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Question 1
Correct
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Which of the following antibiotics is most commonly linked to the onset of Stevens-Johnson syndrome?
Your Answer: Co-trimoxazole
Explanation:Understanding Stevens-Johnson Syndrome
Stevens-Johnson syndrome is a severe reaction that affects the skin and mucosa, and is usually caused by a drug reaction. It was previously thought to be a severe form of erythema multiforme, but is now considered a separate entity. The condition can be caused by drugs such as penicillin, sulphonamides, lamotrigine, carbamazepine, phenytoin, allopurinol, NSAIDs, and oral contraceptive pills.
The rash associated with Stevens-Johnson syndrome is typically maculopapular, with target lesions being characteristic. It may develop into vesicles or bullae, and the Nikolsky sign is positive in erythematous areas, meaning that blisters and erosions appear when the skin is rubbed gently. Mucosal involvement and systemic symptoms such as fever and arthralgia may also occur.
Hospital admission is required for supportive treatment of Stevens-Johnson syndrome. It is important to identify and discontinue the causative drug, and to manage the symptoms of the condition. With prompt and appropriate treatment, the prognosis for Stevens-Johnson syndrome can be good.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 2
Correct
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The collusion of anonymity is a phrase used to describe a patient's experience of medical care, often in hospital.
Which of the following statements best describes this concept?Your Answer: Patients' care is fractionated, so that no-one is directly responsible for decision-making
Explanation:Understanding the Collusion of Anonymity in Healthcare
The collusion of anonymity is a significant issue in healthcare, particularly in hospitals where multiple professionals from different departments are involved in a patient’s care. This can lead to a breakdown in communication and compromised care, as the patient becomes an anonymous entity rather than an individual with specific needs.
One example of how collusion of anonymity can occur is between primary and secondary care. Medications issued by secondary care often require strict monitoring, and without clear communication between primary and secondary care, issues can arise. To combat this, shared care protocols have been implemented to outline exactly who will be monitoring and acting on abnormal results.
Multidisciplinary meetings involving various healthcare professionals are also common practice, but it is crucial to clarify each person’s role to avoid collusion of anonymity. This can be achieved through open communication and a clear understanding of each individual’s responsibilities.
In summary, understanding the collusion of anonymity is essential in providing effective healthcare. By implementing clear communication and protocols, healthcare professionals can work together to ensure that patients receive the best possible care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Consulting In General Practice
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Question 3
Correct
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A 20-year-old female scheduled an appointment with her GP. She was 28-weeks pregnant and reported a rash.
She mentioned being outside in the warm weather and feeling a bite on her left lower leg. The area became extremely itchy and she spent most of the night scratching it. The next morning, she woke up with a hot, swollen, and tender spot where she had been bitten. Throughout the day, she began to feel ill and developed a fever.
Upon examination, the patient appeared fatigued. Her temperature was 38ºC, oxygen saturation was 97% on air, heart rate was 100 beats per minute, respiratory rate was 20 breaths per minute, and blood pressure was 122/81 mmHg. The examination revealed a red, hot, swollen area of tender skin on her left lower leg, measuring approximately 4 cm in diameter. The diagnosis was cellulitis.
The patient had no significant medical history, but did have a documented allergy to penicillin.
Which of the following treatment options is the most appropriate?Your Answer: Erythromycin
Explanation:If a pregnant patient has a penicillin allergy and is diagnosed with cellulitis, the recommended antibiotic is erythromycin as per the NICE antimicrobial guidance. Flucloxacillin and co-amoxiclav should not be prescribed in this case. It is important to note that doxycycline, a tetracycline antibiotic, is contraindicated in pregnancy and should not be prescribed.
Understanding Cellulitis: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment
Cellulitis is a common skin infection caused by Streptococcus pyogenes or Staphylococcus aureus. It is characterized by inflammation of the skin and subcutaneous tissues, usually on the shins, accompanied by erythema, pain, swelling, and sometimes fever. The diagnosis of cellulitis is based on clinical features, and no further investigations are required in primary care. However, bloods and blood cultures may be requested if the patient is admitted and septicaemia is suspected.
To guide the management of patients with cellulitis, NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend using the Eron classification. Patients with Eron Class III or Class IV cellulitis, severe or rapidly deteriorating cellulitis, very young or frail patients, immunocompromised patients, patients with significant lymphoedema, or facial or periorbital cellulitis (unless very mild) should be admitted for intravenous antibiotics. Patients with Eron Class II cellulitis may not require admission if the facilities and expertise are available in the community to give intravenous antibiotics and monitor the patient.
The first-line treatment for mild/moderate cellulitis is flucloxacillin, while clarithromycin, erythromycin (in pregnancy), or doxycycline is recommended for patients allergic to penicillin. Patients with severe cellulitis should be offered co-amoxiclav, cefuroxime, clindamycin, or ceftriaxone. Understanding the symptoms, diagnosis, and treatment of cellulitis is crucial for effective management and prevention of complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 4
Correct
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A 65-year-old woman is admitted to the Emergency Department with chest pain and is found to have a non-ST elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI). She has a history of poorly controlled type II diabetes mellitus, hypertension and hypercholesterolaemia, and has had a previous NSTEMI. Prior to admission, her regular medications included metformin, gliclazide, ramipril, aspirin, atorvastatin, bisoprolol and amlodipine, but admits that she has not been taking her medicines consistently for a number of months, as she has felt well and doesn't think she needs to be on so many tablets. A medication review is carried out with the patient prior to her discharge.
Which of the following is most likely to result in improved adherence to a prescribed regimen of medication?Your Answer: Patient involvement in treatment decision
Explanation:Improving Medication Adherence: The Importance of Patient Involvement in Treatment Decisions
Adherence to medication is a common issue across various chronic diseases, including coronary heart disease, mental health, diabetes, and cancer. Despite the severity of some illnesses, patients often struggle to adhere to their medication regimen. However, actively involving patients in their treatment decisions can improve their adherence. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence recommends a non-judgemental discussion that explores the patient’s perceptions and preferences about medication.
Even after a life-threatening event, adherence to medication remains poor. For instance, only half of the patients hospitalised for acute myocardial infarction were still taking their medication two years after starting therapy. Poor health literacy may also contribute to a lack of understanding of treatment instructions, leading to non-adherence. Additionally, the elderly face challenges such as multiple medications with frequent dosing and potentially decreased dexterity and cognitive functioning. Communication between hospitals and General Practitioners could also be poor, leading to medication lists that are not up to date and conflicting messages for patients.
In conclusion, involving patients in their treatment decisions can improve medication adherence, which is crucial for managing chronic diseases. Healthcare providers should strive to communicate effectively with patients, especially those with low health literacy and the elderly, to ensure they understand their treatment instructions and can manage their medications effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- People With Long Term Conditions Including Cancer
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Question 5
Correct
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You see a 9-month-old boy. He initially had of temperatures up to 39.5º, runny nose and was generally irritable. The fever has now settled but his mother is worried as the patient has developed a rash on his face and body. On examination, you note small red spots that blanch when touched. No itchiness or blisters are noted.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Erythema infectiosum
Explanation:Possible Childhood Viral Infections and Their Features
Roseola is a likely diagnosis in a child who presents with high fever, upper respiratory symptoms, and a characteristic rash that appears as the fever subsides. Erythema infectiosum, on the other hand, typically manifests as a slapped cheek appearance. Hand, foot and mouth disease usually causes symptoms on the hands, feet, and mouth, such as red macules that develop into vesicles and ulcers. Measles has a prodromal phase with fever, malaise, coryza, cough, and conjunctivitis, followed by an erythematous and maculopapular rash that often starts on the head and spreads to the trunk and limbs. Koplik spots may also appear in the oral mucosa. Unlike Roseola, the rash often coincides with the fever. Finally, Molluscum contagiosum presents as small round white, pink, or brown papules with a central indentation. Knowing these features can help healthcare providers make an accurate diagnosis and provide appropriate treatment for childhood viral infections.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 6
Incorrect
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You receive a 'friend request' on Facebook from a patient of a similar age to yourself who you had a consult with earlier that day. What would be the most appropriate course of action to take?
Your Answer: Accept friendship request to avoid damaging rapport but don't message the patient
Correct Answer: Decline friendship request and write a polite letter to the patient explaining it would be inappropriate
Explanation:The General Medical Council has issued specific guidelines regarding the use of social media by doctors. According to these guidelines, if a patient contacts a doctor through their private profile regarding their care or other professional matters, the doctor should make it clear that they cannot mix social and professional relationships. The text implies that there is a risk of blurring boundaries if a doctor finds a patient attractive and receives a friend request from them. Therefore, it would be appropriate to decline the request. However, this doesn’t warrant removing the patient from the practice list. As long as professional boundaries are maintained, the patient can continue to receive care from the doctor.
Duties of a Doctor According to the General Medical Council
The General Medical Council has outlined the duties of a doctor in providing care to patients. The first and foremost duty is to prioritize the care of the patient. This includes protecting and promoting the health of patients and the public, providing a good standard of practice and care, and keeping professional knowledge and skills up to date. Doctors must also recognize and work within the limits of their competence and work with colleagues in the best interest of patients.
In addition to providing medical care, doctors must treat patients with respect and dignity. This includes treating patients politely and considerately and respecting their right to confidentiality. Doctors must also work in partnership with patients, listening to their concerns and preferences, providing information in a way they can understand, and respecting their right to make decisions about their treatment and care.
Finally, doctors must act with honesty, integrity, and without discrimination. They must act without delay if they believe that they or a colleague may be putting patients at risk and never abuse the trust of patients or the public’s trust in the profession.
Overall, the duties of a doctor are to provide the best possible care to patients while respecting their rights and acting with honesty and integrity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Consulting In General Practice
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 59-year-old retiree comes to see you after being found crying by a neighbour. Over the past six months she has lost her husband to cancer and has become increasingly isolated and withdrawn. She has never experienced depression before and her PHQ depression score is 20.
She enjoys gardening and reading, but has lost interest in these activities recently. She has also been experiencing difficulty sleeping and has lost her appetite. She takes medication for high blood pressure and has a history of smoking, but quit 10 years ago.
You decide to initiate treatment with sertraline, but which other drug may be helpful in addition to this?Your Answer: St John's wort
Correct Answer: Disulfiram
Explanation:Considerations for prescribing medication to an older person
When prescribing medication to an older person, it is important to consider potential interactions and side effects. For example, if the person is already taking a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID), gastro protection should be considered when prescribing a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI). In this case, omeprazole would be the best option.
It is also important to consider the person’s lifestyle and habits. If they are drinking regularly, but not excessively, there may be no need to add acamprosate or disulfiram. Similarly, if an SSRI has already been prescribed, there may be no need to add dosulepin.
While adding ibuprofen or prednisolone may theoretically reduce inflammation related to arthritis, it poses a significant risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Therefore, taking two NSAIDs at the same time should be avoided.
Finally, it is important to be aware of potential interactions with other medications or supplements the person may be taking. St John’s wort, for example, is often used by those who feel depressed, but can interact with other antidepressants and have varying levels of active ingredient depending on the preparation. Overall, careful consideration and monitoring is necessary when prescribing medication to an older person.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 8
Incorrect
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What is a true statement about mumps infection?
Your Answer: It can cause meningo-encephalitis
Correct Answer: Sterility commonly follows orchitis
Explanation:Mumps: Symptoms and Complications
Mumps is a viral infection that has an incubation period of 14-21 days. It can affect any of the salivary glands, but sometimes only one gland is affected. In rare cases, mumps can cause meningoencephalitis, which is inflammation of the brain and its surrounding tissues.
One of the common complications of mumps is orchitis, which is inflammation of the testicles. This occurs in around 25% of cases and can cause pain, swelling, and fever. However, sterility is a relatively uncommon complication following orchitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 9
Incorrect
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What option indicates managing depression through monitoring and providing general guidance only?
Your Answer: Symptoms of short duration
Correct Answer: No obvious trigger factors
Explanation:Managing Depression Symptoms
A patient experiencing symptoms of depression for less than two weeks or with intermittent symptoms can initially be managed through non-invasive methods. This approach is also suitable if there is a clear stressor or if the patient has good social support. However, if the patient has a family history of depression or has had suicidal thoughts, more active intervention may be necessary. It is important to carefully assess each patient’s individual situation and provide appropriate treatment to ensure the best possible outcome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old woman presents with severe sharp pain in the left groin following a minor fall and is unable to walk. Radiological examination reveals a left neck of femur fracture. Routine laboratory evaluation shows a serum calcium concentration of 1.8 mmol/l (normal range 2.20–2.60 mmol/l), a serum phosphorus concentration of 0.72 mmol/l (normal range 0.7–1.4 mmol/l) and increased serum alkaline phosphatase activity. The serum parathyroid hormone level was subsequently found to be elevated.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Primary hyperparathyroidism
Correct Answer: Vitamin D deficiency
Explanation:Understanding Vitamin D Deficiency and its Differential Diagnosis
Vitamin D deficiency is a common condition that can lead to osteomalacia, characterized by hypocalcaemia and hypophosphataemia. This deficiency can be caused by dietary deficiency or malabsorption. Patients with osteomalacia often have elevated serum alkaline phosphatase levels, and the severity and chronicity of the disease can affect calcium intake in the diet. Secondary hyperparathyroidism may also be present in patients with vitamin D insufficiency.
Paget’s disease of bone, hypervitaminosis D, osteoporosis, and primary hyperparathyroidism are differential diagnoses that should be considered. Paget’s disease is associated with bone pain, increased risk of fracture, and elevated serum alkaline phosphatase activity, but serum calcium levels are usually normal. Hypervitaminosis D is associated with hypercalcaemia, while osteoporosis is not associated with any specific abnormality in the standard bone biochemistry profile. Primary hyperparathyroidism is also associated with hypercalcaemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 39-year-old man complains of ongoing fatigue over the last 10 months. What is the least indicative feature for a diagnosis of chronic fatigue syndrome?
Your Answer: Painful lymph nodes without enlargement
Correct Answer: Having a busy day improves the symptoms
Explanation:The symptoms typically worsen with physical or mental exertion.
Understanding Chronic Fatigue Syndrome
Chronic fatigue syndrome is a condition that is diagnosed after at least four months of disabling fatigue that affects mental and physical function more than 50% of the time, in the absence of other diseases that may explain the symptoms. It is more common in females, and past psychiatric history has not been shown to be a risk factor. Fatigue is the central feature of this condition, and other recognized features include sleep problems, muscle and/or joint pains, headaches, painful lymph nodes without enlargement, sore throat, cognitive dysfunction, physical or mental exertion that makes symptoms worse, general malaise or ‘flu-like’ symptoms, dizziness, nausea, and palpitations.
To diagnose chronic fatigue syndrome, a large number of screening blood tests are carried out to exclude other pathology, such as FBC, U&E, LFT, glucose, TFT, ESR, CRP, calcium, CK, ferritin*, coeliac screening, and urinalysis. The management of chronic fatigue syndrome includes cognitive behavior therapy, which is very effective, with a number needed to treat of 2. Graded exercise therapy is also recommended, which is a formal supervised program, not advice to go to the gym. ‘Pacing’ is another management technique, which involves organizing activities to avoid tiring. Low-dose amitriptyline may be useful for poor sleep, and referral to a pain management clinic is recommended if pain is a predominant feature. Children and young people have a better prognosis than adults.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 12
Incorrect
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You see a 26-year-old man with a five day history of a sore throat. He has been feverish and has had a marked sore throat with pain when swallowing. He tells you that he has felt progressively worse over the last five days.
On examination, he has a temperature of 38.2°C and bilateral tonsillar exudates. There is some tender cervical lymphadenopathy present.
You discuss with him the role of antibiotic treatment and feel that his condition warrants treatment. He has no allergies and you prescribe a course of phenoxymethylpenicillin.
What duration of antibiotic treatment should you prescribe?Your Answer: 7 to 10 days
Correct Answer: 5 to 10 days
Explanation:Penicillin V: The Antibiotic of Choice for Sore Throat Treatment
Provided that there are no contraindications, penicillin V is the preferred antibiotic for treating sore throat. It is highly effective, affordable, and has a proven safety record. Additionally, it is a narrow-spectrum antibiotic, which helps prevent the development of antibiotic resistance.
Based on current evidence and guidelines, a 5 to 10-day course of penicillin V is recommended to ensure maximum eradication of the infection. The NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries visual summary guide provides further information on antibiotic selection and duration of use for treating sore throat, based on available evidence and guideline documents.
In summary, penicillin V is the antibiotic of choice for treating sore throat, and a 5 to 10-day course is recommended for optimal results.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old man comes back from a year-long trip to Central and South America. He complains of a lesion on his lower lip that has been ulcerating for the past 2 months. Upon examination, it is found that his nasal and oral mucosae are also affected. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Chagas disease
Correct Answer: Leishmaniasis
Explanation:Leishmaniasis is the probable diagnosis for this patient, as the presence of a primary skin lesion accompanied by mucosal involvement is a typical indication of infection with Leishmania brasiliensis.
Leishmaniasis: A Disease Caused by Sandfly Bites
Leishmaniasis is a disease caused by the protozoa Leishmania, which are transmitted through the bites of sandflies. There are three main forms of the disease: cutaneous, mucocutaneous, and visceral. Cutaneous leishmaniasis is characterized by a crusted lesion at the site of the bite, which may be accompanied by an underlying ulcer. It is typically diagnosed through a punch biopsy from the edge of the lesion. Mucocutaneous leishmaniasis can spread to involve the mucosae of the nose, pharynx, and other areas. Visceral leishmaniasis, also known as kala-azar, is the most severe form of the disease and is characterized by fever, sweats, rigors, massive splenomegaly and hepatomegaly, poor appetite, weight loss, and grey skin. The gold standard for diagnosis is bone marrow or splenic aspirate. Treatment is necessary for cutaneous leishmaniasis acquired in South or Central America due to the risk of mucocutaneous leishmaniasis, while disease acquired in Africa or India can be managed more conservatively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A psychology student conducts a study amongst her peers investigating the effect of age on memory. She found that participants over the age of 50 showed significantly worse memory performance compared to participants under the age of 50 with a significance level of p<0.05. Later on in her project, she conducts a systematic review which finds no significant effect of age on memory.
What statistical mistake is the student likely to have made in her initial study?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Type I error
Explanation:In statistical hypothesis testing, a type I error occurs when the null hypothesis is rejected when it is actually true. This is also known as a false positive. For example, if a student found a significant effect of previous covid-19 infection on task performance when there actually was no effect, this would be a type I error.
A false negative, on the other hand, is when no significant result is found when there actually is one. This is the same as a type II error. For instance, if the student found no effect of previous covid-19 infection on task performance when actually there was an effect, this would be a false negative or a type II error.
Sampling errors can occur when there is a systematic error in recruiting research participants, resulting in a sample population that is not representative of the population to which the results will be applied. However, there is no indication that this is the case in this scenario.
A type II error occurs when the null hypothesis is accepted when it is actually false. In this case, if the student found no effect of previous covid-19 infection on task performance when later research demonstrates there is an effect, this would be a type II error.
Finally, a type III error is not commonly used. It occurs when the null hypothesis is rejected correctly but for the wrong reason.
Significance tests are used to determine the likelihood of a null hypothesis being true. The null hypothesis states that two treatments are equally effective, while the alternative hypothesis suggests that there is a difference between the two treatments. The p value is the probability of obtaining a result by chance that is at least as extreme as the observed result, assuming the null hypothesis is true. Two types of errors can occur during significance testing: type I, where the null hypothesis is rejected when it is true, and type II, where the null hypothesis is accepted when it is false. The power of a study is the probability of correctly rejecting the null hypothesis when it is false, and it can be increased by increasing the sample size.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 15
Incorrect
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In a 60-year-old patient presenting with complete homonymous hemianopia (with macular sparing), what is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Occipital cortex lesion
Explanation:Understanding Homonymous Hemianopia: Causes and Symptoms
Homonymous hemianopia is a condition characterized by the loss of part of the field of view on the same side in both eyes. This occurs due to a lesion involving the occipital cortex, which contains temporal fibers from the same side and nasal fibers from the opposite side. It is important to note that there may be macular sparing in this condition.
It is crucial to differentiate homonymous hemianopia from other conditions that may present with similar symptoms. A lateral geniculate nucleus lesion, for example, can produce complete or partial homonymous defects. Migraine, on the other hand, may present with complex visual phenomena during the aura stage, but it is less likely to cause hemianopia than an occipital lobe lesion.
An optic chiasm lesion would result in bitemporal hemianopia, as information from the temporal visual field falls on the nasal (medial) retina, and the nasal fibers are compressed in lesions of the chiasm. An optic nerve lesion, on the other hand, usually presents as monocular visual loss.
In summary, homonymous hemianopia is a condition that results from a lesion involving the occipital cortex. It is important to differentiate it from other conditions that may present with similar symptoms to ensure proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old woman presents with an eight month history of amenorrhoea. She is not on any prescribed medication but uses over the counter acne treatments. Her body mass index is 31 kg/m2, she has a small amount of hair growth on her chin, abdominal and pelvic examinations are normal.
She is investigated and her blood results show:
LH 11.8 U/L (0.5-14.5)
FSH 4.2 U/L (1-11)
Testosterone 3.5 nmol/L (0.8-3.1)
Prolactin 580 mU/L (90-520)
Fasting glucose 6.4 mmol/L (<6.0)
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome
Explanation:Understanding Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome (PCOS)
Polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) is a condition characterized by abnormal hormonal cycling and enlargement of the ovaries with the development of multiple ovarian cysts. Diagnosis requires exclusion of other causes of polycystic ovaries and the presence of at least two of the following: oligo/anovulation, clinical and/or biochemical hyperandrogenism, or polycystic ovaries on ultrasound scanning.
Patients with PCOS can be asymptomatic but often present with a combination of features such as menstrual disturbance, infertility, obesity, male pattern hair loss, hirsutism, and acne. A patient with amenorrhoea, obesity, and clinical evidence of hyperandrogenism with acne and hirsutism is likely to have PCOS. Blood tests can add weight to the diagnosis, with luteinizing hormone (LH) typically on the high side and values above 10 IU/L seen in about 50% of anovulatory patients.
Hyperandrogenism with an elevated testosterone level is a frequent finding, although caution should be taken to exclude other causes. Mild prolactinaemia can be present in up to 30% of patients. Insulin resistance and impaired glucose tolerance are associated with PCOS and a well-known complication. The patient should have further evaluation in reference to her elevated fasting glucose. Overall, understanding PCOS and its diagnostic criteria is crucial for proper diagnosis and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of a red and sticky right eye that started yesterday. She mentions experiencing mild discomfort but is generally feeling fine. Upon examination, you observe swollen conjunctiva with redness in the eyelid and yellow-green discharge. Her visual acuity is normal. She has a medical history of rheumatoid arthritis and is currently taking paracetamol, codeine, methotrexate, and folic acid. You suspect that she has bacterial conjunctivitis.
Which of the following topical eye drops should be avoided in this scenario?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chloramphenicol
Explanation:Patients who are taking bone marrow suppression drugs, particularly methotrexate, should not use chloramphenicol eye drops.
Chloramphenicol is the appropriate choice, as it can exacerbate the effects of methotrexate on bone marrow suppression.
Cefuroxime, ciprofloxacin, gentamicin, and levofloxacin are not associated with bone marrow suppression.
Aplastic anaemia is a condition characterized by a decrease in the number of blood cells due to a poorly functioning bone marrow. It is most commonly seen in individuals around the age of 30 and is marked by a reduction in red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets. While lymphocytes may be relatively spared, the overall effect is a condition known as pancytopenia. In some cases, aplastic anaemia may be the first sign of acute lymphoblastic or myeloid leukaemia. A small number of patients may later develop paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria or myelodysplasia.
The causes of aplastic anaemia can be idiopathic, meaning that they are unknown, or they can be linked to congenital conditions such as Fanconi anaemia or dyskeratosis congenita. Certain drugs, such as cytotoxics, chloramphenicol, sulphonamides, phenytoin, and gold, as well as toxins like benzene, can also cause aplastic anaemia. Infections such as parvovirus and hepatitis, as well as exposure to radiation, can also contribute to the development of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 36-year-old cocaine user, Sarah, visits the clinic and asks for a prescription for methadone. She had taken methadone at 30 mg once a day last year. Sarah is currently using the same amount of cocaine as she did last year and wants to resume taking 30 mg of methadone to manage withdrawal symptoms. However, you have no experience prescribing methadone and feel unsure about doing so. What is the best course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Not prescribe methadone
Explanation:Prescribing methadone is a serious matter that requires an experienced and competent prescriber. It is important that the prescriber doesn’t feel pressured to prescribe the drug due to patient demands. As you are not confident in prescribing methadone, it would be unsafe for you to do so.
Before prescribing methadone, it is essential to confirm opioid dependence through a thorough history, examination, and toxicology screening using urine or oral fluid swabs. The prescribing process should involve a multidisciplinary team, including the patient’s drug team or local drug worker and pharmacist.
Methadone should be prescribed at a low dose and titrated upwards. The standard concentration is 1 mg/ml oral solution, with higher concentrations rarely used. The starting dose should be between 10 mg and 30 mg daily, depending on the amount and method of heroin or other opioids being used. Methadone is typically taken once daily.
Understanding Opioid Misuse and its Management
Opioid misuse is a serious problem that can lead to various complications and health risks. Opioids are substances that bind to opioid receptors, including natural opiates like morphine and synthetic opioids like buprenorphine and methadone. Signs of opioid misuse include rhinorrhoea, needle track marks, pinpoint pupils, drowsiness, watering eyes, and yawning.
Complications of opioid misuse can range from viral and bacterial infections to venous thromboembolism and overdose, which can lead to respiratory depression and death. Psychological and social problems such as craving, crime, prostitution, and homelessness can also arise.
In case of an opioid overdose, emergency management involves administering IV or IM naloxone, which has a rapid onset and relatively short duration of action. Harm reduction interventions such as needle exchange and testing for HIV, hepatitis B & C may also be offered.
Patients with opioid dependence are usually managed by specialist drug dependence clinics or GPs with a specialist interest. Treatment options may include maintenance therapy or detoxification, with methadone or buprenorphine recommended as the first-line treatment by NICE. Compliance is monitored using urinalysis, and detoxification can last up to 4 weeks in an inpatient/residential setting and up to 12 weeks in the community. Understanding opioid misuse and its management is crucial in addressing this growing public health concern.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman presents with complaints of lethargy and aching shoulders and upper arms. Suspecting polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR), what other symptom or sign is frequently associated with this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Back pain
Explanation:Polymyalgia Rheumatica: Symptoms and Presentation
Polymyalgia Rheumatica (PMR) is a condition that affects individuals over the age of 50. The core features of PMR include bilateral shoulder or pelvic ache, raised erythrocyte sedimentation rate/C reactive protein (ESR/CRP), morning stiffness, and up to 40% of patients may present with weight loss. In addition to these symptoms, patients may also experience systemic symptoms such as lethargy, loss of appetite, or a low-grade fever.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man visits the General Practitioner for a check-up after undergoing a corneal transplant. What is the most indicative sign of graft rejection?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Red eye, corneal clouding and decreased visual acuity
Explanation:postoperative Complications Following Corneal Transplant Surgery
Corneal transplant surgery is a common procedure used to treat various eye conditions. However, like any surgery, it can have complications. Here are some postoperative complications that may occur following corneal transplant surgery:
1. Corneal Graft Rejection: This occurs when the body’s immune system attacks the transplanted cornea. Symptoms include a red eye, corneal clouding, with or without uveitis, and decreased visual acuity. Treatment involves urgent referral and the use of topical and systemic steroids.
2. Early Graft Failure: This is usually due to defective donor endothelium or operative trauma. Symptoms include a red eye and decreased visual acuity.
3. Positive Seidel’s Test: This test is used to identify a penetrating injury. A positive test would show a wound leak after transplant surgery. Treatment involves urgent referral and surgical intervention.
4. Corneal Abrasion: Epithelial defects giving symptoms and signs of a corneal abrasion (pain and fluorescein staining) may occur in the postoperative period.
5. Protruding Sutures: A red eye with an associated foreign body sensation in the postoperative period might be produced by protruding sutures.
6. Watery Discharge: A watery discharge on its own doesn’t suggest graft rejection.
In conclusion, it is important to be aware of these potential complications and seek medical attention if any symptoms arise. Early detection and treatment can improve the chances of a successful outcome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner with a swollen ear. He plays amateur rugby and was punched during a match the previous day. The upper pinna is fluctuant and mildly erythematous, but there are no other injuries. What is the most suitable management option?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Early drainage and compression
Explanation:Auricular Haematoma: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Auricular haematoma is a common facial injury that results from direct trauma to the anterior auricle. It is often seen in athletes such as wrestlers, rugby players, and footballers. The condition occurs when shearing forces cause separation of the perichondrium from the underlying cartilage, leading to tearing of the perichondrial blood vessels and hematoma formation.
If left untreated, the haematoma can lead to avascular necrosis of the auricular cartilage, resulting in a ‘cauliflower ear’ deformity. To prevent this, evacuation of the haematoma is necessary. This can be done through aspiration with a 10 ml syringe attached to a wide needle or by incision and drainage. Compression is also necessary to prevent reoccurrence.
However, infection may be a complication, and if it worsens, patients may need to be admitted to the hospital for intravenous antibiotics and surgical exploration. Patients with recurrent haematomas or haematomas more than seven days old may also need surgical debridement.
In conclusion, auricular haematoma is a serious condition that requires prompt treatment to prevent complications. Athletes and individuals who engage in activities that put them at risk of this injury should take precautions to avoid it.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 66-year-old man undergoes routine blood tests at his General Practice Surgery. These reveal an estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) of 64 ml/min (normal range: > 90 ml/min).
A repeat test three months later gives an eGFR result of 62 ml/min. A urine albumin : creatinine ratio (ACR) is 2.5 mg/mmol (normal range: < 3 mg/mmol). He is otherwise well with no symptoms.
What is the most appropriate interpretation of these results?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: No CKD
Explanation:Understanding eGFR Results and CKD Stages
When interpreting eGFR results, it is important to consider other markers of kidney damage such as albuminuria. An eGFR of 60-89 ml/min is considered mild and not indicative of CKD in the absence of albuminuria.
A sustained reduction in eGFR over three months is not indicative of acute kidney injury, which typically involves a sudden and drastic reduction in eGFR.
CKD stage 1 is diagnosed when eGFR is >90 ml/min and there is proteinuria (urine ACR >3 mg/mmol). This patient’s eGFR result of 62 ml/min and ACR of 2.5 mg/mmol doesn’t meet these criteria.
CKD stage 2 is diagnosed when eGFR is 60-89 ml/min and ACR is >3 mg/mmol. While the patient’s eGFR result fits this criteria, the sustained drop and normal ACR exclude this diagnosis.
CKD stage 3a is diagnosed when eGFR is 45-59 ml/min with or without other markers of kidney damage. This patient doesn’t meet this diagnostic marker.
In summary, understanding eGFR results and other markers of kidney damage is crucial in determining CKD stages.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A GP receives a shared care document from the dementia specialist team, requesting him to take over the prescribing of donepezil for a patient with Alzheimer's disease. If the patient's repeat prescription includes which medication, it may pose the most significant potential contraindication to donepezil?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Verapamil
Explanation:The acetylcholinesterase inhibitors (donepezil, rivastigmine and galantamine) can cause bradycardia, SA block or AV block, which are important potential side effects. Therefore, caution should be exercised when prescribing these medications to patients with conduction abnormalities or those taking negatively chronotropic medications such as beta blockers, rate-limiting calcium channel blockers or digoxin. Other possible side effects include gastrointestinal symptoms (nausea, vomiting, anorexia, diarrhea), agitation, hallucinations, syncope, and less commonly gastrointestinal ulcers, seizures, conduction disorders, urinary retention and extrapyramidal symptoms. The BNF also lists neuroleptic malignant syndrome as a very rare adverse reaction.
Currently, only specialists with expertise in prescribing these medications (such as Psychiatrists, Elderly Care specialists, Neurologists) are authorized to initiate their use. However, GPs may be asked to take over prescribing and monitoring of these medications under Shared Care Agreements. Therefore, it is important for GPs to be aware of the potential prescribing issues.
Dementia is a condition that affects a significant number of people in the UK, with Alzheimer’s disease being the most common cause followed by vascular and Lewy body dementia. Diagnosis can be challenging and often delayed, but assessment tools such as the 10-point cognitive screener and 6-Item cognitive impairment test are recommended by NICE for non-specialist settings. However, tools like the abbreviated mental test score, General practitioner assessment of cognition, and mini-mental state examination are not recommended. A score of 24 or less out of 30 on the MMSE suggests dementia.
In primary care, a blood screen is usually conducted to exclude reversible causes like hypothyroidism. NICE recommends tests such as FBC, U&E, LFTs, calcium, glucose, ESR/CRP, TFTs, vitamin B12, and folate levels. Patients are often referred to old-age psychiatrists working in memory clinics. In secondary care, neuroimaging is performed to exclude other reversible conditions like subdural haematoma and normal pressure hydrocephalus and provide information on aetiology to guide prognosis and management. The 2011 NICE guidelines state that structural imaging is essential in investigating dementia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old man urgently books an appointment at your clinic. He complains of left-sided facial pain and malaise that has been ongoing for two weeks. He mentions that his symptoms initially improved after a week, but then worsened again, and he now feels worse than he did initially. He has no significant medical history.
During the examination, you note a low-grade fever of 37.9 degrees, but all other observations are normal. Anterior rhinoscopy reveals a purulent discharge from the left middle meatus, but there are no abnormalities in the eyes or periorbital tissues.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bacterial sinusitis
Explanation:The man’s symptoms suggest bacterial sinusitis, as he has experienced a double sickening where his symptoms initially improved but then suddenly worsened. This is often caused by a secondary bacterial infection following a viral rhinosinusitis. The presence of a fever and purulent discharge seen on rhinoscopy further support this diagnosis.
Trigeminal neuralgia would not cause a fever, while sialadenitis would result in swelling of only one salivary gland. Cavernous sinus thrombosis is a rare complication of bacterial sinusitis and is not likely in this case.
Acute sinusitis is a condition where the mucous membranes of the paranasal sinuses become inflamed. This inflammation is usually caused by infectious agents such as Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenza, and rhinoviruses. Certain factors can predispose individuals to this condition, including nasal obstruction, recent local infections, swimming/diving, and smoking. Symptoms of acute sinusitis include facial pain, nasal discharge, and nasal obstruction. Treatment options include analgesia, intranasal decongestants or nasal saline, and intranasal corticosteroids. Oral antibiotics may be necessary for severe presentations, but they are not typically required. In some cases, an initial viral sinusitis can worsen due to secondary bacterial infection, which is known as double-sickening.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old patient of yours has terminal lung cancer and is taking morphine. One day you visit him at home to review his medication and check on symptoms. He and his wife are both confused with dosing and think he may have taken too much.
Which of the following symptoms and signs suggests opioid toxicity?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pinpoint pupils
Explanation:Opioid Toxicity and Pain Management in MRCGP Curriculum
Pinpoint pupils, confusion, nightmares, agitation, hypotension, depressed respiration, and myoclonus are all indicative of opioid toxicity. It is important to recognize these symptoms as they can be life-threatening. As part of the MRCGP curriculum, it is essential to have a thorough understanding of pain management, including the most commonly used drugs and any potential adverse effects or interactions. This knowledge will enable healthcare professionals to provide effective pain relief while minimizing the risk of opioid toxicity. Therefore, it is crucial to prioritize this aspect of the curriculum to ensure that doctors are equipped to manage pain in their patients safely and effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man presents to the clinic with symptoms of acute sinusitis. He had a severe cold 10 days ago and thought he was recovering, but now has pain over his left cheek and a purulent nasal discharge, more pronounced from the left nostril. On examination, he is febrile with a temperature of 38.5°C and is tender when pressure is applied over the left maxilla. As he is feeling unwell, you decide to prescribe antibiotics, but he has a penicillin allergy. What would be your approach to treating this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Doxycycline for 5 days
Explanation:Antibiotic Treatment for Acute Sinusitis
Some important points to consider when treating acute sinusitis with antibiotics include the choice and duration of treatment. It is important to note that NICE CKS doesn’t recommend antibiotic treatment for uncomplicated acute sinusitis lasting 10 days or less. However, if antibiotic treatment is deemed appropriate, it is crucial to be familiar with the options available.
For patients who are not allergic to penicillin, a 5-day course of Phenoxymethylpenicillin is the first choice. However, if the patient is allergic to penicillin, the options are limited to a 5-day course of doxycycline or a 7-day course of Clarithromycin. It is important to read the question carefully and take note of any allergies mentioned in the vignette.
In summary, when considering antibiotic treatment for acute sinusitis, it is important to follow NICE CKS guidelines and be aware of the appropriate choice and duration of treatment based on the patient’s allergy status.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old man visits his GP complaining of a rash. During the examination, the doctor observes multiple distinct purple papules on the patient's forearms. The papules have thin white lines visible on them. The patient reports that the lesions are extremely itchy but not painful and wants to know if there is any treatment available to alleviate the symptoms. What is the best course of action for managing this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Topical steroids
Explanation:The first-line treatment for lichen planus is potent topical steroids.
This statement accurately reflects the recommended treatment for lichen planus, which is a rash characterized by itchy purple polygonal papules with white lines known as Wickham’s striae. While the condition can persist for up to 18 months, topical steroids are typically effective in relieving symptoms. Oral steroids may be necessary in severe cases, but are not typically used as a first-line treatment. No treatment is not recommended, as the symptoms can be distressing for patients. Topical retinoids are not indicated for lichen planus, as they are used for acne vulgaris.
Lichen planus is a skin condition that has an unknown cause, but is believed to be related to the immune system. It is characterized by an itchy rash that appears as small bumps on the palms, soles, genital area, and inner surfaces of the arms. The rash often has a polygonal shape and a distinctive pattern of white lines on the surface, known as Wickham’s striae. In some cases, new skin lesions may appear at the site of trauma, a phenomenon known as the Koebner phenomenon. Oral involvement is common, with around 50% of patients experiencing a white-lace pattern on the buccal mucosa. Nail changes, such as thinning of the nail plate and longitudinal ridging, may also occur.
Lichenoid drug eruptions can be caused by certain medications, including gold, quinine, and thiazides. Treatment for lichen planus typically involves the use of potent topical steroids. For oral lichen planus, benzydamine mouthwash or spray is recommended. In more severe cases, oral steroids or immunosuppressive medications may be necessary. Overall, lichen planus can be a challenging condition to manage, but with proper treatment, symptoms can be controlled and quality of life can be improved.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner with sudden back pain that radiates down to her left ankle. During the examination, there is a loss of sensation over the lateral side of her left foot and calf, and the Achilles reflex is diminished. The straight leg raising test is positive. Her BMI is 32 kg/m2. Her full blood count, liver function tests, and renal function tests are normal. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lumbar disc prolapse
Explanation:Understanding Lumbar Disc Prolapse and Differential Diagnosis
Lumbar disc prolapse occurs when a herniated disc in the lumbosacral spine compresses a lumbar nerve root, resulting in sciatica symptoms such as unilateral leg pain, numbness, weakness, and loss of tendon reflexes. The most common level affected is L5/S1, and pain is usually relieved by lying down. Differential diagnosis includes osteoarthritis, osteomalacia, osteoporosis, and spinal stenosis. Osteoarthritis may cause localized back pain without radiation or sensory loss, while osteomalacia presents with raised alkaline phosphatase and parathyroid hormone levels and low 25-hydroxycholecalciferol levels. Osteoporosis is unlikely in a young patient and doesn’t typically cause pain. Spinal stenosis is a disease of the elderly, presenting with pseudo claudication and a negative straight leg raising test.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old man comes to you with complaints of fatigue, overall weakness, and weight loss that have been going on for the past 4 months. He also reports experiencing pain in his second and third fingers for the past month and has been having increasing difficulty with erectile dysfunction. You suspect that he may have hereditary haemochromatosis and order blood tests.
What result would be most consistent with your suspected diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ferritin - high; serum iron - high; total iron binding capacity - low; transferrin saturation - high
Explanation:Haemochromatosis is characterised by elevated levels of ferritin and transferrin saturation, along with a low total iron-binding capacity on iron studies. This hereditary disorder leads to an excessive accumulation of iron. Any options that do not show raised levels of ferritin and transferrin saturation can be excluded during initial screening. Transferrin is a plasma protein responsible for transporting iron, and its levels increase during iron deficiency to maximise iron utilisation. Total iron-binding capacity reflects the availability of iron-binding sites on transferrin, and its levels increase during iron deficiency and decrease during iron overload. Therefore, a low total iron-binding capacity is expected in haemochromatosis.
Understanding Haemochromatosis: Investigation and Management
Haemochromatosis is a genetic disorder that causes iron accumulation in the body due to mutations in the HFE gene. The best investigation to screen for haemochromatosis is still a topic of debate. For the general population, transferrin saturation is considered the most useful marker, while genetic testing for HFE mutation is recommended for testing family members. Diagnostic tests include molecular genetic testing for the C282Y and H63D mutations and liver biopsy using Perl’s stain.
A typical iron study profile in patients with haemochromatosis includes high transferrin saturation levels, raised ferritin and iron, and low TIBC. The first-line treatment for haemochromatosis is venesection, which involves removing blood from the body to reduce iron levels. Transferrin saturation should be kept below 50%, and the serum ferritin concentration should be below 50 ug/l to monitor the adequacy of venesection. If venesection is not effective, desferrioxamine may be used as a second-line treatment. Joint x-rays may also show chondrocalcinosis, which is a characteristic feature of haemochromatosis.
It is important to note that there are rare cases of families with classic features of genetic haemochromatosis but no mutation in the HFE gene. As HFE gene analysis becomes less expensive, guidelines for investigating and managing haemochromatosis may change.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 7-year-old boy has developed involuntary movements of his arms and face over the last few days. Some of these he converts into apparently purposeful movement by pushing back his hair or scratching his nose. There is reduced tone in the limbs, and he is unsteady. He seems unconcerned and intermittently giggles. His mother tells you that he had a sore throat four weeks previously.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sydenham’s chorea
Explanation:Understanding Sydenham’s Chorea: A Common Cause of Acute Chorea Worldwide
Sydenham’s chorea, also known as St Vitus’ dance, is a neurological manifestation of rheumatic fever and remains the most common cause of acute chorea worldwide. While it was commonly seen in the 1930s, it occurs less frequently in the UK today. This condition can occur with or without symptoms of rheumatic fever and is usually self-limiting. Improvement occurs over about two weeks, but total recovery can take up to nine months, and may recur in some patients.
In this scenario, the short time course of the chorea and the girl’s age are useful diagnostically. It is important to note that psychological changes may precede or accompany the choreiform movements, as demonstrated by the girl’s emotional lability.
It is important to consider other potential causes of chorea, such as cerebral tumour, cerebrovascular accident, Guillain–Barré syndrome, and Huntington’s chorea. However, in this case, these conditions are unlikely as they do not fit with the girl’s symptoms and age.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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