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  • Question 1 - A 45-year-old man presents to his GP with persistent wheezing and difficulty breathing....

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man presents to his GP with persistent wheezing and difficulty breathing. Despite being prescribed a salbutamol inhaler, his symptoms continue and he is forced to take time off work. His GP increases his treatment by adding oral prednisolone, which initially helps but his symptoms return upon returning to work. However, during a two-week vacation, his wheezing significantly improves. Upon returning to work, he suffers an acute asthma attack and is taken to the hospital by ambulance. Which diagnostic test is most likely to confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Full pulmonary function tests

      Correct Answer: Peak flow rates measured at home and in work

      Explanation:

      Occupational Asthma and its Causes

      Occupational asthma (OA) is a type of asthma that develops in adulthood and is caused by exposure to allergens in the workplace. Symptoms improve significantly when the affected person is away from their work environment. OA can be triggered by immunologic or non-immunologic stimuli. Immunologic stimuli have a latency period between exposure and symptom onset, while non-immunologic stimuli do not. Non-immunologic stimuli that trigger OA are referred to as reactive airways dysfunction syndrome (RADS) or irritant-induced asthma.

      Immunologic OA can be caused by high-molecular-weight or low-molecular-weight allergens. High-molecular-weight allergens include domestic and laboratory animals, fish and seafood, flour and cereals, and rubber. Low-molecular-weight allergens include metals, drugs, dyes and bleaches, isocyanates (naphthalene), and wood dust. It is important to identify the specific allergen causing OA in order to prevent further exposure and manage symptoms effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      38.1
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 42-year-old obese female is found to have gallstones during an abdominal ultrasound,...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old obese female is found to have gallstones during an abdominal ultrasound, which was ordered due to recurrent urinary tract infections. Other than the UTIs, she is in good health. What is the best course of action for managing the gallstones?

      Your Answer: Ursodeoxycholic acid

      Correct Answer: Observation

      Explanation:

      Gallstones: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      Gallstones are a common condition, with up to 24% of women and 12% of men affected. Local infection and cholecystitis may develop in up to 30% of cases, and 12% of patients undergoing surgery will have stones in the common bile duct. The majority of gallstones are of mixed composition, with pure cholesterol stones accounting for 20% of cases. Symptoms typically include colicky right upper quadrant pain that worsens after fatty meals. Diagnosis involves abdominal ultrasound and liver function tests, with magnetic resonance cholangiography or intraoperative imaging used to confirm the presence of stones in the bile duct. Treatment options include expectant management for asymptomatic gallstones, laparoscopic cholecystectomy for symptomatic gallstones, and early ERCP or surgical exploration for stones in the bile duct. Intraoperative cholangiography or laparoscopic ultrasound may be used to confirm anatomy or exclude CBD stones during surgery. ERCP carries risks such as bleeding, duodenal perforation, cholangitis, and pancreatitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      15.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 2-year-old girl is presented by her father with concerns about a rash...

    Incorrect

    • A 2-year-old girl is presented by her father with concerns about a rash that appeared after a recent fever, just as she was starting to recover. During the examination, you observe numerous pink-red papules and macules (2-5 mm in size) spread across her trunk, which disappear when touched. The child does not seem bothered by the rash and appears to be in good health with normal vital signs. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Roseola

      Explanation:

      Roseola infantum, also known as ‘sixth disease’, is a common illness among children aged 6 months to 2 years. It is characterized by a fever followed by a non-itchy, painless, maculopapular rash that mainly affects the trunk. Febrile seizures are also common. The illness is caused by the human herpes virus type 6B or 7, and no treatment is required. Long-term complications are rare.

      Chickenpox, hand, foot and mouth disease, measles, and rubella are all differential diagnoses that can be ruled out based on the specific characteristics of their respective rashes and accompanying symptoms.

      Understanding Roseola Infantum

      Roseola infantum, also known as exanthem subitum or sixth disease, is a common illness that affects infants and is caused by the human herpes virus 6 (HHV6). This disease has an incubation period of 5-15 days and is typically seen in children aged 6 months to 2 years. The most common symptoms of roseola infantum include a high fever that lasts for a few days, followed by a maculopapular rash. Other symptoms may include Nagayama spots, which are papular enanthems on the uvula and soft palate, as well as cough and diarrhea.

      In some cases, febrile convulsions may occur in around 10-15% of children with roseola infantum. While this can be concerning for parents, it is important to note that this is a common occurrence and typically resolves on its own. Additionally, HHV6 infection can lead to other possible consequences such as aseptic meningitis and hepatitis.

      It is important to note that school exclusion is not necessary for children with roseola infantum. While this illness can be uncomfortable for infants, it is typically not serious and resolves on its own within a few days.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      0
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  • Question 4 - At what age is it crucial to implement intervention for pre-lingually deaf children...

    Incorrect

    • At what age is it crucial to implement intervention for pre-lingually deaf children to achieve language acquisition comparable in speed and completeness to that of hearing children?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 12 months

      Explanation:

      Early Intervention for Congenital Hearing Loss

      Congenital hearing loss can be effectively managed if identified and diagnosed early. Studies have shown that if intervention is initiated by the age of 6 months, a child’s spoken language development will progress similarly to that of a normal hearing child. The intervention typically involves fitting the child with hearing aids to deliver all available sound to their developing auditory system. For children with severe-profound hearing loss, hearing aids may not be sufficient, and cochlear implantation should be considered. It is important to carry out the implantation as early as possible to maximize the child’s potential for language development. Early intervention is crucial in ensuring that children with congenital hearing loss have the best possible outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      0
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  • Question 5 - What is the most frequent location for an osteoclastoma? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most frequent location for an osteoclastoma?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lower end of femur

      Explanation:

      Distribution and Characteristics of Giant Cell Tumours

      Giant cell tumours, also known as osteoclastomas, are most commonly found around the knee at the distal femur, accounting for approximately 50% of cases. The next most common site is the proximal tibia, followed by the proximal humerus and distal radius. These tumours are typically solitary, with less than 1% being multicentric.

      Overall, giant cell tumours are relatively rare and tend to occur in young adults between the ages of 20 and 40. They are characterized by the presence of numerous multinucleated giant cells, which are responsible for the destruction of bone tissue. While most cases are benign, some may become malignant and spread to other parts of the body. Treatment typically involves surgical removal of the tumour, although radiation therapy and other treatments may also be used in certain cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncology
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  • Question 6 - A 47-year-old female collapses at home and is referred to the medical team....

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old female collapses at home and is referred to the medical team. She has had two episodes of haematemesis in the emergency department, but no melaena. Her family denies any history of alcohol excess, and she has been otherwise healthy.

      Upon examination, the patient appears pale and sweaty with a pulse of 110 bpm. Her lying blood pressure is 95/60 mmHg, which drops by 30 mmHg systolic upon standing. Palmar erythema, purpura, and spider naevi are noted. There is no hepatomegaly, but a fullness is present in the left hypochondrium.

      What is the appropriate course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Emergency upper GI endoscopy

      Explanation:

      Upper Gastrointestinal Bleeding with Haemodynamic Compromise

      This patient is experiencing upper gastrointestinal bleeding and is showing signs of significant haemodynamic compromise, as indicated by her hypotension and postural drop. The most likely cause of this bleeding is variceal bleeding, which is often associated with chronic liver disease and portal hypertension. Urgent endoscopy is necessary in this case, as over 50% of patients with variceal bleeding require intervention such as banding or sclerotherapy, and the condition is associated with a high mortality rate. The underlying cause of the portal hypertension is unknown, so there is no need for vitamin supplementation unless alcohol excess is suspected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
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  • Question 7 - A 35-year-old with schizophrenia presents with a complaint of milk-like nipple discharge. Upon...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old with schizophrenia presents with a complaint of milk-like nipple discharge. Upon further inquiry and examination, you suspect that this is a side effect of their anti-psychotic medication. Which of the following pathways influenced by anti-psychotics is the most likely cause of this symptom?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tuberoinfundibular pathway blockage

      Explanation:

      The Effects of Anti-Psychotics on Different Pathways in the Brain

      Anti-psychotics are medications used to treat various mental health conditions. However, they can also have unintended effects on different pathways in the brain. Here are some examples:

      Tuberoinfundibular pathway blockage: Anti-psychotics can block dopamine, which normally inhibits prolactin. This can lead to hyperprolactinaemia, causing breast milk production, infertility, and sexual dysfunction.

      Alpha adrenergic receptor blockage: Blocking α-adrenergic receptors can cause postural hypotension.

      Anticholinergic receptor blockage: Blocking anticholinergic receptors can cause urinary retention, dry mouth, blurred vision, and constipation.

      Histaminergic receptor blockage: Anti-psychotics can also block histamine receptors, causing sedation and weight gain.

      Nigrostriatal pathway blockage: Blocking the nigrostriatal pathway can cause extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) such as parkinsonism, dystonia, and tardive dyskinesia.

      In summary, while anti-psychotics can be effective in treating mental health conditions, they can also have unintended effects on different pathways in the brain. It is important to be aware of these potential side effects and to discuss any concerns with a healthcare provider.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 8 - A 63-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of 'flutters in his...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of 'flutters in his chest' for the past 24 hours. He is aware of when his symptoms started and mentions having had 2 non-ST-elevation myocardial infarctions before. He has hypertension, which is controlled with perindopril monotherapy, and hypercholesterolaemia treated with atorvastatin. He has no other relevant medical history.

      During the examination, the patient is alert and oriented. His blood pressure is 135/90 mmHg, heart rate is 112 beats per minute, temperature is 37.3ÂșC, and respiratory rate is 16 breaths per minute. An ECG shows an irregularly irregular rhythm. After discussing with the patient, a management plan is suggested.

      What is the most likely management plan to be initiated for this patient based on his presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Begin anticoagulation, undergo immediate direct current (DC) cardioversion

      Explanation:

      When a patient presents with new-onset atrial fibrillation (AF), the management plan depends on the duration and recurrence of symptoms, as well as risk stratification. If symptoms have been present for less than 48 hours, electrical cardioversion is recommended, but anticoagulation should be started beforehand. Heparin is a good choice for rapid onset anticoagulation. However, if symptoms have been present for more than 48 hours, there is a higher risk of atrial thrombus, which may cause thromboembolic disease. In this case, a transoesophageal echocardiogram (TOE) should be obtained to exclude a thrombus before cardioversion, or anticoagulation should be started for 3 weeks prior to cardioversion. Amiodarone oral therapy is not adequate for cardioversion in acute AF. If cardioversion is not possible, a DOAC such as apixaban or rivaroxaban should be started. Discharge home is appropriate for patients with chronic AF or after cardioversion. While pharmacological cardioversion with intravenous amiodarone is an option, electrical cardioversion is preferred according to NICE guidelines, especially in patients with structural heart disease.

      Atrial Fibrillation and Cardioversion: Elective Procedure for Rhythm Control

      Cardioversion is a medical procedure used in atrial fibrillation (AF) to restore the heart’s normal rhythm. There are two scenarios where cardioversion may be used: as an emergency if the patient is haemodynamically unstable, or as an elective procedure where a rhythm control strategy is preferred. In the elective scenario, cardioversion can be performed either electrically or pharmacologically. Electrical cardioversion is synchronised to the R wave to prevent delivery of a shock during the vulnerable period of cardiac repolarisation when ventricular fibrillation can be induced.

      According to the 2014 NICE guidelines, rate or rhythm control should be offered if the onset of the arrhythmia is less than 48 hours, and rate control should be started if it is more than 48 hours or is uncertain. If the AF is definitely of less than 48 hours onset, patients should be heparinised and may be cardioverted using either electrical or pharmacological means. However, if the patient has been in AF for more than 48 hours, anticoagulation should be given for at least 3 weeks prior to cardioversion. An alternative strategy is to perform a transoesophageal echo (TOE) to exclude a left atrial appendage (LAA) thrombus. If excluded, patients may be heparinised and cardioverted immediately.

      NICE recommends electrical cardioversion in this scenario, rather than pharmacological. If there is a high risk of cardioversion failure, it is recommended to have at least 4 weeks of amiodarone or sotalol prior to electrical cardioversion. Following electrical cardioversion, patients should be anticoagulated for at least 4 weeks. After this time, decisions about anticoagulation should be taken on an individual basis depending on the risk of recurrence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
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  • Question 9 - A 75-year-old male with type 2 diabetes mellitus presents for his annual diabetic...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old male with type 2 diabetes mellitus presents for his annual diabetic eye screening. He was previously diagnosed with mild nonproliferative diabetic retinopathy (NPDR) when micro-aneurysms were observed during retinal examination. However, during this visit, cotton wool spots are also detected in both eyes. What is the underlying pathophysiology of this new discovery?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pre-capillary arteriolar occlusion

      Explanation:

      Cotton wool spots in diabetic retinopathy are caused by pre-capillary arteriolar occlusion, leading to retinal infarction. This is the reason why the patient is presenting with new cotton wool spots, indicating the progression of their NPDR. Central retinal vein occlusion, lipid deposition in the retina, and thickening of the walls of retinal arterioles are not the underlying causes of cotton wool spots in diabetic retinopathy.

      Understanding Diabetic Retinopathy

      Diabetic retinopathy is a leading cause of blindness among adults aged 35-65 years old. The condition is caused by hyperglycemia, which leads to abnormal metabolism in the retinal vessel walls and damage to endothelial cells and pericytes. This damage causes increased vascular permeability, resulting in exudates seen on fundoscopy. Pericyte dysfunction predisposes to the formation of microaneurysms, while neovascularization is caused by the production of growth factors in response to retinal ischemia.

      Patients with diabetic retinopathy are classified into those with nonproliferative diabetic retinopathy (NPDR), proliferative retinopathy (PDR), and maculopathy. NPDR is further classified into mild, moderate, and severe, depending on the presence of microaneurysms, blot hemorrhages, hard exudates, cotton wool spots, venous beading/looping, and intraretinal microvascular abnormalities. PDR is characterized by retinal neovascularization, which may lead to vitreous hemorrhage, and fibrous tissue forming anterior to the retinal disc. Maculopathy is based on location rather than severity and is more common in Type II DM.

      Management of diabetic retinopathy involves optimizing glycaemic control, blood pressure, and hyperlipidemia, as well as regular review by ophthalmology. Treatment options include intravitreal vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) inhibitors for maculopathy, regular observation for nonproliferative retinopathy, and panretinal laser photocoagulation and intravitreal VEGF inhibitors for proliferative retinopathy. Vitreoretinal surgery may be necessary in cases of severe or vitreous hemorrhage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 10 - A 61-year-old man is undergoing assessment for a thyroid nodule. An ultrasound shows...

    Incorrect

    • A 61-year-old man is undergoing assessment for a thyroid nodule. An ultrasound shows a solitary nodule measuring 1.5 cm in the left lower lobe. Fine-needle aspiration reveals hypochromatic empty nuclei without nucleoli and psammoma bodies.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Papillary thyroid carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Papillary thyroid carcinoma is the most common type of thyroid cancer and has a good prognosis. It is characterized by ground-glass or Orphan Annie nuclei with calcified spherical bodies. Medullary thyroid carcinoma can occur sporadically or as part of multiple endocrine neoplasia syndromes and arises from the parafollicular C cells. Lymphoma of the thyroid is a rare cancer, except in individuals with Hashimoto’s thyroiditis. Anaplastic thyroid carcinoma is a highly aggressive form of thyroid cancer with a poor prognosis. Follicular thyroid carcinoma presents with a microfollicular pattern and is difficult to diagnose on fine-needle aspiration alone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      0
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  • Question 11 - An 80-year-old female visits her doctor with a vesicular rash on the right-side...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old female visits her doctor with a vesicular rash on the right-side of her face and tip of her nose, and is diagnosed with herpes zoster ophthalmicus (HZO). What is the most probable complication for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anterior uveitis

      Explanation:

      Hutchinson’s sign, which is characterized by vesicles that spread to the tip of the nose, is a strong indicator of shingles-related ocular involvement. As a result, the patient is at risk of developing anterior uveitis.
      Treatment for herpes zoster ophthalmicus typically involves the use of antivirals and/or steroids. Given the likelihood of ocular involvement in this case, an urgent ophthalmology review is necessary.

      Herpes Zoster Ophthalmicus: Symptoms, Treatment, and Complications

      Herpes zoster ophthalmicus (HZO) is a condition that occurs when the varicella-zoster virus reactivates in the area supplied by the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve. It is responsible for approximately 10% of shingles cases. The main symptom of HZO is a vesicular rash around the eye, which may or may not involve the eye itself. Hutchinson’s sign, a rash on the tip or side of the nose, is a strong indicator of nasociliary involvement and increases the risk of ocular involvement.

      Treatment for HZO involves oral antiviral medication for 7-10 days, ideally started within 72 hours of symptom onset. Intravenous antivirals may be necessary for severe infections or immunocompromised patients. Topical antiviral treatment is not recommended for HZO, but topical corticosteroids may be used to treat any secondary inflammation of the eye. Ocular involvement requires urgent ophthalmology review to prevent complications such as conjunctivitis, keratitis, episcleritis, anterior uveitis, ptosis, and post-herpetic neuralgia.

      In summary, HZO is a condition caused by the reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus in the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve. It presents with a vesicular rash around the eye and may involve the eye itself. Treatment involves oral antiviral medication and urgent ophthalmology review is necessary for ocular involvement. Complications of HZO include various eye conditions, ptosis, and post-herpetic neuralgia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 12 - A 28-year-old woman who is 20 weeks pregnant visits the obstetric clinic for...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman who is 20 weeks pregnant visits the obstetric clinic for a routine ultrasound scan. During the examination, it is observed that the mother's uterus is smaller than expected for her stage of pregnancy, and the ultrasound scan confirms the presence of intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR). The medical team inquires about any potential risk factors for IUGR that the mother may have.
      What is a known maternal risk factor for intrauterine growth restriction?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Smoking

      Explanation:

      Understanding Risk Factors for Intrauterine Growth Restriction (IUGR)

      Intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR) is a condition where a baby does not grow properly in the womb. There are various risk factors associated with IUGR, including smoking during pregnancy, which can increase the likelihood of developing the condition.

      There are two types of IUGR: symmetrical and asymmetrical. Symmetrical growth retardation occurs at the start or during early pregnancy and is characterized by a small head and short length. Asymmetrical growth retardation occurs in advanced pregnancy and is characterized by reduced abdominal growth compared to head circumference, due to selective shunting of blood to the brain.

      It’s important to note that a baby with a birthweight below the tenth centile is considered small for gestational age (SGA), which may be normal or due to IUGR.

      Contrary to popular belief, hypotension (low blood pressure), obesity, and stress are not recognized risk factors for IUGR. However, poorly controlled diabetes is a risk factor for IUGR, while well-controlled diabetes is not.

      Understanding these risk factors can help healthcare providers identify and manage IUGR early on, leading to better outcomes for both mother and baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 13 - A 15-year-old boy presents with a 4-month history of lower back and left...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old boy presents with a 4-month history of lower back and left heel pain, making walking painful and difficult. He reports experiencing morning stiffness lasting for about an hour, which improves with exercise throughout the day. He denies any prior history of similar symptoms and reports that they suddenly started about 4 months ago.

      During examination, the patient exhibits reduced lateral and forward flexion of the spine, tenderness upon palpation of the sacroiliac joints, and decreased chest expansion. What other conditions may be associated with this likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Apical fibrosis

      Explanation:

      The patient presents with a 3-month history of sudden-onset back pain that worsens in the morning and improves with exercise. He has reduced lateral and forward flexion, chest expansion, and tenderness over the sacroiliac joints. Additionally, he experiences heel pain and difficulty walking, which could indicate plantar fasciitis or Achilles tendinopathy. These symptoms are indicative of ankylosing spondylitis (AS), which is the most likely diagnosis. AS is associated with apical fibrosis of the lungs, which may be due to reduced chest expansion and chronic interstitial inflammation over time.
      While aortic stenosis is not associated with AS, aortic regurgitation is. This is caused by the proliferation of smooth muscle cells or fibroblasts in AS, which occludes the proximal aorta vaso vasora, leading to aortitis and aortic regurgitation.
      Although conjunctivitis is commonly seen in patients with reactive arthritis, the ocular manifestation associated with AS patients is anterior uveitis. Keratoderma blennorrhagica, a rash that resembles psoriasis and occurs on the hands and feet, is associated with reactive arthritis, not AS.

      Ankylosing spondylitis is a type of spondyloarthropathy that is associated with HLA-B27. It is more commonly seen in young males, with a sex ratio of 3:1, and typically presents with lower back pain and stiffness that develops gradually. The stiffness is usually worse in the morning and improves with exercise, while pain at night may improve upon getting up. Clinical examination may reveal reduced lateral and forward flexion, as well as reduced chest expansion. Other features associated with ankylosing spondylitis include apical fibrosis, anterior uveitis, aortic regurgitation, Achilles tendonitis, AV node block, amyloidosis, cauda equina syndrome, and peripheral arthritis (more common in females).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 14 - A 67-year-old man visits his primary care clinic after being diagnosed with metastatic...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man visits his primary care clinic after being diagnosed with metastatic prostate cancer. He reports experiencing widespread pain, even though he is taking 30 mg of morphine tablets twice daily. Upon examination, his lungs are clear, and he does not display any neurological abnormalities. He denies having any headaches.
      What is the most probable site of metastasis in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bone

      Explanation:

      Metastasis in Prostate Cancer: Common Sites and Symptoms

      Prostate cancer can spread to other parts of the body, a process known as metastasis. The most common site for metastases in prostate cancer is the bone, accounting for 84% of cases. Symptoms of bone metastases include bone pain, which can be managed with analgesics and palliative radiotherapy. Bisphosphonates may also be used. Brain metastases are rare in prostate cancer and typically present with headaches and neurological symptoms. Metastases to the pancreas are also uncommon, accounting for only 2% of cases. Lung metastases occur in about 9.1% of cases, while liver metastases are reported in 10.2% of cases and may present with jaundice, loss of appetite, and abdominal swelling. Understanding the common sites and symptoms of metastases in prostate cancer can aid in early detection and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncology
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  • Question 15 - An 83-year-old man presents to the emergency department after hitting his head on...

    Incorrect

    • An 83-year-old man presents to the emergency department after hitting his head on a cabinet while cleaning. Upon examination 3 hours after the injury, the patient is alert with a GCS of 15. There are no signs of a skull fracture or neurological impairment. The patient reports feeling well, has been alert since the incident, and has not experienced any vomiting. His medical history includes hypertension, atrial fibrillation, and type 2 diabetes mellitus, for which he takes amlodipine, edoxaban, and metformin, respectively. What is the next appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: CT scan within 8 hours

      Explanation:

      If a person is taking anticoagulants and has suffered a head injury, they should receive a CT head scan within 8 hours. This is the case for a 73-year-old man who sustained a head injury while gardening and is taking edoxaban. The NICE guidelines on head injury imaging algorithm recommend this course of action. An urgent CT scan within 1 hour is not necessary in this scenario as there are no risk factors for a severe head injury. Discharging the patient home with safety netting information is not appropriate, and an outpatient MRI scan is not necessary.

      NICE Guidelines for Investigating Head Injuries in Adults

      Head injuries can be serious and require prompt medical attention. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided clear guidelines for healthcare professionals to determine which adult patients need further investigation with a CT head scan. Patients who require immediate CT head scans include those with a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of less than 13 on initial assessment, suspected open or depressed skull fractures, signs of basal skull fractures, post-traumatic seizures, focal neurological deficits, and more than one episode of vomiting.

      For patients with any loss of consciousness or amnesia since the injury, a CT head scan within 8 hours is recommended for those who are 65 years or older, have a history of bleeding or clotting disorders, experienced a dangerous mechanism of injury, or have more than 30 minutes of retrograde amnesia of events immediately before the head injury. Additionally, patients on warfarin who have sustained a head injury without other indications for a CT head scan should also receive a scan within 8 hours of the injury.

      It is important for healthcare professionals to follow these guidelines to ensure that patients receive appropriate and timely care for their head injuries. By identifying those who require further investigation, healthcare professionals can provide the necessary treatment and support to prevent further complications and improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
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  • Question 16 - A 50-year-old woman is experiencing facial muscle control issues and difficulty speaking after...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman is experiencing facial muscle control issues and difficulty speaking after receiving an intravenous injection of an antiemetic 3 hours ago. She is currently undergoing chemotherapy and is suffering from nausea. During your examination, you notice that her eyes are deviated upwards and outwards, and she is unable to make direct eye contact with you while making unusual facial expressions.
      Which of the following antiemetic medications is most likely responsible for these symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Metoclopramide

      Explanation:

      Comparison of Medications: Extrapyramidal Side-Effects

      Extrapyramidal side-effects (EPS) are a group of movement disorders that can occur as a result of certain medications. Here, we compare four medications and their potential to cause EPS.

      Metoclopramide is known to induce EPS, such as acute dystonia. Symptoms can include oculogyric crisis and buccolingual crisis. Treatment for acute dystonia is benztropine or procyclidine.

      Ondansetron has been associated with involuntary movement disorders, but the pharmacological mechanism is unknown.

      Dexamethasone is not known to cause EPS.

      Megestrol is a progestational agent used to treat certain hormone-dependent neoplasms and is not associated with EPS.

      Trazodone is used to treat anxiety and depression and is not an antiemetic or associated with EPS.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 17 - A 48-year-old woman comes to the emergency department with a sudden onset of...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old woman comes to the emergency department with a sudden onset of painful redness in her left eye. The left eye has significantly reduced visual acuity compared to the right eye. During a slit-lamp examination, you observe the presence of pus in the anterior chamber.
      What is the most suitable treatment for the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Steroid eye drops and cycloplegic eye drops

      Explanation:

      The recommended treatment for anterior uveitis is a combination of steroid eye drops and cycloplegic eye drops. This condition is characterized by sudden onset of eye pain, redness, and decreased vision, along with sensitivity to light. Upon examination, the affected pupil may appear small and there may be pus in the front part of the eye. In case of suspected infective anterior uveitis, consultation with an ophthalmologist is necessary. Dorzolamide is a medication used to reduce aqueous production in primary open-angle glaucoma, while IV acetazolamide is indicated for acute angle-closure glaucoma. Latanoprost is a prostaglandin analogue that increases uveoscleral outflow and is also used in primary open-angle glaucoma. It is important to provide prompt treatment for anterior uveitis to prevent permanent vision loss.

      Anterior uveitis, also known as iritis, is a type of inflammation that affects the iris and ciliary body in the front part of the uvea. It is a common cause of red eye and is associated with HLA-B27, which may also be linked to other conditions. Symptoms of anterior uveitis include sudden onset of eye discomfort and pain, small or irregular pupils, intense sensitivity to light, blurred vision, redness, tearing, and the presence of pus and inflammatory cells in the front part of the eye. This condition may be associated with ankylosing spondylitis, reactive arthritis, ulcerative colitis, Crohn’s disease, Behcet’s disease, and sarcoidosis. Urgent review by an ophthalmologist is necessary, and treatment may involve the use of cycloplegics and steroid eye drops.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 18 - A 49-year-old man visits his GP complaining of a weak and painful right...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old man visits his GP complaining of a weak and painful right leg that has been bothering him for a week. Upon examination, the GP observes a foot drop on the right side with 3/5 power for dorsiflexion, as well as a bilateral sensory peripheral neuropathy that is worse on the right side. The GP also notices weakness of wrist extension on the left, which the patient had not previously mentioned. The patient's chest, heart, and abdomen appear normal, and his urine dipstick is clear. His medical history is significant only for asthma, which was diagnosed four years ago.

      The patient's FBC reveals a white cell count of 6.7 x109/l (normal range: 4 - 11), with neutrophils at 4.2 x109/l (normal range: 1.5 - 7), lymphocytes at 2.3 x109/l (normal range: 1.5 - 4), and eosinophils at 2.2 x109/l (normal range: 0.04 - 0.4). His ESR is 68mm/hr (normal range: 0 - 15), and his biochemistry is normal except for a raised CRP at 52 mg/l. Nerve conduction studies show reduced amplitude sensory signals bilaterally and patchy axonal degeneration on the right side with reduced motor amplitude.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis (EGPA)

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Mononeuritis Multiplex

      Mononeuritis multiplex is a condition characterized by the inflammation of multiple nerves, resulting in both sensory and motor symptoms. While several conditions can cause this, eGPA is the most likely diagnosis for this patient due to his history of adult onset asthma and significantly raised eosinophil count. The painful loss of function, raised inflammatory markers, and reduced amplitude nerve conduction studies also suggest an inflammatory cause of his neuropathy.

      While amyloidosis is a possibility, the patient has no history of a disorder that might predispose to secondary amyloid, and no signs of systemic amyloidosis. B12 deficiency and diabetes mellitus are unlikely causes of mononeuritis multiplex, as they do not typically present with this pattern of neuropathy. Lyme disease is also unlikely, as the patient has no rash or arthritis and no history of tick bite.

      In summary, while several conditions can cause mononeuritis multiplex, the patient’s history and test results suggest eGPA as the most likely diagnosis. It is important to consider other possibilities, such as amyloidosis, but the inflammatory nature of the patient’s symptoms points towards eGPA as the primary cause.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
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  • Question 19 - A 26-year-old female patient visits her GP complaining of vaginal bleeding. She is...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old female patient visits her GP complaining of vaginal bleeding. She is currently 6 weeks pregnant and denies experiencing any abdominal pain, dizziness, or shoulder tip pain. She reports passing less than a teaspoon of blood without any clots. The patient has no history of ectopic pregnancy. During examination, her heart rate is 85 beats per minute, blood pressure is 130/80 mmHg, and her abdomen is soft and non-tender. As per the current NICE CKS guidelines, what is the next appropriate step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Monitor expectantly and advise to repeat pregnancy test in 7 days. If negative, this confirms miscarriage. If positive, or continued or worsening symptoms, refer to the early pregnancy assessment unit

      Explanation:

      Conduct a blood test to measure the levels of beta-human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) in the serum, and then repeat the test after 120 hours.

      Bleeding in the First Trimester: Understanding the Causes and Management

      Bleeding in the first trimester of pregnancy is a common concern for many women. It can be caused by various factors, including miscarriage, ectopic pregnancy, implantation bleeding, cervical ectropion, vaginitis, trauma, and polyps. However, the most important cause to rule out is ectopic pregnancy, as it can be life-threatening if left untreated.

      To manage early bleeding, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) released guidelines in 2019. If a woman has a positive pregnancy test and experiences pain, abdominal tenderness, pelvic tenderness, or cervical motion tenderness, she should be referred immediately to an early pregnancy assessment service. If the pregnancy is over six weeks gestation or of uncertain gestation and the woman has bleeding, she should also be referred to an early pregnancy assessment service.

      A transvaginal ultrasound scan is the most important investigation to identify the location of the pregnancy and whether there is a fetal pole and heartbeat. If the pregnancy is less than six weeks gestation and the woman has bleeding but no pain or risk factors for ectopic pregnancy, she can be managed expectantly. However, she should be advised to return if bleeding continues or pain develops and to repeat a urine pregnancy test after 7-10 days and to return if it is positive. A negative pregnancy test means that the pregnancy has miscarried.

      In summary, bleeding in the first trimester of pregnancy can be caused by various factors, but ectopic pregnancy is the most important cause to rule out. Early referral to an early pregnancy assessment service and a transvaginal ultrasound scan are crucial in identifying the location of the pregnancy and ensuring appropriate management. Women should also be advised to seek medical attention if they experience any worrying symptoms or if bleeding or pain persists.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 20 - A 25-year-old female presents with an ectopic pregnancy and requires surgical intervention. During...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old female presents with an ectopic pregnancy and requires surgical intervention. During laparoscopy, what is the most common location for the ectopic pregnancy to be found?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ampulla

      Explanation:

      The most frequent location for ectopic pregnancy is the ampulla of the fallopian tube. While other sites are also feasible, the ampulla is the most prevalent, making it the most suitable response.

      Understanding Ectopic Pregnancy: The Pathophysiology

      Ectopic pregnancy is a medical condition where the fertilized egg implants outside the uterus, usually in the fallopian tube. According to statistics, 97% of ectopic pregnancies occur in the fallopian tube, with most of them happening in the ampulla. However, if the implantation occurs in the isthmus, it can be more dangerous. The remaining 3% of ectopic pregnancies can occur in the ovary, cervix, or peritoneum.

      During ectopic pregnancy, the trophoblast, which is the outer layer of the fertilized egg, invades the tubal wall, leading to bleeding that may dislodge the embryo. The natural history of ectopic pregnancy involves three possible outcomes: absorption, tubal abortion, or tubal rupture.

      Tubal abortion occurs when the embryo dies, and the body expels it along with the blood. On the other hand, tubal absorption occurs when the tube does not rupture, and the blood and embryo are either shed or converted into a tubal mole and absorbed. However, if the tube ruptures, it can lead to severe bleeding, shock, and even death.

      In conclusion, understanding the pathophysiology of ectopic pregnancy is crucial in diagnosing and managing this potentially life-threatening condition. Early detection and prompt treatment can help prevent complications and improve outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 21 - A tool known as PrePexℱ has been sanctioned by various organizations to reduce...

    Incorrect

    • A tool known as PrePexℱ has been sanctioned by various organizations to reduce the spread of HIV. What is the purpose of this device?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Painless circumcision

      Explanation:

      PrePex Device Offers Painless Male Circumcision for HIV Prevention

      The PrePex device is a new method of male circumcision that is painless, sutureless, and does not require anaesthesia. It has been approved in countries such as Rwanda and is currently only available in sub-Saharan Africa. The World Health Organization (WHO) has found scientific evidence that male circumcision can significantly reduce the risk of HIV transmission. As a result, WHO is promoting this strategy in sub-Saharan Africa, where there has been a significant increase in the number of circumcision operations. However, it is important to note that circumcision should be used in conjunction with other measures, such as condom use, to reduce the incidence of HIV infection. The PrePex device is not designed for any other purposes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 22 - As a healthcare professional in a bustling emergency department, a concerned mother rushes...

    Incorrect

    • As a healthcare professional in a bustling emergency department, a concerned mother rushes in with her 4-year-old son. The child has been crying excessively for the past 12 hours and has experienced bilious vomiting multiple times. Additionally, he passed a stool containing small amounts of blood about 2 hours ago. What initial investigation would you conduct to determine the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ultrasound

      Explanation:

      Intussusception is best diagnosed using ultrasound, which is the preferred method due to its non-invasive nature, patient comfort, and high sensitivity.

      Understanding Intussusception

      Intussusception is a medical condition that occurs when one part of the bowel folds into the lumen of the adjacent bowel, usually around the ileo-caecal region. This condition is most common in infants between 6-18 months old, with boys being affected twice as often as girls. The symptoms of intussusception include severe, crampy abdominal pain that comes and goes, inconsolable crying, vomiting, and blood stained stool, which is a late sign. During a paroxysm, the infant will typically draw their knees up and turn pale, and a sausage-shaped mass may be felt in the right upper quadrant.

      To diagnose intussusception, ultrasound is now the preferred method of investigation, as it can show a target-like mass. Treatment for intussusception involves reducing the bowel by air insufflation under radiological control, which is now widely used as a first-line treatment instead of the traditional barium enema. If this method fails, or the child shows signs of peritonitis, surgery is performed.

      In summary, intussusception is a medical condition that affects infants and involves the folding of one part of the bowel into the lumen of the adjacent bowel. It is characterized by severe abdominal pain, vomiting, and blood stained stool, among other symptoms. Ultrasound is the preferred method of diagnosis, and treatment involves reducing the bowel by air insufflation or surgery if necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 23 - A 32-year-old teacher comes to the clinic with a complaint of secondary amenorrhoea...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old teacher comes to the clinic with a complaint of secondary amenorrhoea lasting for six months. She reports experiencing white discharge from her breasts. Despite taking a home urine pregnancy test, the result was negative. What is the most useful blood test to aid in the diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prolactin

      Explanation:

      Prolactinomas: Pituitary Tumours that Affect Hormone Secretion

      Prolactinomas are tumours that develop in the pituitary gland and secrete prolactin, a hormone that stimulates milk production in women. These tumours can be either microscopic or macroscopic, with the latter causing mass effects that can lead to headaches, visual disturbances, and other symptoms. In addition to galactorrhoea, prolactinomas can also cause menstrual disturbances, amenorrhoea, and infertility. Some prolactinomas may also co-secrete other pituitary hormones, such as growth hormone, which can further complicate the diagnosis and treatment of the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 24 - A 9-month-old infant comes to the clinic with a complaint of fever (39°C)...

    Incorrect

    • A 9-month-old infant comes to the clinic with a complaint of fever (39°C) and a rash that started on the legs and has now spread to the limbs and trunk. The rash is purplish, non-palpable, and non-blanching. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Meningococcal septicaemia

      Explanation:

      Meningococcal septicaemia causes a non-blanching purpuric eruption. Other conditions such as giant urticaria, measles rash, haemophilia, and HSP have different symptoms and presentations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Practice
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  • Question 25 - A 5-year-old girl is brought to the GP by her mother for an...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old girl is brought to the GP by her mother for an asthma review. She was diagnosed with asthma eight months ago. Since then, she has been using a low-dose clenil (beclomethasone 100 ÎŒg BD) inhaler and salbutamol inhaler as needed, both inhaled via a spacer. She has been experiencing a nocturnal cough and has been using her salbutamol inhaler 3–4 times per day due to the cold weather, with good results. On examination, there are no signs of respiratory distress, her oxygen saturation is 98%, and her chest is clear.
      What would be the next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Add montelukast

      Explanation:

      Treatment Approach for Suspected Asthma in Children Under Five Years Old

      When a child under five years old is suspected to have asthma, the diagnosis can be challenging as they cannot perform objective lung function tests. Therefore, a low threshold for referral is recommended if treatment fails to control symptoms.

      The first step in treatment is a trial of a moderate-dose inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) for eight weeks. If symptoms persist, adding a leukotriene receptor antagonist (LTRA) is recommended. However, if the asthma is still poorly controlled, referral to a paediatrician is advised.

      It is not appropriate to change the short-acting beta agonist (SABA) inhaler, but increasing the dose of the ICS should only be done under specialist advice. If the child needs to use a SABA inhaler regularly, the ICS should be stopped for four weeks, and if symptoms recur, the inhaler should be restarted at a low dose.

      In summary, a stepwise approach is recommended for treating suspected asthma in children under five years old, with a low threshold for referral to a specialist if treatment fails to control symptoms.

      Treatment Approach for Suspected Asthma in Children Under Five Years Old

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 26 - A 42-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of severe abdominal pain....

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of severe abdominal pain. The pain is concentrated in the epigastric region and is relieved by leaning forward. He has vomited twice, but there was no blood in the vomit.

      Upon examination, he appears unwell and sweaty. His heart rate is 90 beats per minute, blood pressure is 100/72 mmHg, respiratory rate is 22 breaths per minute, and temperature is 39.2 ÂșC.

      Given his complex medical history and multiple daily medications, which medication is most likely causing his symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mesalazine

      Explanation:

      The drug that can cause drug-induced pancreatitis is mesalazine. This patient is exhibiting the typical symptoms of acute pancreatitis, such as severe epigastric pain that is relieved by leaning forward, accompanied by vomiting and fever. Although there can be multiple causes of this condition, drug-induced pancreatitis is a common one. Mesalazine has been identified as a causative agent, but the exact mechanism is still unknown. It is believed that salicylic acid may increase the permeability of the pancreatic duct, leading to inflammation.

      Phenytoin is a medication used to manage seizures, but it has not been shown to cause pancreatitis, although it can cause hepatitis and other side effects. Clozapine is an atypical antipsychotic used to treat complicated schizophrenia, but it has not been linked to pancreatitis, although it can cause agranulocytosis, neutropenia, constipation, myocarditis, and seizures. Ramipril is an angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor that has not been associated with pancreatitis, but it may cause cough, angioedema, and hyperkalemia.

      Acute pancreatitis is a condition that is mainly caused by gallstones and alcohol in the UK. A popular mnemonic to remember the causes is GET SMASHED, which stands for gallstones, ethanol, trauma, steroids, mumps, autoimmune diseases, scorpion venom, hypertriglyceridaemia, hyperchylomicronaemia, hypercalcaemia, hypothermia, ERCP, and certain drugs. CT scans of patients with acute pancreatitis show diffuse parenchymal enlargement with oedema and indistinct margins. It is important to note that pancreatitis is seven times more common in patients taking mesalazine than sulfasalazine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
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  • Question 27 - If a corticospinal tract lesion occurs above the nuclei of cranial nerves, what...

    Incorrect

    • If a corticospinal tract lesion occurs above the nuclei of cranial nerves, what neurological signs would be anticipated?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Upper motor neurone signs in the limbs

      Explanation:

      Neurological Lesions and Their Effects on Motor Function: An Overview

      The human body relies on a complex network of nerves to control movement. When these nerves are damaged, it can result in a variety of motor function impairments. Two types of nerve lesions are upper motor neurone and lower motor neurone lesions.

      Upper motor neurone lesions affect the corticospinal tract, which connects the primary motor cortex to the alpha motor neurones in the spinal cord. This type of lesion causes spasticity, hyperreflexia, pyramidal weakness, clasp-knife rigidity, and extensor plantar responses.

      Lower motor neurone lesions affect the alpha motor neurone and can occur anywhere along the path of the final nerve, from the spinal cord to the peripheral nerve. This type of lesion causes muscle weakness, wasting, hyporeflexia, and fasciculations.

      Other nerve lesions can also affect motor function. Vagus nerve palsy, for example, can result in palatal weakness, nasal speech, loss of reflex contraction in the gag reflex, hoarseness of the voice, and a bovine cough. A plexiform neuroma, a benign tumor of the peripheral nerves, can cause a lower motor neurone lesion.

      Understanding the effects of neurological lesions on motor function is crucial for diagnosing and treating these conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 28 - A 68-year-old man visits his GP with a complaint of a droopy eyelid...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man visits his GP with a complaint of a droopy eyelid that started yesterday and has not improved. He has a medical history of poorly controlled type two diabetes mellitus and hypertension, which cause him recurrent foot ulcers. Additionally, he has been a smoker for his entire life.

      During the eye examination, the doctor observes ptosis of the left palpebra with a constricted pupil. However, the patient's visual acuity is 6/6 in both eyes, and he has normal colour vision, intact central and peripheral fields. The patient had a similar episode after a motorbike accident, which was diagnosed as a nerve palsy and later resolved.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Horner's syndrome

      Explanation:

      The correct diagnosis is Horner’s syndrome, which is characterized by ptosis and a constricted pupil. This syndrome is caused by a loss of sympathetic innervation and is likely due to a Pancoast tumor in this patient, who has a history of smoking. Other features of Horner’s syndrome include anhidrosis.

      An abducens nerve palsy would cause horizontal diplopia and defective eye abduction. Lateral medullary syndrome, caused by a stroke, can also cause Horner’s syndrome but would present with additional symptoms such as ataxia and dysphagia.

      An oculomotor nerve palsy would cause ptosis, a ‘down and out’ eye, and a dilated pupil. This patient only has ptosis and a constricted pupil, making oculomotor nerve palsy an incorrect diagnosis. A trochlear nerve palsy would cause vertical diplopia and limitations in eye movement.

      Horner’s syndrome is a medical condition that is characterized by a set of symptoms including a small pupil (miosis), drooping of the upper eyelid (ptosis), sunken eye (enophthalmos), and loss of sweating on one side of the face (anhidrosis). The presence of heterochromia, or a difference in iris color, is often seen in cases of congenital Horner’s syndrome. Anhidrosis is also a distinguishing feature that can help differentiate between central, Preganglionic, and postganglionic lesions. Pharmacologic tests, such as the use of apraclonidine drops, can be helpful in confirming the diagnosis of Horner’s syndrome and localizing the lesion.

      Central lesions, Preganglionic lesions, and postganglionic lesions can all cause Horner’s syndrome, with each type of lesion presenting with different symptoms. Central lesions can result in anhidrosis of the face, arm, and trunk, while Preganglionic lesions can cause anhidrosis of the face only. postganglionic lesions, on the other hand, do not typically result in anhidrosis.

      There are many potential causes of Horner’s syndrome, including stroke, syringomyelia, multiple sclerosis, tumors, encephalitis, thyroidectomy, trauma, cervical rib, carotid artery dissection, carotid aneurysm, cavernous sinus thrombosis, and cluster headache. It is important to identify the underlying cause of Horner’s syndrome in order to determine the appropriate treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 29 - An 80-year-old man presents to the surgical assessment unit with vomiting and abdominal...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man presents to the surgical assessment unit with vomiting and abdominal distension. He has been experiencing absolute constipation for the past three days and his abdomen has become increasingly distended. He also reports feeling nauseous and has been vomiting for the last day. The patient has a medical history of hypertension and takes ramipril.

      Upon examination, the patient has a soft but significantly distended abdomen that is tympanic to percussion. Loud bowel sounds are audible. His vital signs are as follows: heart rate of 87 bpm, blood pressure of 135/87 mmHg, and temperature of 36.8ÂșC. An abdominal x-ray reveals a 'coffee-bean' sign, indicating a sigmoid volvulus.

      What is the initial management approach for this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Decompression via rigid sigmoidoscopy and flatus tube insertion

      Explanation:

      Flatus tube insertion is the primary management approach for unruptured sigmoid volvulus.

      In elderly patients, sigmoid volvulus is a common condition that can be initially treated without surgery by decompressing the bowel using a flatus tube. This approach is preferred as surgery poses a higher risk in this age group. Flatus tube decompression typically leads to resolution of the volvulus without recurrence. If flatus tube decompression fails or recurrence occurs despite multiple attempts, the next step is to insert a percutaneous colostomy tube to decompress the volvulus.

      Conservative management is not appropriate for patients with absolute constipation as the volvulus can become ischemic and perforate, which is associated with a high mortality rate. Anti-muscarinic agents are used to treat pseudo-obstruction, not volvulus. There is no evidence to support the need for a Hartmann’s procedure as perforation is not a concern.

      Understanding Volvulus: A Condition of Twisted Colon

      Volvulus is a medical condition that occurs when the colon twists around its mesenteric axis, leading to a blockage in blood flow and closed loop obstruction. Sigmoid volvulus is the most common type, accounting for around 80% of cases, and is caused by the sigmoid colon twisting on the sigmoid mesocolon. Caecal volvulus, on the other hand, occurs in around 20% of cases and is caused by the caecum twisting. This condition is more common in patients with developmental failure of peritoneal fixation of the proximal bowel.

      Sigmoid volvulus is often associated with chronic constipation, Chagas disease, neurological conditions like Parkinson’s disease and Duchenne muscular dystrophy, and psychiatric conditions like schizophrenia. Caecal volvulus, on the other hand, is associated with adhesions, pregnancy, and other factors. Symptoms of volvulus include constipation, abdominal bloating, abdominal pain, and nausea/vomiting.

      Diagnosis of volvulus is usually done through an abdominal film, which shows signs of large bowel obstruction alongside the coffee bean sign for sigmoid volvulus. Small bowel obstruction may be seen in caecal volvulus. Management of sigmoid volvulus involves rigid sigmoidoscopy with rectal tube insertion, while caecal volvulus usually requires operative management, with right hemicolectomy often being necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
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  • Question 30 - A 40-year-old male comes to his GP complaining of experiencing dull pain in...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old male comes to his GP complaining of experiencing dull pain in the orbital area, redness in the eye, tearing, and sensitivity to light for the past 4 days. During the examination, the doctor notices that the patient has an irregular, constricted pupil. What would be the best course of action for managing this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Steroid + cycloplegic eye drops

      Explanation:

      Anterior uveitis, also known as iritis, is a type of inflammation that affects the iris and ciliary body in the front part of the uvea. It is a common cause of red eye and is associated with HLA-B27, which may also be linked to other conditions. Symptoms of anterior uveitis include sudden onset of eye discomfort and pain, small or irregular pupils, intense sensitivity to light, blurred vision, redness, tearing, and the presence of pus and inflammatory cells in the front part of the eye. This condition may be associated with ankylosing spondylitis, reactive arthritis, ulcerative colitis, Crohn’s disease, Behcet’s disease, and sarcoidosis. Urgent review by an ophthalmologist is necessary, and treatment may involve the use of cycloplegics and steroid eye drops.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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