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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old girl presents with chronic leg pain and is diagnosed with an osteosarcoma.
Which of the following is true of osteosarcoma?Your Answer: Are most commonly seen around the knee and in the proximal humerus
Correct Answer: Typical punched out lesion seen on x ray
Explanation:Osteosarcomas: A Bone Cancer that Affects Long Bones
Osteosarcomas are a type of bone cancer that primarily affects the metaphysis of long bones, with the knee and proximal humerus being the most commonly affected areas. Although they are more commonly seen in young adults, they can also occur in the elderly in association with Paget’s disease. The most common symptoms of osteosarcomas are bone pain and a palpable lump.
When an x-ray is taken, periosteal elevation (known as Codman’s triangle) and a ‘sunburst’ appearance due to soft tissue involvement are typically seen. Early haematogenous spread is common, and the 5-year survival rate is approximately 50%.
Overall, osteosarcomas are a serious form of bone cancer that require prompt diagnosis and treatment. By understanding the symptoms and diagnostic features of this condition, patients and healthcare providers can work together to develop an effective treatment plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 53-year-old woman who was diagnosed with lung cancer almost a year ago presents feeling progressively unwell over the last week or two.
You review her notes and see that she is under the care of the local respiratory team with a histological diagnosis of squamous cell carcinoma. The tumour is not suitable for surgical resection and the patient is being treated palliatively.
Her current medication consists of: paracetamol 1 g QDS, morphine sulphate 30 mg BD, Oramorph PRN for breakthrough pain, lactulose 15 mls BD and metoclopramide 10 mg TDS.
She describes feeling generally weak and lethargic and complains of thirst and widespread aches and pains. Her family reports that she has also been a bit more vague and slightly confused over the last few days.
Further questioning reveals that she is also suffering from some generalised abdominal pain and despite taking a regular laxative has been very constipated.
What is the underlying cause of this patient's symptoms?Your Answer: Iatrogenic disease
Correct Answer: Anaemia
Explanation:Hypercalcaemia in a Patient with Squamous Cell Lung Carcinoma
This patient is presenting with signs and symptoms of hypercalcaemia, including confusion, lethargy, musculoskeletal aches and pains, thirst, abdominal pain, and constipation. The underlying cause of her hypercalcaemia is likely ectopic parathyroid hormone production associated with her squamous cell lung carcinoma.
It is important to consider other potential causes of her symptoms, such as anaemia or an infective cause like atypical pneumonia. However, her medication and superior vena caval obstruction are less likely to be the primary cause of her clinical picture.
Managing hypercalcaemia in patients with advanced cancer is crucial for symptom control and improving quality of life. The Scottish Palliative Care Guidelines provide recommendations for the management of hypercalcaemia, including hydration, bisphosphonates, and corticosteroids. Close monitoring and communication with the patient’s healthcare team are also essential.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 3
Correct
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A 62-year-old businessman presents with bilateral leg weakness that has suddenly become worse over the last 12 hours. Some 8 months ago he had a lobar resection for a stage-II squamous-cell carcinoma followed by radiotherapy and adjuvant chemotherapy. On examination there is reduced power and altered sensation in both legs.
Select the single most likely cause of the current problem.Your Answer: Spinal cord compression as a result of vertebral metastases
Explanation:Spinal Cord Compression: An Oncological Emergency
Spinal cord compression is a medical emergency that requires immediate attention. The sudden onset of bilateral leg weakness and loss of sensation are common symptoms, along with back pain, urinary retention, and constipation. This condition is often caused by metastatic cancer, with breast, bronchus, prostate, multiple myeloma, and high-grade non-Hodgkin lymphoma being the most common culprits. While patients may already have a cancer diagnosis, spinal cord compression can sometimes be the first sign of cancer.
To diagnose spinal cord compression, a whole spinal MRI scan is necessary. Treatment should begin immediately with intravenous dexamethasone, followed by either neurosurgery or radiotherapy. Peripheral neuropathy and spinal tuberculosis can be ruled out based on the time course and lack of relevant history. Paraneoplastic myelopathy is rare and typically associated with small-cell lung cancer, while a secondary spinal tumor deposit would present similarly but is less common.
In summary, spinal cord compression is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. Early intervention can improve outcomes and prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man who has recently undergone palliative radiotherapy for head and neck cancer visits the clinic complaining of constant diffuse mouth pain. Upon examination, there is widespread erythema with no visible focal lesions, ulceration, or candidiasis.
Apart from administering analgesics, what is the most suitable treatment?Your Answer: Chlorhexidine mouthwash
Correct Answer: Benzydamine hydrochloride mouthwash
Explanation:Topical sprays are not suitable for providing continuous pain relief throughout the day due to their short duration of action. It is recommended to only use topical local anaesthetics for severe pain.
Palliative care prescribing for pain is guided by NICE and SIGN guidelines. NICE recommends starting with regular oral modified-release or immediate-release morphine, with immediate-release morphine for breakthrough pain. Laxatives should be prescribed for all patients initiating strong opioids, and antiemetics should be offered if nausea persists. Drowsiness is usually transient, but if it persists, the dose should be adjusted. SIGN advises that the breakthrough dose of morphine is one-sixth the daily dose, and all patients receiving opioids should be prescribed a laxative. Opioids should be used with caution in patients with chronic kidney disease, and oxycodone is preferred to morphine in patients with mild-moderate renal impairment. Metastatic bone pain may respond to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, or radiotherapy, and all patients should be considered for referral to a clinical oncologist for further treatment. When increasing the dose of opioids, the next dose should be increased by 30-50%. Conversion factors between opioids are also provided. Opioid side-effects include nausea, drowsiness, and constipation, which are usually transient but may persist. Denosumab may be used to treat metastatic bone pain in addition to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, and radiotherapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 5
Correct
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A 67-year-old woman visits the local radiotherapy suite, where she is undergoing radiotherapy treatment for endometrial cancer after a radical hysterectomy. She reports that both of her legs have been swollen for some weeks but that, in the last day, her right calf has become more swollen and is slightly painful on weight-bearing.
On examination, she can weight bear and there is no change in the left leg. The right calf is 36 cm when measured 10 cm distal to the tibial tuberosity, compared with 32 cm on the left. There is mild pitting oedema on the right ankle and medial calf tenderness.
What is the most appropriate scoring tool to use in this case?Your Answer: Wells score
Explanation:Scoring Tools in Clinical Practice
In clinical practice, various scoring tools are used to aid in the diagnosis and management of different medical conditions. The Wells score is a tool used to assess the likelihood of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in patients with symptoms such as pain and swelling in the calf. The Ottawa ankle rules, on the other hand, are guidelines used to determine if a patient with foot or ankle pain should undergo an X-ray to diagnose a possible ankle bone fracture. The National Early Warning Score (NEWS) is a tool developed to improve the detection and response to clinical deterioration in adult patients. The CHA2DS2VASC score is used to assess the stroke risk in patients with atrial fibrillation, while the Child-Pugh score is used to measure the severity of liver cirrhosis. These scoring tools play a crucial role in clinical decision-making and patient management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 6
Incorrect
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You are asked to prescribe a syringe driver for a palliative care patient with pain who is now struggling to swallow tablets.
Her pain has been well controlled on morphine sulphate tablets, 60 mg twice a day, and severadol (quick release morphine) 20 mg three times a day.
You decide to prescribe morphine, subcutaneously, via the syringe driver.
Which of the following dosing regime would be appropriate?Your Answer: 180 mg over 24 hours. 60 mg as required, for breakthrough pain.
Correct Answer: 120 mg over 24 hours. 10 mg as required, for breakthrough pain.
Explanation:Calculating Morphine Dosage for Palliative Care Patients
When prescribing medication for palliative care patients, it is crucial to calculate the correct dosage to effectively manage their pain. The calculation involves two parts: determining the total amount of morphine to be placed in the syringe driver for continuous 24-hour administration and calculating the as required or breakthrough dose.
To calculate the total amount of morphine required, the total amount of morphine the patient needs in 24 hours to control their pain must be added up. It is important to note that morphine is approximately twice as effective when given subcutaneously or intravenously as when given orally. Therefore, the required dose is half of the calculated amount.
The breakthrough dose should always be one-sixth of the total dose placed in the syringe driver. This allows for effective pain management when the patient experiences sudden spikes in pain.
Regular review of the analgesia regime is essential to ensure the patient’s pain is adequately managed. If available, diamorphine is the first drug of choice for treating severe pain in cancer patients parenterally. A conversion factor of 3 should be used when converting from oral morphine to parenteral diamorphine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 7
Incorrect
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An 82-year-old man with advanced pancreatic cancer is experiencing widespread pruritus and has tried several emollients, including one with menthol. He is jaundiced and has declined a biliary stent. What is the next most suitable medication to try for his symptoms?
Your Answer: Pregabalin
Correct Answer: Hydroxyzine
Explanation:Management of Pruritus in Palliative Care Patients with Advanced Pancreatic Cancer
When treating a patient with advanced pancreatic cancer who has declined stenting for relief of cholestasis, the focus should be on palliative symptom management. The underlying cause of widespread pruritus should be treated if possible, but in this case, emollients have been tried and a sedating antihistamine such as hydroxyzine or chlorphenamine is the next appropriate medication. While pregabalin and gabapentin may be considered, they should only be used after discussion with a specialist/dermatologist. Topical calamine lotion is not recommended by NICE for pruritus treatment. Hydralazine, a vasodilator antihypertensive drug, has no indication for use in pruritus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 8
Correct
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A 78-year-old male with multiple myeloma is currently suffering from sudden onset of back pain. He is taking 7.5mg morphine four times a day and 1g paracetamol four times a day as his regular oral analgesic medications. What is the appropriate dose of morphine for breakthrough pain in this case?
Your Answer: 5mg
Explanation:The breakthrough dose is calculated as 1/6th of the daily morphine dose, which is equivalent to 5mg (30 mg total daily dose divided by 6).
Palliative care prescribing for pain is guided by NICE and SIGN guidelines. NICE recommends starting with regular oral modified-release or immediate-release morphine, with immediate-release morphine for breakthrough pain. Laxatives should be prescribed for all patients initiating strong opioids, and antiemetics should be offered if nausea persists. Drowsiness is usually transient, but if it persists, the dose should be adjusted. SIGN advises that the breakthrough dose of morphine is one-sixth the daily dose, and all patients receiving opioids should be prescribed a laxative. Opioids should be used with caution in patients with chronic kidney disease, and oxycodone is preferred to morphine in patients with mild-moderate renal impairment. Metastatic bone pain may respond to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, or radiotherapy, and all patients should be considered for referral to a clinical oncologist for further treatment. When increasing the dose of opioids, the next dose should be increased by 30-50%. Conversion factors between opioids are also provided. Opioid side-effects include nausea, drowsiness, and constipation, which are usually transient but may persist. Denosumab may be used to treat metastatic bone pain in addition to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, and radiotherapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 9
Correct
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A 70-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner (GP) for a review. He has a diagnosis of advanced liver cancer. The patient undergoes a physical examination. He has lost 12 kg since his last GP review (three months ago) and reports loss of appetite, along with frequent vomiting. He has widespread muscle wasting.
Which of the following is the most important diagnostic factor for cachexia in this patient?Your Answer: Loss of muscle mass
Explanation:Understanding the Symptoms of Cancer-Related Cachexia
Cancer-related cachexia is a complex condition that involves the progressive loss of muscle mass, often accompanied by a loss of appetite and changes in taste. This condition is not reversed by standard nutritional support and can lead to functional impairment, fatigue, and respiratory complications. Skeletal muscle wasting is a common feature of many cancers, particularly those affecting the gastrointestinal tract, and is a significant contributor to cancer-related deaths. While weight loss may be present in cachexia, it is not the most specific diagnostic feature. Anorexia, on the other hand, is a common symptom that supports the diagnosis. Immobility may result from cachexia, but it is not a causal factor and can have multiple other causes. Vomiting may or may not be present in cachexia, but it can be contributory to the diagnosis. Overall, understanding the symptoms of cancer-related cachexia is crucial for early detection and management of this debilitating condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 10
Correct
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Ms. Smith is a 62-year-old woman with lung cancer. She has a husband and two children; her son has been closely involved in decision making regarding her care throughout her illness and she has previously conferred Power of Attorney for Health and Welfare to him, whereas her daughter only visits very infrequently.
Ms. Smith has been very clear that she wishes not to receive artificial ventilation if she were to lose capacity. She is worried that her daughter will want to do anything she can to keep her alive. Therefore, Ms. Smith completed an Advance Decision to Refuse Treatment (ADRT) stating she wishes not to receive artificial ventilation at the end of life.
What conclusions can you draw regarding the ARDT?Your Answer: It will come in to force as soon as Mr James signs it
Explanation:Advance Decisions to Refuse Treatment (ADRTs)
An Advance Decision to Refuse Treatment (ADRT) is a legally binding document that comes into force once a person loses capacity. It is applicable and valid, and family members cannot override it. It is important to note that there is no legal definition of next of kin.
For an ADRT that refuses potentially life-sustaining treatment to be valid, it must be written, signed, and witnessed. It should also include a statement indicating that the person completing the ADRT accepts the consequences, even if it means their life is at risk.
A Lasting Power of Attorney for Health and Welfare can only override the ADRT if it was made after the ADRT and the attorney has the authority to give or refuse consent for treatment related to the ADRT.
It is essential to complete an ADRT when one is 18 years or older and has the capacity to do so. The document comes into force when the person loses capacity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 11
Correct
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A 65-year-old man has carcinoma of the prostate with metastases in bone. His adjusted serum calcium on routine testing on two occasions is 2.7 mmol/L (normal range 2.15-2.65 mmol/L). He has no symptoms to suggest hypercalcaemia. He still has a reasonable quality of life and is expected to live for several months more. He would prefer not to go into hospital.
Which of the following options is the most appropriate initial management for this patient?Your Answer: Increase fluid intake (3-4 L per day by mouth)
Explanation:Management of Mild Hypercalcaemia in Palliative Care
Mild hypercalcaemia, with an adjusted serum calcium concentration of 3.0 mmol/L or less, is a common complication in palliative care, particularly in patients with cancer. While asymptomatic cases may not require hospital admission, specialist advice should be sought to determine the necessity of treatment. In the meantime, patients should be advised to increase their fluid intake to 3-4 L per day to maintain good hydration. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs may be useful as adjuvant analgesics, but caution should be exercised to avoid renal toxicity from future bisphosphonate treatment. Calcitonin and intravenous bisphosphonates are effective in reducing serum calcium levels, but hospital admission may be necessary for their administration. A low calcium diet is not necessary as intestinal absorption of calcium is usually impaired. Overall, management of mild hypercalcaemia in palliative care requires a tailored approach based on the patient’s individual circumstances and preferences.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 12
Correct
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You receive a call from the Coroner's officer regarding the sudden death of a patient you were treating. Upon reviewing your written report on the patient's care, you are summoned to appear in person at the Coroner's court to provide evidence, along with other healthcare professionals who also treated the patient. What is the purpose of this procedure?
Your Answer: Inquest
Explanation:Understanding Inquests
An inquest is a public investigation into the circumstances surrounding a person’s death. It is held at a Coroner’s Court and aims to determine the who, where, when, and how of the death. As a healthcare professional, you may be required to attend an inquest to provide evidence about your involvement in the care of a patient who has died. It is important to note that an inquest is a legal proceeding, but it is not a criminal one. This means that it cannot assign blame or responsibility to a person or organization. Instead, its purpose is to gather information and establish facts. During an inquest, you may be questioned by a lawyer representing the patient, and there may be a jury and members of the press present. It is essential to be prepared and understand the process to ensure that you can provide accurate and helpful information.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 13
Correct
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A 52-year-old man being treated for prostate cancer comes to the general practice surgery to discuss his treatment. He feels that he is not coping emotionally and has not returned to his work as a construction worker; he is feeling very low in mood. He is anxious and is not sleeping well. He doesn't want to discuss his feelings with his family; he asks for some information about services available for psychological support.
What is the most appropriate initial advice you can provide this patient about access to psychological support?Your Answer: Providers of cancer services should ensure that all patients undergo systematic psychological assessment at key points of their treatment
Explanation:Importance of Psychological Assessment and Support for Cancer Patients
Cancer patients often experience psychological distress related to their diagnosis and treatment. To address this, providers of cancer services should ensure that all patients undergo systematic psychological assessment at key points of their treatment, as recommended by the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence guidelines. Referrals to community or specialist services should be made as needed.
It is important to note that psychological support should be available throughout a patient’s cancer journey and need not be limited to the end of active treatment. While patients with a previous history of mental health problems may require a referral to a psychiatrist, other services may be more appropriate for some patients.
In addition, Admiral Nurses, who specialize in Alzheimer’s support, are not directly involved in cancer care and may not be the best source of emotional support for cancer patients. Overall, the importance of psychological assessment and support for cancer patients cannot be overstated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 14
Correct
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You are visiting 84-year-old Mr. Smith who has metastatic lung cancer and has been experiencing nausea and vomiting for the past week. He reports regular nausea, oesophageal reflux, and occasional large volumes of vomit, which provide temporary relief.
Upon conducting a thorough assessment, you suspect that his symptoms are caused by gastric stasis and decide to initiate an anti-emetic.
What is the most suitable medication to begin in this case?Your Answer: Metoclopramide
Explanation:According to NICE guidelines, dopamine (D2) receptor antagonists such as metoclopramide or domperidone should be used as the first-line treatment for nausea and vomiting caused by gastric dysmotility and stasis in palliative care. Cyclizine, an antihistaminic and anticholinergic anti-emetic, would not be appropriate for this condition. Hyoscine butylbromide is another anticholinergic anti-emetic that can be used. Levomepromazine, a broad-spectrum anti-emetic, is useful for persistent nausea and vomiting that is not controlled by other anti-emetics, as well as for mechanical obstruction.
Nausea and Vomiting in Palliative Care: Mechanistic Approach to Prescribing
Nausea and vomiting in palliative care can have multiple causes, but identifying the most prominent one is crucial in guiding the choice of anti-emetic therapy. Six broad syndromes have been identified, with gastric stasis and chemical disturbance being the most common. In general, pharmacological therapy is the first-line method for treating nausea and vomiting in palliative care. There are two approaches to choosing drug therapy: empirical and mechanistic. The mechanistic approach matches the choice of anti-emetic drug to the likely cause of the patient’s nausea and vomiting.
For reduced gastric motility, pro-kinetic agents such as metoclopramide and domperidone are useful. However, metoclopramide should not be used when pro-kinesis may negatively affect the gastrointestinal tract. For chemically mediated nausea and vomiting, the chemical disturbance should be corrected first. Key treatment options include ondansetron, haloperidol, and levomepromazine. Cyclizine and levomepromazine are first-line for visceral/serosal causes, while anticholinergics such as hyoscine can be useful. For raised Intracranial pressure, cyclizine and dexamethasone are recommended. For vestibular causes, cyclizine is the first-line treatment, while atypical antipsychotics such as olanzapine or risperidone can be used in refractory cases. If anticipatory nausea is the clear cause, a short-acting benzodiazepine such as lorazepam can be useful.
NICE CKS recommends that oral anti-emetics are preferable and should be used if possible. If the oral route is not possible, the parenteral route of administration is preferred. The intravenous route can be used if intravenous access is already established. By using a mechanistic approach to prescribing, healthcare professionals can tailor anti-emetic therapy to the specific cause of nausea and vomiting in palliative care patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman has advanced ovarian cancer with peritoneal metastases and ascites. She is experiencing nausea, vomiting, abdominal colic and constipation. During examination, her General Practitioner notes hyperactive bowel sounds. Which treatment option is most likely to provide relief for her symptoms?
Your Answer: Metoclopramide
Correct Answer: Cyclizine
Explanation:The woman in question is likely suffering from intestinal obstruction, a condition that affects 3% of all cancer patients and up to 25% of those with advanced ovarian cancer. This can be caused by peristaltic failure due to opioid drugs or nerve damage, or by mechanical factors such as bowel wall infiltration, compression, or constipation. The presence of painful colic and hyperactive bowel sounds suggests a mechanical obstruction. To address her nausea and vomiting, a sequence of subcutaneous infusions of cyclizine, haloperidol, and levomepromazine may be tried until the most effective agent is found. However, stimulant laxatives like senna should be avoided due to the patient’s colic, and all oral laxatives should be stopped if there is complete obstruction. Bisacodyl, another stimulant laxative, should also be avoided in patients with colic, with sodium docusate being the preferred laxative for constipation. Metoclopramide, a prokinetic agent, is the drug of choice for functional obstruction but is contraindicated in the presence of colic and mechanical obstruction. For pain relief, continuous subcutaneous morphine/diamorphine or a fentanyl patch may be used, but the patient would benefit more from an antiemetic and addressing the underlying cause if possible.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 16
Correct
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You are assessing a palliative care cancer patient with advanced metastatic disease who is in their 70s.
You have been requested by the palliative care community nurse to attend for a joint home visit as the patient has been experiencing headaches. The patient had a CT head scan four weeks ago that revealed extensive brain metastases.
No further active treatment has been planned, and the patient has chosen to receive home care with community support. You suspect that the headaches are due to increased intracranial pressure.
What is the most appropriate medication to prescribe for symptom relief?Your Answer: Dexamethasone
Explanation:Treatment for Symptoms of Raised Intracranial Pressure in Brain Metastases Patients
This patient is experiencing symptoms of raised intracranial pressure due to brain metastases. Depending on the treatment aims and ceiling of treatment, radiotherapy may be indicated. However, pharmacotherapy can also aid in palliating symptoms. High dose corticosteroids, such as dexamethasone at 16 mg daily for four to five days, followed by a reduced dose of 4-6 mg daily, can help alleviate headaches caused by raised intracranial pressure. Other options may be considered as adjuncts to treatment for pain, nausea, and agitation. Nevertheless, dexamethasone is the best option as it directly targets the underlying problem causing the symptoms in this case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 17
Incorrect
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What is the correct definition of advanced decisions according to the Mental Capacity Act (2005)?
Your Answer: Expressed wishes to receive particular treatments have to be followed
Correct Answer: Decisions about life-sustaining treatment must be in writing
Explanation:Understanding Advance Decisions under the Mental Capacity Act
The Mental Capacity Act provides individuals with the right to make advance decisions, which replace advanced directives. These decisions allow a person to refuse certain medical treatments in specific circumstances, even if it may result in their death. However, to make an advance decision, the person must be 18 years or older (16 years in Scotland) and have mental capacity.
While any treatment can be refused, measures needed for comfort, such as warmth, shelter, and offering food or water by mouth, cannot be refused. A person may express a wish for particular treatments in advance, but these do not have to be followed. An advance decision has the same weight as decisions made by a person with capacity at the present time and must be followed, so the concept of patient’s best interests doesn’t apply.
Advance decisions about life-sustaining treatment must be in writing, signed, and witnessed, and include a statement that the decision applies even if life is at risk. Other decisions may be verbal but should be recorded in medical records. An advance decision becomes invalid if it is withdrawn or amended when capacity is still present or changed by someone with ‘lasting powers of attorney.’
An advance decision takes precedence over decisions made in a patient’s best interest by other people. In making a best interest decision, the Mental Capacity Act requires doctors to try to find out the individual’s views, including their past and present wishes and feelings, as well as any beliefs or values.
Ignoring an advance decision can result in claims for criminal charges of assault. In Scotland, advance directives are not legally enforceable under the Adults with Incapacity (Scotland) Act 2000, but the Act states that the wishes of the adult should be taken into consideration when acting or making a decision on their behalf.
Understanding Advance Decisions and the Mental Capacity Act
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 18
Incorrect
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You are assessing a patient at home with metastatic colon cancer. She is receiving symptom relief through a syringe driver and is being given diamorphine and cyclizine continuously via the device. In the past 24 hours, she has become increasingly restless and agitated. Her family is present and asks if there is a medication that can alleviate her symptoms without causing excessive sedation.
What medication would you recommend to be administered via the syringe driver?Your Answer: Levomepromazine
Correct Answer: Haloperidol
Explanation:Treatment Options for Restlessness and Agitation in Palliative Care
Restlessness and agitation are common symptoms in palliative care patients, and they can be distressing for both the patient and their caregivers. One option for managing these symptoms is through the use of a syringe driver, which delivers medication continuously over a 24-hour period. The three main medications used in this context are haloperidol, levomepromazine, and midazolam.
Haloperidol is an antipsychotic medication that has minimal sedative properties and is effective in managing restlessness and confusion. Levomepromazine, on the other hand, is more sedating than haloperidol and may be more appropriate for patients who require greater sedation. Midazolam is a benzodiazepine that has both sedative and antiepileptic effects and is often used in combination with an antipsychotic for very restless patients.
It is important to note that diazepam should not be used in a syringe driver as it can cause injection site reactions. Phenobarbital and propofol are also not typically used in this context and should only be considered under the guidance of a specialist palliative care physician and pharmacist. Propranolol is not administered via subcutaneous injection and is not typically used for managing restlessness and agitation.
In summary, haloperidol is the preferred medication for managing restlessness and agitation in palliative care patients via a syringe driver. The appropriate dose ranges from 5-15 mg over a 24-hour period. However, the choice of medication and dose should always be made in consultation with a healthcare professional.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 19
Correct
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A 58-year-old woman has terminal lung cancer. Her level of pain is sufficient to commence treatment with a strong opioid analgesic by mouth. Her only other medication is paracetamol 1 g 6-hourly.
Which of the following additional drugs should be routinely started at this stage?
Your Answer: Senna
Explanation:Common Medications Used in Palliative Care
When introducing an opioid in palliative cancer care, it is recommended to prescribe a stimulant laxative such as senna or a dantron-containing laxative to prevent constipation. Amitriptyline is commonly prescribed as an adjuvant analgesic for neuropathic pain, while ibuprofen is used for bone pain or pain due to soft tissue infiltration. Metoclopramide is a pro-kinetic drug used for vomiting due to gastric stasis, while prochlorperazine is not typically used in palliative care. It is important to consider the specific needs of each patient when selecting medications for palliative care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 20
Correct
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A 70-year-old man with advanced colonic cancer becomes cachectic. He is still living at home and is troubled by his lack of appetite and rapid weight loss. There are no obvious reversible problems (eg pain, medication, vomiting, reflux), and his examination shows no acute issues such as bowel obstruction. Blood tests are unremarkable, other than long-standing anaemia and low albumin levels.
Which of the following drugs is most likely to be beneficial for patients with anorexia/cachexia?Your Answer: Dexamethasone
Explanation:Treatment Options for Anorexia/Cachexia Syndrome in Palliative Care
The anorexia/cachexia syndrome is a complex metabolic process that occurs in the end stages of many illnesses, resulting in loss of appetite, weight loss, and muscle wasting. While drugs can be used to improve quality of life, their benefits may be limited or temporary. Corticosteroids, such as dexamethasone, are a commonly used treatment option for short-term improvement of appetite, nausea, energy levels, and overall wellbeing. However, their effects tend to decrease after 3-4 weeks. Proton pump inhibitors, like omeprazole, should be co-prescribed for gastric protection. Amitriptyline is unlikely to be beneficial in these circumstances, but may be useful for depression or neuropathic pain. Cyclizine may help with nausea, but doesn’t have a role in anorexia/cachexia. Levomepromazine is commonly used for end-of-life care to alleviate nausea, but is unlikely to target anorexia or cachexia specifically. Overall, treatment options for anorexia/cachexia syndrome in palliative care should be carefully considered and tailored to each individual patient’s needs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 21
Incorrect
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The director of a nearby assisted living facility reaches out to your practice to notify you of the sudden passing of an 80-year-old man. He had a medical history of hypertension, ischaemic heart disease, and advanced dementia. Your last interaction with him was during a home visit 2 months ago to discuss advanced care planning, which included avoiding hospitalization and establishing a do not resuscitate order.
What is the best course of action to take following his death?Your Answer: Telephone her next of kin
Correct Answer: Refer the death to the coroner
Explanation:If a doctor has not seen the deceased in the 28 days prior to their death, the death must be referred to the coroner. This is a notifiable death and may require further investigation and a post-mortem. However, the first step is to refer the death to the coroner’s office. Alerting the safeguarding lead or calling 999 is not necessary in this situation, and completing the death certificate should not be done until after the coroner’s investigation is complete.
Notifiable Deaths and Reporting to the Coroner
When it comes to death certification, certain deaths are considered notifiable and should be reported to the coroner. These include unexpected or sudden deaths, as well as deaths where the attending doctor did not see the deceased within 28 days prior to their passing (this was increased from 14 days during the COVID pandemic). Additionally, deaths that occur within 24 hours of hospital admission, accidents and injuries, suicide, industrial injury or disease, deaths resulting from ill treatment, starvation, or neglect, deaths occurring during an operation or before recovery from the effect of an anaesthetic, poisoning (including from illicit drugs), stillbirths where there is doubt as to whether the child was born alive, and deaths of prisoners or people in police custody are also considered notifiable.
It is important to note that these deaths should be reported to the coroner, who will then investigate the circumstances surrounding the death. This is to ensure that any potential criminal activity or negligence is properly addressed and that the cause of death is accurately determined. By reporting notifiable deaths to the coroner, we can help ensure that justice is served and that families receive the closure they need during a difficult time.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 22
Correct
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A 68-year-old man has metastatic disease following a carcinoma of the lung. He has been discharged to be cared for at home as per his wishes and has a home visit from his general practitioner. He is not eating or drinking and has a syringe driver of morphine and cyclizine to manage symptoms. His conscious level is variable.
Which of the following signs would indicate that he is entering the last days of life?
Your Answer: Cheyne-Stokes breathing
Explanation:Understanding Symptoms in Palliative Care: Indicators of End-of-Life
As a patient approaches the end of their life, it can be difficult to determine the exact moment of passing. However, certain symptoms may indicate that the end is near. Cheyne-Stokes breathing, characterized by cycles of increasingly deep and shallow respiration with possible periods of apnea, is a poor prognostic sign often seen in palliative care. Rectal bleeding may indicate progression of colorectal carcinoma, but doesn’t necessarily indicate the end of life. Abdominal distension may be related to the cancer or constipation caused by pain medication, but is not an indicator of prognosis. Grand mal seizures may require further investigation or treatment, but do not necessarily give an idea of prognosis. Pain management should be regularly reviewed, but the amount of pain doesn’t necessarily correlate with entering the end-of-life phase. Understanding these symptoms can help healthcare providers provide appropriate care and support for patients and their families during this difficult time.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 23
Incorrect
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You are requested to evaluate an elderly patient with advanced esophageal cancer. The patient has metastatic cancer and is receiving palliative care with home visits. The patient reports increasing trouble in swallowing over the past few weeks, which is now hindering their ability to consume food properly. The patient describes the feeling of food getting stuck while swallowing. There is no pain while swallowing. What is the most suitable treatment to alleviate these symptoms?
Your Answer: Dexamethasone
Correct Answer: Nifedipine
Explanation:Managing Dysphagia in Palliative Care
When managing dysphagia in a palliative care setting, it is crucial to identify the underlying cause of the condition. Depending on the cause, different treatments may be necessary. For instance, a physical obstruction caused by a tumour may require a corticosteroid such as dexamethasone, while oesophageal spasm may respond to a muscle relaxant like nifedipine or baclofen.
In the case of a patient with oesophageal cancer who experiences progressive difficulty in swallowing and food getting stuck on the way down, the most likely cause is a gradually enlarging tumour mass causing obstruction and progressive dysphagia. In this scenario, dexamethasone is the most appropriate treatment to prescribe.
It is worth noting that oesophageal spasm typically causes odynophagia in addition to dysphagia. Therefore, a careful assessment of the patient’s symptoms and medical history is necessary to determine the most effective treatment plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 24
Correct
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A 55-year-old woman, who is receiving endocrine therapy for advanced breast cancer, presents to her General Practitioner complaining of fatigue. Clinical examination reveals no additional information. Sodium, potassium, calcium, magnesium and glucose levels, renal function, C-reactive protein, albumin levels and liver and thyroid function are all normal. A full blood count is also normal. She denies depression or any problem with sleep.
Which of the following is the most appropriate prescription?
Your Answer: Prescribing is not indicated
Explanation:Managing Fatigue in Advanced Chronic Illness: Non-Pharmacological Interventions Recommended
Fatigue is a common symptom in advanced chronic illness, but it is often under-recognised by healthcare professionals. While potentially reversible factors should be treated, the cause of fatigue may remain poorly understood. Non-pharmacological interventions such as pacing activities, graded exercise, stress/anxiety management, and sleep hygiene advice may help reduce the impact of fatigue on daily life. Vitamin supplements are not recommended unless there is a proven deficiency, and dexamfetamine and fluoxetine are not indicated for treating fatigue in this context. Methylphenidate may be an option under specialist supervision, but non-pharmacological interventions should be tried first. Overall, managing fatigue in advanced chronic illness requires awareness, acknowledgement, and a focus on non-pharmacological interventions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A senior gentleman with metastatic prostate cancer is being evaluated. He is presently managing his pain with MST 30 mg twice daily, but due to his inability to swallow medication, he has become lethargic. A syringe driver is being arranged. What would be the most suitable prescription?
Your Answer: Diamorphine 30 mg over 24 hours in 'water for injection'
Correct Answer: Diamorphine 20 mg over 24 hours in 'water for injection'
Explanation:The preferred diluent in syringe drivers is ‘water for injection’.
When a patient in palliative care is unable to take oral medication due to various reasons such as nausea, dysphagia, intestinal obstruction, weakness or coma, a syringe driver should be considered. In the UK, there are two main types of syringe drivers: Graseby MS16A (blue) and Graseby MS26 (green). The delivery rate for the former is given in mm per hour, while the latter is given in mm per 24 hours.
Most drugs are compatible with water for injection, but for certain drugs such as granisetron, ketamine, ketorolac, octreotide, and ondansetron, sodium chloride 0.9% is recommended. Commonly used drugs for various symptoms include cyclizine, levomepromazine, haloperidol, metoclopramide for nausea and vomiting, hyoscine hydrobromide, hyoscine butylbromide, or glycopyrronium bromide for respiratory secretions/bowel colic, midazolam, haloperidol, levomepromazine for agitation/restlessness, and diamorphine as the preferred opioid for pain.
When mixing drugs, diamorphine is compatible with most other drugs used, including dexamethasone, haloperidol, hyoscine butylbromide, hyoscine hydrobromide, levomepromazine, metoclopramide, and midazolam. However, cyclizine may precipitate with diamorphine when given at higher doses, and it is incompatible with a number of drugs such as clonidine, dexamethasone, hyoscine butylbromide (occasional), ketamine, ketorolac, metoclopramide, midazolam, octreotide, and sodium chloride 0.9%.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man with known Hodgkin's lymphoma presents with concerns of facial swelling. Upon examination, his face appears red and puffy, with engorged neck veins and a non-rising jugular venous pulse upon liver palpation. What is the likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Superior vena cava obstruction
Correct Answer: Cardiac failure
Explanation:Superior Vena Cava Obstruction: A Potentially Urgent Condition
Superior vena cava obstruction is a rare but serious condition that requires prompt treatment. Although it is not immediately life-threatening, it can cause swelling of the face and fixed elevation of the jugular venous pulse. In the UK, lung cancer is the most common cause, but lymphoma can also be a factor.
Treatment options may include steroids or stenting, but in a primary care setting, the first step is to admit the patient as an emergency for further investigation and treatment. It is important to act quickly to prevent any potential complications and ensure the best possible outcome for the patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 27
Correct
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A 68-year-old woman with a history of hypothyroidism currently treated with thyroxine replacement presents with gradually progressive weakness over the past few months. She now finds it difficult to get out of a chair and to climb the stairs at home. Medication includes thyroxine and ramipril.
On examination, her BP is 138/88 mmHg, heart rate is 75 bpm and regular. She has fatigable ptosis and proximal myopathy affecting both the upper and lower limbs. There is no muscle wasting or fasciculation.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Myasthenia gravis
Explanation:Understanding Myasthenia Gravis
Myasthenia gravis (MG) is a possible diagnosis for a patient with slowly progressive proximal myopathy and a history of autoimmunity. The main symptoms are proximal muscle weakness and ptosis, without muscle wasting or fasciculation. Sensation is unimpaired, and tendon reflexes are normal. Anti-acetylcholine receptor antibodies are found in 85% of patients with generalised myasthenia. Treatment involves acetylcholinesterase inhibitors and oral corticosteroids.
Other conditions, such as Lambert-Eaton syndrome, myotonic dystrophy, motor neurone disease, and Guillain-BarrĂ© syndrome, have different presentations and are unlikely to be the cause of the patient’s symptoms. It is important to consider all possible diagnoses and conduct appropriate tests to ensure an accurate diagnosis and effective treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 28
Correct
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A patient in their late 60s with end stage chronic obstructive pulmonary disease on home oxygen is presenting with intractable cough and breathlessness.
They use regular nebulised salbutamol and ipratropium as well as saline nebulised PRN. They also have a regular inhaled corticosteroid and long acting beta agonist combination inhaler and once daily tiotropium inhaled. They take regular oral theophylline. They keep an emergency pack of prednisolone and amoxicillin at home in case they develop any infective symptoms.
On examination, they are apyrexial and chest auscultation reveals globally reduced air entry, with no focal acute signs. There is no evidence of cardiac failure or peripheral oedema.
What is the most appropriate additional treatment for their cough and breathlessness?Your Answer: Morphine
Explanation:Palliative Care for Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD)
It is important to note that palliative care is not just for cancer patients but also for those with chronic conditions that progress to end stage terminal disease, such as Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD). COPD patients may experience intractable cough and breathlessness despite home oxygen, nebulised bronchodilators/saline, and maximal inhaled treatment. Shortness of breath can be due to various factors, including anxiety.
To ensure an acute problem has not developed, it is crucial to examine the patient. Nebulisers and oxygen can be helpful, and non-pharmacological strategies such as relaxation techniques and breathing exercises may be of use. Oral medications, such as opioids and benzodiazepines, can palliate symptoms of breathlessness. Oral morphine is the preferred opioid, starting at a dose of 2.5-5 mg every four to six hours. Morphine reduces respiratory drive and the sensation of breathlessness.
In addition to breathlessness, COPD patients may also experience an intractable cough. Moist inhalations and regular use of oral morphine can help alleviate this symptom. Dexamethasone can be useful in certain situations, such as superior vena caval obstruction and tumour oedema in patients with an underlying malignancy. Diazepam and lorazepam are useful in treating breathlessness, especially if anxiety symptoms are prominent. Hyoscine hydrobromide is useful in treating excessive respiratory secretions. Methadone linctus can treat cough but should be avoided due to its long half-life and tendency to accumulate.
In summary, palliative care for COPD patients involves a comprehensive approach to alleviate symptoms such as breathlessness and cough. Oral morphine is a preferred medication for both symptoms, and non-pharmacological strategies can also be of use.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 29
Incorrect
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What is the Gold Standards Framework (GSF) and what does it enable for people nearing the end of their lives?
Your Answer: It promotes hospice care for patients
Correct Answer: It involves an anticipatory approach to care
Explanation:The Gold Standards Framework: A Framework for Anticipatory End-of-Life Care
The Gold Standards Framework (GSF) was originally designed for use in primary care, but has since been adapted for use in care homes and nursing homes. Its anticipatory approach to care has been shown to have positive effects on pain and symptom control, and improved planning has helped to prevent some hospital admissions. The GSF is not a prescriptive model, but rather a framework that can be tailored to meet local needs and resources. It can also be adapted for patients with non-cancer diagnoses who require end-of-life care. Ultimately, the GSF aims to help patients live and die well in their preferred place of care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A geriatric patient with terminal illness is currently receiving 60mg of modified release morphine every 12 hours. Due to difficulty in swallowing, you plan to switch to a 24 hour subcutaneous infusion of morphine. The morphine ampoules available are of 10 mg/ml strength. What would be the required volume of morphine (in ml) to be added to the syringe driver for a 24 hour period?
Your Answer: 60
Correct Answer: 6
Explanation:Converting Oral Morphine to Subcutaneous Infusion
In order to convert oral morphine to a 24 hour subcutaneous infusion of morphine, the total 24 hour oral dose must be calculated. For example, if the patient is taking a 12 hour release preparation of 60mg, the total daily dose of oral morphine is 120mg. To convert this to a 24 hour subcutaneous infusion of morphine, the figure must be divided by two. For diamorphine, the figure would be divided by three. Therefore, the patient needs 60mg morphine over 24 hours.
It is important to note that the question asks for the volume of morphine over 24 hours, not the dose. If the ampoules are 10 mg/ml, then to deliver 60mg in 24 hours, 6 x 10 mg/ml = 6 ml is needed. It is crucial to read the question carefully to ensure the correct answer is given.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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