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  • Question 1 - A 68-year-old man tells his general practitioner that, for the past two months,...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man tells his general practitioner that, for the past two months, he has been passing urine more often than usual and getting up at night to urinate. Given the man’s age, you suspect he might have symptoms related to an enlarged prostate.
      Which of the following should be done first to confirm the first impression?

      Your Answer: Rectal examination of the prostate

      Correct Answer: Full urological history

      Explanation:

      Assessing Prostate Enlargement: Diagnostic Tests and Treatment Options

      To determine the presence and severity of prostate enlargement, a full urological history should be taken, with attention paid to obstructive and irritation symptoms. If enlargement is suspected, a blood test for prostate-specific antigen (PSA) should be done before rectal examination, as the latter can increase PSA levels. Tamsulosin may be prescribed as a first-line drug for mild cases, but a thorough history should be obtained before starting pharmacological treatment. Abdominal examination is not typically necessary for initial diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
      12.9
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  • Question 2 - A 27-year-old trans female patient contacts her GP for a telephone consultation to...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old trans female patient contacts her GP for a telephone consultation to discuss contraception options. She was assigned male at birth and is currently receiving treatment from the gender identity clinic, taking oestradiol and goserelin. Although she plans to undergo surgery in the future, she has not done so yet. She is currently in a relationship with a female partner and engages in penetrative sexual intercourse. She has no significant medical history and is not taking any regular medications apart from those prescribed by the GIC. What advice should she receive regarding contraception?

      Your Answer: Oestradiol prevents sperm production and so contraception is not needed

      Correct Answer: The patient should use condoms

      Explanation:

      While patients assigned male at birth who are undergoing treatment with oestradiol, GNRH analogs, finasteride or cyproterone may experience a decrease or cessation in sperm production, it is not a reliable method of contraception. Therefore, it is important to advise the use of condoms as a suitable option for contraception. It is incorrect to suggest that a vasectomy is the only option, as condoms are also a viable choice. Additionally, recommending that the patient’s partner use hormonal contraception is not appropriate, as advice should be given directly to the patient.

      Contraceptive and Sexual Health Guidance for Transgender and Non-Binary Individuals

      The Faculty of Sexual & Reproductive Healthcare has released guidance on contraceptive choices and sexual health for transgender and non-binary individuals. The guidance emphasizes the importance of sensitive communication and offering options that consider personal preferences, co-morbidities, and current medications or therapies.

      For individuals engaging in vaginal sex where there may be a risk of pregnancy and/or sexually transmitted infections, condoms and dental dams are recommended. Cervical screening and human papillomavirus vaccinations should also be offered to sexually active individuals with a uterus. Those engaging in anal sex and rimming should be advised of the risk of hepatitis A & B and offered vaccinations. Individuals at risk of HIV transmission should be advised of the availability of pre-exposure prophylaxis and post-exposure prophylaxis as required.

      For patients seeking permanent contraception, a fallopian tube occlusion or a vasectomy may be the most appropriate solution and neither would be affected by hormonal therapy. Testosterone therapy does not provide protection against pregnancy, and oestrogen-containing regimes are not recommended in patients undergoing testosterone therapy. Progesterone-only contraceptives are considered safe, and the intrauterine system and injections may also suspend menstruation. Non-hormonal intrauterine devices do not interact with hormonal regimes but can exacerbate menstrual bleeding.

      In patients assigned male at birth, there may be a reduction or cessation of sperm production with certain therapies, but the variability of effects means they cannot be relied upon as a method of contraception. Condoms should be recommended in those patients engaging in vaginal sex wishing to avoid the risk of pregnancy. Emergency contraception may be required in patients assigned female at birth following unprotected vaginal intercourse, and either of the available oral emergency contraceptive options may be considered. The non-hormonal intrauterine device may also be an option, but it may have unacceptable side effects in some patients.

      Overall, the guidance stresses the importance of individualized care and communication in contraceptive and sexual health decisions for transgender and non-binary individuals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
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  • Question 3 - A 25-year-old man who has received a transplant of the left kidney is...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man who has received a transplant of the left kidney is exhibiting symptoms that suggest hyperacute rejection of the transplant. What is the probable time frame for this type of rejection to occur?

      Your Answer: 48 hours post transplantation

      Correct Answer: Within minutes of transplantation

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Types and Timing of Transplant Rejection

      Transplant rejection can occur in different types and at different times after transplantation. Hyperacute rejection is the earliest and occurs within minutes of transplantation due to pre-existing donor-specific antibodies. This reaction is complement-mediated and irreversible, requiring prompt removal of the transplanted tissue. Acute rejection can occur up to 3 months after transplantation and is cell-mediated, involving the activation of phagocytes and cytotoxic T lymphocytes. Rejection that occurs in the first few days after transplantation is known as accelerated acute rejection. Chronic rejection, which is controversial, involves antibody-mediated vascular damage and can occur months to years after transplantation. Blood group matching can minimize hyperacute rejection, while monitoring and immunosuppressive therapy can help prevent and treat other types of rejection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
      15.2
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  • Question 4 - A 35-year-old healthy man presents because he and his wife have been repeatedly...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old healthy man presents because he and his wife have been repeatedly unsuccessful in achieving pregnancy, even after three years of actively attempting to conceive. They are not using any method of contraception. The wife has been tested and determined to be fertile. The husband’s past medical history is significant for being treated for repeated upper respiratory tract infections and ear infections, as well as him stating ‘they told me my organs are all reversed’. He also complains of a decreased sense of smell. His prostate is not enlarged on examination. His blood test results are within normal limits.
      Which of the following is the most likely cause of the patient’s infertility?

      Your Answer: Autosomal recessive dysfunction of a chloride ion channel

      Correct Answer: Lack of dynein arms in microtubules of Ciliary

      Explanation:

      Possible Causes of Infertility in a Young Man

      Infertility in a young man can have various causes. One possible cause is Kartagener’s syndrome, a rare autosomal recessive genetic disorder that affects the action of Ciliary lining the respiratory tract and flagella of sperm cells. This syndrome can lead to recurrent respiratory infections and poor sperm motility. Another possible cause is cryptorchidism, the absence of one or both testes from the scrotum, which can reduce fertility even after surgery. Age-related hormonal changes or atherosclerosis can also affect fertility, but these are less likely in a young, healthy man with normal blood tests. Cystic fibrosis, a genetic disorder that affects the lungs and digestive system, can also cause infertility, but it is usually detected early in life and has additional symptoms such as poor weight gain and diarrhea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
      40.3
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  • Question 5 - A 58-year-old man with long-standing multiple sclerosis (MS) is admitted due to increasing...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old man with long-standing multiple sclerosis (MS) is admitted due to increasing problems with his care in the community. He is bed-bound with a spastic paraparesis. He is noted to have a permanent 14-gauge urinary catheter in situ and has a history of recurrent urinary tract infections. The family informs the nursing staff that this has not been changed for some time. Your senior colleague wishes for the catheter to be replaced due to recurrent UTIs.
      Which one of the following statements is the most accurate?

      Your Answer: Given the paraparesis local anaesthetic gel is not essential

      Correct Answer: A single dose of prophylactic gentamicin is advisable

      Explanation:

      Best Practices for Permanent Indwelling Urinary Catheters

      Introduction:
      Permanent indwelling urinary catheters are commonly used in patients with urinary retention or incontinence. However, they can pose a risk of infection and other complications. Therefore, it is important to follow best practices when placing and maintaining these catheters.

      Prophylactic Gentamicin:
      When replacing a permanent catheter, it is recommended to administer a single dose of prophylactic gentamicin to prevent infection.

      Regular Replacement:
      It is essential to have measures in place for regular routine replacement of permanent catheters. This is because they are a foreign body and can be a portal of entry for infection. Urinary sepsis in these patients can be devastating and fatal.

      Same-Sized Catheter:
      When replacing a catheter, it is not necessary to change the size unless there are symptoms of catheter bypass. Increasing the size can cause pain and trauma.

      Local Anaesthetic Gel:
      Even if a patient has paraparesis, local anaesthetic gel must be used during catheter insertion to prevent pain.

      Chaperone:
      It is good practice to offer a chaperone during any intimate examination/procedure. The patient may accept or decline a chaperone. If a chaperone is required, they do not have to be a man as long as there is consent from the patient.

      Regular Replacement Schedule:
      Long-term catheters require changing every 12 weeks due to the design of the catheter and the risk of infection. This can be done in the community by district nurses.

      Best Practices for Permanent Indwelling Urinary Catheters

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
      48
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Lila is a 38-year-old woman who presents to you with heavy menstrual bleeding...

    Incorrect

    • Lila is a 38-year-old woman who presents to you with heavy menstrual bleeding that has been progressively worsening over the past year. She also complains of severe period pain that typically starts a few days before each menstrual cycle. Her menstrual cycles are regular, occurring every 28 days. Lila states she has not been sexually active for the past year and is not taking any regular medications. She has two children, both born via vaginal delivery without any complications. Upon abdominal examination, no abnormalities are noted, and a speculum examination reveals a normal cervix. You decide to order a full blood count. What is the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer: Request a transabdominal ultrasound

      Correct Answer: Request a transvaginal ultrasound

      Explanation:

      If a patient presents with menorrhagia along with pelvic pain, abnormal exam findings, or intermenstrual or postcoital bleeding, it is recommended to conduct a transvaginal ultrasound. According to the NICE guidelines, a transvaginal ultrasound should be preferred over a transabdominal ultrasound or MRI for women with significant dysmenorrhoea or a bulky, tender uterus on examination that suggests adenomyosis.

      In the case of Lila, who is experiencing new menorrhagia and significant dysmenorrhoea, a transvaginal ultrasound is necessary. If a transvaginal ultrasound is not possible, a transabdominal ultrasound or MRI can be considered, but the limitations of these techniques should be explained.

      For women without identified pathology, fibroids less than 3 cm in diameter, or suspected or diagnosed adenomyosis, the first-line treatment recommended by the guideline is a levonorgestrel intrauterine system (LNG-IUS). While this may be an appropriate treatment for Lila, the initial next step should be to arrange for a transvaginal ultrasound to investigate further. At this stage, there are no red flags in Lila’s history or examination that warrant an urgent referral to gynaecology.

      Managing Heavy Menstrual Bleeding

      Heavy menstrual bleeding, also known as menorrhagia, is a condition where a woman experiences excessive blood loss during her menstrual cycle. While it was previously defined as total blood loss of over 80 ml per cycle, the management of menorrhagia now depends on the woman’s perception of what is excessive. In the past, hysterectomy was a common treatment for heavy periods, but the approach has changed significantly since the 1990s.

      To manage menorrhagia, a full blood count should be performed in all women. If symptoms suggest a structural or histological abnormality, a routine transvaginal ultrasound scan should be arranged. For women who do not require contraception, mefenamic acid or tranexamic acid can be used. If there is no improvement, other drugs can be tried while awaiting referral.

      For women who require contraception, options include the intrauterine system (Mirena), combined oral contraceptive pill, and long-acting progestogens. Norethisterone can also be used as a short-term option to rapidly stop heavy menstrual bleeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
      40.3
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  • Question 7 - A 30-year-old man presents with left scrotal discomfort and a feeling of tightness....

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old man presents with left scrotal discomfort and a feeling of tightness. Upon examination, there is mild swelling of the left scrotum with varices resembling a bag of worms in the overlying skin that appears dark red. Scrotal ultrasound confirms the presence of a varicocele on the left side. Which structure is most likely dilated in this patient?

      Your Answer: Pampiniform plexus

      Explanation:

      Anatomy of the Male Reproductive System

      The male reproductive system is a complex network of organs and structures that work together to produce and transport sperm. Here are some key components of this system:

      Pampiniform Plexus: This network of veins runs along the spermatic cord and drains blood from the scrotum. When these veins become dilated, it can result in a condition called varicocele, which may cause a bag of worms sensation in the scrotum.

      Ductus Deferens: This tube-like structure is part of the spermatic cord and carries sperm and seminal fluid from the testis to the ejaculatory duct.

      Processus Vaginalis: This structure can sometimes be present in the groin area and may communicate with the peritoneum. When it does, it can lead to a condition called hydrocele, where fluid accumulates in the scrotum.

      Testicular Artery: This artery originates from the abdominal aorta and supplies blood to the testis. It is not involved in the formation of varicocele.

      Genital Branch of the Genitofemoral Nerve: This nerve provides sensation to the skin in the upper anterior part of the scrotum and innervates the cremaster muscle. It is not involved in the formation of varicocele.

      Understanding the anatomy of the male reproductive system can help in identifying and treating various conditions that may affect it.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
      22.4
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  • Question 8 - A 19-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of a painful swelling in...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of a painful swelling in the area of his glans penis that has been present for 6 hours. Upon examination, the glans penis is red, oedematous, and extremely tender. The foreskin is pulled back, but there is no evidence of scrotal or penile necrosis or redness.

      What is the best course of action for treatment?

      Your Answer: Swab the area for microscopy and culture, and await the result before deciding on treatment

      Correct Answer: Soak the foreskin and glans penis in a hypertonic solution and attempt to manually replace the foreskin by using gentle, but sustained, distal traction

      Explanation:

      Management of Penile Conditions: Differentiating Paraphimosis and Balanitis

      Penile conditions such as paraphimosis and balanitis require prompt and appropriate management. Paraphimosis occurs when the foreskin is retracted but cannot be replaced, leading to swelling of the glans penis. This is a urological emergency that requires immediate intervention. Treatment involves attempting to manually reduce the foreskin, aided by a hypertonic solution to draw out fluid from the swollen area. Referral to Urology is necessary if reduction is not successful.

      Balanitis, on the other hand, is inflammation of the foreskin usually caused by dermatitis or infection with Candida, Gardnerella, or staphylococcal organisms. Symptoms include tenderness and erythema of the glans penis, itching, penile discharge, difficulty with retraction of the foreskin, and difficulty urinating or controlling urine stream. Treatment involves prescribing a 7-day course of hydrocortisone and clotrimazole cream or flucloxacillin if caused by Staphylococcus aureus.

      It is important to differentiate between these two conditions and provide appropriate management to prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
      43
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 30-year-old man comes to the clinic with a testicular lump that has...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man comes to the clinic with a testicular lump that has been present for a few weeks and is gradually getting bigger. He has no history of trauma and is not experiencing any other symptoms. He has no significant medical history or regular medications. During the examination, a solid 3 cm mass is found in the left testicle, along with widespread lymphadenopathy. The following are his blood test results:
      Alpha-fetoprotein (αFP): 0.1 ng/ml (0-10 ng/ml)
      Beta-human chorionic gonadotrophin (βHCG): 4,500 IU/l
      Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH): 375 IU/l
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Testicular germ cell tumour: non-seminomatous tumour

      Correct Answer: Testicular germ cell tumour: pure seminoma

      Explanation:

      Understanding Testicular Cancer and Tumours

      Testicular cancer is a common malignancy affecting men aged 20-39 years, with a high overall 5-year survival rate of 95%. Serum tumour markers such as βHCG and LDH are used to aid diagnosis and monitor response to treatment and detect recurrent disease. Leydig and Sertoli cell tumours are classified as sex cord/gonadal stromal tumours and may produce excess testosterone or oestrogen. Non-seminomatous germ cell tumours (NSGCTs) including yolk sac tumours, embryonal carcinomas, choriocarcinomas and teratomas may produce αFP, while seminomas do not. Teratomas of the testicle, a type of germ cell tumour, secrete αFP in approximately 70% of cases. Understanding the different types of testicular cancer and tumours is important for accurate diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
      31.5
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  • Question 10 - A 68-year-old man presents to the Urology Clinic with a 4-month history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man presents to the Urology Clinic with a 4-month history of difficulty initiating micturition and poor flow when passing urine. He reports waking up 2-3 times a night to urinate and has not experienced any changes in bowel habits. He denies any visible blood in his urine and is generally feeling well. There is no family history of prostate cancer. During digital rectal examination (DRE), a slightly enlarged and smooth prostate is detected. Urinalysis shows protein + but is negative for blood, ketones, glucose, nitrites, and leukocytes. Full blood count, urea and electrolytes, and liver function tests all come back normal. His prostate-specific antigen (PSA) level is 1.3 ng/ml. What is the most appropriate management plan?

      Your Answer: Commence a 5a-reductase inhibitor and review in clinic in 3 months

      Correct Answer: Commence an a-1-antagonist

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia (BPH)

      Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is a common condition that presents with obstructive lower urinary symptoms. Over time, irritative lower urinary tract symptoms can develop due to bladder outflow obstruction, detrusor hypertrophy, and a resulting overactive bladder. The examination typically reveals a smooth and symmetrically enlarged prostate gland, and a PSA level >1.5 indicates significant risk of progression of prostate enlargement.

      There are several treatment options for BPH, depending on the severity of symptoms and prostate enlargement. Lifestyle adaptation, such as sensible fluid intake, reduction of caffeine and alcohol, and management of constipation, can often be effective. If symptoms are troublesome, treatment with an alpha-blocker like tamsulosin can be tried. If the prostate is significantly enlarged or PSA is >1.5, then finasteride, a 5a-reductase inhibitor that will shrink the prostate over time, can be added.

      Anticholinergic medications like oxybutynin can be used to relieve urinary and bladder difficulties, but these are not typically used first line. Prostate biopsy is not always necessary, and contraindications include the surgical absence of a rectum or the presence of a rectal fistula.

      Treatment Options for Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia (BPH)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
      58.6
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