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  • Question 1 - A 32-year-old woman who is 16 weeks pregnant has received the results of...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman who is 16 weeks pregnant has received the results of her combined screening test for Down syndrome. Her risk is 1:200, but she is unsure of what this means. What advice should be given to her?

      Your Answer: You should refer her to complete the integrated Down syndrome screening test

      Correct Answer: You should offer her referral for diagnostic testing

      Explanation:

      Screening tests for Down syndrome are not always accurate, as they can miss detecting the condition in a significant number of babies. If a patient receives a low-risk result, they will not be offered any further testing for Down syndrome.

      However, if a patient receives a higher risk result, meaning their baby has a risk greater than 1 in 150, they will be offered a diagnostic test to confirm whether or not their baby has Down syndrome. It is ultimately up to the patient to decide whether or not to undergo the diagnostic test.

      Diagnostic tests for Down syndrome include chorionic villus sampling and amniocentesis.

      NICE updated guidelines on antenatal care in 2021, recommending the combined test for screening for Down’s syndrome between 11-13+6 weeks. The quadruple test should be offered between 15-20 weeks for women who book later in pregnancy. Results of both tests return either a ‘lower chance’ or ‘higher chance’ result. If a woman receives a ‘higher chance’ result, she will be offered a second screening test (NIPT) or a diagnostic test. NIPT analyzes cell-free fetal DNA from placental cells in the mother’s blood and has high sensitivity and specificity for detecting chromosomal abnormalities, with private companies offering screening from 10 weeks gestation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      24.1
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  • Question 2 - A 28-year-old female patient presents to the GP with a rash. She has...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old female patient presents to the GP with a rash. She has a vivid red rash on her nose and cheeks. The patient complains that consuming alcohol exacerbates her rash, causing her great embarrassment. She also reports experiencing occasional pustules.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acne rosacea

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms suggest acne rosacea, which is characterized by flushing, erythema, and telangiectasia on the nose, cheeks, and forehead, as well as the presence of papules and pustules. This condition is known to worsen with alcohol consumption. In contrast, acne vulgaris typically presents with comedones, papules, pustules, nodules, and/or cysts, and is less erythematous than rosacea. Erythema ab igne, on the other hand, is caused by exposure to high levels of heat or infra-red radiation, while psoriasis is characterized by a silver-scaly rash that typically appears on the knees and elbows. Although the patient’s symptoms could be mistaken for a butterfly rash, there is no evidence to suggest lupus.

      Rosacea, also known as acne rosacea, is a skin condition that is chronic in nature and its cause is unknown. It typically affects the nose, cheeks, and forehead, and the first symptom is often flushing. Telangiectasia, which are small blood vessels that are visible on the skin, are common, and the condition can progress to persistent erythema with papules and pustules. Rhinophyma, a condition where the nose becomes enlarged and bulbous, can also occur. Ocular involvement, such as blepharitis, can also be present, and sunlight can exacerbate symptoms.

      Management of rosacea depends on the severity of the symptoms. For mild symptoms, topical metronidazole may be used, while topical brimonidine gel may be considered for patients with predominant flushing but limited telangiectasia. More severe cases may require systemic antibiotics such as oxytetracycline. It is recommended that patients apply a high-factor sunscreen daily and use camouflage creams to conceal redness. Laser therapy may be appropriate for patients with prominent telangiectasia, and those with rhinophyma should be referred to a dermatologist for further management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      21
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  • Question 3 - A 50-year-old woman has been experiencing hot flashes for the past 3 years...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman has been experiencing hot flashes for the past 3 years and has been on hormone replacement therapy (HRT). During her visit to your clinic, she reports discomfort during intercourse due to vaginal dryness. Upon examination, you observe atrophic genitalia without any other abnormalities. The patient and her partner have attempted to use over-the-counter lubricants, but they have not been effective.

      What would be the most suitable course of action for you to take next?

      Your Answer: Continue with HRT and prescribe low-dose vaginal oestrogen

      Explanation:

      To alleviate vaginal symptoms, vaginal topical oestrogen can be used alongside HRT. Compared to systemic treatment, low-dose vaginal topical oestrogen is more effective in providing relief for vaginal symptoms. Patients should be reviewed after 3 months of treatment. It is recommended to consider stopping treatment at least once a year, but in some cases, long-term treatment may be necessary for persistent symptoms. If symptoms persist, increasing the dose or seeking specialist referral may be necessary. Testosterone supplementation is only recommended for sexual dysfunction and should be initiated after consulting a specialist. Sildenafil is not effective in treating menopausal symptoms.

      Managing Menopause: Lifestyle Modifications, HRT, and Non-HRT Options

      Menopause is a natural biological process that marks the end of a woman’s reproductive years. It is diagnosed when a woman has not had a period for 12 months. Menopausal symptoms are common and can last for several years. The management of menopause can be divided into three categories: lifestyle modifications, hormone replacement therapy (HRT), and non-hormone replacement therapy.

      Lifestyle modifications can help manage symptoms such as hot flashes, sleep disturbance, mood changes, and cognitive symptoms. Regular exercise, weight loss, stress reduction, and good sleep hygiene are recommended.

      HRT is an effective treatment for menopausal symptoms, but it is not suitable for everyone. Women with current or past breast cancer, any oestrogen-sensitive cancer, undiagnosed vaginal bleeding, or untreated endometrial hyperplasia should not take HRT. HRT brings certain risks, including an increased risk of venous thromboembolism, stroke, coronary heart disease, breast cancer, and ovarian cancer.

      Non-HRT options include fluoxetine, citalopram, or venlafaxine for vasomotor symptoms, vaginal lubricants or moisturisers for vaginal dryness, self-help groups, cognitive behaviour therapy, or antidepressants for psychological symptoms, and vaginal oestrogen for urogenital symptoms.

      When stopping HRT, it is important to gradually reduce the dosage to limit recurrence in the short term. Women should be referred to secondary care if treatment has been ineffective, if there are ongoing side effects, or if there is unexplained bleeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
      32.5
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - How should strong opioids be used for cancer pain management in primary care?...

    Incorrect

    • How should strong opioids be used for cancer pain management in primary care?

      Your Answer: Hydromorphine is seven times less potent than morphine on a mg for mg basis

      Correct Answer: Oxycodone has a more predictable systemic bioavailability than morphine

      Explanation:

      Opioid Prescription Guidelines

      About 10-30% of patients cannot use morphine due to side effects or poor analgesic response. However, oxycodone is not shown to have fewer unwanted effects than morphine. On the other hand, hydromorphone is seven times more potent than morphine on a mg for mg basis. Fentanyl should only be used second line, and when a daily requirement is established.

      To ensure safe and appropriate opioid prescription, it is important to remember the STOPP criteria. Prescription is potentially inappropriate if a strong, oral or transdermal opioid (i.e. morphine, oxycodone, fentanyl, buprenorphine, diamorphine, methadone, tramadol, pethidine, pentazocine) is prescribed as first-line therapy for mild pain (WHO analgesic ladder not observed). Additionally, regular use without concomitant laxative can lead to severe constipation. Lastly, prescribing a long-acting (modified-release) opioid without a short-acting (immediate-release) opioid for breakthrough pain can result in the persistence of severe pain.

      It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure the safe and effective use of opioids in pain management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • End Of Life
      26.3
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A health visitor expresses concern about the head growth of a 6-month-old girl...

    Correct

    • A health visitor expresses concern about the head growth of a 6-month-old girl who has moved from the 50th to the 91st centile in the last 2 months. Which of the following is not a likely cause for this change?

      Your Answer: Craniosynostosis e.g. Crouzon's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Individuals with Crouzon’s syndrome typically have a reduced cranial size.

      Understanding Macrocephaly in Children

      Macrocephaly is a condition characterized by an abnormally large head circumference in children. There are several possible causes of macrocephaly, including a normal variant, chronic hydrocephalus, chronic subdural effusion, neurofibromatosis, gigantism (such as Soto’s syndrome), metabolic storage diseases, and bone problems like thalassaemia.

      In some cases, macrocephaly may be a normal variant and not a cause for concern. However, it is important to identify the underlying cause of macrocephaly in order to determine the appropriate treatment and management. Chronic hydrocephalus, for example, may require surgical intervention to relieve pressure on the brain. Neurofibromatosis may require ongoing monitoring and management to prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      22.3
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  • Question 6 - A 35-year-old patient presents with sudden monocular visual loss on the right, associated...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old patient presents with sudden monocular visual loss on the right, associated with pain behind the eye and alteration of colour vision. Examination the following day reveals a relative afferent pupillary defect in the right eye.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Optic nerve glioma

      Correct Answer: Optic neuritis

      Explanation:

      Diagnosing Optic Nerve Lesions: A Guide

      When a patient presents with impaired colour appreciation and a relative afferent pupillary defect, an acute optic nerve lesion is likely. In younger patients, optic neuritis due to demyelination is the most common cause. Fundoscopy may reveal a swollen optic nerve head in the acute stage. Hemianopic visual disturbance is more commonly seen in cerebral infarction, while optic nerve glioma typically presents over a longer period with proptosis. Migraine can cause transient monocular visual disturbances, often accompanied by headache. Temporal arteritis is rare in patients under 50.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      40.5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 50-year-old man with a history of epilepsy and psychiatric issues presents to...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man with a history of epilepsy and psychiatric issues presents to the Emergency Department with confusion after experiencing a seizure earlier in the day. During the examination, a coarse tremor is observed, and his vital signs are as follows: blood pressure = 134/86 mmHg, pulse = 84/min regular, and temperature = 36.7ºC. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Carbamazepine overdose

      Correct Answer: Lithium toxicity

      Explanation:

      Lithium is a drug used to stabilize mood in patients with bipolar disorder and refractory depression. It has a narrow therapeutic range of 0.4-1.0 mmol/L and is primarily excreted by the kidneys. Lithium toxicity occurs when the concentration exceeds 1.5 mmol/L, which can be caused by dehydration, renal failure, and certain drugs such as diuretics, ACE inhibitors, NSAIDs, and metronidazole. Symptoms of toxicity include coarse tremors, hyperreflexia, acute confusion, polyuria, seizures, and coma.

      To manage mild to moderate toxicity, volume resuscitation with normal saline may be effective. Severe toxicity may require hemodialysis. Sodium bicarbonate may also be used to increase the alkalinity of the urine and promote lithium excretion, but there is limited evidence to support its use. It is important to monitor lithium levels closely and adjust the dosage accordingly to prevent toxicity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      85.8
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  • Question 8 - A 35-year-old man with chronic plaque psoriasis has been referred to a dermatologist...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man with chronic plaque psoriasis has been referred to a dermatologist due to his resistant disease. Despite trying various topical and light therapies, his large plaques on his elbows and legs have not improved. What systemic therapy is he most likely to be prescribed?

      Your Answer: Methotrexate

      Explanation:

      Severe psoriasis is typically treated with methotrexate and ciclosporin as the initial systemic agents.

      Systemic Therapy for Psoriasis

      Psoriasis is a chronic skin condition that can have a significant impact on physical, psychological, and social wellbeing. Topical therapy is often the first line of treatment, but in cases where it is not effective, systemic therapy may be necessary. However, systemic therapy should only be initiated in secondary care.

      Non-biological systemic therapy, such as methotrexate and ciclosporin, is used when psoriasis cannot be controlled with topical therapy and has a significant impact on wellbeing. NICE has set criteria for the use of non-biological systemic therapy, including extensive psoriasis, severe nail disease, or phototherapy ineffectiveness. Methotrexate is generally used first-line, but ciclosporin may be a better choice for those who need rapid or short-term disease control, have palmoplantar pustulosis, or are considering conception.

      Biological systemic therapy, including adalimumab, etanercept, infliximab, and ustekinumab, may also be used. However, a failed trial of methotrexate, ciclosporin, and PUVA is required before their use. These agents are administered through subcutaneous injection or intravenous infusion.

      In summary, systemic therapy for psoriasis should only be initiated in secondary care and is reserved for cases where topical therapy is ineffective. Non-biological and biological systemic therapy have specific criteria for their use and should be carefully considered by healthcare professionals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      16.3
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  • Question 9 - A 70-year-old man inquires about the 'shingles vaccine'. Which of the following statements...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man inquires about the 'shingles vaccine'. Which of the following statements about Zostavax is accurate?

      Your Answer: Is given intramuscularly

      Correct Answer: Is suitable for patients who've had Chickenpox

      Explanation:

      Regardless of whether a person has had Chickenpox or shingles previously, Zostavax should still be administered.

      Varicella-Zoster Vaccination: Protection Against Chickenpox and Shingles

      Varicella-zoster is a herpesvirus that causes Chickenpox and shingles. There are two types of vaccines available to protect against these infections. The first type is a live attenuated vaccine that prevents primary varicella infection or Chickenpox. This vaccine is recommended for healthcare workers who are not immune to VZV and for individuals who are in close contact with immunocompromised patients.

      The second type of vaccine is designed to reduce the incidence of herpes zoster or shingles caused by reactivation of VZV. This live-attenuated vaccine is given subcutaneously and is offered to patients aged 70-79 years. The vaccine is also available as a catch-up campaign for those who missed out on their vaccinations in the previous two years of the program. However, the shingles vaccine is not available on the NHS to anyone aged 80 and over because it seems to be less effective in this age group.

      The main contraindication for both vaccines is immunosuppression. Side effects of the vaccines include injection site reactions, and less than 1 in 10,000 individuals may develop Chickenpox. It is important to note that vaccination is the most effective way to prevent varicella-zoster infections and their complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      39.7
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  • Question 10 - A 65-year-old man with a lengthy smoking history has experienced a left humerus...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man with a lengthy smoking history has experienced a left humerus fracture following a minor twisting injury. The presence of a lytic lesion related to the fracture is causing concern. What is the most probable primary tumor responsible for this metastasis? Choose ONE answer only.

      Your Answer: Colorectal carcinoma

      Correct Answer: Bronchial carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Identifying the Likely Cause of Bone Metastases: Bronchial Carcinoma

      When a patient presents with bone metastases, it is important to identify the primary site of the cancer in order to determine the best course of treatment. The most common cancers that cause bone metastases include bronchial carcinoma, breast carcinoma, and prostatic carcinoma. In this case, the patient’s history as a heavy smoker makes bronchial carcinoma the most likely cause.

      The frequency of bone metastases depends on the prevalence of the cancer in a particular community, so it is important to consider the prevalence of each type of cancer when making a diagnosis. X-ray examination can reveal osteolytic areas and local bony destruction, further supporting the diagnosis of bone metastases from bronchial carcinoma.

      While other cancers such as colorectal carcinoma, gastric carcinoma, renal carcinoma, and thyroid carcinoma can also metastasize to bone, they are less common than lung cancer and therefore less likely to be the cause in this case. By identifying the likely primary site of the cancer, healthcare professionals can provide targeted treatment and improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      23.5
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  • Question 11 - A 67-year-old man presents to the clinic with a cough, fever, diarrhoea and...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man presents to the clinic with a cough, fever, diarrhoea and myalgia. The cough is non-productive and has been getting gradually worse since he returned from holiday in Italy one week ago. His wife is concerned because over the past 24 hours he has become more drowsy and febrile. He is normally fit and well but drinks around 15 units of alcohol per week.

      On examination pulse is 80/min, blood pressure 110/70 mmHg, oxygen saturations are 95% on room air and temperature is 38.2ºC. Bilateral coarse crackles are heard in the chest.

      You take some bloods which are reported the next day:

      Hb 14.2 g/dl
      Platelets 290 * 109/l
      WBC 13.8 * 109/l
      Na+ 133 mmol/l
      K+ 4.1 mmol/l
      Urea 8.9 mmol/l
      Creatinine 87 µmol/l
      Bilirubin 10 µmol/l
      ALP 29 u/l
      ALT 72 u/l

      What is the most likely causative organism?

      Your Answer: Mycoplasma pneumoniae

      Correct Answer: Legionella pneumophila

      Explanation:

      Legionella is often characterized by symptoms resembling the flu, such as a dry cough, confusion, and a slower than normal heart rate. Additionally, hyponatraemia may be detected through blood tests. If the individual has recently traveled abroad, this may also indicate a potential Legionella infection.

      Legionnaires Disease: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Management

      Legionnaires disease is a type of pneumonia caused by the Legionella pneumophilia bacterium. It is commonly found in water tanks and air-conditioning systems, and is often associated with foreign travel. Unlike other types of pneumonia, Legionnaires disease cannot be transmitted from person to person. Symptoms of the disease include flu-like symptoms such as fever, dry cough, confusion, and lymphopaenia. In addition, patients may experience hyponatraemia, deranged liver function tests, and pleural effusion in around 30% of cases.

      Diagnosis of Legionnaires disease is typically done through a urinary antigen test. Treatment involves the use of antibiotics such as erythromycin or clarithromycin. Chest x-rays may show nonspecific features, but often include patchy consolidation in the mid-to-lower zones and pleural effusions. It is important to be aware of the symptoms and risk factors associated with Legionnaires disease in order to ensure prompt diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      28.8
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  • Question 12 - A 25 year old male smoker presents with multiple, painful aphthous ulcers, he...

    Correct

    • A 25 year old male smoker presents with multiple, painful aphthous ulcers, he puts this down to stress at work. He only gets ulcers on his tongue and oral mucosa. He is otherwise well. He has never had any joint or bowel symptoms. He reports several previous episodes similar to this one, with painful oral ulceration lasting a week or two, dating back to when he was a teenager.

      What signs or symptoms should prompt an immediate referral to secondary care for this 25 year old male smoker with recurrent painful oral ulcers?

      Your Answer: Unexplained red and white patches of the oral mucosa that are painful, swollen, or bleeding

      Explanation:

      To identify potential oral ulceration red flags, one should look out for unexplained ulcers or masses in the oral mucosa that persist for more than three weeks, as well as red and white patches that are painful, swollen, or bleeding. If symptoms or signs related to the oral cavity persist for more than six weeks and a definitive diagnosis of a benign lesion cannot be made, this is also a red flag. While being a smoker is a risk factor for aphthous ulcers, first onset over the age of 30 is atypical and may warrant consideration of an alternative cause, such as trauma to the mouth. However, it is not necessarily an indication for referral. It is important to note that not all ulcers respond to corticosteroids, but if an ulcer has persisted for more than three weeks, an urgent referral is necessary as prolonged ulceration could be indicative of malignancy.

      Aphthous mouth ulcers are painful sores that are circular or oval in shape and are found only in the mouth. They are not associated with any systemic disease and often occur repeatedly, usually starting in childhood. These ulcers can be caused by damage to the mouth, such as biting the cheek or brushing too hard, or may be due to a genetic predisposition. Other factors that can trigger these ulcers include stress, certain foods, stopping smoking, and hormonal changes related to the menstrual cycle.

      Aphthous ulcers are characterized by their round or oval shape, a clearly defined margin, a yellowish-grey slough on the floor, and a red periphery. They usually appear on non-keratinized mucosal surfaces, such as the inside of the lips, cheeks, floor of the mouth, or undersurface of the tongue. In most cases, investigations are not necessary, but they may be considered if an underlying systemic disease is suspected.

      Treatment for aphthous ulcers involves avoiding any factors that may trigger them and providing symptomatic relief for pain, discomfort, and swelling. This may include using a low potency topical corticosteroid, an antimicrobial mouthwash, or a topical analgesic. Most ulcers will heal within two weeks without leaving any scars. However, if a mouth ulcer persists for more than three weeks, it is important to seek urgent referral to a specialist.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      75.3
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  • Question 13 - Betty is a 78-year-old woman on multiple medications who is seeing her general...

    Incorrect

    • Betty is a 78-year-old woman on multiple medications who is seeing her general practitioner for a medication review.

      Which of the following tools is most helpful in aiding this?

      Your Answer: MED/REC

      Correct Answer: STOPP/START

      Explanation:

      MED/REC – Medical Record – a comprehensive documentation of a patient’s medical history, including diagnoses, treatments, medications, and test results. It is an essential tool for healthcare professionals to provide quality care and ensure continuity of care.

      Understanding Multimorbidity: Definition, Prevalence, Risk Factors, Complications, Assessment, and Management

      Multimorbidity is a growing public health issue that refers to the presence of two or more long-term health conditions. In 2017, NICE issued guidelines to identify and manage multimorbidity among patients. The most common comorbid conditions include hypertension, depression, anxiety, chronic pain, prostate disorders, thyroid disorders, and coronary artery disease. Risk factors for multimorbidity include increasing age, female sex, low socioeconomic status, tobacco and alcohol usage, lack of physical activity, and poor nutrition and obesity.

      Complications of multimorbidity include decreased quality of life and life expectancy, increased treatment burden, mental health issues, polypharmacy, and negative impact on carers’ welfare. The assessment of multimorbidity involves identifying patients who may benefit from a multimorbidity approach, establishing the extent of disease burden, investigating how treatment burden affects daily activities, assessing social circumstances and health literacy, and evaluating frailty.

      Management of multimorbidity aims to reduce treatment burden and optimise care. This involves maximising the benefits of existing treatments, offering alternative follow-up arrangements, reducing the number of high-risk medications, considering a ‘bisphosphonate holiday,’ using screening tools such as STOPP/START, stopping the use of medications in patients with peptic ulcer disease, developing an individualised management plan, promoting self-management, and supporting carers and families of patients. Regular medication reviews are recommended to ensure that treatments are optimised.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • People With Long Term Conditions Including Cancer
      14.2
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  • Question 14 - A 47-year-old woman with rheumatoid arthritis is being evaluated in the clinic as...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old woman with rheumatoid arthritis is being evaluated in the clinic as she has not responded well to methotrexate. The possibility of starting sulfasalazine is being considered. However, if she has an allergy to which of the following drugs, it may not be advisable to prescribe sulfasalazine?

      Your Answer: Sulpiride

      Correct Answer: Aspirin

      Explanation:

      Sulfasalazine may cause a reaction in patients who are allergic to aspirin.

      Sulfasalazine: A DMARD for Inflammatory Arthritis and Bowel Disease

      Sulfasalazine is a type of disease modifying anti-rheumatic drug (DMARD) that is commonly used to manage inflammatory arthritis, particularly rheumatoid arthritis, as well as inflammatory bowel disease. This medication is a prodrug for 5-ASA, which works by reducing neutrophil chemotaxis and suppressing the proliferation of lymphocytes and pro-inflammatory cytokines.

      However, caution should be taken when using sulfasalazine in patients with G6PD deficiency or those who are allergic to aspirin or sulphonamides due to the risk of cross-sensitivity. Adverse effects of sulfasalazine may include oligospermia, Stevens-Johnson syndrome, pneumonitis/lung fibrosis, myelosuppression, Heinz body anaemia, megaloblastic anaemia, and the potential to color tears and stain contact lenses.

      Despite these potential side effects, sulfasalazine is considered safe to use during pregnancy and breastfeeding, making it a viable option for women who require treatment for inflammatory arthritis or bowel disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
      31.1
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 35-year-old man is concerned about his risk for early heart disease due...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man is concerned about his risk for early heart disease due to a family history of the condition. He believes that some of his relatives are currently being treated for high cholesterol and would like to have his own cholesterol levels checked. Additionally, he is interested in learning about the type of high cholesterol that can be inherited. What is the cholesterol level threshold that would suggest a possible diagnosis of familial hypercholesterolaemia (FH) in adults?

      Your Answer: Total cholesterol >6.5 mmol/L

      Correct Answer: Total cholesterol >7.5 mmol/l

      Explanation:

      Familial Hypercholesterolaemia (FH)

      Familial Hypercholesterolaemia (FH) is a type II a primary hyperlipidaemia, according to the World Health Organisation Fredrickson classification. This condition is characterised by raised total cholesterol (TC) and low-density lipoprotein (LDL) levels, while triglycerides remain normal. FH is an autosomal dominantly inherited condition, with a gene frequency of 1:500.

      According to NICE guidance, FH should be suspected as a possible diagnosis in adults with a total cholesterol level greater than 7.5 mmol/l or a personal or family history of premature coronary heart disease (an event before 60 years in an index individual or first-degree relative). It is important to identify and manage FH early to reduce the risk of developing coronary heart disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      29.4
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  • Question 16 - A 65-year-old man with COPD and no other co-morbidities is being seen in...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man with COPD and no other co-morbidities is being seen in the respiratory outpatient department. He smoked 30 cigarettes a day for 40 years but has not smoked since his diagnosis of COPD 5 years ago. He has had his influenza and pneumococcal vaccinations and has attended pulmonary rehabilitation. He was admitted to hospital twice in the last year with exacerbations of COPD. A CT scan 6 months ago showed typical changes of COPD with no other evidence of other lung pathology. His pre-clinic bloods are as follows:

      Hb 142 g/L Male: (135-180)
      Female: (115 - 160)
      Platelets 356 * 109/L (150 - 400)
      WBC 10.5 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
      Na+ 142 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      K+ 4.7 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      Urea 6.5 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      Creatinine 74 µmol/L (55 - 120)
      CRP 2 mg/L (< 5)
      Bilirubin 6 µmol/L (3 - 17)
      ALP 46 u/L (30 - 100)
      ALT 15u/L (3 - 40)
      γGT 56 u/L (8 - 60)
      Albumin 42 g/L (35 - 50)

      What test should be done before starting azithromycin?

      Your Answer: Chest X-ray

      Correct Answer: ECG

      Explanation:

      An ECG and baseline liver function tests should be performed prior to initiating azithromycin to ensure there is no prolonged QT interval and to establish a baseline for liver function. As the liver function tests in the question stem were normal, the most suitable option would be to conduct an ECG.

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated its guidelines on the management of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) in 2018. The guidelines recommend general management strategies such as smoking cessation advice, annual influenza vaccination, and one-off pneumococcal vaccination. Pulmonary rehabilitation is also recommended for patients who view themselves as functionally disabled by COPD.

      Bronchodilator therapy is the first-line treatment for patients who remain breathless or have exacerbations despite using short-acting bronchodilators. The next step is determined by whether the patient has asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness. NICE suggests several criteria to determine this, including a previous diagnosis of asthma or atopy, a higher blood eosinophil count, substantial variation in FEV1 over time, and substantial diurnal variation in peak expiratory flow.

      If the patient doesn’t have asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness, a long-acting beta2-agonist (LABA) and long-acting muscarinic antagonist (LAMA) should be added. If the patient is already taking a short-acting muscarinic antagonist (SAMA), it should be discontinued and switched to a short-acting beta2-agonist (SABA). If the patient has asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness, a LABA and inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) should be added. If the patient remains breathless or has exacerbations, triple therapy (LAMA + LABA + ICS) should be offered.

      NICE only recommends theophylline after trials of short and long-acting bronchodilators or to people who cannot use inhaled therapy. Azithromycin prophylaxis is recommended in select patients who have optimised standard treatments and continue to have exacerbations. Mucolytics should be considered in patients with a chronic productive cough and continued if symptoms improve.

      Cor pulmonale features include peripheral oedema, raised jugular venous pressure, systolic parasternal heave, and loud P2. Loop diuretics should be used for oedema, and long-term oxygen therapy should be considered. Smoking cessation, long-term oxygen therapy in eligible patients, and lung volume reduction surgery in selected patients may improve survival in patients with stable COPD. NICE doesn’t recommend the use of ACE-inhibitors, calcium channel blockers, or alpha blockers

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      276.2
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  • Question 17 - A 32-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner complaining that her vision has...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner complaining that her vision has become blurred in her right eye over the course of a few days. She has been rubbing the eye a lot, and now she also mentions that there is a dull ache in the eye. She has previously been fit and well. Her only medication is the oral contraceptive pill, which she has been taking for eight years.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Glaucoma

      Correct Answer: Demyelinating optic neuritis

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Subacute Onset of Unilateral Blurred Vision with Aching

      When presented with a patient experiencing subacute onset of unilateral blurred vision with aching, there are several potential diagnoses to consider. Demyelinating optic neuritis is a likely cause, as it can cause reduced acuity, central scotoma, impaired color appreciation, and a relative afferent pupillary defect. Glaucoma may also be a possibility, but it typically presents with halos around bright lights and may affect both eyes in the case of open-angle glaucoma. Ischaemic optic neuritis and occipital lobe infarction are less likely causes, as they would have a more rapid onset of symptoms. Optic nerve compression may also be a consideration, but it would likely be associated with a space-occupying lesion and a history of headaches. Overall, the presence of aching in the affected eye suggests demyelinating optic neuritis as the most likely diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      84.7
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 53-year-old woman who was diagnosed with lung cancer almost a year ago...

    Incorrect

    • A 53-year-old woman who was diagnosed with lung cancer almost a year ago presents feeling progressively unwell over the last week or two.

      You review her notes and see that she is under the care of the local respiratory team with a histological diagnosis of squamous cell carcinoma. The tumour is not suitable for surgical resection and the patient is being treated palliatively.

      Her current medication consists of: paracetamol 1 g QDS, morphine sulphate 30 mg BD, Oramorph PRN for breakthrough pain, lactulose 15 mls BD and metoclopramide 10 mg TDS.

      She describes feeling generally weak and lethargic and complains of thirst and widespread aches and pains. Her family reports that she has also been a bit more vague and slightly confused over the last few days.

      Further questioning reveals that she is also suffering from some generalised abdominal pain and despite taking a regular laxative has been very constipated.

      What is the underlying cause of this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Iatrogenic disease

      Correct Answer: Anaemia

      Explanation:

      Hypercalcaemia in a Patient with Squamous Cell Lung Carcinoma

      This patient is presenting with signs and symptoms of hypercalcaemia, including confusion, lethargy, musculoskeletal aches and pains, thirst, abdominal pain, and constipation. The underlying cause of her hypercalcaemia is likely ectopic parathyroid hormone production associated with her squamous cell lung carcinoma.

      It is important to consider other potential causes of her symptoms, such as anaemia or an infective cause like atypical pneumonia. However, her medication and superior vena caval obstruction are less likely to be the primary cause of her clinical picture.

      Managing hypercalcaemia in patients with advanced cancer is crucial for symptom control and improving quality of life. The Scottish Palliative Care Guidelines provide recommendations for the management of hypercalcaemia, including hydration, bisphosphonates, and corticosteroids. Close monitoring and communication with the patient’s healthcare team are also essential.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • End Of Life
      86.9
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 29-year-old man visits his General Practitioner with a complaint of discomfort in...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old man visits his General Practitioner with a complaint of discomfort in his right eye following the use of a rotary saw to cut bricks. Despite washing the eye, he still experiences discomfort. He reports no changes in his vision. Upon examination, there are no foreign objects on the cornea or under the lower lid. Fluorescein staining reveals linear abrasions on the cornea. What is the most probable diagnosis? Choose only ONE option.

      Your Answer: Subtarsal foreign body

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Eye Pain and a History of Building Work

      Subtarsal foreign body: A possible cause of eye pain in patients with a history of drilling or hammering. The foreign body is usually found on the inner surface of the upper lid and can cause corneal abrasions. Eversion of both lids is recommended during eye examination. Treatment involves removal of the foreign body and use of antibiotic ointment.

      Acute bacterial conjunctivitis: Presents with red conjunctivae, purulent discharge, burning, and irritation. Onset of symptoms is not associated with the use of a rotary saw.

      Allergic conjunctivitis: Causes itching and watering of the eyes, and is more likely to affect both eyes.

      Arc eye (photokeratitis): Caused by exposure to ultraviolet radiation, such as welding or snow. Symptoms may include redness, swelling, headache, watering of the eyes, and pain. Onset of symptoms may be delayed by several hours after exposure.

      Scleritis: Affects the sclera and causes blurred vision, aching pain, and photophobia. Associated with diseases such as granulomatosis with polyangiitis or rheumatoid arthritis, which are not indicated in this patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
      46.8
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 55-year-old man presents with indigestion that has been troubling him for the...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man presents with indigestion that has been troubling him for the past two months. He reports no prior history of these symptoms and states that he has been able to eat and drink normally. However, he has noticed a recent weight loss. He denies any abdominal pain or changes in bowel habits. On examination, his abdomen appears normal. Laboratory tests, including a full blood count, renal function, liver function, and C-reactive protein, are all within normal limits. What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Urgent endoscopy (within two weeks)

      Correct Answer: Abdominal and erect x ray today

      Explanation:

      Urgent Upper Gastrointestinal Endoscopy for Stomach Cancer Assessment

      Urgent upper gastrointestinal endoscopy is necessary within two weeks for individuals experiencing dysphagia to assess for stomach cancer. Additionally, patients aged 55 or over with weight loss and upper abdominal pain, reflux, or dyspepsia should also undergo this procedure. A directed admission is not required, and x-rays are unnecessary as the patient doesn’t have an acute abdomen. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends endoscopy over an ultrasound scan. This history necessitates an urgent investigation, and a routine referral to gastroenterology would not be appropriate. It is important to note that knowledge of the patient’s H Pylori status would not alter the need for urgent OGD, and referral should not be delayed for this reason.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      148.4
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 39-year-old man returns for follow-up. You had previously provided him with a...

    Incorrect

    • A 39-year-old man returns for follow-up. You had previously provided him with a Statement of Fitness for Work, indicating that he may be eligible for 'modified duties' and 'adjusted hours' due to a recent ankle fracture. However, his employer has informed him that they are unable to accommodate these changes and instructed him to return to you. What is the best course of action to take?

      Your Answer: Arrange a second opinion within the practice regarding his fitness to work

      Correct Answer: Do not issue any further sick notes and inform him that the original should now be treated as a 'not fit for work' note

      Explanation:

      The DWP advises that if a patient is unable to return to work, the advice provided by their healthcare provider should aim to assist both the patient and their employer in finding ways to facilitate a return to work. However, if it is determined that a return to work is not possible, the patient will be treated as if their healthcare provider had advised that they were not fit for work. In this case, the patient will not need to obtain a new Statement from their healthcare provider, as the previously issued Statement will be considered equivalent to a statement of unfitness for work.

      Understanding the Statement of Fitness for Work

      The Statement of Fitness for Work, previously known as sick notes, was introduced in 2010 to reflect the fact that most patients do not need to be fully recovered before returning to work. This statement allows doctors to advise that a patient may be fit for work taking account of the following advice. It replaces the Med3 and Med5 forms and has resulted in the withdrawal of the Med4, Med6, and RM 7 forms due to the replacement of Incapacity Benefit with the Employment and Support Allowance.

      Telephone consultations are now an acceptable form of assessment, and there is no longer a box to indicate that a patient is fit for work. Instead, doctors can state if they need to reassess the patient’s fitness for work at the end of the statement period. The statement provides increased space for comments on the functional effects of the condition, including tick boxes for simple things that may help a patient return to work.

      The statement can be issued on the day of assessment or at a later date if it would have been reasonable to issue it on the day of assessment. It can also be issued after consideration of a written report from another doctor or registered healthcare professional.

      There are four tick boxes on the form that represent common approaches to aid a return to work, including a phased return to work, altered hours, amended duties, and workplace adaptations. Patients may self-certify for the first seven calendar days using the SC1 or SC2 form, depending on their eligibility to claim statutory sick pay.

      It is important to note that the advice on the statement is not binding on employers, and doctors can still advise patients that they are not fit for work. However, the Statement of Fitness for Work provides a more flexible approach to returning to work and recognizes that many patients can return to work with some adjustments.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      32.4
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - An 80-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a complaint of blurred vision...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a complaint of blurred vision in her right eye for the past few months. She also reports seeing crooked or wavy lines in the center of her right visual field. The left eye appears to be unaffected, and she has never used glasses or contact lenses. During the examination, a central scotoma is observed in the right eye.

      What is the MOST probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Anterior uveitis

      Correct Answer: Age related macular degeneration

      Explanation:

      Macular degeneration causes loss of vision in the central field, while primary open-angle glaucoma results in loss of vision in the peripheral field.

      Age-related macular degeneration (ARMD) is a common cause of blindness in the UK, characterized by degeneration of the central retina (macula) and the formation of drusen. The risk of ARMD increases with age, smoking, family history, and conditions associated with an increased risk of ischaemic cardiovascular disease. ARMD is classified into dry and wet forms, with the latter carrying the worst prognosis. Clinical features include subacute onset of visual loss, difficulties in dark adaptation, and visual hallucinations. Signs include distortion of line perception, the presence of drusen, and well-demarcated red patches in wet ARMD. Investigations include slit-lamp microscopy, colour fundus photography, fluorescein angiography, indocyanine green angiography, and ocular coherence tomography. Treatment options include a combination of zinc with anti-oxidant vitamins for dry ARMD and anti-VEGF agents for wet ARMD. Laser photocoagulation is also an option, but anti-VEGF therapies are usually preferred.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
      29.9
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - You are evaluating a 75-year-old man with longstanding varicose veins. He presents to...

    Incorrect

    • You are evaluating a 75-year-old man with longstanding varicose veins. He presents to you with a small painful ulcer near one of them. The pain improves when he elevates his leg.

      During the examination, you observe normal distal pulses and warm feet. The ulcer is well-defined and shallow, with a small amount of slough and granulation tissue at the base.

      The patient has never smoked, has no significant past medical history, and recent blood tests, including an HbA1c, were normal.

      You suspect a venous ulcer and plan to perform an ankle-brachial pressure index (ABPI) to initiate compression bandaging.

      As per current NICE guidelines, what is the most appropriate next step in management?

      Your Answer: Request duplex ultrasound imaging

      Correct Answer: Refer to vascular team

      Explanation:

      Referral to secondary care for treatment is recommended for patients with varicose veins and an active or healed venous leg ulcer. In this case, the woman should be referred to the vascular team. Venous leg ulcers can be painful and are associated with venous stasis. Class 2 compression stockings are used for the treatment of uncomplicated varicose veins. Small amounts of slough and granulation tissue are common with venous ulcers and do not necessarily indicate an infection requiring antibiotics. Exercise is encouraged to help venous return in these patients. Duplex sonography is usually performed in secondary care, but the specialist team will request this, not primary care.

      Understanding Varicose Veins

      Varicose veins are enlarged and twisted veins that occur when the valves in the veins become weak or damaged, causing blood to flow backward and pool in the veins. They are most commonly found in the legs and can be caused by various factors such as age, gender, pregnancy, obesity, and genetics. While many people seek treatment for cosmetic reasons, others may experience symptoms such as aching, throbbing, and itching. In severe cases, varicose veins can lead to skin changes, bleeding, superficial thrombophlebitis, and venous ulceration.

      To diagnose varicose veins, a venous duplex ultrasound is typically performed to detect retrograde venous flow. Treatment options vary depending on the severity of the condition. Conservative treatments such as leg elevation, weight loss, regular exercise, and compression stockings may be recommended for mild cases. However, patients with significant or troublesome symptoms, skin changes, or a history of bleeding or ulcers may require referral to a specialist for further evaluation and treatment. Possible treatments include endothermal ablation, foam sclerotherapy, or surgery.

      In summary, varicose veins are a common condition that can cause discomfort and cosmetic concerns. While many cases do not require intervention, it is important to seek medical attention if symptoms or complications arise. With proper diagnosis and treatment, patients can manage their condition and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      68.3
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A woman who is 12 weeks pregnant is seen in the antenatal clinic...

    Incorrect

    • A woman who is 12 weeks pregnant is seen in the antenatal clinic for her initial check-up. According to her electronic records, she is identified as a former smoker. In accordance with current NICE recommendations, what is the best approach to evaluate her smoking status?

      Your Answer: Use a 'NHS Smoking Exposure in Pregnancy' questionnaire

      Correct Answer: Use a carbon monoxide detector, explaining that all women are checked regardless of their declared smoking status

      Explanation:

      Could you please tell me if you or anyone in your household smokes? If yes, how many cigarettes do they smoke per day? Additionally, may I examine your fingers for any signs of tar-staining?

      Smoking cessation is the process of quitting smoking. In 2008, NICE released guidance on how to manage smoking cessation. The guidance recommends that patients should be offered nicotine replacement therapy (NRT), varenicline or bupropion, and that clinicians should not favour one medication over another. These medications should be prescribed as part of a commitment to stop smoking on or before a particular date, and the prescription should only last until 2 weeks after the target stop date. If unsuccessful, a repeat prescription should not be offered within 6 months unless special circumstances have intervened. NRT can cause adverse effects such as nausea and vomiting, headaches, and flu-like symptoms. NICE recommends offering a combination of nicotine patches and another form of NRT to people who show a high level of dependence on nicotine or who have found single forms of NRT inadequate in the past.

      Varenicline is a nicotinic receptor partial agonist that should be started 1 week before the patient’s target date to stop. The recommended course of treatment is 12 weeks, but patients should be monitored regularly and treatment only continued if not smoking. Varenicline has been shown in studies to be more effective than bupropion, but it should be used with caution in patients with a history of depression or self-harm. Nausea is the most common adverse effect, and varenicline is contraindicated in pregnancy and breastfeeding.

      Bupropion is a norepinephrine and dopamine reuptake inhibitor, and nicotinic antagonist that should be started 1 to 2 weeks before the patient’s target date to stop. There is a small risk of seizures, and bupropion is contraindicated in epilepsy, pregnancy, and breastfeeding. Having an eating disorder is a relative contraindication.

      In 2010, NICE recommended that all pregnant women should be tested for smoking using carbon monoxide detectors. All women who smoke, or have stopped smoking within the last 2 weeks, or those with a CO reading of 7 ppm or above should be referred to NHS Stop Smoking Services. The first-line interventions in pregnancy should be cognitive behaviour therapy, motivational interviewing, or structured self-help and support from NHS Stop Smoking Services. The evidence for the use of NRT in pregnancy is mixed, but it is often used if the above measures fail. There is no evidence that it affects the child’s birthweight. Pregnant women

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      36.1
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - As the on-call physician, a mother of a 4-year-old boy seeks your guidance....

    Incorrect

    • As the on-call physician, a mother of a 4-year-old boy seeks your guidance. Due to a recent outbreak of roseola infantum at her son's daycare, she is curious about the duration of time her child should stay away from the facility. Despite being healthy and showing no symptoms, what recommendation would you provide?

      Your Answer: That her child should stay away from nursery for 7 days

      Correct Answer: There is no school exclusion

      Explanation:

      No need for school exclusion with roseola infantum as it is a self-limiting condition.

      Understanding Roseola Infantum

      Roseola infantum, also known as exanthem subitum or sixth disease, is a common illness that affects infants and is caused by the human herpesvirus 6 (HHV6). The incubation period for this disease is between 5 to 15 days, and it typically affects children between the ages of 6 months to 2 years.

      The symptoms of roseola infantum include a high fever that lasts for a few days, followed by a maculopapular rash. Other symptoms that may be present include Nagayama spots, which are papular enanthems on the uvula and soft palate, as well as cough and diarrhea. In some cases, febrile convulsions may occur in around 10-15% of cases.

      While roseola infantum can lead to other complications such as aseptic meningitis and hepatitis, school exclusion is not necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      29.2
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 2-year-old girl is brought to the clinic by her mother. She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 2-year-old girl is brought to the clinic by her mother. She has a history of recurrent otitis media and has been touching her right ear frequently for the past 3 days. She was restless and had a fever overnight, and now has a red, boggy swelling behind her right ear that is more prominent than on the left. During the examination, the child appears unhappy, with a temperature of 39.2ºC, a heart rate of 170 beats/minute, and a respiratory rate of 28 breaths/minute. Due to her distress, it is difficult to examine her ears, but the left ear canal and tympanic membrane appear normal, while the right ear canal and tympanic membrane appear red. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acute otitis media

      Correct Answer: Mastoiditis

      Explanation:

      Mastoiditis is a bacterial infection that is particularly serious and commonly affects children. It often occurs as a result of prolonged otitis media. The infection can cause the porous bone to deteriorate, and severe cases may require surgery and intravenous antibiotics. Acute otitis media is an infection of the inner ear and typically doesn’t cause swelling. However, mastoiditis can develop as a complication of otitis media. The patient in question has no history of trauma that could explain the described swelling, which is also not in the correct location to be a parotid swelling. While lymphadenitis can cause an erythematous swelling, it is usually described as soft, fluctuant, and tender and is typically found post auricularly rather than over the mastoid process.

      In 2008, NICE released guidelines for the management of respiratory tract infections in primary care, specifically focusing on the prescribing of antibiotics for self-limiting infections in both adults and children. The guidelines recommend a no antibiotic or delayed antibiotic prescribing approach for acute otitis media, acute sore throat/acute pharyngitis/acute tonsillitis, common cold, acute rhinosinusitis, and acute cough/acute bronchitis. However, an immediate antibiotic prescribing approach may be considered for certain patients, such as children under 2 years with bilateral acute otitis media or patients with acute sore throat/acute pharyngitis/acute tonsillitis who have 3 or more Centor criteria present. The guidelines also suggest advising patients on the expected duration of their respiratory tract infection. If a patient is deemed at risk of developing complications, an immediate antibiotic prescribing policy is recommended. This includes patients who are systemically unwell, have symptoms and signs suggestive of serious illness and/or complications, or are at high risk of serious complications due to pre-existing comorbidity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      27.8
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 25-year-old woman presents with complaints of coarse hair on her lip, chin,...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman presents with complaints of coarse hair on her lip, chin, chest and abdomen. She reports moderate menstrual irregularity and long periods of amenorrhoea. Upon examination, her body mass index is 40 kg/m2. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Familial hirsutism

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hirsutism and its Common Causes

      Hirsutism is a condition characterized by excessive hair growth in women, often in areas where hair is typically absent or minimal. The most common cause of hirsutism is polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS), which accounts for 95% of cases. This condition is often accompanied by obesity and amenorrhea, which are indicative of insulin resistance.

      Biochemically, patients with PCOS have a reversed luteinising hormone:follicle-stimulating hormone (LH:FSH) ratio and elevated androstenedione with a low sex-hormone-binding globulin (SHBG). It is important to rule out other potential causes of hirsutism, such as androgen-producing tumors of the adrenal gland or ovary, Cushing’s syndrome, or congenital adrenal hyperplasia.

      In summary, hirsutism is a common condition in women, with PCOS being the most common cause. Proper evaluation and diagnosis are crucial to ensure appropriate treatment and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      14.4
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 6-year-old with Down's syndrome presents to your clinic for a routine check-up....

    Correct

    • A 6-year-old with Down's syndrome presents to your clinic for a routine check-up. His parents have noticed that he has been having difficulty hearing for the past few weeks. Upon otoscopy, you observe indrawn tympanic membranes with fluid levels and loss of light reflexes in both ears. There are no signs of inflammation, and examinations of the nose and throat are normal.

      What would be the most suitable course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer: Refer to ENT

      Explanation:

      Children who have glue ear and also have Down’s syndrome or cleft palate should be referred to an ENT specialist. While most children with otitis media with effusion (OME) can be observed for 6-12 weeks, those with Down’s syndrome or cleft palate are less likely to recover on their own. It is important to follow up with all patients with OME, even if they do not meet the criteria for referral to ENT.

      Antibiotics, antihistamines, and corticosteroids should not be prescribed for OME as there is no evidence to support their use. If the patient did not have Down’s syndrome, it would be appropriate to recheck their ears after 6-12 weeks and refer to ENT if the OME had not resolved. During this observation period, normal activities including swimming (except for diving) should be encouraged.

      Understanding Glue Ear

      Glue ear, also known as serous otitis media, is a common condition among children, with most experiencing at least one episode during their childhood. It is characterized by the accumulation of fluid in the middle ear, leading to hearing loss, speech and language delay, and behavioral or balance problems. The risk factors for glue ear include male sex, siblings with the condition, bottle feeding, day care attendance, and parental smoking. It is more prevalent during the winter and spring seasons.

      The condition typically peaks at two years of age and is the most common cause of conductive hearing loss and elective surgery in childhood. Treatment options include grommet insertion, which allows air to pass through into the middle ear, and adenoidectomy. However, grommets usually stop functioning after about ten months. It is important to understand the symptoms and risk factors of glue ear to seek appropriate treatment and prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      47.3
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 50-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner with concerns about a lump...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner with concerns about a lump in her throat that she has been feeling for the past six months. She reports feeling the lump even when she is not swallowing. Upon examination, her oropharynx, ears, nose, and neck appear normal. She is also a non-smoker.
      What would be a significant cause for worry in a patient with these symptoms who is 50 years old?

      Your Answer: It is worse between meals

      Correct Answer: Left-sided ear pain

      Explanation:

      Understanding Unilateral Ear Pain and Globus Sensation

      Unilateral ear pain in adults with normal otoscopy findings may indicate cancer of the base of the tongue, especially if accompanied by persistent hoarseness, dysphagia, weight loss, or a swelling in the neck. Risk factors for head and neck cancers include smoking and alcohol consumption. However, if the pain is worse between meals and eating or drinking alleviates the symptoms, it is more likely to be globus sensation, which is the feeling of a lump in the throat that doesn’t affect swallowing function. If the symptom persists for six months without affecting swallowing, it is less likely to be a worrying cause such as laryngeal or esophageal cancer. Intermittent symptoms are also less likely to indicate a malignant cause, as they are typical for globus and often exacerbated by stress.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      45.7
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 27-year-old African American woman who is 28 weeks pregnant undergoes an oral...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old African American woman who is 28 weeks pregnant undergoes an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) due to her ethnicity and a history of being overweight. An ultrasound reveals that the fetus is measuring larger than expected for its gestational age. The results of the OGTT are as follows:

      Time (hours) Blood glucose (mmol/l)
      0 9.5
      2 15.1

      What would be the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer: Start insulin

      Explanation:

      Immediate initiation of insulin is recommended due to the high blood glucose levels and presence of macrosomia. Additionally, it is advisable to consider administering aspirin as there is an elevated risk of pre-eclampsia.

      Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder that affects around 4% of pregnancies. It can develop during pregnancy or be a pre-existing condition. According to NICE, 87.5% of cases are gestational diabetes, 7.5% are type 1 diabetes, and 5% are type 2 diabetes. Risk factors for gestational diabetes include a BMI of > 30 kg/m², previous gestational diabetes, a family history of diabetes, and family origin with a high prevalence of diabetes. Screening for gestational diabetes involves an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT), which should be performed as soon as possible after booking and at 24-28 weeks if the first test is normal.

      To diagnose gestational diabetes, NICE recommends using the following thresholds: fasting glucose is >= 5.6 mmol/L or 2-hour glucose is >= 7.8 mmol/L. Newly diagnosed women should be seen in a joint diabetes and antenatal clinic within a week and taught about self-monitoring of blood glucose. Advice about diet and exercise should be given, and if glucose targets are not met within 1-2 weeks of altering diet/exercise, metformin should be started. If glucose targets are still not met, insulin should be added to the treatment plan.

      For women with pre-existing diabetes, weight loss is recommended for those with a BMI of > 27 kg/m^2. Oral hypoglycaemic agents, apart from metformin, should be stopped, and insulin should be commenced. Folic acid 5 mg/day should be taken from preconception to 12 weeks gestation, and a detailed anomaly scan at 20 weeks, including four-chamber view of the heart and outflow tracts, should be performed. Tight glycaemic control reduces complication rates, and retinopathy should be treated as it can worsen during pregnancy.

      Targets for self-monitoring of pregnant women with diabetes include a fasting glucose level of 5.3 mmol/l and a 1-hour or 2-hour glucose level after meals of 7.8 mmol/l or 6.4 mmol/l, respectively. It is important to manage gestational diabetes and pre-existing diabetes during pregnancy to reduce the risk of complications for both the mother and baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      23.2
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Maternity And Reproductive Health (2/4) 50%
Dermatology (2/3) 67%
Gynaecology And Breast (1/1) 100%
End Of Life (0/2) 0%
Children And Young People (1/2) 50%
Neurology (0/3) 0%
Musculoskeletal Health (0/2) 0%
Infectious Disease And Travel Health (0/1) 0%
Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing (2/4) 50%
People With Long Term Conditions Including Cancer (0/1) 0%
Allergy And Immunology (0/1) 0%
Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology (0/1) 0%
Respiratory Health (0/1) 0%
Eyes And Vision (1/2) 50%
Gastroenterology (0/1) 0%
Cardiovascular Health (0/1) 0%
Passmed