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  • Question 1 - An 80-year-old man is admitted to the hospital with increasing pains in his...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old man is admitted to the hospital with increasing pains in his left hip, lumbar spine, and ribs, more recently associated with confusion, weakness, and falls. Routine investigations reveal low hemoglobin, high mean corpuscular volume, low white cell count, low platelets, high sodium, high urea, high creatinine, high corrected calcium, low PO42-, high alkaline phosphatase, and high erythrocyte sedimentation rate. Based on this presentation and blood results, what is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Multiple myeloma

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Bone Pain and Confusion

      A patient presents with bone pain, confusion, pancytopenia with macrocytosis, renal impairment, hypercalcaemia, and an ESR >100 mm/hour. The most likely diagnosis is multiple myeloma, as lytic bone lesions are causing the pain and hypercalcaemia is causing the confusion. Further testing for myeloma should be done, including radiographs, urinary Bence-Jones proteins, and serum electrophoresis.

      Other possible diagnoses include small cell carcinoma of the lung, but the pancytopenia and renal impairment make multiple myeloma more likely. Chronic myeloid leukaemia could also cause a raised white cell count, but fever and night sweats are more common symptoms. Hyperparathyroidism is unlikely due to the presence of pancytopenia, and myelofibrosis is a rare diagnosis that may also present with bone pain and pancytopenia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      26.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 50-year-old man was seen in the Dermatology Outpatient Clinic with a chronic...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man was seen in the Dermatology Outpatient Clinic with a chronic ulcer on his left forearm. On enquiry by the consultant, he revealed that he suffered full-thickness burn at the site of the ulcer nearly 20 years ago. The consultant told the patient he had a Marjolin’s ulcer.
      Which of the following statements best describes a Marjolin’s ulcer?

      Your Answer: It is usually associated with secondary deposits in the regional lymph nodes

      Correct Answer: It is often painless

      Explanation:

      Understanding Marjolin’s Ulcer: A Squamous Cell Carcinoma in Scar Tissue

      Marjolin’s ulcer is a type of squamous cell carcinoma that develops in scar tissue. This condition is often associated with chronic wounds and scar tissues, which are prone to an increased risk for skin cancer. While it most frequently occurs in old burn scars, it can also develop in relation to other types of injuries and wounds.

      One of the unique characteristics of Marjolin’s ulcer is that it grows slowly due to the scar tissue being relatively avascular. Additionally, it is painless because the tissue contains no nerves. While it typically appears in adults around 53-59 years of age, the latency period between the initial injury and the appearance of cancer can be 25-40 years.

      Contrary to popular belief, Marjolin’s ulcer is not a sarcoma. Instead, it is a squamous cell carcinoma that can invade normal tissue surrounding the scar and extend at a normal rate. While secondary deposits do not occur in the regional lymph nodes due to the destruction of lymphatic vessels, lymph nodes can become involved if the ulcer invades normal tissue.

      In conclusion, understanding Marjolin’s ulcer is crucial for individuals who have experienced chronic wounds or scar tissue. Early detection and treatment can greatly improve outcomes and prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      12.4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 42-year-old woman presents to her GP with concerns about symptoms that have...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old woman presents to her GP with concerns about symptoms that have been affecting her for several years but are now becoming more disruptive to her daily life. She has been experiencing obsessive thoughts about her loved ones being harmed and feels compelled to perform certain rituals to prevent this from happening. She spends hours each day checking and rechecking that appliances are turned off and doors are locked. Her relationships are suffering, and she is struggling to maintain her job. She is hesitant to take medication but is open to exploring other treatment options.
      What is the most appropriate psychological approach for managing OCD in this case?

      Your Answer: Exposure response prevention (ERP) and cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT)

      Explanation:

      Different Therapies for OCD: A Comparison

      Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is a mental health condition that can be managed with various therapies. The most effective ones are exposure response prevention (ERP) and cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT), which are recommended by the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE). ERP involves exposing the patient to situations that trigger their compulsive behaviour while preventing them from acting on it. CBT, on the other hand, focuses on changing the patient’s thoughts, beliefs, and attitudes that contribute to their OCD.

      Transactional analysis and psychoanalysis are not recommended for treating OCD as there is no evidence to support their use. Transactional analysis involves analysing social transactions to determine the ego state of the patient, while psychoanalysis involves exploring the unconscious to resolve underlying conflicts.

      Counselling is also not appropriate for managing OCD as it is non-directive and does not provide specific coping skills.

      Eye movement desensitisation and reprocessing (EMDR) is not effective for treating OCD either, as it is primarily used for post-traumatic stress disorder. EMDR combines rapid eye movement with cognitive tasks to help patients process traumatic experiences.

      In conclusion, ERP and CBT are the most effective therapies for managing OCD, while other therapies such as transactional analysis, psychoanalysis, counselling, and EMDR are not recommended.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      20.3
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 35-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician with concerns about her...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician with concerns about her inability to conceive despite trying for two years with her regular partner. She has a BMI of 29 kg/m² and a known history of polycystic ovarian syndrome. What medication would be the most effective in restoring regular ovulation in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Metformin

      Explanation:

      For overweight or obese women with polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) who are having difficulty getting pregnant, the initial approach is weight loss. If weight loss is not successful, either due to the woman’s inability to lose weight or failure to conceive despite weight loss, metformin can be used as an additional treatment.

      Managing Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome

      Polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) is a condition that affects a significant percentage of women of reproductive age. The exact cause of PCOS is not fully understood, but it is associated with high levels of luteinizing hormone and hyperinsulinemia. Management of PCOS is complex and varies depending on the individual’s symptoms. Weight reduction is often recommended, and a combined oral contraceptive pill may be used to regulate menstrual cycles and manage hirsutism and acne. If these symptoms do not respond to the pill, topical eflornithine or medications like spironolactone, flutamide, and finasteride may be used under specialist supervision.

      Infertility is another common issue associated with PCOS. Weight reduction is recommended, and the management of infertility should be supervised by a specialist. There is ongoing debate about the most effective treatment for infertility in patients with PCOS. Clomiphene is often used, but there is a potential risk of multiple pregnancies with anti-oestrogen therapies like Clomiphene. Metformin is also used, either alone or in combination with Clomiphene, particularly in patients who are obese. Gonadotrophins may also be used to stimulate ovulation. The Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (RCOG) published an opinion paper in 2008 and concluded that on current evidence, metformin is not a first-line treatment of choice in the management of PCOS.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      21.4
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 58-year-old patient presents to the clinic with a chief complaint of reduced...

    Correct

    • A 58-year-old patient presents to the clinic with a chief complaint of reduced night vision. Upon reviewing the patient's medical history, it is noted that they have a history of pancreatic insufficiency and experience chronic diarrhea and malabsorption.

      Which vitamin deficiency is commonly associated with issues related to night vision?

      Your Answer: Vitamin A

      Explanation:

      The Role of Vitamin A in Night Vision

      Vitamin A is essential for the production of rhodopsin, a protein found in the retina that is responsible for converting light into energy. This process involves the conversion of vitamin A into 11-cis retinal or all-trans retinol, which is stored in the pigment layer of the retina. Isomerase is an enzyme that plays a crucial role in the production of 11-cis retinal, which is then used to produce rhodopsin.

      A deficiency in vitamin A can lead to a problem with night vision, as the body is unable to produce enough rhodopsin to respond to changes in light. This can result in difficulty seeing in low light conditions, such as when driving at night or in dimly lit environments. It is important to ensure that the body receives an adequate amount of vitamin A through a balanced diet or supplements to maintain healthy vision.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      10
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 25-year-old female presents with an ectopic pregnancy and requires surgical intervention. During...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old female presents with an ectopic pregnancy and requires surgical intervention. During laparoscopy, what is the most common location for the ectopic pregnancy to be found?

      Your Answer: Ampulla

      Explanation:

      The most frequent location for ectopic pregnancy is the ampulla of the fallopian tube. While other sites are also feasible, the ampulla is the most prevalent, making it the most suitable response.

      Understanding Ectopic Pregnancy: The Pathophysiology

      Ectopic pregnancy is a medical condition where the fertilized egg implants outside the uterus, usually in the fallopian tube. According to statistics, 97% of ectopic pregnancies occur in the fallopian tube, with most of them happening in the ampulla. However, if the implantation occurs in the isthmus, it can be more dangerous. The remaining 3% of ectopic pregnancies can occur in the ovary, cervix, or peritoneum.

      During ectopic pregnancy, the trophoblast, which is the outer layer of the fertilized egg, invades the tubal wall, leading to bleeding that may dislodge the embryo. The natural history of ectopic pregnancy involves three possible outcomes: absorption, tubal abortion, or tubal rupture.

      Tubal abortion occurs when the embryo dies, and the body expels it along with the blood. On the other hand, tubal absorption occurs when the tube does not rupture, and the blood and embryo are either shed or converted into a tubal mole and absorbed. However, if the tube ruptures, it can lead to severe bleeding, shock, and even death.

      In conclusion, understanding the pathophysiology of ectopic pregnancy is crucial in diagnosing and managing this potentially life-threatening condition. Early detection and prompt treatment can help prevent complications and improve outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      5.3
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 41-year-old man presents with wheezing and shortness of breath. He reports no...

    Incorrect

    • A 41-year-old man presents with wheezing and shortness of breath. He reports no history of smoking or drug use. An ultrasound reveals cirrhosis of the liver, and he is diagnosed with alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency. He undergoes a liver transplant. What type of emphysema is he now at higher risk of developing?

      Your Answer: Interstitial

      Correct Answer: Panacinar

      Explanation:

      Different Types of Emphysema and Their Characteristics

      Emphysema is a lung condition that has various forms, each with its own distinct characteristics. The four main types of emphysema are panacinar, compensatory, interstitial, centriacinar, and paraseptal.

      Panacinar emphysema affects the entire acinus, from the respiratory bronchiole to the distal alveoli. It is often associated with α-1-antitrypsin deficiency.

      Compensatory emphysema occurs when the lung parenchyma is scarred, but it is usually asymptomatic.

      Interstitial emphysema is not a true form of emphysema, but rather occurs when air penetrates the pulmonary interstitium. It can be caused by chest wounds or alveolar tears resulting from coughing and airway obstruction.

      Centriacinar emphysema is characterized by enlargement of the central portions of the acinus, specifically the respiratory bronchiole. It is often caused by exposure to coal dust and tobacco products.

      Paraseptal emphysema is associated with scarring and can lead to spontaneous pneumothorax in young patients. It is more severe when it occurs in areas adjacent to the pleura, where it can cause the development of large, cyst-like structures that can rupture into the pleural cavity.

      In summary, understanding the different types of emphysema and their characteristics is important for proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      16.6
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 50-year-old man is worried about pain control during his upcoming radical prostatectomy....

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man is worried about pain control during his upcoming radical prostatectomy. The consultant goes over various options, including general and regional anesthesia. What is a definite reason to avoid using regional anesthesia, such as spinal, epidural, or plexus block?

      Your Answer: Concurrent administration of therapeutic dose of warfarin

      Explanation:

      The use of regional anesthesia is not recommended for patients undergoing therapeutic anticoagulation due to the potential risk of bleeding and the severity of hematoma formation within the central nervous system. To prepare for surgery, warfarin is typically discontinued five days prior and replaced with a Low Molecular Weight Heparin, with the dosage determined by the individual’s thrombosis risk stratification (such as CHADs score or time from pulmonary embolism). Additionally, the patient’s INR should be monitored and ideally kept below 1.4, while also ensuring there are no other coagulation abnormalities present.

      Pain management can be achieved through various methods, including the use of analgesic drugs and local anesthetics. The World Health Organisation (WHO) recommends a stepwise approach to pain management, starting with peripherally acting drugs such as paracetamol or non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs). If pain control is not achieved, weak opioid drugs such as codeine or dextropropoxyphene can be introduced, followed by strong opioids such as morphine as a final option. Local anesthetics can also be used to provide pain relief, either through infiltration of a wound or blockade of plexuses or peripheral nerves.

      For acute pain management, the World Federation of Societies of Anaesthesiologists (WFSA) recommends a similar approach, starting with strong analgesics in combination with local anesthetic blocks and peripherally acting drugs. The use of strong opioids may no longer be required once the oral route can be used to deliver analgesia, and peripherally acting agents and weak opioids can be used instead. The final step is when pain can be controlled by peripherally acting agents alone.

      Local anesthetics can be administered through infiltration of a wound with a long-acting agent such as Bupivacaine, providing several hours of pain relief. Blockade of plexuses or peripheral nerves can also provide selective analgesia, either for surgery or postoperative pain relief. Spinal and epidural anesthesia are other options, with spinal anesthesia providing excellent analgesia for lower body surgery and epidural anesthesia providing continuous infusion of analgesic agents. Transversus Abdominal Plane block (TAP) is a technique that uses ultrasound to identify the correct muscle plane and injects local anesthetic to block spinal nerves, providing a wide field of blockade without the need for indwelling devices.

      Patient Controlled Analgesia (PCA) allows patients to administer their own intravenous analgesia and titrate the dose to their own end-point of pain relief using a microprocessor-controlled pump. Opioids such as morphine and pethidine are commonly used, but caution is advised due to potential side effects and toxicity. Non-opioid analgesics such as paracetamol and NSAIDs can also be used, with NSAIDs being more useful for superficial pain and having relative contraindications for certain medical conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      10.7
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 68-year-old woman presents with a one-month history of non-specific malaise. She experiences...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old woman presents with a one-month history of non-specific malaise. She experiences stiffness, particularly in the mornings, and has difficulty lifting her arms to comb her hair. She also has constant pain in her arms, shoulders, and jaw when chewing. She has lost 4 kg in weight and has a persistent headache. She smokes 10 cigarettes a day and drinks 10 units of alcohol per week. On examination, she has tenderness with reduced mobility in the proximal muscles of her arms and legs. Her investigations reveal a low Hb, high WCC, and elevated ESR. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Polymyalgia rheumatica

      Explanation:

      Polymyalgia Rheumatica/Temporal arthritis: Symptoms and Treatment

      Polymyalgia rheumatica/temporal arthritis is a condition that can cause a variety of symptoms. It may present with predominantly polymyalgia symptoms such as muscle pain and stiffness, or arthritis symptoms such as headaches, scalp tenderness, and jaw claudication. Systemic features like fever, malaise, and weight loss may also be present. Weakness is not a typical feature, but it may be apparent due to pain or stiffness with weight loss. The ESR (erythrocyte sedimentation rate) is usually very high in this condition.

      Temporal arthritis is a serious complication of this condition that can result in blindness. It is important to note that temporal arthritis is a vasculitis that affects medium and large-sized arteries throughout the body, not just the temporal artery. The superficial temporal artery supplies the orbit of the eye and is a branch of the external carotid artery, while the ophthalmic artery supplies the majority of the blood to the eye itself and is a branch of the internal carotid artery. Inflammation and narrowing of the temporal artery can cause blindness.

      If temporal arthritis is suspected, it must be treated with high-dose steroids. This condition is a reminder that prompt diagnosis and treatment are crucial to prevent serious complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      15
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - You are called to see a 27-year-old primiparous woman who has just delivered...

    Correct

    • You are called to see a 27-year-old primiparous woman who has just delivered via spontaneous vaginal delivery. She had an active third stage of labour with 10 mg of Syntocinon® administered intramuscularly. The placenta was delivered ten minutes ago and appears complete. The midwife has called you, as there is a continuous small stream of fresh red blood loss. It is estimated that the patient has lost 1050 ml of blood so far. You palpate the abdomen, and you cannot feel any uterine contractions.
      Observations:
      Heart rate (HR) 107 bpm
      Blood pressure (BP) 158/105 mmHg
      Temperature 37.1 °C
      Respiratory rate (RR) 18 breaths per minute
      Oxygen saturations 98% on air
      Which of the following is the next step in this patient’s management?

      Your Answer: Uterine massage and oxytocin infusion

      Explanation:

      Management of Postpartum Hemorrhage: Conservative and Pharmacological Methods

      Postpartum hemorrhage is a common complication of childbirth and can be life-threatening if not managed promptly. The causes of postpartum hemorrhage fall under four categories, known as the 4Ts: tissue problems, tone problems, trauma, and thrombin. In cases of uterine atony, which is the most common cause of postpartum hemorrhage, conservative and pharmacological methods should be employed first.

      The initial assessment should include securing two large-bore cannulae, sending blood for urgent full blood count, group and save, clotting and crossmatch of four units of blood, and commencing intravenous fluids. Uterine massage of the fundus, as well as an oxytocin infusion, should be the first step in management. If pharmacological methods fail to arrest the bleeding, then an intrauterine balloon can be employed as second line. If this still fails, the patient should be transferred to theatre for exploration and hysterectomy if necessary.

      Ergometrine is contraindicated in women with hypertension, and therefore, should not be used in patients with a raised blood pressure. Hysterectomy is a last resort in women with massive postpartum hemorrhage where mechanical and pharmacological methods have failed to stop the bleeding and the patient is haemodynamically compromised. Intrauterine balloon tamponade is an effective mechanical method to stop postpartum hemorrhage in cases where other methods have failed.

      It is important to ensure that blood is available if necessary, but transfusion should not be treated lightly due to the potential for severe complications. An up-to-date hemoglobin level should be obtained, and the patient should be fluid-resuscitated and monitored before any decision for transfusion. Overall, prompt and appropriate management of postpartum hemorrhage is crucial for ensuring positive maternal outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      8.3
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 44-year-old woman who is undergoing treatment for breast cancer has collapsed and...

    Incorrect

    • A 44-year-old woman who is undergoing treatment for breast cancer has collapsed and has been brought to the Emergency Department. Upon regaining consciousness, she reports experiencing chest pain, shortness of breath, and reduced exercise capacity for the past 3 days. During auscultation, a loud pulmonary second heart sound is detected. An electrocardiogram (ECG) reveals right axis deviation and tall R-waves with T-wave inversion in V1-V3. The chest X-ray appears normal.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM)

      Correct Answer: Multiple pulmonary emboli

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Collapse and Reduced Exercise Capacity

      A patient presents with collapse and reduced exercise capacity. Upon examination, there is evidence of right ventricular hypertrophy and pulmonary hypertension (loud P2). The following are potential diagnoses:

      1. Multiple Pulmonary Emboli: This is the most likely cause, especially given the patient’s underlying cancer that predisposes to deep vein thrombosis. A computed tomography pulmonary angiography is the investigation of choice.

      2. Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy (HCM): While HCM could present with collapse and ECG changes, it is less common and not known to cause shortness of breath. The patient’s risk factors of malignancy, symptoms of shortness of breath, and signs of a loud pulmonary second heart sound make pulmonary embolism more likely than HCM.

      3. Idiopathic Pulmonary Arterial Hypertension: This condition can present with reduced exercise capacity, chest pain, and syncope, loud P2, and features of right ventricular hypertrophy. However, it is less common, and the patient has an obvious predisposing factor to thrombosis, making pulmonary emboli a more likely diagnosis.

      4. Angina: Angina typically presents with exertional chest pain and breathlessness, which is not consistent with the patient’s history.

      5. Ventricular Tachycardia: While ventricular tachycardia can cause collapse, it does not explain any of the other findings.

      In summary, multiple pulmonary emboli are the most likely cause of the patient’s symptoms, but other potential diagnoses should also be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      28.7
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 65-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with sudden onset epigastric discomfort....

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with sudden onset epigastric discomfort. He has a significant past medical history of hypercholesterolaemia and type II diabetes mellitus, and he is a heavy smoker. On examination, his pulse is 30 bpm; he is hypotensive and has distended neck veins. The chest is clear to auscultation. Initial blood tests reveal an elevated troponin level, and an electrocardiogram (ECG) shows hyperacute T-waves in leads II, III and aVF.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Anterior myocardial infarction (MI)

      Correct Answer: Right/inferior MI

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Different Types of Myocardial Infarction: A Guide to ECG Changes and Symptoms

      Myocardial infarction (MI) can occur in different areas of the heart, depending on which artery is occluded. Right/inferior MIs, which account for up to 40-50% of cases, are caused by occlusion of the RCA or, less commonly, a dominant left circumflex artery. Symptoms include bradycardia, hypotension, and a clear chest on auscultation. Conduction disturbances, particularly type II and III heart blocks, are also common. ECG changes include ST-segment elevation in leads II, III, and aVF, and reciprocal ST-segment depression in aVL (± lead I).

      Anterolateral MIs are possible, but less likely to present with bradycardia, hypotension, and a clear chest. An anterior MI, caused by occlusion of the LAD, is associated with tachycardia rather than bradycardia.

      Other conditions, such as acute pulmonary edema and pulmonary embolism, may present with similar symptoms but have different ECG changes and additional features. Understanding the ECG changes and symptoms associated with different types of MI can help with accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      27.7
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Which of the following would be most consistent with a histologically aggressive form...

    Correct

    • Which of the following would be most consistent with a histologically aggressive form of prostate cancer?

      Your Answer: Gleason score of 10

      Explanation:

      The Gleason score is utilized to grade prostate cancer based on its histology, with a score of 10 indicating a highly aggressive form of the disease. Gynecological malignancies are staged using the FIGO system, while the EuroQOL score serves as a tool for measuring quality of life.

      Prostate cancer is a common condition that affects up to 30,000 men each year in the UK, with up to 9,000 dying from the disease annually. Early prostate cancers often have few symptoms, while metastatic disease may present as bone pain and locally advanced disease may present as pelvic pain or urinary symptoms. Diagnosis involves prostate specific antigen measurement, digital rectal examination, trans rectal USS (+/- biopsy), and MRI/CT and bone scan for staging. The normal upper limit for PSA is 4ng/ml, but false positives may occur due to prostatitis, UTI, BPH, or vigorous DRE. Pathology shows that 95% of prostate cancers are adenocarcinomas, and grading is done using the Gleason grading system. Treatment options include watchful waiting, radiotherapy, surgery, and hormonal therapy. The National Institute for Clinical Excellence (NICE) recommends active surveillance as the preferred option for low-risk men, with treatment decisions made based on the individual’s co-morbidities and life expectancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      8.4
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 16-year-old woman is admitted surgically with acute-onset lower abdominal pain. On examination,...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old woman is admitted surgically with acute-onset lower abdominal pain. On examination, she has a tender left iliac fossa.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate next test?

      Your Answer: Pregnancy test (ß-hCG)

      Explanation:

      Investigations for Abdominal Pain in Women of Childbearing Age

      When a woman of childbearing age presents with abdominal pain, it is important to consider the possibility of gynaecological problems, including ectopic pregnancy. The first step in investigation should be to ask about the patient’s last menstrual period and sexual history, and to perform a pregnancy test measuring β-human chorionic gonadotrophin (β-hCG) levels in urine or serum.

      Proctoscopy is unlikely to be beneficial in the absence of specific gastrointestinal symptoms. Ultrasonography may be useful at a later stage to assess the location and severity of an ectopic pregnancy, but transvaginal ultrasound is preferable to transcutaneous abdominal ultrasound.

      Specialist gynaecological opinion should only be sought once there is a high index of suspicion for a particular diagnosis. Laparoscopy is not indicated at this point, as less invasive tests are likely to yield the diagnosis. Exploratory laparoscopy may be considered if other investigations are inconclusive.

      Investigating Abdominal Pain in Women of Childbearing Age

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      21.7
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 1-day-old child is found to have absent femoral pulses and a systolic...

    Correct

    • A 1-day-old child is found to have absent femoral pulses and a systolic ejection murmur over the left side of their chest and back upon their routine examination. Their brachial pulses are strong. They appear pale and are tachypnoeic. They have not managed to eat much solid food, as they become distressed.

      Which of the following statements about their condition is true?

      Your Answer: May be treated by balloon angioplasty with or without stenting

      Explanation:

      Coarctation of the Aorta: Diagnosis and Treatment Options

      Coarctation of the aorta is a congenital condition that causes narrowing of the aorta, most commonly at the site of insertion of the ductus arteriosus. Diagnosis can be made antenatally or after birth upon newborn examination. Treatment options include surgical repair or balloon angioplasty and/or stenting. If diagnosed antenatally, prostaglandin is given to encourage the ductus arteriosus to remain patent until repair is performed. Less severe cases can present in older children with symptoms such as leg pain, tiredness, dizzy spells, or an incidental finding of a murmur. Following repair, there are rarely any long-term complications, but re-coarctation can occur. Balloon angioplasty, with or without stenting, can be used in some circumstances, rather than surgical reconstruction. It is important to monitor for hypertension and/or premature cardiovascular or cerebrovascular disease in adults with a previous history of coarctation of the aorta.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      280.1
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 35-year-old man presents with sudden-onset chest pain described as tearing in nature....

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man presents with sudden-onset chest pain described as tearing in nature. Upon examination, a diastolic murmur consistent with aortic regurgitation is detected. Further testing with chest computerised tomography (CT) confirms an ascending aortic dissection. The patient has a history of spontaneous pneumothorax and upward lens dislocation, but no significant family history. What is the probable underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ehlers–Danlos syndrome

      Correct Answer: Marfan syndrome

      Explanation:

      Common Genetic and Medical Syndromes: Characteristics and Symptoms

      Marfan Syndrome, Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome, Homocystinuria, Loffler Syndrome, and Korsakoff Syndrome are some of the most common genetic and medical syndromes that affect individuals worldwide. Each of these syndromes has unique characteristics and symptoms that distinguish them from one another.

      Marfan Syndrome is an autosomal dominant mutation of the fibrillin gene that results in decreased extracellular microfibril formation. This leads to low-tensile strength elastic fibers. Major diagnostic criteria include superior lens dislocation, aortic dissection/aortic root dilation, dural ectasia, and musculoskeletal manifestations. Minor criteria for diagnosis are mitral valve prolapse, high arched palate, and joint hypermobility. The main threat to life is aortic dissection, which can be slowed down by β-blockers.

      Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome is characterized by fragile blood vessels with recurrent spontaneous hemorrhage, mitral valve prolapse, hyperelastic skin, and aneurysm formation. Multiple subtypes are present, most of which are autosomal dominant. All occur due to mutations in collagen- or procollagen-encoding genes.

      Homocystinuria is an autosomal recessive condition characterized by a mutation in cystathionine β-synthase. Phenotypic features include downward lens dislocation, recurrent thrombotic episodes including myocardial infarction, osteoporosis, and intellectual disability.

      Loffler Syndrome is a transient respiratory condition characterized by the allergic infiltration of the lungs by eosinophils.

      Korsakoff Syndrome occurs after Wernicke’s encephalopathy, secondary to thiamine deficiency. It is manifest by the inability to acquire new memories; patients typically confabulate to fill in the gaps in their memory, often coming up with wonderful and elaborate stories.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      21.9
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 20-year-old female patient with a prolonged history of sinusitis complains of fever...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old female patient with a prolonged history of sinusitis complains of fever and headache accompanied by a change in personality. During fundal examination, papilloedema is observed. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Frontal lobe abscess

      Explanation:

      Sinusitis and Brain Abscess

      A previous occurrence of sinusitis can increase the likelihood of developing a brain abscess. Symptoms of a brain abscess include headache and fever, with papilloedema being present in most cases. Additionally, frontal lobe lesions can cause changes in personality.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      21.5
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 50-year-old male visits his GP complaining of bilateral sore eyes that feel...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old male visits his GP complaining of bilateral sore eyes that feel gritty. He has tried using over-the-counter eye drops, but the symptoms returned the next day. During the examination, the doctor notices erythematosus eyelid margins and a small stye on the right side. The patient has no known allergies. What is the initial management that should be taken?

      Your Answer: Hot compress and topical sodium cromoglycate

      Correct Answer: Hot compress and mechanical removal of debris

      Explanation:

      The patient is displaying symptoms that are typical of blepharitis, such as bilateral grittiness. This condition is caused by inflammation of the eyelid margins due to meibomian gland dysfunction, seborrhoeic dermatitis, or infection. Common symptoms include sticky eyes, erythematosus eyelid margins, and an increased risk of styes, chalazions, and secondary conjunctivitis.

      To manage blepharitis, hot compresses should be applied to soften the eyelid margin, and debris should be removed with cotton buds dipped in cooled boiled water. Artificial tears may also be used if the patient reports dry eyes.

      If the patient were suffering from allergic conjunctivitis, topical sodium cromoglycate would be appropriate. This condition would present with bilateral red eyes, itchiness, swelling, rhinitis, and clear discharge. On the other hand, if the patient had anterior uveitis, topical steroids would be indicated. This condition would present with rapid onset blurred vision, photosensitivity, floaters, eye pain, and redness in one or both eyes.

      Blepharitis is a condition where the eyelid margins become inflamed. This can be caused by dysfunction of the meibomian glands (posterior blepharitis) or seborrhoeic dermatitis/staphylococcal infection (anterior blepharitis). It is more common in patients with rosacea. The meibomian glands secrete oil to prevent rapid evaporation of the tear film, so any problem affecting these glands can cause dryness and irritation of the eyes. Symptoms of blepharitis are usually bilateral and include grittiness, discomfort around the eyelid margins, sticky eyes in the morning, and redness of the eyelid margins. Styes and chalazions are also more common in patients with blepharitis, and secondary conjunctivitis may occur.

      Management of blepharitis involves softening the lid margin with hot compresses twice a day and practicing lid hygiene to remove debris from the lid margins. This can be done using cotton wool buds dipped in a mixture of cooled boiled water and baby shampoo or sodium bicarbonate in cooled boiled water. Artificial tears may also be given for symptom relief in people with dry eyes or an abnormal tear film.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      35.3
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  • Question 19 - A 32-year-old woman who is at 10 weeks’ gestation in her second pregnancy...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman who is at 10 weeks’ gestation in her second pregnancy sees her midwife to receive her Booking Clinic blood results. She feels a bit tired at present and appears pale. She denies any infective symptoms, and observations and examination are unremarkable.
      Her full blood count is as follows:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 101 g/l 115–155 g/l
      Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 73 fl 76–98 fl
      White cell count (WCC) 7 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 323 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Which of the following statements best describes the management of anaemia in pregnancy?

      Your Answer: A trial of iron supplementation, followed by a re-check of the full blood count at two weeks, is the standard method for treating anaemia in pregnancy

      Explanation:

      The standard method for treating anaemia in pregnancy is to conduct a full blood count at the booking appointment and at 28 weeks, or when the patient is symptomatic, and to initiate treatment if a normocytic or microcytic anaemia is detected. Iron deficiency is the most common cause of anaemia in pregnancy, and oral iron supplementation is the first-line treatment. A repeat full blood count should be performed two weeks after starting iron supplementation, and if there is an upward trend in haemoglobin levels, iron supplementation should continue. If the trial fails to increase haemoglobin levels, further investigations should be conducted, and referral to a Combined Obstetric/Haematologic Clinic may be necessary. Serum ferritin is the most specific test for iron deficiency anaemia, and a value of < 30 μg/l in pregnancy should prompt iron supplementation. All pregnant women in the UK are not recommended to be offered iron supplementation, but only those with anaemia. Anaemia is defined as a haemoglobin level of < 110 g/dl in the first trimester and < 105 g/l in the second trimester. In an uncomplicated, low-risk pregnancy, the full blood count is assessed twice, at the booking visit and at 28 weeks of gestation. Postpartum anaemia is defined as a haemoglobin level of < 100 g/l, and oral iron supplementation for three months is recommended to replenish iron stores. Ferrous sulfate and ferrous fumarate are commonly used oral preparations of iron.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      3441.6
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 16-year-old boy with an 8-year history of type I diabetes presents to...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old boy with an 8-year history of type I diabetes presents to the Emergency Department (ED) with a 24-hour history of vomiting. He tested his glucose and ketones at home and they were both high, glucose 30 mmol/L, ketones 3 mmol/L, so he attended the ED. He admits to omitting his insulin frequently. He appears dehydrated, has ketotic fetor, BP 112/76 mmHg, pulse 108 beats per minute, temp 37 degrees, oxygen saturations 98% on room air. Clinical examination is otherwise normal. The following are his laboratory investigations:
      Test Result Normal range
      pH 7.2 7.35–7.45
      Ketones 3 mmol/l < 0.6 mmol/l
      Glucose 28 mmol/l 3.5–5.5 mmol/l
      Bicarbonate 11 mmol/l 24–30 mmol/l
      Base excess -5 mEq/l −2 to +2 mEq/l
      C-reactive protein (CRP) 3 mg/l 0–10 mg/l
      What is required to make a diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis in this patient?

      Your Answer: pH<7.30

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Understanding Diabetic Ketoacidosis: Diagnostic Criteria and Metabolic Imbalance

      Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a life-threatening complication of type 1 diabetes that results from a complex metabolic imbalance. The diagnostic criteria for DKA include hyperglycaemia (glucose >11 mmol/l), ketosis (>3 mmol/l), and acidemia (pH <7.3, bicarbonate <15 mmol/l). DKA is caused by insulin deficiency and an increase in counterregulatory hormones, which lead to enhanced hepatic gluconeogenesis and glycogenolysis, severe hyperglycaemia, and enhanced lipolysis. The resulting accumulation of ketone bodies, including 3-beta hydroxybutyrate, leads to metabolic acidosis. Fluid depletion, electrolyte shifts, and depletion are also common in DKA. While anion gap is not included in the UK diagnostic criteria, it is typically high in DKA (>10). Understanding the diagnostic criteria and metabolic imbalance of DKA is crucial for its prevention and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      6131.4
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 35-year-old woman comes to the General Practitioner complaining of a painful red...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman comes to the General Practitioner complaining of a painful red photophobic eye with some blurred vision. She reports no discharge, headache, nausea or vomiting. She has a medical history of inflammatory bowel disease but is otherwise healthy.
      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Uveitis

      Explanation:

      Common Eye Inflammations and Their Symptoms

      Uveitis, a condition that can affect people of all ages, is often associated with systemic diseases like inflammatory bowel disease, sarcoidosis, and seronegative arthritis. It typically presents as a painful red eye with photophobia, but there is usually no discharge. Upon examination, signs of intraocular inflammation such as cells in the anterior chamber will be present. Urgent referral to ophthalmology is necessary, and treatment may involve cycloplegics and steroid eye drops.

      Conjunctivitis, on the other hand, is characterized by a red, sore eye with discharge that can be mucopurulent or clear depending on the cause. Tarsal conjunctiva inflammation is also likely.

      Episcleritis, which affects mostly women and younger people, is self-limiting and causes mild pain, watering, and very mild photophobia. It does not cause any visual symptoms.

      Acute glaucoma is an ophthalmological emergency that requires urgent referral to ophthalmology. Patients with this condition will present with an acutely painful red eye and systemic symptoms like nausea and vomiting. Medications to reduce intraocular pressure are necessary.

      Keratitis, which refers to inflammation of the cornea, has many different causes, with infection being the most common, especially in contact lens wearers. While the symptoms may initially appear similar to uveitis, keratitis is unlikely to be associated with inflammatory bowel disease and will show abnormalities of the cornea upon examination.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      15.9
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 28-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department (ED) with sudden onset of...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department (ED) with sudden onset of shortness of breath and chest pain. She also reports haemoptysis. An ECG shows no signs of ischaemia. Her heart rate is 88 bpm and blood pressure is 130/85 mmHg. The patient flew from Dubai to the UK yesterday. She has type I diabetes mellitus which is well managed. She had a tonsillectomy two years ago and her brother has asthma. She has been taking the combined oral contraceptive pill for six months and uses insulin for her diabetes but takes no other medications.
      What is the most significant risk factor for the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Combined oral contraceptive pill

      Explanation:

      Assessing Risk Factors for Pulmonary Embolism in a Patient with Sudden Onset of Symptoms

      This patient presents with sudden onset of shortness of breath, chest pain, and haemoptysis, suggesting a pulmonary embolism. A history of long-haul flight and use of combined oral contraceptive pill further increase the risk for this condition. However, tonsillectomy two years ago is not a current risk factor. Type I diabetes mellitus and asthma are also not associated with pulmonary embolism. A family history of malignancy may increase the risk for developing a malignancy, which in turn increases the risk for pulmonary embolism. Overall, a thorough assessment of risk factors is crucial in identifying and managing pulmonary embolism in patients with acute symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      31.3
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 55-year-old man, with a known abdominal aortic aneurysm presents for his annual...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man, with a known abdominal aortic aneurysm presents for his annual review.
      What size abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) would indicate the need for urgent elective surgery of the aneurysm?

      Your Answer: An increase of >1 cm per year

      Explanation:

      Monitoring and Repair of Abdominal Aortic Aneurysms

      Abdominal aortic aneurysms (AAA) are a potentially life-threatening condition that require careful monitoring and, in some cases, elective repair. The current guidelines for monitoring and repair depend on the size of the aneurysm and its rate of growth.

      An increase of >1 cm per year indicates a need for elective repair, as does an AAA with a diameter greater than 5.5 cm. Symptomatic aneurysms or those causing complications also require repair. Endovascular repair is often preferred over open surgery.

      For AAAs between 3.0-5.4 cm, monitoring via ultrasound is required. AAAs between 4.5-5.4 cm require more frequent monitoring (every 3 months) than those between 3.0-4.4 cm (annual monitoring). An increase of 0.5-1 cm per year does not necessarily indicate a need for repair.

      Regular monitoring and timely repair can help prevent the potentially fatal complications of AAA.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Vascular
      13.6
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 79-year-old man comes to you with a complaint of weight loss and...

    Correct

    • A 79-year-old man comes to you with a complaint of weight loss and fatigue that has been going on for 3 months. He reports upper abdominal discomfort that worsens after eating and lying down. He has also noticed that his stool has become pale in color and his son has observed that he appears very yellow. Additionally, he has had high blood glucose levels on two separate occasions. What tumour marker would you order next?

      Your Answer: CA 19–9

      Explanation:

      Tumour Markers and their Associated Cancers

      Tumour markers are substances produced by cancer cells that can be detected in the blood. They are used to aid in the diagnosis and monitoring of cancer. Here are some common tumour markers and the cancers they are associated with:

      – CA 19-9: This marker is associated with pancreatic cancer.
      – CEA: This marker is associated with colorectal cancer.
      – PSA: This marker is associated with prostate cancer.
      – CA 125: This marker is associated with ovarian cancer.
      – AFP: This marker is associated with hepatocellular carcinoma.

      It is important to note that tumour markers are not always specific to one type of cancer and can also be elevated in non-cancerous conditions. Therefore, they should always be used in conjunction with other diagnostic tests and clinical evaluations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncology
      13.2
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 12-year-old boy is brought to the Emergency Department after injuring his right...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old boy is brought to the Emergency Department after injuring his right upper arm while playing at the park. According to his friend who witnessed the incident, the boy fell off the monkey bars and landed on his right side. The boy is experiencing significant pain and is hesitant to move his arm.
      What is the most frequent observation in patients with a Salter-Harris fracture?

      Your Answer: Transverse fracture through the growth plate

      Correct Answer: Fracture through the metaphysis sparing the epiphysis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Salter-Harris Fractures: Types and Characteristics

      Salter-Harris fractures are a common type of injury in children that involve the growth plate. These fractures are classified into five different types based on their characteristics. The most common type is a type II fracture, which involves a fracture through the metaphysis sparing the epiphysis. This type of fracture occurs in up to 75% of all Salter-Harris fractures.

      Another type of fracture is a transverse fracture through the growth plate, which is relatively rare and occurs in approximately 5% of all cases. A crush fracture, known as a Salter-Harris type V, is an uncommon type of injury that damages the growth plate by direct longitudinal compression. This type of fracture carries a poorer prognosis than the other classes.

      It is important to note that Salter-Harris fractures can only occur in children before the fusion of the physis and must involve the growth plate by definition. However, greenstick fractures, which are incomplete fractures that only involve one of the bony cortices, do not affect the growth plate and are not included in the classification.

      In summary, understanding the different types and characteristics of Salter-Harris fractures is crucial in diagnosing and treating these injuries in children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      16.7
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - In which part of the gastrointestinal system is water mainly taken up? ...

    Incorrect

    • In which part of the gastrointestinal system is water mainly taken up?

      Your Answer: Ascending colon

      Correct Answer: Small intestine

      Explanation:

      The Function of the Large Intestine

      Although many people believe that the primary function of the large intestine is to absorb water, this is not entirely accurate. In fact, the majority of water and fluids that are ingested or secreted are actually reabsorbed in the small intestine, which is located before the large intestine in the digestive tract. While the large intestine does play a role in absorbing some water and electrolytes, its primary function is to store and eliminate waste products from the body. This is achieved through the formation of feces, which are then eliminated through the rectum and anus. Overall, while the large intestine is an important part of the digestive system, its function is more complex than simply absorbing water.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      14.8
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 17-year-old student has recently observed a yellowish tinge in the whites of...

    Incorrect

    • A 17-year-old student has recently observed a yellowish tinge in the whites of his eyes and skin. Upon examination, he is found to be jaundiced. The following are his liver function test results: Bilirubin: 47 µmol/l ALP: 42 u/l ALT: 19 u/l AST: 26 u/l Albumin: 41 g/l What is the primary test that should be used to determine the cause of this patient's liver function abnormalities and jaundice?

      Your Answer: MRCP (Magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography)

      Correct Answer: Abdominal ultrasound

      Explanation:

      Jaundice can present in various surgical situations, and liver function tests can help classify whether the jaundice is pre hepatic, hepatic, or post hepatic. Different diagnoses have typical features and pathogenesis, and ultrasound is the most commonly used first-line test. Relief of jaundice is important, even if surgery is planned, and management depends on the underlying cause. Patients with unrelieved jaundice have a higher risk of complications and death. Treatment options include stenting, surgery, and antibiotics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      11
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 55-year-old man presents for a routine optometry exam to assess his overall...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man presents for a routine optometry exam to assess his overall eye health. He has a medical history of diabetes but has not been consistent with his medication and rarely monitors his blood sugar levels. During the fundoscopy, diffuse neovascularization and cotton wool spots were observed. What is the recommended treatment plan for this patient?

      Your Answer: Pan-retinal photocoagulation laser only

      Correct Answer: Intravitreal VEGF inhibitors + pan-retinal photocoagulation laser

      Explanation:

      The treatment for proliferative diabetic retinopathy may involve the use of intravitreal VEGF inhibitors in combination with panretinal laser photocoagulation.

      Understanding Diabetic Retinopathy

      Diabetic retinopathy is a leading cause of blindness among adults aged 35-65 years old. The condition is caused by hyperglycemia, which leads to abnormal metabolism in the retinal vessel walls and damage to endothelial cells and pericytes. This damage causes increased vascular permeability, resulting in exudates seen on fundoscopy. Pericyte dysfunction predisposes to the formation of microaneurysms, while neovascularization is caused by the production of growth factors in response to retinal ischemia.

      Patients with diabetic retinopathy are classified into those with nonproliferative diabetic retinopathy (NPDR), proliferative retinopathy (PDR), and maculopathy. NPDR is further classified into mild, moderate, and severe, depending on the presence of microaneurysms, blot hemorrhages, hard exudates, cotton wool spots, venous beading/looping, and intraretinal microvascular abnormalities. PDR is characterized by retinal neovascularization, which may lead to vitreous hemorrhage, and fibrous tissue forming anterior to the retinal disc. Maculopathy is based on location rather than severity and is more common in Type II DM.

      Management of diabetic retinopathy involves optimizing glycaemic control, blood pressure, and hyperlipidemia, as well as regular review by ophthalmology. Treatment options include intravitreal vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) inhibitors for maculopathy, regular observation for nonproliferative retinopathy, and panretinal laser photocoagulation and intravitreal VEGF inhibitors for proliferative retinopathy. Vitreoretinal surgery may be necessary in cases of severe or vitreous hemorrhage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      23.2
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 57-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of sudden visual loss....

    Correct

    • A 57-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of sudden visual loss. He reports no eye redness, ocular trauma, or headaches. The loss of vision began from the outside and progressed inward, accompanied by flashes and floaters. He wears corrective glasses and sometimes contact lenses, but he cannot recall his prescription. What characteristic raises the likelihood of this patient developing this condition?

      Your Answer: Myopia

      Explanation:

      Myopia increases the likelihood of retinal detachment, which should be suspected if a patient experiences gradual vision loss starting from the periphery and moving towards the centre. This may be accompanied by the sensation of a curtain or veil descending over their vision, preceded by flashes and floaters caused by the vitreous humour tugging at the retina. Myopia elongates the eyeball, stretching the retina and making it more susceptible to tearing and detachment. Astigmatism, a refractive error caused by an irregularly shaped eyeball, does not increase the risk of RD. Contact lens use is not associated with RD but may increase the risk of infection. Hypermetropia, or farsightedness, does not increase the risk of RD but is associated with acute angle-closure glaucoma, which presents with severe ocular pain, visual blurring, a hard and red eye, and systemic symptoms such as nausea and vomiting.

      Retinal detachment is a condition where the tissue at the back of the eye separates from the underlying pigment epithelium. This can cause vision loss, but if detected and treated early, it can be reversible. Risk factors for retinal detachment include diabetes, myopia, age, previous cataract surgery, and eye trauma. Symptoms may include new onset floaters or flashes, sudden painless visual field loss, and reduced peripheral and central vision. If the macula is involved, visual outcomes can be much worse. Diagnosis is made through fundoscopy, which may show retinal folds or a lost red reflex. Urgent referral to an ophthalmologist is necessary for assessment and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      9.5
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 28-year-old patient is attending her routine check-up at the general practice. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old patient is attending her routine check-up at the general practice. She was prescribed lithium for bipolar disorder two years ago and reports a new symptom. The doctor suspects lithium toxicity. What might the patient be experiencing?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Polyuria

      Explanation:

      Polyuria is a symptom of lithium toxicity, which can also cause renal dysfunction, hypothyroidism, and benign intracranial hypertension (BIH). To monitor for toxicity, lithium serum levels should be tested regularly, along with renal function, thyroid function, calcium levels, and body weight. Abdominal discomfort is a common side effect of lithium but does not necessarily indicate toxicity. Fatigue is a common symptom in people with bipolar disorder, but it is not a reported symptom of lithium toxicity. While a fine tremor is an expected finding in people taking lithium, a coarse tremor may indicate toxicity and should prompt testing of lithium-serum levels.

      Understanding Lithium Toxicity

      Lithium is a medication used to stabilize mood in individuals with bipolar disorder and as an adjunct in refractory depression. However, it has a narrow therapeutic range of 0.4-1.0 mmol/L and a long plasma half-life, making it crucial to monitor its levels in the blood. Lithium toxicity occurs when the concentration exceeds 1.5 mmol/L, which can be caused by dehydration, renal failure, and certain medications such as diuretics, ACE inhibitors, NSAIDs, and metronidazole.

      Symptoms of lithium toxicity include a coarse tremor, hyperreflexia, acute confusion, polyuria, seizures, and even coma. It is important to manage toxicity promptly, as mild to moderate cases may respond to volume resuscitation with normal saline. However, severe cases may require hemodialysis to remove excess lithium from the body. Some healthcare providers may also use sodium bicarbonate to increase the alkalinity of the urine and promote lithium excretion, although evidence supporting its effectiveness is limited.

      In summary, understanding lithium toxicity is crucial for healthcare providers and individuals taking lithium. Monitoring lithium levels in the blood and promptly managing toxicity can prevent serious complications and ensure the safe use of this medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Orthopaedics (1/2) 50%
Dermatology (0/1) 0%
Psychiatry (1/1) 100%
Gynaecology (3/3) 100%
Clinical Sciences (1/1) 100%
Respiratory (1/3) 33%
Pharmacology (1/2) 50%
Rheumatology (1/1) 100%
Obstetrics (2/2) 100%
Cardiology (0/1) 0%
Surgery (2/2) 100%
Paediatrics (1/1) 100%
Genetics (0/1) 0%
Neurology (1/1) 100%
Ophthalmology (2/4) 50%
Endocrinology (0/1) 0%
Vascular (1/1) 100%
Oncology (1/1) 100%
Passmed