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  • Question 1 - A 72-year-old man comes to the clinic for his yearly check-up and expresses...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old man comes to the clinic for his yearly check-up and expresses worry about osteoporosis. He has questions about bone formation and calcium homeostasis, and you explain the role of parathyroid hormone (PTH) in regulating calcium levels.
      Which of the following statements about PTH is accurate?

      Your Answer: It causes indirect osteoclastic activation via RANK-L

      Explanation:

      Parathyroid hormone (PTH) indirectly activates osteoclasts by increasing the production of RANK-L by osteoblasts. This leads to bone degradation and the release of calcium. PTH also decreases the release of osteoprotegerin, which is a decoy receptor for RANK-L. This further enhances osteoclast activity and bone degradation. Additionally, PTH causes a decrease in serum calcium by promoting calcium release from bone. It also enhances renal phosphate excretion by decreasing phosphate reabsorption.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      38.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 32-year-old man has been diagnosed with ankylosing spondylitis after presenting with a...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old man has been diagnosed with ankylosing spondylitis after presenting with a six-month history of back pain. Upon examination, there is limited lateral flexion of the spine but no other complications are evident. What is the most probable first-line treatment that he will be offered?

      Your Answer: Exercise regime + NSAIDs

      Explanation:

      Investigating and Managing Ankylosing Spondylitis

      Ankylosing spondylitis is a type of spondyloarthropathy that is associated with HLA-B27. It is more commonly seen in males aged 20-30 years old. Inflammatory markers such as ESR and CRP are usually elevated, but normal levels do not necessarily rule out ankylosing spondylitis. HLA-B27 is not a reliable diagnostic tool as it can also be positive in normal individuals. The most effective way to diagnose ankylosing spondylitis is through a plain x-ray of the sacroiliac joints. However, if the x-ray is negative but suspicion for AS remains high, an MRI can be obtained to confirm the diagnosis.

      Management of ankylosing spondylitis involves regular exercise, such as swimming, and the use of NSAIDs as the first-line treatment. Physiotherapy can also be helpful. Disease-modifying drugs used for rheumatoid arthritis, such as sulphasalazine, are only useful if there is peripheral joint involvement. Anti-TNF therapy, such as etanercept and adalimumab, should be given to patients with persistently high disease activity despite conventional treatments, according to the 2010 EULAR guidelines. Ongoing research is being conducted to determine whether anti-TNF therapies should be used earlier in the course of the disease. Spirometry may show a restrictive defect due to a combination of pulmonary fibrosis, kyphosis, and ankylosis of the costovertebral joints.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      14
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 29-year-old woman comes in for her 20-week anomaly scan. This is also...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old woman comes in for her 20-week anomaly scan. This is also her first pregnancy, but she found out she was pregnant at 12 weeks’ gestation. The sonographer alerts the consultant in the room, as she has detected spina bifida. The patient mentions that her cousin had a baby with the same condition a few years ago.
      Based on the information provided, what folic acid dosage would be advised for this patient in subsequent pregnancies?

      Your Answer: Commence folic acid 5 mg daily in the preconception period and continue until week 12 of gestation

      Explanation:

      Folic Acid Supplementation for Neural Tube Defect Prevention

      Explanation:
      Folic acid supplementation is recommended for women who are trying to conceive in order to reduce the risk of neural tube defects and congenital abnormalities in their babies. The recommended dose is 400 μg daily in the preconception period and until the 12th week of gestation. However, women who are identified to be at high risk of having a baby with a neural tube defect should take a higher dose of 5 mg daily, ideally starting in the preconception period and continuing until the 12th week of gestation. It is important to note that folic acid supplementation should be discontinued after the first trimester. Side-effects of folic acid treatment may include abdominal distension, reduced appetite, nausea, and exacerbation of pernicious anaemia. High risk factors for neural tube defects include a family history of neural tube defects, a previous pregnancy affected by a neural tube defect, personal history of neural tube defect, and chronic conditions such as epilepsy and diabetes mellitus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      26.5
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - You are asked to review a 27-year-old man who has had two episodes...

    Correct

    • You are asked to review a 27-year-old man who has had two episodes of pancreatitis. On reviewing his notes, the surgeons noticed that he appeared to have had a serum calcium of 3.2 mmol/l when it was checked at the general practice surgery a few weeks before the latest episode. Urinary calcium excretion is markedly reduced.
      Which of the following diagnoses fits best with this clinical picture?

      Your Answer: Familial hypocalciuric hypercalcaemia

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Hyper- and Hypocalcaemia Disorders

      One young male patient has experienced two episodes of pancreatitis due to hypercalcaemia. However, his urinary calcium levels are reduced, which suggests that he may have familial hypocalciuric hypercalcaemia. On the other hand, pseudohypoparathyroidism would result in hypocalcaemia, while hyperparathyroidism would cause hypercalcaemia without reducing urinary calcium excretion. Hypoparathyroidism would also lead to hypocalcaemia, but the calcium levels would be raised. Finally, Paget’s disease would not affect urinary calcium excretion. Therefore, it is crucial to differentiate between these disorders to provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      58.8
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 65-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department with multiple facial lesions that...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department with multiple facial lesions that appeared suddenly 24 hours ago and are painful to the touch. She experienced burning pain on her forehead a week ago. Upon examination, she has tenderness on the left side of her forehead and several 4-6mm vesicles on the left side. Hutchinson's sign is positive. What aspect of her condition necessitates an immediate evaluation by an ophthalmologist?

      Your Answer: Lesions on the tip of the nose

      Explanation:

      Hutchinson’s sign is a strong indicator of ocular involvement in shingles, characterized by vesicles extending to the tip of the nose. This patient is presenting with herpes zoster ophthalmicus, which is caused by the reactivation of herpes zoster affecting the ophthalmic branch of the trigeminal nerve. Urgent ophthalmological review is necessary due to the presence of lesions on the tip of the nose. Management involves oral antivirals and, if there is secondary inflammation of the eye, topical steroids may be given. Lesions above the eyebrow can also occur if the ophthalmic branch of the trigeminal nerve is affected, but this has no association with ocular involvement. Pain over the affected area is a common symptom preceding the eruption of the vesicles, but it is not indicative of ocular involvement. Lesions on the top eyelid can also occur if the ophthalmic branch of the trigeminal nerve is affected.

      Herpes Zoster Ophthalmicus: Symptoms, Treatment, and Complications

      Herpes zoster ophthalmicus (HZO) is a condition that occurs when the varicella-zoster virus reactivates in the area supplied by the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve. It is responsible for approximately 10% of shingles cases. The main symptom of HZO is a vesicular rash around the eye, which may or may not involve the eye itself. Hutchinson’s sign, a rash on the tip or side of the nose, is a strong indicator of nasociliary involvement and increases the risk of ocular involvement.

      Treatment for HZO involves oral antiviral medication for 7-10 days, ideally started within 72 hours of symptom onset. Intravenous antivirals may be necessary for severe infections or immunocompromised patients. Topical antiviral treatment is not recommended for HZO, but topical corticosteroids may be used to treat any secondary inflammation of the eye. Ocular involvement requires urgent ophthalmology review to prevent complications such as conjunctivitis, keratitis, episcleritis, anterior uveitis, ptosis, and post-herpetic neuralgia.

      In summary, HZO is a condition caused by the reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus in the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve. It presents with a vesicular rash around the eye and may involve the eye itself. Treatment involves oral antiviral medication and urgent ophthalmology review is necessary for ocular involvement. Complications of HZO include various eye conditions, ptosis, and post-herpetic neuralgia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      39.3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 16-year-old girl has been referred due to a six-month history of amenorrhea...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old girl has been referred due to a six-month history of amenorrhea and weight loss, without identifiable organic cause. What signs would indicate a possible diagnosis of anorexia nervosa (AN)?

      Possible revised output with paragraph spacing:

      A 16-year-old girl has been referred to the clinic with a six-month history of amenorrhea and weight loss. Despite medical investigations, no organic cause has been identified for her symptoms. The healthcare provider suspects that the patient may have anorexia nervosa (AN), a serious eating disorder characterized by self-imposed starvation and distorted body image. To confirm or rule out this diagnosis, the provider needs to look for specific features that are commonly associated with AN.

      Your Answer: Delusion of being overweight

      Explanation:

      Features of Anorexia Nervosa

      Anorexia Nervosa (AN) is a serious eating disorder that is characterized by several features. One of the most prominent features is a phobic avoidance of normal weight, which leads to relentless dieting and self-induced vomiting. Laxative use and excessive exercise are also common behaviors associated with AN. Another feature of AN is amenorrhea, which is the absence of menstrual periods.

      Physical symptoms of AN include hypotension and the growth of lanugo hair, which is fine, downy hair that grows on the body as a result of malnutrition. Denial and concealment are also common behaviors associated with AN, as individuals with this disorder often try to hide their symptoms from others.

      In addition to these physical and behavioral symptoms, individuals with AN may also have an over-perception of their body image, leading them to see themselves as overweight even when they are underweight. Finally, AN is often associated with enmeshed families, where family members are overly involved in each other’s lives and have difficulty setting boundaries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      54.2
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 32-year-old basketball player collapsed during a game and died from a ruptured...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old basketball player collapsed during a game and died from a ruptured aortic aneurysm. The athlete died from the consequences of a genetic defect called Marfan’s syndrome.
      Which extracellular matrix protein is altered in this disease?

      Your Answer: Fibrillin-1

      Explanation:

      Fibrillin-1 is a glycoprotein that forms microfibrils in the extracellular matrix. These microfibrils can create elastic fibers, providing support for tissues like vessels, ligaments, and skin. Mutations in the FIB-1 gene can cause Marfan’s syndrome, which is characterized by inelastic connective tissue and increased risk of aortic dissection. Integrins are transmembrane proteins that anchor the cell cytoskeleton to the extracellular matrix. Mutations in integrin genes can lead to leukocyte adhesion deficiency type I. Mutations in type I collagen can cause osteogenesis imperfecta and Ehlers-Danlos syndrome. Fibronectin mutations can cause fibronectin glomerulopathy, a kidney disease. Laminins are proteins in the basement membrane of epithelial cells, and mutations in some types can cause muscular dystrophy and junctional epidermolysis bullosa.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      23.9
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  • Question 8 - A 30-year-old pregnant woman comes to the clinic with a new fever and...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old pregnant woman comes to the clinic with a new fever and a pruritic rash on her trunk and limbs. The rash is mainly macular and has a reticular pattern. She also reports experiencing pain in her knees, elbows, and wrists, with slight swelling in her left wrist. What is the probable infectious agent responsible for her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Parvovirus B19

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis of a Morbilliform Rash: Parvovirus B19

      A patient presents with a generalised, macular rash with a lacy appearance on the trunk and extremities, along with arthralgia and arthritis. The differential diagnosis for a morbilliform rash includes infections such as measles virus, rubella, parvovirus B19, human herpesvirus 6, enterovirus, and other non-specific viruses. However, the lacy appearance of the rash and the presence of arthralgia and arthritis suggest a parvovirus B19 infection. In children, this infection presents with slapped cheek erythema, while in adults, it presents with a lacy erythematous rash and rheumatoid arthritis-like arthropathy. Diagnosis is made through positive anti-B19 IgM serology or positive serum B19 DNA polymerase chain reaction. Other infections, such as rubella, may also cause a morbilliform rash with arthropathy, but they do not typically have a lacy appearance. Human herpesvirus 6 does not cause arthropathy or a lacy rash, while staphylococcal toxins cause a sunburn-like or exfoliative rash. Measles is associated with a prodrome of conjunctivitis, coryza, and cough, but not arthritis, and the rash is not reticular in appearance. Therefore, parvovirus B19 should be considered in the differential diagnosis of a morbilliform rash with arthralgia and arthritis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      46.2
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 68-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with hypotension and maelena despite...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with hypotension and maelena despite receiving 6 units of blood. He has a medical history of arthritis and takes methotrexate and ibuprofen. What is the next most appropriate course of action from the following options?

      Your Answer: Endoscopy

      Explanation:

      The Importance of Endoscopy in Diagnosing and Treating Upper GI Bleeds

      When a patient presents with an upper GI bleed, it is important to determine the cause and provide appropriate treatment. In cases where the bleed is likely caused by a duodenal ulcer from non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug use, an OGD (oesophago-gastro-duodenoscopy) is necessary for diagnosis and initial therapeutic management. Endoscopy allows for the identification of a bleeding ulcer, which can then be injected with adrenaline and clipped to prevent re-bleeding.

      Continued transfusion may help resuscitate the patient, but it will not stop the bleeding. A CT scan with embolisation could be useful, but a CT scan alone would not be sufficient. Laparotomy should only be considered if endoscopic therapy fails. Diagnostic laparoscopy is not necessary as a clinical diagnosis can be made based on the patient’s history and condition.

      In conclusion, endoscopy is crucial in diagnosing and treating upper GI bleeds, particularly in cases where a duodenal ulcer is suspected. It allows for immediate intervention to stop the bleeding and prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      16.1
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 7-year-old child is brought to the GP practice for an urgent appointment...

    Correct

    • A 7-year-old child is brought to the GP practice for an urgent appointment by their parent. They have a 7 day history of fever and dry cough but in the last 24hrs their parent has become increasingly concerned about their breathing. They also report the child is refusing food and has had very few wet nappies.
      The child's observations are oxygen saturation 93% on air, respiratory rate 58 breaths/min, heart rate 160 bpm, blood pressure 85/45 mmHg and temperature 38.1ºC.
      On examination, the child's breathing appears rapid with marked intercostal recession and use of accessory muscles. They are also making a grunting noise.
      Which of these findings would indicate immediate referral to hospital by ambulance?

      Your Answer: Grunting

      Explanation:

      Immediate admission would be necessary for a heart rate of 200bpm. A heart rate of 160 bpm would be worrisome and hospital evaluation should be contemplated, but the urgency would vary based on the patient’s clinical state.

      Bronchiolitis is a condition where the bronchioles become inflamed, and it is most commonly caused by respiratory syncytial virus (RSV). This virus is responsible for 75-80% of cases, with other causes including mycoplasma and adenoviruses. Bronchiolitis is most prevalent in infants under one year old, with 90% of cases occurring in those aged 1-9 months. The condition is more serious in premature babies, those with congenital heart disease or cystic fibrosis. Symptoms include coryzal symptoms, dry cough, increasing breathlessness, and wheezing. Hospital admission is often necessary due to feeding difficulties associated with increasing dyspnoea.

      Immediate referral is recommended if the child has apnoea, looks seriously unwell, has severe respiratory distress, central cyanosis, or persistent oxygen saturation of less than 92% when breathing air. Clinicians should consider referral if the child has a respiratory rate of over 60 breaths/minute, difficulty with breastfeeding or inadequate oral fluid intake, or clinical dehydration. Immunofluorescence of nasopharyngeal secretions may show RSV, and management is largely supportive. Humidified oxygen is given via a head box if oxygen saturations are persistently low, and nasogastric feeding may be necessary if children cannot take enough fluid/feed by mouth. Suction may also be used for excessive upper airway secretions. NICE released guidelines on bronchiolitis in 2015 for more information.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      40.1
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 54-year-old woman presents to her GP complaining of fatigue and difficulty sleeping....

    Correct

    • A 54-year-old woman presents to her GP complaining of fatigue and difficulty sleeping. She also experiences weakness in her limbs, making it hard to complete household tasks. She has a history of bipolar disorder, which has been well-controlled with lithium carbonate for many years. The following blood tests were taken:

      - Hb: 113 g/L (normal range: 115 - 160)
      - Platelets: 201 * 109/L (normal range: 150 - 400)
      - WBC: 10.2 * 109/L (normal range: 4.0 - 11.0)
      - Calcium: 2.81 mmol/L (normal range: 2.1-2.6)
      - Phosphate: 0.55 mmol/L (normal range: 0.8-1.4)
      - Parathyroid hormone: 17.1 pmol/L (normal range: 2.0-8.5)
      - ALP: 207 u/L (normal range: 30 - 100)
      - Serum lithium: 0.67 mmol/L (normal range: 0.4 - 1.0)

      What is the most appropriate definitive management for this patient, given the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Parathyroidectomy

      Explanation:

      The patient’s elevated serum calcium, raised ALP, and raised PTH levels, along with low serum phosphate, indicate a diagnosis of primary hyperparathyroidism.

      Lab Values for Bone Disorders

      When it comes to bone disorders, certain lab values can provide important information for diagnosis and treatment. In cases of osteoporosis, calcium, phosphate, alkaline phosphatase (ALP), and parathyroid hormone (PTH) levels are typically within normal ranges. However, in osteomalacia, there is a decrease in calcium and phosphate levels, an increase in ALP levels, and an increase in PTH levels.

      Primary hyperparathyroidism, which can lead to osteitis fibrosa cystica, is characterized by increased calcium and PTH levels, but decreased phosphate levels. Chronic kidney disease can also lead to secondary hyperparathyroidism, with decreased calcium levels and increased phosphate and PTH levels.

      Paget’s disease, which causes abnormal bone growth, typically shows normal calcium and phosphate levels, but an increase in ALP levels. Osteopetrosis, a rare genetic disorder that causes bones to become dense and brittle, typically shows normal lab values for calcium, phosphate, ALP, and PTH.

      Overall, understanding these lab values can help healthcare professionals diagnose and treat various bone disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      45.5
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 72-year-old man with ovarian cancer is currently taking morphine sulphate modified release...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old man with ovarian cancer is currently taking morphine sulphate modified release (MST) tablets orally 30 mg twice a day. He is admitted under palliative care and his pain is not controlling well. Your consultant asked you to prescribe oral morphine for breakthrough pain.
      What dose of Oramorph and frequency should you prescribed?

      Your Answer: 10 mg 2–4 hourly

      Explanation:

      Calculating Breakthrough Doses for Morphine

      When administering morphine for pain management, it is important to calculate the correct dosage for breakthrough pain. The breakthrough dose should be one-sixth of the total morphine dose in 24 hours. For example, if a patient is taking 30 mg of MST in 24 hours, the breakthrough dose would be 10 mg.

      The standard dose for breakthrough pain should be repeated every 2-4 hours as required, but this should be constantly reviewed. If the pain is severe, the breakthrough dose can be given up to hourly.

      It is important to calculate the correct dosage to avoid an overdose. For example, a dose of 15 mg or 30 mg taken every 2-4 hours would be an overdose when calculated using the one-sixth rule. Always consult with a healthcare professional to determine the appropriate dosage for each individual patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      33.5
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 67-year-old woman is undergoing an OGD to investigate dysphagia related to her...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old woman is undergoing an OGD to investigate dysphagia related to her known achalasia. During the procedure, a mass is observed in the middle third of her oesophagus, without other abnormalities detected beyond this point. What type of cancer is most likely present?

      Your Answer: Adenocarcinoma of the oesophagus

      Correct Answer: Squamous cell carcinoma of the oesophagus

      Explanation:

      The risk of oesophageal adenocarcinoma is higher in individuals with Barrett’s oesophagus, whereas those with achalasia are at a greater risk of developing squamous cell carcinoma of the oesophagus.

      Oesophageal Cancer: Types, Risk Factors, Features, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      Oesophageal cancer used to be mostly squamous cell carcinoma, but adenocarcinoma is now becoming more common, especially in patients with a history of gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD) or Barrett’s. Adenocarcinoma is usually located near the gastroesophageal junction, while squamous cell tumours are found in the upper two-thirds of the oesophagus.

      Risk factors for adenocarcinoma include GORD, Barrett’s oesophagus, smoking, achalasia, and obesity. Squamous cell cancer is more common in the developing world and is associated with smoking, alcohol, achalasia, Plummer-Vinson syndrome, and diets rich in nitrosamines.

      The most common presenting symptom for both types of oesophageal cancer is dysphagia, followed by anorexia and weight loss. Other possible features include odynophagia, hoarseness, melaena, vomiting, and cough.

      Diagnosis is done through upper GI endoscopy with biopsy, endoscopic ultrasound for locoregional staging, CT scanning for initial staging, and FDG-PET CT for detecting occult metastases. Laparoscopy may also be performed to detect occult peritoneal disease.

      Operable disease is best managed by surgical resection, with the most common procedure being an Ivor-Lewis type oesophagectomy. However, the biggest surgical challenge is anastomotic leak, which can result in mediastinitis. Adjuvant chemotherapy may also be used in many patients.

      Overall, oesophageal cancer is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. Understanding the types, risk factors, features, diagnosis, and treatment options can help patients and healthcare providers make informed decisions about managing this disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      24.2
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  • Question 14 - A 45-year-old man presents with a sudden thunderclap headache while seated. On examination,...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old man presents with a sudden thunderclap headache while seated. On examination, he exhibits signs of meningism such as a stiff neck and photophobia, but no fever. A CT scan is inconclusive and rules out SAH. Despite this, you decide to perform a lumbar puncture 12 hours later. What CSF findings would confirm the presence of SAH in this patient?

      Your Answer: Breakdown products of RBC such as bilirubin

      Explanation:

      If red blood cells are found in the cerebrospinal fluid, it could be a result of a traumatic tap. However, if there are breakdown products of red blood cells present, it may indicate a subarachnoid hemorrhage. To ensure accuracy, three separate samples are collected in different tubes. Xanthochromia, which is the yellowish color of the CSF, occurs when the body breaks down the blood in the meninges. Based on the patient’s history, there is no indication of meningitis.

      A subarachnoid haemorrhage (SAH) is a type of bleeding that occurs within the subarachnoid space of the meninges in the brain. It can be caused by head injury or occur spontaneously. Spontaneous SAH is often caused by an intracranial aneurysm, which accounts for around 85% of cases. Other causes include arteriovenous malformation, pituitary apoplexy, and mycotic aneurysms. The classic symptoms of SAH include a sudden and severe headache, nausea and vomiting, meningism, coma, seizures, and ECG changes.

      The first-line investigation for SAH is a non-contrast CT head, which can detect acute blood in the basal cisterns, sulci, and ventricular system. If the CT is normal within 6 hours of symptom onset, a lumbar puncture is not recommended. However, if the CT is normal after 6 hours, a lumbar puncture should be performed at least 12 hours after symptom onset to check for xanthochromia and other CSF findings consistent with SAH. If SAH is confirmed, referral to neurosurgery is necessary to identify the underlying cause and provide urgent treatment.

      Management of aneurysmal SAH involves supportive care, such as bed rest, analgesia, and venous thromboembolism prophylaxis. Vasospasm is prevented with oral nimodipine, and intracranial aneurysms require prompt intervention to prevent rebleeding. Most aneurysms are treated with a coil by interventional neuroradiologists, but some require a craniotomy and clipping by a neurosurgeon. Complications of aneurysmal SAH include re-bleeding, hydrocephalus, vasospasm, and hyponatraemia. Predictive factors for SAH include conscious level on admission, age, and amount of blood visible on CT head.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      28.9
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  • Question 15 - A 75-year-old male has been diagnosed with rectal carcinoma and is scheduled for...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old male has been diagnosed with rectal carcinoma and is scheduled for a lower anterior resection with the goal of restoring intestinal continuity. What type of stoma would be most suitable?

      Your Answer: End colostomy

      Correct Answer: Loop ileostomy

      Explanation:

      The loop ileostomy is a technique used to redirect the flow of bowel contents away from a distal anastomosis, typically in cases of rectal cancer. When the ileostomy is reversed, it allows for the restoration of bowel continuity and can greatly enhance the patient’s quality of life.

      Abdominal stomas are created during various abdominal procedures to bring the lumen or contents of organs onto the skin. Typically, this involves the bowel, but other organs may also be diverted if necessary. The type and method of construction of the stoma will depend on the contents of the bowel. Small bowel stomas should be spouted to prevent irritant contents from coming into contact with the skin, while colonic stomas do not require spouting. Proper siting of the stoma is crucial to reduce the risk of leakage and subsequent maceration of the surrounding skin. The type and location of the stoma will vary depending on the purpose, such as defunctioning the colon or providing feeding access. Overall, abdominal stomas are a necessary medical intervention that requires careful consideration and planning.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      10.9
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  • Question 16 - A 35-year-old man is commencing therapy for tuberculosis and is educated on the...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man is commencing therapy for tuberculosis and is educated on the potential side effects associated with each medication. Due to one of the drugs being recognized for depleting and counteracting pyridoxine in the body, leading to peripheral neuropathy, it has been determined that the patient will be initiated on pyridoxine supplements to minimize the risk.

      Which medication is accountable for this?

      Your Answer: Isoniazid

      Explanation:

      To reduce the risk of peripheral neuropathy associated with isoniazid, it is recommended to prescribe pyridoxine as a supplement. This is particularly important in the management of tuberculosis, where multiple drugs are used, each with their own potential side effects. While ethambutol is also used in the treatment of tuberculosis, it is not the best answer as it can cause visual impairment and affect red-green discrimination. Pyrazinamide is not relevant as it does not oppose pyridoxine in the body, and rifampicin is not typically associated with peripheral neuropathy.

      Side-Effects and Mechanism of Action of Tuberculosis Drugs

      Rifampicin is a drug that inhibits bacterial DNA dependent RNA polymerase, which prevents the transcription of DNA into mRNA. However, it is a potent liver enzyme inducer and can cause hepatitis, orange secretions, and flu-like symptoms.

      Isoniazid, on the other hand, inhibits mycolic acid synthesis. It can cause peripheral neuropathy, which can be prevented with pyridoxine (Vitamin B6). It can also cause hepatitis and agranulocytosis. Additionally, it is a liver enzyme inhibitor.

      Pyrazinamide is converted by pyrazinamidase into pyrazinoic acid, which in turn inhibits fatty acid synthase (FAS) I. However, it can cause hyperuricaemia, leading to gout, as well as arthralgia, myalgia, and hepatitis.

      Lastly, Ethambutol inhibits the enzyme arabinosyl transferase, which polymerizes arabinose into arabinan. It can cause optic neuritis, so it is important to check visual acuity before and during treatment. Additionally, the dose needs adjusting in patients with renal impairment.

      In summary, these tuberculosis drugs have different mechanisms of action and can cause various side-effects. It is important to monitor patients closely and adjust treatment accordingly to ensure the best possible outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      40.6
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  • Question 17 - A 51-year-old man undergoes excision of a bladder tumour. postoperatively, he has a...

    Correct

    • A 51-year-old man undergoes excision of a bladder tumour. postoperatively, he has a small amount of haematuria. His urine output is as follows:
      Time Urine output
      13:00 60 ml/hr
      14:00 68 ml/hr
      15:00 52 ml/hr
      16:00 0 ml/hr
      17:00 0 ml/hr
      18:00 0 ml/hr
      You are asked to see the patient by his nurse who is concerned about the low urine output.
      What is the correct next step?

      Your Answer: Flush the catheter with 50 ml of normal saline

      Explanation:

      Appropriate Fluid Management in Post-Operative Patients

      In post-operative patients, appropriate fluid management is crucial to prevent complications and promote healing. However, it is important to use the correct interventions based on the patient’s specific condition. Here are some examples:

      Flush the Catheter with 50 ml of Normal Saline
      This intervention is appropriate when there is an abrupt drop in urine output on a background of haematuria, which is likely caused by a clot obstructing the catheter tube. Flushing the catheter with a small amount of normal saline can dislodge the clot and reinstate urine flow without damaging the bladder and healing.

      Give a 250 ml Intravenous (IV) Bolus of Normal Saline
      This intervention is appropriate when there is a gradual reduction in urine output, suggesting dehydration and hypovolaemia. However, it is not appropriate for an abrupt drop in urine output caused by catheter obstruction.

      Give a 2000 ml IV Bolus of Normal Saline
      This intervention is only appropriate in cases of severe hypovolaemia or septic shock, following a lack of response to a small fluid bolus of 250-500 ml. It should not be used in other situations as it can lead to fluid overload and other complications.

      Flush the Catheter with 1500 ml of Normal Saline
      This intervention is not appropriate as flushing the catheter with such a large volume of fluid can increase bladder pressure, damage the bladder mucosa, and impair the healing process.

      Prescribe 40 mg of Furosemide IV to Encourage Diuresis
      This intervention is not appropriate in patients with low urine output in the post-operative period as reduced output may be an indication of hypovolaemia, in which case diuretics are contraindicated.

      In summary, appropriate fluid management in post-operative patients requires careful consideration of the patient’s specific condition and the appropriate interventions to prevent complications and promote healing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      21.2
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  • Question 18 - A 79-year-old woman presents with recent-onset confusion. She had been in her usual...

    Correct

    • A 79-year-old woman presents with recent-onset confusion. She had been in her usual state of health until she was observed to be confused and agitated during dinner yesterday. This morning, she was alert and oriented, but later in the evening, she became completely confused, agitated, and hostile. She was subsequently transported to the Emergency Department by ambulance. Additional history reveals no prior instances of confusion, but she has experienced increased frequency of urination over the past few days.
      What is the probable reason for her confusion?

      Your Answer: Urinary tract infection (UTI)

      Explanation:

      Diagnosing Delirium in an Elderly Patient: UTI vs. Dementia vs. Pyelonephritis

      When an 89-year-old woman presents with waxing and waning consciousness, punctuated by ‘sun-downing’, it is important to consider the possible causes of delirium. In this case, the patient has normal cognitive function but is experiencing acute global cerebral dysfunction. One possible cause of delirium in the elderly is a urinary tract infection (UTI), which can present with symptoms such as frequency and confusion.

      However, it is important to rule out other potential causes of delirium, such as vascular dementia or Alzheimer’s dementia. In these conditions, cognitive decline is typically steady and progressive, whereas the patient in this case is experiencing waxing and waning consciousness. Additionally, neither of these conditions would account for the patient’s new urinary symptoms.

      Another possible cause of delirium is pyelonephritis, which can present with similar symptoms to a UTI but may also include pyrexia, renal angle tenderness, and casts on urinalysis. However, in this case, the patient does not exhibit these additional symptoms.

      Finally, pseudodementia is unlikely in this scenario as the patient does not exhibit any affective signs. Overall, it is important to consider all possible causes of delirium in an elderly patient and conduct a thorough evaluation to determine the underlying condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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  • Question 19 - A patient is brought into the Resuscitation Room. Paramedics were called after he...

    Correct

    • A patient is brought into the Resuscitation Room. Paramedics were called after he was found face down, unconscious on the road. He smells strongly of alcohol. He has a nasopharyngeal airway in situ (inserted by the ambulance service). There are no visible injuries, except for a small abrasion on his left knee and another on his left shoulder. He is currently on 15 l of high-flow oxygen via a non-rebreather mask.
      In which of the following scenarios is a nasopharyngeal airway indicated for an elderly patient?

      Your Answer: Seizures

      Explanation:

      The Use of Nasopharyngeal Airways in Seizure Management

      Nasopharyngeal airways are a valuable tool in managing patients with seizures. During a seizure, jaw rigidity can make it difficult to position an oropharyngeal airway, making a nasopharyngeal airway a better option. These airways are used to secure an open airway in patients with a decreased Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score and those who cannot tolerate an oropharyngeal airway due to an intact gag reflex. The correct size of the airway is chosen by sizing the width of the patient’s nostril to the circumference of the tube, and insertion is facilitated by using a water-based lubricant. However, nasopharyngeal airways should not be used in patients with a patent airway or those with basal skull fractures and coagulopathy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthetics & ITU
      51.9
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  • Question 20 - A concerned father brings his 6-year-old daughter to see the GP, worried about...

    Correct

    • A concerned father brings his 6-year-old daughter to see the GP, worried about her walking and balance. The child learned to walk around 2 years old, much the same as her older brother. However, over the last few months, her dad has noticed that she has become reluctant to walk and often trips or falls when she does.

      On examination, the child is of average build but has disproportionately large calves. When asked to walk across the room she does so on her tiptoes. Gowers test is positive.

      What investigation is considered most appropriate to confirm the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Genetic analysis

      Explanation:

      A diagnosis of Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD) can now be made through genetic testing instead of a muscle biopsy. The symptoms and history described strongly suggest DMD, which is a genetic disorder that causes muscle wasting and weakness. Classic features of DMD include calf hyperplasia and a positive Gowers test. Most individuals with DMD will require a wheelchair by puberty, and management is primarily conservative. CT imaging of the legs is not typically used for diagnosis, and while a high creatine kinase can indicate muscular dystrophy in children, genetic testing is more definitive. Muscle function testing is useful for monitoring disease progression but not for initial diagnosis.

      Understanding Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy

      Duchenne muscular dystrophy is a genetic disorder that is inherited in an X-linked recessive manner. It affects the dystrophin genes that are essential for normal muscular function. The disorder is characterized by progressive proximal muscle weakness that typically begins around the age of 5 years. Other features include calf pseudohypertrophy and Gower’s sign, which is when a child uses their arms to stand up from a squatted position. Approximately 30% of patients with Duchenne muscular dystrophy also have intellectual impairment.

      To diagnose Duchenne muscular dystrophy, doctors typically look for elevated levels of creatinine kinase in the blood. However, genetic testing has now replaced muscle biopsy as the preferred method for obtaining a definitive diagnosis. Unfortunately, there is currently no effective treatment for Duchenne muscular dystrophy, so management is largely supportive.

      The prognosis for Duchenne muscular dystrophy is poor. Most children with the disorder are unable to walk by the age of 12 years, and patients typically survive to around the age of 25-30 years. Duchenne muscular dystrophy is also associated with dilated cardiomyopathy, which can further complicate the management of the disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 21 - A 67-year-old man is brought to the Neurology clinic by his wife because...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old man is brought to the Neurology clinic by his wife because he has had 4 months of progressively worsening dysarthria, gait instability, intention tremor and memory loss. Electroencephalography (EEG) is performed and is significant for triphasic spikes, and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is obtained, which shows an elevated 14-3-3 protein. The patient’s clinical course continues to deteriorate, and he dies 7 months after his initial presentation. A researcher obtains permission to procure a brain biopsy specimen to confirm the diagnosis and contribute to a repository of similar diseases.
      What secondary structure would the researcher expect to find in the abnormal brain tissue?

      Your Answer: Proteinaceous β sheets

      Explanation:

      Secondary Structures in Proteins and Nucleic Acids

      Proteins and nucleic acids are essential biomolecules that perform various functions in living organisms. These molecules have unique structural features that enable them to carry out their functions. One such feature is the secondary structure, which refers to the local folding patterns of the molecule.

      Proteinaceous β sheets are a type of secondary structure that is associated with prion disorders such as Creutzfeldt–Jakob disease. Prions are infectious protein molecules that can convert normal cellular prion protein into an abnormal form that exists as β sheets.

      Nucleic acid hairpin loops are another type of secondary structure that has functional properties in DNA and RNA molecules. These structures are formed when a single strand of nucleic acid folds back on itself to form a loop.

      Proteinaceous α helices are a common non-pathological secondary structure of proteins. These structures are formed when the polypeptide chain twists into a helical shape.

      Nucleic acid pseudoknots are secondary structures that have functional properties in DNA and RNA molecules. These structures are formed when two regions of a single strand of nucleic acid fold back on each other and form a knot-like structure.

      Proteinaceous α sheets are theoretical structures that could represent an intermediate between α helices and β sheets. These structures have not been observed in nature but are predicted based on computational models.

      In summary, secondary structures play an important role in the function and stability of proteins and nucleic acids. Understanding these structures is essential for understanding the molecular mechanisms of biological processes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      49.7
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  • Question 22 - A 25-year-old female patient complains of a painful cystic lump that is discharging...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old female patient complains of a painful cystic lump that is discharging caseous/white material and appears erythematosus, located to the left of her vaginal opening. Based on your knowledge of anatomy, what type of cyst is most likely causing these symptoms?

      Your Answer: Sebaceous cyst

      Correct Answer: Bartholin's cyst

      Explanation:

      Anatomy of the Female Genitalia

      The female genitalia is composed of various structures that serve different functions. The labia majora are folds of skin that provide protection for the urethral and vaginal orifices. On the other hand, the labia minora are hairless skin folds that surround the vestibule of the vagina. The vestibule is the space between the labia minora that contains the openings of the urethra, vagina, and ducts of the greater and lesser vestibular glands.

      The greater vestibular glands, also known as Bartholin’s gland, are located on each side of the vestibule and produce a small amount of mucous-like fluid. The fluid helps keep the entrance to the vagina moist. The ducts of these glands pass deep to the bulbs of the vestibule and drain down a short tube called the Bartholin’s gland duct. However, if the duct becomes blocked, a fluid-filled swelling called a cyst may develop. The size of the cyst can vary from small to as big as a golf ball.

      In summary, the female genitalia is composed of various structures that work together to perform different functions. the anatomy of the female genitalia is important in maintaining good reproductive health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      18
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  • Question 23 - A 50-year-old man is scheduled for a routine tooth extraction with his dentist....

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man is scheduled for a routine tooth extraction with his dentist. He has a history of type 2 diabetes and depression, but is otherwise in good health. His daily medications include metformin 850 mg three times a day, glimepiride 1 mg once a day, ramipril 5 mg once a day, isocarboxazid 20 mg once a day, and aspirin 75 mg once a day. Which medication should the dentist be informed about as a priority?

      Your Answer: Isocarboxazid

      Explanation:

      Isocarboxazid is an antidepressant drug that inhibits both MAO-A and MAO-B, leading to increased neurotransmitter concentration and improved symptoms of depression and other psychiatric conditions. MAOIs have dietary restrictions and can interact with certain drugs, such as synthetic catecholamines. Aspirin may increase bleeding during dental procedures, but it is still recommended to continue use. Metformin increases the risk of lactic acidosis if the patient becomes dehydrated post-procedure. Ramipril and Glimepiride are considered safe to continue during dental extraction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      32.4
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  • Question 24 - An 8-year-old girl visits her GP complaining of an itchy scalp. Upon detection...

    Correct

    • An 8-year-old girl visits her GP complaining of an itchy scalp. Upon detection combing, head lice are found. What is a recognized treatment for head lice?

      Your Answer: Dimeticone 4% gel

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Head Lice

      Head lice infestations are a common problem, especially among children. There are several treatment options available, but not all of them are effective or recommended. Here are some of the commonly used treatments and their effectiveness:

      Dimeticone 4% gel: This gel works by suffocating and coating the lice, making it a well-recognized treatment for head lice.

      Ketoconazole shampoo: While this medicated shampoo is used to treat suspected fungal infections in the scalp, it is not a recognized treatment for head lice.

      Permethrin 5% cream: Although permethrin is an insecticide used to treat scabies, it is not recommended for head lice treatment as the 10-minute contact time may not be enough for it to be effective.

      Topical antibiotics: These are not recommended for head lice treatment.

      Topical antifungal: Topical antifungals have no role in the management of head lice.

      In conclusion, dimeticone 4% gel is a well-recognized treatment for head lice, while other treatments such as ketoconazole shampoo, permethrin 5% cream, topical antibiotics, and topical antifungal are not recommended. It is important to consult a healthcare professional for proper diagnosis and treatment of head lice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 25 - A 36-year-old woman presents to the emergency department after being found confused by...

    Correct

    • A 36-year-old woman presents to the emergency department after being found confused by her partner. On direct questioning, she tells you that she has taken an overdose of 56 tablets of 20 mg amitriptyline around 12 hours ago.

      On examination, she is alert with Glasgow coma scale 15. The abbreviated mental test score is 8/10. Observations are as follows: respiratory rate of 16 breaths per minute, pulse 160 beats per minute, blood pressure 100/60 mmHg, oxygen sats 98% on air and temperature 37.8 ºC. Examination reveals a regular pulse, heart sounds are normal and the chest is clear. There is hypertonia bilaterally and ophthalmoplegia. Both pupils are dilated.

      Na 142 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      K 4.0 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      Bicarbonate 24 mmol/L (22 - 29)
      Urea 3.3 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      Creatinine 60 µmol/L (55 - 120)

      Venous blood gas reveals a pH 7.38. ECG reveals a sinus tachycardia at rate 160 bpm, PRc 160 ms, QRS 170ms.

      What initial treatment will you initiate?

      Your Answer: IV sodium bicarbonate

      Explanation:

      Tricyclic overdose is a common occurrence in emergency departments, with particular danger associated with amitriptyline and dosulepin. Early symptoms include dry mouth, dilated pupils, agitation, sinus tachycardia, and blurred vision. Severe poisoning can lead to arrhythmias, seizures, metabolic acidosis, and coma. ECG changes may include sinus tachycardia, widening of QRS, and prolongation of QT interval. QRS widening over 100ms is linked to an increased risk of seizures, while QRS over 160 ms is associated with ventricular arrhythmias.

      Management of tricyclic overdose involves IV bicarbonate as first-line therapy for hypotension or arrhythmias. Other drugs for arrhythmias, such as class 1a and class Ic antiarrhythmics, are contraindicated as they prolong depolarisation. Class III drugs like amiodarone should also be avoided as they prolong the QT interval. Lignocaine’s response is variable, and it should be noted that correcting acidosis is the first line of management for tricyclic-induced arrhythmias. Intravenous lipid emulsion is increasingly used to bind free drug and reduce toxicity. Dialysis is ineffective in removing tricyclics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      34.2
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  • Question 26 - A patient with chronic kidney disease has a creatinine of 350 μmol/l and...

    Correct

    • A patient with chronic kidney disease has a creatinine of 350 μmol/l and has persistent proteinuria.
      Which one of the following drugs is most likely of benefit to his renal prognosis?

      Your Answer: Angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Proteinuria and Renal Prognosis

      Proteinuria, the presence of excess protein in the urine, can be a sign of kidney damage or disease. Patients with proteinuria of any cause are at increased cardiovascular risk and require attention to modifiable risk factors such as smoking and hyperlipidemia. However, the renal prognosis can improve with the use of angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors, which are known to be effective in treating proteinuria. Aspirin and clopidogrel are not considered effective in improving renal outcomes for proteinuria. Blood pressure control is crucial in improving renal outcomes, and doxazosin may be useful in the right context. Methotrexate is not a recommended treatment option for proteinuria. Overall, ACE inhibitors remain the most effective treatment option for improving renal prognosis in patients with proteinuria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal
      7.4
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  • Question 27 - A 50-year-old woman visits her general practitioner complaining of a rash on her...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman visits her general practitioner complaining of a rash on her left nipple. She has no significant medical or family history. Upon examination, the doctor observes an erythematosus rash on the left nipple with thickening. The areola appears normal, and there are no palpable masses in the breast or axillary tail. The right breast is also unremarkable. What is the best course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer: Urgent referral to breast clinic

      Explanation:

      If a patient presents with reddening and thickening of the nipple and areola, it is important to consider Paget’s disease of the breast. This condition can be similar to nipple eczema, but the key difference is that nipple eczema starts in the areola and spreads to the nipple, while Paget’s disease starts at the nipple and spreads to the areola in later stages. Regardless of whether a mass can be felt, Paget’s disease of the nipple is strongly suggestive of breast cancer and requires an urgent referral to the breast clinic. Therefore, the correct answer is urgent referral to the breast clinic. Routine referral is not sufficient as this condition requires urgent attention. Topical corticosteroids and emollients may be used to manage moderate nipple eczema, but they are not appropriate for Paget’s disease. Similarly, topical emollients and tacrolimus are not effective treatments for Paget’s disease.

      Paget’s disease of the nipple is a condition that affects the nipple and is associated with breast cancer. It is present in a small percentage of patients with breast cancer, typically around 1-2%. In half of these cases, there is an underlying mass lesion, and 90% of those patients will have an invasive carcinoma. Even in cases where there is no mass lesion, around 30% of patients will still have an underlying carcinoma. The remaining cases will have carcinoma in situ.

      One key difference between Paget’s disease and eczema of the nipple is that Paget’s disease primarily affects the nipple and later spreads to the areolar, whereas eczema does the opposite. Diagnosis of Paget’s disease involves a punch biopsy, mammography, and ultrasound of the breast. Treatment will depend on the underlying lesion causing the disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      32.5
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 50-year-old woman visits her GP to receive the results of her recent...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman visits her GP to receive the results of her recent cervical smear. Her two previous smears, taken 18 and 6 months ago, were positive for high-risk human papillomavirus (HPV) but showed no abnormal cytology. The GP informs her that her most recent cervical smear also tested positive for high-risk HPV. What is the best course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Refer for colposcopy

      Explanation:

      If a patient’s 2nd repeat cervical smear at 24 months is still positive for high-risk human papillomavirus (hrHPV), the correct course of action is to refer them for colposcopy. This is in line with the NHS cervical screening programme guidelines.

      Cytological examination of the smear would not change the management of the patient and is therefore not the correct option. Regardless of cytological findings, a patient with a third hrHPV positive smear would be referred for colposcopy.

      Repeating the cervical smear in 5 years is not appropriate for this patient as it is only recommended for those with negative hrHPV results.

      Repeating the cervical smear after 6 months is not indicated as a test of cure for cervical intraepithelial neoplasia in this case.

      Repeating the cervical smear after 12 months is also not appropriate as this is the patient’s 2nd repeat smear that is hrHPV positive. It would only be considered if it was their routine smear or 1st repeat smear that was hrHPV positive and there were no cytological abnormalities.

      The cervical cancer screening program has evolved to include HPV testing, which allows for further risk stratification. A negative hrHPV result means a return to normal recall, while a positive result requires cytological examination. Abnormal cytology results lead to colposcopy, while normal cytology results require a repeat test at 12 months. Inadequate samples require a repeat within 3 months, and two consecutive inadequate samples lead to colposcopy. Treatment for CIN typically involves LLETZ or cryotherapy. Individuals who have been treated for CIN should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample 6 months after treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      12.9
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  • Question 29 - A 53-year-old man is brought to the ED by ambulance after his daughter...

    Incorrect

    • A 53-year-old man is brought to the ED by ambulance after his daughter found him acting strangely in the basement. During transport, he experienced a seizure lasting for 2 minutes. According to the daughter, she found an empty bottle of insecticide near him, and he had been feeling down for the past few months after his divorce.

      What would be the best initial approach to managing this patient?

      Your Answer: 100% hyperbaric oxygen

      Correct Answer: Fomepizole

      Explanation:

      In the case of a person who has ingested antifreeze (ethylene glycol) with suicidal intent, the primary treatment is fomepizole. If fomepizole is not effective, ethanol is used as a secondary treatment, and dialysis is used in severe cases. Flumazenil is used to treat benzodiazepine overdoses, while N-acetylcysteine is used for paracetamol overdose. Naloxone is used to treat opioid overdose, and hyperbaric oxygen is used for carbon monoxide poisoning.

      Understanding Ethylene Glycol Toxicity and Its Management

      Ethylene glycol is a type of alcohol commonly used as a coolant or antifreeze. Its toxicity is characterized by three stages of symptoms. The first stage is similar to alcohol intoxication, with confusion, slurred speech, and dizziness. The second stage involves metabolic acidosis with high anion gap and high osmolar gap, as well as tachycardia and hypertension. The third stage is acute kidney injury.

      In the past, ethanol was the primary treatment for ethylene glycol toxicity. It works by competing with ethylene glycol for the enzyme alcohol dehydrogenase, which limits the formation of toxic metabolites responsible for the haemodynamic and metabolic features of poisoning. However, in recent times, fomepizole, an inhibitor of alcohol dehydrogenase, has become the first-line treatment preference over ethanol. Haemodialysis also has a role in refractory cases.

      Overall, understanding the stages of ethylene glycol toxicity and the changing management options is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide effective treatment and prevent further harm to patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      56.6
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  • Question 30 - A breast cancer screening programme involved 1000 patients who underwent mammograms. Out of...

    Correct

    • A breast cancer screening programme involved 1000 patients who underwent mammograms. Out of these, 120 patients were recalled for further investigations due to being a high-risk group. Among the recalled patients, 18 were found to have breast cancer. Meanwhile, 880 patients were not recalled, and 45 of them were diagnosed with breast cancer. What is the percentage of positive predictive value for the patients who were recalled in this screening programme?

      Your Answer: 15%

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Statistics of a Medical Screening Test

      Medical screening tests are an important tool in detecting diseases early on. However, it is important to understand the statistics behind these tests to accurately interpret the results. Here are some key terms to know:

      Positive Predictive Value: The percentage of people with a positive test result who actually have the disease. Calculated as true positives/(true positives + false positives) x 100%.

      Disease Prevalence: The percentage of cases of the disease within one population.

      Negative Predictive Value: The percentage of patients who test negative for the screening test that are true negatives, ie do not have the disease. Calculated as true negatives/(true negatives + false negatives) x 100%.

      Sensitivity: The ability of the test to correctly identify the patients who have a disease. Calculated as true positives/(true positives + false negatives) x 100%.

      Specificity: The ability of the test to identify true negatives, specifically people without the disease in question. Calculated as true negatives/(true negatives + false positives) x 100%.

      Understanding these statistics can help healthcare professionals and patients make informed decisions about further testing and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistics
      82.9
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Endocrinology (3/3) 100%
Musculoskeletal (2/2) 100%
Obstetrics (1/1) 100%
Ophthalmology (1/1) 100%
Genetics (1/1) 100%
Infectious Diseases (1/1) 100%
Gastroenterology (1/1) 100%
Paediatrics (2/2) 100%
Pharmacology (4/5) 80%
Medicine (0/1) 0%
Surgery (3/4) 75%
Acute Medicine And Intensive Care (1/1) 100%
Anaesthetics & ITU (1/1) 100%
Neurology (1/1) 100%
Clinical Sciences (0/1) 0%
Dermatology (1/1) 100%
Renal (1/1) 100%
Gynaecology (1/1) 100%
Statistics (1/1) 100%
Passmed