including an increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism. Other side-effects include antimuscarinic effects, sedation, weight gain, raised prolactin, impaired glucose tolerance, neuroleptic malignant syndrome, reduced seizure threshold, and prolonged QT interval.

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  • Question 20 - A 9-year-old patient is brought to General Practitioner by his parents because he...

    Incorrect

    • A 9-year-old patient is brought to General Practitioner by his parents because he has been disruptive at school. His teachers report that he does not pay attention in class, bullies other classmates and takes their food during lunchtime without their permission. One teacher also reported that the patient was seen hurting the class hamster.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Conduct disorder

      Explanation:

      Understanding Different Types of Behavioral Disorders in Children and Adults

      Conduct Disorder:
      Conduct disorder is a behavioral disorder that affects individuals under the age of 18. It is characterized by repetitive behavior that violates the rights of others, including bullying and torture of animals.

      Major Depression:
      Major depression is a mood disorder that is diagnosed when an individual experiences depressed mood along with at least five of the following symptoms: changes in sleep patterns, loss of interest in activities, feelings of guilt, decreased energy, difficulty concentrating, changes in appetite, sluggishness, and suicidal thoughts.

      Antisocial Disorder:
      Individuals who exhibit signs of conduct disorder and are 18 years or older are diagnosed with antisocial personality disorder.

      Manic Episode:
      Mania is a mood disorder characterized by elevated mood lasting for at least 7 days. Symptoms include increased energy, decreased need for sleep, risky sexual behavior, feelings of invincibility, distractibility, flight of ideas, agitation, and pressured speech.

      Oppositional Defiant Disorder:
      Oppositional defiant disorder is a behavioral disorder characterized by oppositional behavior towards authority figures. However, there is no violation of the rights of others or extreme behavior such as bullying or animal cruelty.

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  • Question 21 - A 50-year-old man with schizophrenia who is on chlorpromazine experiences an oculogyric crisis....

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man with schizophrenia who is on chlorpromazine experiences an oculogyric crisis. Which side effect of antipsychotic medication does this exemplify?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acute dystonia

      Explanation:

      Antipsychotics are a group of drugs used to treat schizophrenia, psychosis, mania, and agitation. They are divided into two categories: typical and atypical antipsychotics. The latter were developed to address the extrapyramidal side-effects associated with the first generation of typical antipsychotics. Typical antipsychotics work by blocking dopaminergic transmission in the mesolimbic pathways through dopamine D2 receptor antagonism. They are associated with extrapyramidal side-effects and hyperprolactinaemia, which are less common with atypical antipsychotics.

      Extrapyramidal side-effects (EPSEs) are common with typical antipsychotics and include Parkinsonism, acute dystonia, sustained muscle contraction, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. The latter is a late onset of choreoathetoid movements that may be irreversible and occur in 40% of patients. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients, including an increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism. Other side-effects include antimuscarinic effects, sedation, weight gain, raised prolactin, impaired glucose tolerance, neuroleptic malignant syndrome, reduced seizure threshold, and prolonged QT interval.

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  • Question 22 - A woman contacts the local psychiatry crisis team, worried about her daughter -...

    Incorrect

    • A woman contacts the local psychiatry crisis team, worried about her daughter - who has previously been diagnosed with schizophrenia - becoming more isolated and paranoid about her surroundings. She reports that her daughter is increasingly concerned about her neighbors eavesdropping on her conversations. Her symptoms were previously well managed on daily risperidone. When the woman visited her daughter, she discovered unopened boxes of her medication on the counter.

      What would be a suitable course of treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Depot risperidone injections

      Explanation:

      Considering the patient’s increasing symptoms of psychosis, it is possible that non-compliance with their risperidone medication is an issue. In such cases, it is recommended to consider once monthly IM antipsychotic depot injections for patients with poor oral compliance. However, the patient’s risperidone dose would need to be re-titrated to their previous level.

      Clozapine is typically used for treatment-resistant psychosis after trying two other antipsychotics. However, there is no evidence of the patient having tried multiple antipsychotics, and it appears that risperidone was effectively controlling their symptoms. If risperidone is not effective, quetiapine could be tried before considering Clozapine, provided there are no contraindications.

      While cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT) can be helpful in reducing symptoms of psychosis, it is less likely to be effective than monthly depot injections.

      Based on the patient’s history, there is no indication that they pose a risk to themselves or others that would warrant admission. Therefore, efforts should be made to manage the patient in the community.

      Atypical antipsychotics are now recommended as the first-line treatment for patients with schizophrenia, as per the 2005 NICE guidelines. These medications have the advantage of significantly reducing extrapyramidal side-effects. However, they can also cause adverse effects such as weight gain, hyperprolactinaemia, and in the case of clozapine, agranulocytosis. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued warnings about the increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients. Examples of atypical antipsychotics include clozapine, olanzapine, risperidone, quetiapine, amisulpride, and aripiprazole.

      Clozapine, one of the first atypical antipsychotics, carries a significant risk of agranulocytosis and requires full blood count monitoring during treatment. Therefore, it should only be used in patients who are resistant to other antipsychotic medication. The BNF recommends introducing clozapine if schizophrenia is not controlled despite the sequential use of two or more antipsychotic drugs, one of which should be a second-generation antipsychotic drug, each for at least 6-8 weeks. Adverse effects of clozapine include agranulocytosis, neutropaenia, reduced seizure threshold, constipation, myocarditis, and hypersalivation. Dose adjustment of clozapine may be necessary if smoking is started or stopped during treatment.

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  • Question 23 - A 65-year-old woman comes to you with complaints of feeling low and having...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman comes to you with complaints of feeling low and having trouble sleeping. Upon further discussion and administering a validated symptom measure, you diagnose her with moderate depression. She has a medical history of ischemic heart disease and is currently on aspirin, ramipril, and simvastatin. What would be the best course of action in this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Start sertraline + lansoprazole

      Explanation:

      Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are commonly used as the first-line treatment for depression. Citalopram and fluoxetine are the preferred SSRIs, while sertraline is recommended for patients who have had a myocardial infarction. However, caution should be exercised when prescribing SSRIs to children and adolescents. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and patients taking SSRIs are at an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Patients should also be aware of the possibility of increased anxiety and agitation after starting a SSRI. Fluoxetine and paroxetine have a higher propensity for drug interactions.

      The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) has issued a warning regarding the use of citalopram due to its association with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation. As a result, citalopram and escitalopram should not be used in patients with congenital long QT syndrome, known pre-existing QT interval prolongation, or in combination with other medicines that prolong the QT interval. The maximum daily dose of citalopram is now 40 mg for adults, 20 mg for patients older than 65 years, and 20 mg for those with hepatic impairment.

      When initiating antidepressant therapy, patients should be reviewed by a doctor after 2 weeks. Patients under the age of 25 years or at an increased risk of suicide should be reviewed after 1 week. If a patient responds well to antidepressant therapy, they should continue treatment for at least 6 months after remission to reduce the risk of relapse. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period, except for fluoxetine. Paroxetine has a higher incidence of discontinuation symptoms, including mood changes, restlessness, difficulty sleeping, unsteadiness, sweating, gastrointestinal symptoms, and paraesthesia.

      When considering the use of SSRIs during pregnancy, the benefits and risks should be weighed. Use during the first trimester may increase the risk of congenital heart defects, while use during the third trimester can result in persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn. Paroxetine has an increased risk of congenital malformations, particularly in the first trimester.

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  • Question 24 - In an elderly patient, which of the following is the single most likely...

    Incorrect

    • In an elderly patient, which of the following is the single most likely statement indicating an increased risk of suicide?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A direct statement of intent to attempt suicide

      Explanation:

      Understanding Suicide Risk Factors

      Suicide is a complex issue with various risk factors that can contribute to its occurrence. One of the most obvious warning signs is a direct statement of intent to attempt suicide. It is important to take these statements seriously and seek help immediately.

      Physical illness, especially if it is prolonged and associated with pain and/or a poor prognosis, is also a well-recognized risk factor for suicide. Additionally, caring for a dying friend or relative can increase the risk, albeit to a lesser extent.

      Unemployment is another risk factor, as it can lead to feelings of hopelessness and financial strain. Living alone, particularly after a bereavement, can also indicate a higher risk, especially if the person was dependent on the deceased.

      While paranoid delusions can occur in depressive illness, they do not have any special significance in assessing suicide risk. However, approximately one in twenty people with schizophrenia attempt suicide, with a higher risk at the onset of the illness and if there is associated depressive illness.

      It is important to understand these risk factors and seek help if you or someone you know is struggling with suicidal thoughts. Remember, there is always hope and help available.

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  • Question 25 - In a 16-year-old girl with severe weight loss, which of the following would...

    Incorrect

    • In a 16-year-old girl with severe weight loss, which of the following would be a common finding in association with anorexia nervosa (AN)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increased excessive physical activity

      Explanation:

      Features and Diagnostic Criteria of Anorexia Nervosa

      Anorexia Nervosa (AN) is a serious eating disorder characterized by a distorted body image and an intense fear of gaining weight. Here are some features and diagnostic criteria of AN:

      Increased excessive physical activity: Patients with AN tend to exercise excessively to lose weight.

      Low plasma cortisol levels: AN patients have low levels of cortisol, a hormone that helps regulate metabolism and stress response.

      Buccal pigmentation: This is not a typical feature of AN.

      Raised gonadotrophin levels: Gonadotrophin levels are usually reduced in AN, leading to amenorrhoea in women and loss of sexual interest in men.

      Hyperkalaemia: AN patients may have high levels of potassium in their blood.

      Diagnostic criteria: According to the ICD-10, a definite diagnosis of AN requires body weight maintained at least 15% below the expected, self-induced weight loss, body image distortion, endocrine disorder involving the hypothalamic–pituitary–gonadal axis, and delayed or arrested pubertal events if onset is prepubertal.

      Understanding Anorexia Nervosa: Features and Diagnostic Criteria

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  • Question 26 - Sarah is a 25-year-old woman with schizophrenia who has had multiple admissions under...

    Incorrect

    • Sarah is a 25-year-old woman with schizophrenia who has had multiple admissions under the Mental Health Act (1983).
      Her consultant has utilized a Section of the Mental Health Act that permits Sarah to be brought back to the hospital for treatment if certain conditions are not met, such as if she declines to take her depot antipsychotic.
      What is the name of this Section?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Section 17a (Community Treatment Order)

      Explanation:

      Sectioning under the Mental Health Act is a legal process used for individuals who refuse voluntary admission. This process excludes patients who are under the influence of drugs or alcohol. There are several sections under the Mental Health Act that allow for different types of admission and treatment.

      Section 2 allows for admission for assessment for up to 28 days, which is not renewable. An Approved Mental Health Professional (AMHP) or the nearest relative (NR) can make the application on the recommendation of two doctors, one of whom should be an approved consultant psychiatrist. Treatment can be given against the patient’s wishes.

      Section 3 allows for admission for treatment for up to 6 months, which can be renewed. An AMHP and two doctors, both of whom must have seen the patient within the past 24 hours, can make the application. Treatment can also be given against the patient’s wishes.

      Section 4 is used as an emergency 72-hour assessment order when a section 2 would involve an unacceptable delay. A GP and an AMHP or NR can make the application, which is often changed to a section 2 upon arrival at the hospital.

      Section 5(2) allows a doctor to legally detain a voluntary patient in hospital for 72 hours, while section 5(4) allows a nurse to detain a voluntary patient for 6 hours.

      Section 17a allows for Supervised Community Treatment (Community Treatment Order) and can be used to recall a patient to the hospital for treatment if they do not comply with the conditions of the order in the community, such as taking medication.

      Section 135 allows for a court order to be obtained to allow the police to break into a property to remove a person to a Place of Safety. Section 136 allows for someone found in a public place who appears to have a mental disorder to be taken by the police to a Place of Safety. This section can only be used for up to 24 hours while a Mental Health Act assessment is arranged.

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  • Question 27 - You are evaluating a 23-year-old man who reports experiencing auditory hallucinations that have...

    Incorrect

    • You are evaluating a 23-year-old man who reports experiencing auditory hallucinations that have been occurring more frequently, now happening every day. Based on his history, which of the following factors is the most significant risk factor for psychotic disorders?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Having a parent with schizophrenia

      Explanation:

      The most significant risk factor for psychotic disorders is a person’s family history.

      Understanding the Epidemiology of Schizophrenia

      Schizophrenia is a psychotic disorder that affects a significant portion of the population. The strongest risk factor for developing this condition is having a family history of the disorder. Individuals with a parent who has schizophrenia have a relative risk of 7.5. Additionally, monozygotic twins have a 50% chance of developing schizophrenia, while siblings have a 10% chance. In contrast, individuals with no relatives with schizophrenia have a 1% chance of developing the disorder.

      Aside from family history, other factors can increase the risk of developing schizophrenia. Black Caribbean ethnicity has a relative risk of 5.4, while migration and living in an urban environment have relative risks of 2.9 and 2.4, respectively. Cannabis use also increases the risk of developing schizophrenia, with a relative risk of 1.4.

      Understanding the epidemiology of schizophrenia is crucial in identifying individuals who may be at risk of developing the disorder. By recognizing these risk factors, healthcare professionals can provide early interventions and support to prevent or manage the onset of schizophrenia.

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  • Question 28 - A 62-year-old woman is brought to her GP by her daughter. She reports...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old woman is brought to her GP by her daughter. She reports that she has a 2-year history of progressive memory impairment (especially for recent events), worsening apathy and occasional disorientation in previously familiar environments. She scores 22/30 on the Mini-Mental State Examination. Her BP is 140/90, and pulse 70 and regular. She is a non-smoker. She takes medication for hypertension.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Alzheimer’s disease

      Explanation:

      Understanding Different Types of Dementia

      Dementia is a common condition that affects a significant portion of the elderly population. Alzheimer’s disease is the most common type of dementia, accounting for over 60% of cases. It typically starts with memory impairment, particularly affecting recent events, and gradually progresses to language and visuospatial dysfunction, apathy, and behavioural problems.

      Vascular dementia is the second most common type of dementia, and it is often associated with a history of cerebrovascular or cardiovascular disease. Depression can also cause memory impairment and apathy, but the characteristic pattern of memory disturbance seen in Alzheimer’s disease makes it a more likely diagnosis in this case.

      Mild cognitive impairment is a condition where memory impairment is present, but other cognitive domains and activities of daily living are preserved. It is estimated that between 5 and 20% of people over 65 have MCI, and about 30% of them will develop dementia within two years.

      Lewy-body dementia is another type of dementia that accounts for about 20% of cases. It typically presents with parkinsonism, fluctuating cognitive impairment, and visual hallucinations, which are not present in this vignette.

      Understanding the different types of dementia and their characteristic features is important for accurate diagnosis and appropriate management.

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  • Question 29 - A 67-year-old male with metastatic prostate cancer is seen in clinic. His wife...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old male with metastatic prostate cancer is seen in clinic. His wife reports that he has been experiencing confusion and occasionally talks to people who are not present. Despite investigations for reversible causes, no underlying issues are found. If conservative measures prove ineffective and he continues to exhibit confusion and agitation, what is the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral haloperidol

      Explanation:

      Palliative Care Prescribing for Agitation and Confusion

      When dealing with agitation and confusion in palliative care patients, it is important to identify and treat any underlying causes such as hypercalcaemia, infection, urinary retention, or medication. If these specific treatments fail, medication can be used to manage symptoms. Haloperidol is the first choice for treating agitation and confusion, with chlorpromazine and levomepromazine as alternative options. In the terminal phase of the illness, midazolam is the preferred medication for managing agitation or restlessness. Proper management of these symptoms can greatly improve the quality of life for palliative care patients.

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  • Question 30 - A 21-year-old man is brought to his GP by his mother, who reports...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old man is brought to his GP by his mother, who reports a six-month history of weight loss, apathy and poor self-care. He withdrew from college soon after starting his course, and now spends most of his time alone in his room playing video games. He has recently accused his mother of trying to poison him. During the interview, he appears suspicious and hesitant to speak with you.
      What is the most probable cause of this presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Schizophrenia

      Explanation:

      The most likely diagnosis for the patient in this vignette is schizophrenia. Early symptoms of schizophrenia can include social withdrawal and behavioral changes, which may go unnoticed before the onset of delusions and hallucinations. The patient’s belief that his mother is trying to poison him needs to be explored to confirm whether it is an actual delusion. While illicit drug use can cause psychotic symptoms similar to schizophrenia, the gradual onset and progression of symptoms in this case suggest a diagnosis of schizophrenia rather than amphetamine misuse. Depression can also cause delusions, but depressive delusions are usually congruent with the mood and tend to have themes of guilt or hopelessness. The combination of symptoms presented in this vignette cannot be safely explained by normal teenage behavior. While schizotypal disorder can resemble schizophrenia, it does not have the characteristic symptoms seen in this vignette.

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Psychiatry (8/16) 50%
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