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  • Question 1 - A 38-year-old woman comes to her doctor complaining of lower back pain and...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old woman comes to her doctor complaining of lower back pain and a burning sensation in her right upper thigh that began 2 weeks ago. She reports that the pain is more noticeable when she stands for extended periods of time at work, but it doesn't interfere with her sleep. During a hip and knee examination, no motor abnormalities are detected. She speculates that the pain may be related to her recent participation in a spin class.

      What condition is likely causing her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Referred lumbar radiculopathy

      Correct Answer: Meralgia paraesthetica

      Explanation:

      Meralgia paraesthetica is a condition that occurs when the lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh is compressed, resulting in burning and numbness in the upper lateral portion of the thigh. This condition typically affects only one side of the body and doesn’t cause any motor deficits. Symptoms may worsen with hip extension or prolonged standing, but sitting down can provide temporary relief.

      Femoral neuropathy, on the other hand, affects both the sensory and motor functions of the muscles innervated by the nerve. While burning pain and paraesthesia may be present, weakness in the legs, especially when climbing stairs, is also a common symptom. A hip and knee exam may reveal abnormalities such as weakness when extending or flexing these joints.

      Referred lumbar radiculopathy is another condition that can cause leg pain, but the pain is typically located in the back of the leg rather than the upper-lateral portion. The pain is often described as a shooting pain, and patients may also experience motor deficits.

      Superior cluneal nerve dysfunction can also cause burning pain and paraesthesia, but this condition affects the lower back and upper gluteal area rather than the thigh.

      Understanding Meralgia Paraesthetica

      Meralgia paraesthetica is a condition characterized by paraesthesia or anaesthesia in the distribution of the lateral femoral cutaneous nerve (LFCN). It is caused by entrapment of the LFCN, which can be due to various factors such as trauma, iatrogenic causes, or neuroma. Although not rare, it is often underdiagnosed.

      The LFCN is a sensory nerve that originates from the L2/3 segments and runs beneath the iliac fascia before exiting through the lateral aspect of the inguinal ligament. Compression of the nerve can occur anywhere along its course, leading to the development of meralgia paraesthetica. The condition is more common in men than women and is often seen in those with diabetes or obesity.

      Symptoms of meralgia paraesthetica include burning, tingling, numbness, and shooting pain in the upper lateral aspect of the thigh. These symptoms are usually aggravated by standing and relieved by sitting. Diagnosis can be made through the pelvic compression test, which is highly sensitive, or through nerve conduction studies. Treatment options include injection of the nerve with local anaesthetic or surgical decompression.

      In conclusion, meralgia paraesthetica is a condition that can cause significant discomfort and restriction in patients. Understanding its causes, symptoms, and diagnostic methods can aid in its timely diagnosis and management.

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      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 2 - Liam is a 50-year-old man who visits his GP complaining of fatigue and...

    Incorrect

    • Liam is a 50-year-old man who visits his GP complaining of fatigue and low mood. Upon further inquiry, he reveals experiencing muscle stiffness, particularly in his shoulders, which can last up to an hour upon waking. During examination, Liam exhibits 5/5 power in all muscle groups, but movement is painful when he abducts and elevates his shoulders. There is no apparent joint swelling, and there are no other neurological issues. Despite the pain, Liam has a good range of motion. He has a medical history of type 2 diabetes, for which he takes metformin.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Frozen shoulder

      Correct Answer: Polymyalgia rheumatica

      Explanation:

      The usual progression of rheumatoid arthritis involves experiencing pain first, followed by stiffness. However, in this particular case, the patient is experiencing both pain and stiffness simultaneously. The condition commonly causes swelling, stiffness, and pain in the small joints of the hands and feet.

      Understanding Polymyalgia Rheumatica

      Polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR) is a condition commonly seen in older individuals that is characterized by muscle stiffness and elevated inflammatory markers. Although it is closely related to temporal arteritis, the underlying cause is not fully understood, and it doesn’t appear to be a vasculitic process. PMR typically affects individuals over the age of 60 and has a rapid onset, with symptoms appearing in less than a month. Patients experience aching and morning stiffness in proximal limb muscles, along with mild polyarthralgia, lethargy, depression, low-grade fever, anorexia, and night sweats. Weakness is not considered a symptom of PMR.

      To diagnose PMR, doctors look for elevated inflammatory markers, such as an ESR greater than 40 mm/hr. Creatine kinase and EMG are typically normal. Treatment for PMR involves the use of prednisolone, with a typical dose of 15mg/od. Patients usually respond dramatically to steroids, and failure to do so should prompt consideration of an alternative diagnosis. Understanding the symptoms and treatment options for PMR can help individuals manage their condition and improve their quality of life.

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  • Question 3 - A 54 year old man is admitted as an inpatient for treatment of...

    Correct

    • A 54 year old man is admitted as an inpatient for treatment of a duodenal ulcer. Upon waking this morning, he experiences severe inflammation in his first metatarsophalangeal joint. The joint is swollen and tender, and a sample of the fluid is sent for microscopy. The patient has a history of hypertension. What is the most appropriate initial medication to prescribe?

      Your Answer: Colchicine

      Explanation:

      Due to the presence of a duodenal ulcer, diclofenac and indomethacin are not recommended for the patient. Instead, colchicine is a viable option. While allopurinol is effective in preventing future attacks, it should not be administered during the acute phase.

      It is important to investigate the patient for conditions such as hypertension and ischaemic heart disease, which may be linked to gout.

      Encouraging weight loss and advising the patient to avoid alcohol can be beneficial in managing gout.

      Gout is caused by chronic hyperuricaemia and is managed acutely with NSAIDs or colchicine. Urate-lowering therapy (ULT) is recommended for patients with >= 2 attacks in 12 months, tophi, renal disease, uric acid renal stones, or prophylaxis if on cytotoxics or diuretics. Allopurinol is first-line ULT, with a delayed start recommended until inflammation has settled. Lifestyle modifications include reducing alcohol intake, losing weight if obese, and avoiding high-purine foods. Other options for refractory cases include febuxostat, uricase, and pegloticase.

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  • Question 4 - A 25-year-old man who suffered a spiral fracture of the humerus while playing...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old man who suffered a spiral fracture of the humerus while playing rugby has developed wrist drop. Which nerve is most likely to have been damaged in this case?

      Your Answer: Radial

      Explanation:

      The Radial Nerve: Causes and Effects of Compression Injuries

      The radial nerve is a crucial component of the brachial plexus, carrying fibres from C5-C8 and a sensory component from T1. Compression injuries to this nerve can occur in various locations, leading to different symptoms and levels of muscle power loss.

      One well-known cause of radial nerve compression is Saturday night syndrome, which can occur when someone sleeps with their arm over the back of a chair while in a drunken state. This can compress the brachial plexus and cause damage to the radial nerve, as well as the medial and ulnar nerves. Using crutches can also lead to this syndrome.

      Fractures or dislocation of the head of the humerus can also damage the nerve in the axilla, while fractures or compression may damage the nerve at the wrist, producing a finger drop with normal wrist movement. Entrapment of the radial nerve can occur at the elbow as well.

      The extent of muscle power loss will depend on the level of the lesion. However, in cases of compression injuries such as Saturday night syndrome and simple fractures, the nerve usually recovers spontaneously. Understanding the causes and effects of radial nerve compression can help with prevention and treatment of these injuries.

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  • Question 5 - A 52-year-old patient presents with another episode of gout. She has been experiencing...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old patient presents with another episode of gout. She has been experiencing pain in her left big toe for the past 5 days which has not improved with paracetamol. The patient has a history of gout which is usually well managed with allopurinol 100 mg. Additionally, she has atrial fibrillation and is taking warfarin. Her INR was 2.9 last week and her warfarin dose has been stable.
      What is the most appropriate treatment option for her current acute gout attack?

      Your Answer: Colchicine prescription

      Correct Answer: Aspirin prescription

      Explanation:

      Managing Acute Gout Attacks in Patients on Warfarin

      Gout is a condition that can be prevented with allopurinol, but patients may still experience acute attacks. However, patients taking warfarin for atrial fibrillation are at an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding, so non-steroidal anti-inflammatory tablets and steroid tablets are not recommended if they can be avoided. Aspirin is also not indicated in gout. Increasing the dose of allopurinol will not provide symptomatic relief for the acute attack. After treating the acute attack, it is important to check the uric acid level and adjust the allopurinol dose accordingly. Colchicine can be used in patients receiving anti-coagulants.

      Examiner’s comment: This question emphasizes the importance of selecting the most appropriate treatment option. In general practice, it is often necessary to choose the best option from several possibilities. The best questions will have multiple possible answers, but one will be the most appropriate. In this case, Colchicine is the better choice because NSAIDs are not recommended for patients on warfarin. Remember to prioritize your answers based on the patient’s specific circumstances.

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  • Question 6 - A 75-year-old man who is known to have severe OA of both his...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man who is known to have severe OA of both his knees presents with increasing pain of the right knee. He is on the waiting list to see an orthopaedic surgeon, with at least a 6 month wait.

      He is currently taking 1 g of paracetamol QDS, 2400 mg of ibuprofen daily with PPI cover. He has tried taking codeine and tramadol in the past and it made him feel very unwell, he also tried numerous NSAIDs and found ibuprofen to be the most effective. He is not keen on any other opioid-based medications because he lives on his own and is afraid he may lose his balance. He uses a walking stick and wears sensible walking shoes all the time.

      A few months previously he had a very similar episode and applied ice to the knee to good effect but this time it has not helped that much. He is systemically well.

      On examination the knee is cool, there is no noticeable redness, there is a mild effusion on the right knee, no joint margin tenderness, and ligaments are intact.

      According to established guidelines, which one of the following is the best management option?

      Your Answer: Intra-articular hyaluronan injections

      Correct Answer: Intra-articular corticosteroid injection

      Explanation:

      Management of Osteoarthritis Flare

      The patient has been diagnosed with an osteoarthritis flare, which is not uncommon for someone with severe OA of the knee. Despite having tried several NSAIDs in the past, ibuprofen has been found to be the most effective for this patient. However, since he is intolerant of opioid medications, management options are limited. Non-pharmacological options such as ice or heat have also been tried without success. According to NICE guidelines on Osteoarthritis (CG177), intra-articular corticosteroid injections are recommended as an adjunct to core therapies when pain is moderate to severe. Other options such as Traumeel injections, intra-articular hyaluronan injections, rubefacients, chondroitin, glucosamine, or chondroitin and glucosamine combinations are not recommended. However, there are other options such as topical capsaicin, transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation (TENS), and assessment for bracing/joint supports/insoles that may be helpful. Expert advice from occupational therapists or disability equipment assessment centres may also be required.

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  • Question 7 - A 50-year-old woman has been experiencing pain and tenderness over the lateral epicondyle...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman has been experiencing pain and tenderness over the lateral epicondyle of her right humerus for a few weeks. The pain radiates into her forearm and is aggravated by resisted dorsiflexion of her wrist. What is the most cost-effective management option for her in the long-term (12 months)?

      Your Answer: Physiotherapy

      Correct Answer: Wait-and-see approach with analgesia

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Tennis Elbow: A Comparison of Effectiveness and Costs

      Tennis elbow, or lateral epicondylitis, is a common condition that causes pain and tenderness on the outer part of the elbow. In a randomized controlled trial, three treatment options were compared: physiotherapy, corticosteroid injections, and a wait-and-see policy with analgesia.

      At six weeks, corticosteroid injections showed the most significant improvement in symptoms, but the benefits were short-lived. At 52 weeks, physiotherapy was found to be superior to corticosteroid injections for all outcome measures. The wait-and-see policy also showed beneficial long-term effects compared with corticosteroid injections.

      While physiotherapy may be the most effective treatment option, it is also the most expensive. A wait-and-see policy with adequate advice and provision of analgesia may be enough for most patients, as nearly 90% of patients will recover within one year.

      Acupuncture and surgical release of the extensor origin are not recommended due to limited evidence. Clinicians should discuss the advantages and disadvantages of each option with their patients to determine the best course of treatment.

      Comparing Treatment Options for Tennis Elbow: Which is Most Effective and Cost-Efficient?

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      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 8 - A 57-year-old woman comes to your clinic concerned about her bone health. She...

    Correct

    • A 57-year-old woman comes to your clinic concerned about her bone health. She underwent a private DEXA scan after her sister was diagnosed with osteoporosis and the results showed a T-score of -1.9 for the femoral neck. Upon physical examination, there are no notable findings. What would be the best course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer: Do a FRAX assessment

      Explanation:

      To accurately evaluate the fracture risk of this woman, the FRAX assessment is necessary, which includes the crucial element of measuring bone mineral density.

      Assessing Risk for Osteoporosis

      Osteoporosis is a concern due to the increased risk of fragility fractures. To determine which patients are at risk and require further investigation, NICE produced guidelines in 2012. They recommend assessing all women aged 65 years and above and all men aged 75 years and above. Younger patients should be assessed if they have risk factors such as previous fragility fracture, current or frequent use of oral or systemic glucocorticoid, history of falls, family history of hip fracture, other causes of secondary osteoporosis, low BMI, smoking, and alcohol intake.

      NICE suggests using a clinical prediction tool such as FRAX or QFracture to assess a patient’s 10-year risk of developing a fracture. FRAX estimates the 10-year risk of fragility fracture and is valid for patients aged 40-90 years. QFracture estimates the 10-year risk of fragility fracture and includes a larger group of risk factors. BMD assessment is recommended in some situations, such as before starting treatments that may have a rapid adverse effect on bone density or in people aged under 40 years who have a major risk factor.

      Interpreting the results of FRAX involves categorizing the results into low, intermediate, or high risk. If the assessment was done without a BMD measurement, an intermediate risk result will prompt a BMD test. If the assessment was done with a BMD measurement, the results will be categorized into reassurance, consider treatment, or strongly recommend treatment. QFracture doesn’t automatically categorize patients into low, intermediate, or high risk, and the raw data needs to be interpreted alongside local or national guidelines.

      NICE recommends reassessing a patient’s risk if the original calculated risk was in the region of the intervention threshold for a proposed treatment and only after a minimum of 2 years or when there has been a change in the person’s risk factors.

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  • Question 9 - A 52-year-old man presents with complaints of symmetrical polyarthritis, which first appeared in...

    Correct

    • A 52-year-old man presents with complaints of symmetrical polyarthritis, which first appeared in his toes. He reports stiffness in his back, particularly in the morning. He states that these symptoms have been intermittent for several months and that he was previously treated with naproxen for the toe pain. He is not taking any regular medications except for moisturizers for his psoriasis. On examination, he has nail pitting but no rash.
      What is the most probable diagnosis from the following options?

      Your Answer: Psoriatic arthritis

      Explanation:

      Psoriatic Arthritis: Symptoms and Presentation

      Psoriatic arthritis is a type of arthritis that is often preceded by a rash and/or nail changes. However, in some cases, the arthritis can present without any obvious rash. The arthritis typically affects the wrists, hands, feet, and ankles in a symmetrical pattern. Unlike rheumatoid arthritis, psoriatic arthritis involves the distal interphalangeal (DIP) joints rather than the metacarpophalangeal joints. Enthesopathy, or inflammation at tendon or ligament insertions into bone, is also common in psoriatic arthritis, particularly at the attachment of the Achilles tendon and the plantar fascia to the calcaneus.

      Patients who are HLA-B27 positive may also experience conjunctivitis, uveitis, and sacroiliitis. The presentation of psoriatic arthritis may be asymmetrical and oligoarticular, and dactylitis, or inflammation of a digit causing sausage digits, occurs in up to 35% of patients. Diagnosis is suggested by asymmetrical joint involvement, dactylitis, the absence of rheumatoid factor, and DIP involvement in the absence of osteoarthritis.

      Psoriatic arthritis can also occur in juvenile patients and may be confused with juvenile idiopathic arthritis. Severe derangement of the joints, particularly the DIP joints, can occur in some cases, which is known as arthritis mutilans. It is important to distinguish psoriatic arthritis from other types of arthritis in order to provide appropriate treatment and management.

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  • Question 10 - You see a 50-year-old man who was diagnosed with gout a year ago....

    Correct

    • You see a 50-year-old man who was diagnosed with gout a year ago.

      He has recently had olecranon bursitis which he was told was associated with gout.

      What other condition may be associated with gout?

      Your Answer: Renal colic

      Explanation:

      Complications of Hyperuricaemia

      Hyperuricaemia, or high levels of uric acid in the blood, can lead to various complications. One of these is renal disease, which can manifest as acute or chronic urate nephropathy. Another complication is the formation of urinary stones, which is seen in 10-25% of people with gout. The incidence of urinary stones is strongly correlated with plasma urate level, with a 50% increase in those with levels higher than 780 µmol/L. It is important to manage hyperuricaemia to prevent these complications from occurring.

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  • Question 11 - A 56-year-old woman presents with a four month history of right-sided hip pain....

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old woman presents with a four month history of right-sided hip pain. The pain has developed spontaneously without any apparent cause. She reports that the pain is more severe on the outer side of the hip and is particularly bothersome at night when she lies on her right side.

      Upon examination, there is a complete range of motion in the hip joint, including internal and external rotation. However, deep palpation of the lateral aspect of the right hip joint reproduces the pain.

      An x-ray of the right hip reveals the following findings:

      Right hip: Slight narrowing of the joint space, but otherwise normal appearance.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Greater trochanteric pain syndrome

      Explanation:

      Trochanteric bursitis is now referred to as greater trochanteric pain syndrome. Although joint space narrowing is visible in the x-ray, it is a common occurrence and doesn’t necessarily indicate osteoarthritis. Additionally, the pain is palpable and the symptoms have not been present for a long period, making osteoarthritis less likely.

      Hip pain in adults can be caused by a variety of conditions. Osteoarthritis is a common cause, with pain that worsens with exercise and improves with rest. Reduced internal rotation is often the first sign, and risk factors include age, obesity, and previous joint problems. Inflammatory arthritis can cause pain in the morning, systemic symptoms, and elevated inflammatory markers. Referred lumbar spine pain may be caused by femoral nerve compression, which can be tested with a positive femoral nerve stretch test. Greater trochanteric pain syndrome, or trochanteric bursitis, is often seen in women aged 50-70 and is caused by repeated movement of the iliotibial band. Meralgia paraesthetica is caused by compression of the lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh and results in a burning sensation over the antero-lateral aspect of the thigh. Avascular necrosis can have gradual or sudden onset and may follow high dose steroid therapy or previous hip fracture or dislocation. Pubic symphysis dysfunction is common in pregnancy and causes pain over the pubic symphysis with radiation to the groins and medial aspects of the thighs. Transient idiopathic osteoporosis is an uncommon condition sometimes seen in the third trimester of pregnancy, causing groin pain and limited range of movement in the hip, with elevated ESR.

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  • Question 12 - You see a 62-year-old man with severe lower back pain on a home...

    Correct

    • You see a 62-year-old man with severe lower back pain on a home visit. He has had lumbar back pain on and off for 3 years but it got much worse yesterday when he bent over. His back is in severe spasm and he has taken to his bed, he was unable to get to the practice today in the car due to the pain. He has no bladder or bowel symptoms and no symptoms in his legs. He is taking regular co-codamol and ibuprofen.

      What statement below regarding this patient is true?

      Your Answer: A short course of benzodiazepine can be used to relieve the muscle spasms

      Explanation:

      For patients experiencing muscle spasms and back pain, a benzodiazepine like diazepam may be prescribed for a brief period. Additionally, self-help measures such as using warm compresses (with proper skin protection) can be helpful. NSAIDs are the first line of pain relief. It is not recommended to remain in bed for an extended period, as gradually resuming normal activities and movements should not cause harm, even if some pain is present. It is not necessary for the patient to be completely pain-free before returning to work or regular activities, and adjustments can be made to facilitate an early return to work, which may be arranged through an Occupational Health department if available.

      Management of Lower Back Pain: NICE Guidelines

      Lower back pain is a common condition that affects many people. In 2016, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidelines on the management of lower back pain. These guidelines apply to patients with nonspecific lower back pain, which means it is not caused by malignancy, infection, trauma, or other specific conditions.

      According to the updated guidelines, NSAIDs are now recommended as the first-line treatment for back pain. Paracetamol monotherapy is relatively ineffective for back pain, so NSAIDs are a better option. Proton pump inhibitors should be co-prescribed for patients over the age of 45 years who are given NSAIDs.

      Lumbar spine x-ray should not be offered as an investigation for nonspecific back pain. MRI should only be offered to patients with nonspecific back pain if the result is likely to change management, or if malignancy, infection, fracture, cauda equina, or ankylosing spondylitis is suspected. MRI is the most useful imaging modality as it can see neurological and soft tissue structures.

      Patients with low back pain should be encouraged to self-manage and stay physically active through exercise. A group exercise program within the NHS is recommended for people with back pain. Manual therapy, such as spinal manipulation, mobilization, or soft tissue techniques like massage, can be considered as part of a treatment package that includes exercise and psychological therapy. Radiofrequency denervation and epidural injections of local anesthetic and steroid can also be used for acute and severe sciatica.

      In summary, the updated NICE guidelines recommend NSAIDs as the first-line treatment for nonspecific back pain. Patients should be encouraged to self-manage and stay physically active through exercise. MRI is the most useful imaging modality for investigating nonspecific back pain. Other treatments, such as manual therapy, radiofrequency denervation, and epidural injections, can be considered as part of a treatment package that includes exercise and psychological therapy.

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  • Question 13 - A 61-year-old man is diagnosed with gout.

    He experiences four attacks within six months,...

    Incorrect

    • A 61-year-old man is diagnosed with gout.

      He experiences four attacks within six months, prompting you to prescribe allopurinol to reduce his serum urate level.

      What target level of serum urate would you aim for?

      Your Answer: <0.5 µmol/L

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Recommended Levels of Homocysteine

      Homocysteine is a naturally occurring amino acid in the body that can be harmful in high levels. The upper limit of normal for homocysteine was previously set at 0.42 µmol/L, with reducing levels below that considered acceptable. However, recent guidelines have recommended even lower levels, with most sources suggesting levels below 0.36 µmol/L and the latest guidelines aiming for 0.30 µmol/L. It is important to monitor homocysteine levels and take steps to reduce them if they are too high, as elevated levels have been linked to an increased risk of cardiovascular disease and other health issues.

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  • Question 14 - A 50-year-old man who usually never attends the surgery comes to see you...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man who usually never attends the surgery comes to see you feeling absolutely wretched.

      He is usually a keen cyclist who spent his summer on a month-long cycling tour of France, but he now finds it difficult to get out of bed, due to fatigue.

      He also complains of multiple joint pains and cannot exercise because he doesn't have the energy. Other history of note is that he suffers from a patch of erythematous rash on his shin which seems to be present for a few days and then fades.

      On examination, he has a pulse of 50 and a BP of 120/70 mmHg. There is a generalised polyarthritis.

      Investigations reveal:

      Hb 135 g/L (130-170)

      WCC 8.2 ×109/L (4-11)

      PLT 200 ×109/L (150-400)

      Na 140 mmol/L (135-145)

      K 4.5 mmol/L (3.5-5.0)

      Cr 100 µmol/L (60-110)

      ECG shows 1st degree heart block.

      Knee aspirate reveals inflammatory picture, white cells ++, no crystals.

      Which of the following would be the most appropriate next management step?

      Your Answer: Start doxycycline

      Correct Answer: 24 hour Holter monitor for possible permanent pacemaker

      Explanation:

      Lyme Disease and Erythema Migrans

      Erythema migrans is the most common clinical presentation of Lyme borreliosis. This is a difficult question, but the clue is in the fact that he is a hill walker who is, usually, relatively fit. Something has clearly occurred during the summer, and it is likely he has received a tick bite and gone on to develop Lyme disease, with southern Sweden being one of the most common areas in Europe to become infected.

      Nearly two thirds of patients do not remember the initial tick lesion, yet the rash he describes is fairly typical of recurrent erythema chronicum migrans which occurs in around 20% of Lyme disease sufferers. The treatment of choice for the condition is a course of oral doxycycline.

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  • Question 15 - A 72-year-old man has just been diagnosed with osteoporosis and is prescribed a...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man has just been diagnosed with osteoporosis and is prescribed a calcium and vitamin D supplement. He expresses concern about potential side effects. What adverse effect has been associated with the use of calcium supplementation?

      Your Answer: Increased risk of dementia

      Correct Answer: Increased risk of myocardial infarction

      Explanation:

      An association has been found between calcium supplementation and a higher likelihood of experiencing a heart attack.

      Calcium and Vitamin D Supplementation for Osteoporosis: Potential Risks and Recommendations

      Osteoporosis is a common condition that affects postmenopausal women, and calcium and vitamin D supplementation are often prescribed to prevent fractures. However, the 2008 NICE guidelines recommend that clinicians ensure patients have adequate calcium intake and vitamin D levels before prescribing supplements. While it may seem logical to prescribe a combined calcium and vitamin D supplement, recent studies have raised concerns about the potential risks of calcium supplements.

      A meta-analysis published in the BMJ in 2010 suggested that calcium supplements may increase the risk of ischaemic heart disease. Although this study was criticized for not considering vitamin D co-prescription, subsequent analyses of this study and two others have confirmed the association. A study published in Heart in 2012 found that patients taking calcium supplements had a significantly increased risk of myocardial infarction compared to those with high calcium intake through dietary means.

      Despite these findings, major guideline bodies have not yet provided clear recommendations on how to proceed. For now, it is recommended to encourage patients to aim for a dietary calcium intake of around 1,000mg/day and prescribe a standalone vitamin D supplement (usually 10mcg/day). This approach may help prevent fractures while minimizing potential risks associated with calcium supplementation.

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  • Question 16 - A 50-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of a painful, swollen, and...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of a painful, swollen, and red middle toe on his left foot. He describes it as resembling a 'sausage' and reports that the symptoms have been present for approximately one week. The patient denies any history of trauma. Upon examination, the patient is afebrile with a pulse rate of 72/min. The affected toe is swollen and red, but there is no extension of the redness proximally. Which of the following conditions is most commonly associated with this presentation?

      Your Answer: Psoriatic arthritis

      Explanation:

      Dactylitis, which is often described as a ‘sausage-shaped’ digit, is not typically associated with gout affecting the middle toe. Gout most commonly affects the first metatarsophalangeal joint. Additionally, the patient’s lack of systemic symptoms, long-standing history, and localized erythema make septic arthritis, which can be linked to diabetes, an unlikely diagnosis. Dactylitis is not a characteristic symptom of rheumatoid arthritis.

      Dactylitis is a condition characterized by inflammation of a finger or toe. The causes of this condition include spondyloarthritis, such as Psoriatic and reactive arthritis, sickle-cell disease, and other rare causes like tuberculosis, sarcoidosis, and syphilis.

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  • Question 17 - A 75-year-old woman is being evaluated. She experienced a wrist fracture 2 years...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old woman is being evaluated. She experienced a wrist fracture 2 years ago and underwent a DEXA scan, which revealed a T-score of -2.6 SD. Calcium and vitamin D supplements were initiated, and she was prescribed oral alendronate, but it was discontinued due to oesophagitis. According to NICE guidelines, what is the most appropriate course of action now?

      Your Answer: Switch to risedronate

      Explanation:

      According to the 2008 NICE guidelines, if a patient cannot tolerate alendronate, it is recommended to switch to risedronate or etidronate.

      Osteoporosis is a condition that weakens bones, making them more prone to fractures. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has updated its guidelines on the management of osteoporosis in postmenopausal women. Treatment is recommended for women who have confirmed osteoporosis following fragility fractures. Vitamin D and calcium supplements should be offered to all women unless they have adequate intake. Alendronate is the first-line treatment, but if patients cannot tolerate it, risedronate or etidronate may be given. Strontium ranelate and raloxifene are recommended if bisphosphonates cannot be taken. Treatment criteria for patients not taking alendronate are complex and based on age, T-score, and risk factors. Bisphosphonates have been shown to reduce the risk of fractures, while vitamin D and calcium supplements have a poor evidence base. Raloxifene, strontium ranelate, and denosumab are other treatment options, but they have potential side effects and should only be prescribed by specialists. Hormone replacement therapy is no longer recommended for osteoporosis prevention due to concerns about increased rates of cardiovascular disease and breast cancer. Hip protectors and falls risk assessments may also be considered in the management of high-risk patients.

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      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 18 - A 40-year-old man who has just returned from a skiing trip to Switzerland...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old man who has just returned from a skiing trip to Switzerland presents with a painful swollen knee, which he injured in a fall two days ago. He has not sought medical attention as he doesn't speak Swiss German.
      Which of the following physical signs is most indicative of an anterior cruciate ligament tear?

      Your Answer: Excessive forward movement of the tibia

      Explanation:

      Assessing Ligamentous Integrity in the Knee: Tests for Excessive Movement and Sagging

      The knee joint is stabilized by four major ligaments: the anterior cruciate ligament (ACL), posterior cruciate ligament (PCL), medial collateral ligament (MCL), and lateral collateral ligament (LCL). Injuries to these ligaments can result in instability and pain in the knee. Here are some tests to assess the integrity of these ligaments.

      Excessive forward movement of the tibia is prevented by the ACL. To test for ACL disruption, flex the knee to 90° with the hip flexed to 45° and pull the tibia forward (anterior drawer test). Excessive movement may indicate ACL injury, although ligamentous laxity may be difficult to detect in the acute situation.

      Excessive backward movement of the tibia is prevented by the PCL. To test for PCL integrity, push backwards in relation to the tibia instead of pulling forwards.

      Excessive valgus movement of the tibia is prevented by the MCL, while excessive varus movement is prevented by the LCL. These ligaments can be tested by applying pressure to the inside or outside of the knee joint, respectively.

      Sagging of the tibia when the knee is flexed can indicate PCL injury. To test for this, perform the posterior sag test (gravity drawer test) by flexing the hip and knee to 90° while supporting the leg and looking for posterior sag of the tibia relative to the patella caused by gravitational pull.

      By performing these tests, healthcare professionals can better diagnose and treat knee injuries related to ligamentous instability.

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      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 19 - One of your adolescent patients with a family history of Marfan's syndrome has...

    Correct

    • One of your adolescent patients with a family history of Marfan's syndrome has recently been diagnosed with the condition. What is the most crucial examination to monitor their condition?

      Your Answer: Echocardiography

      Explanation:

      Aortic dissection may be more likely to occur in individuals with Marfan’s syndrome due to the dilation of the aortic sinuses.

      Understanding Marfan’s Syndrome

      Marfan’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects the connective tissue in the body. It is caused by a defect in the FBN1 gene on chromosome 15, which codes for the protein fibrillin-1. This disorder is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern and affects approximately 1 in 3,000 people.

      Individuals with Marfan’s syndrome often have a tall stature with an arm span to height ratio greater than 1.05. They may also have a high-arched palate, arachnodactyly (long, slender fingers), pectus excavatum (sunken chest), pes planus (flat feet), and scoliosis (curvature of the spine). In addition, they may experience cardiovascular problems such as dilation of the aortic sinuses, mitral valve prolapse, and aortic aneurysm, which can lead to aortic dissection and aortic regurgitation. Other symptoms may include repeated pneumothoraces (collapsed lung), upwards lens dislocation, blue sclera, myopia, and ballooning of the dural sac at the lumbosacral level.

      In the past, the life expectancy of individuals with Marfan’s syndrome was around 40-50 years. However, with regular echocardiography monitoring and medication such as beta-blockers and ACE inhibitors, the life expectancy has significantly improved. Despite this, cardiovascular problems remain the leading cause of death in individuals with Marfan’s syndrome.

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  • Question 20 - A 65-year-old woman presents with complaints of lethargy and aching shoulders and upper...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman presents with complaints of lethargy and aching shoulders and upper arms. Suspecting polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR), what other symptom or sign is frequently associated with this condition?

      Your Answer: Polydypsia

      Correct Answer: Back pain

      Explanation:

      Polymyalgia Rheumatica: Symptoms and Presentation

      Polymyalgia Rheumatica (PMR) is a condition that affects individuals over the age of 50. The core features of PMR include bilateral shoulder or pelvic ache, raised erythrocyte sedimentation rate/C reactive protein (ESR/CRP), morning stiffness, and up to 40% of patients may present with weight loss. In addition to these symptoms, patients may also experience systemic symptoms such as lethargy, loss of appetite, or a low-grade fever.

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  • Question 21 - A 57-year-old man comes to your clinic complaining of persistent pain in his...

    Correct

    • A 57-year-old man comes to your clinic complaining of persistent pain in his right hip. He underwent a metal-on-metal hip resurfacing arthroplasty 3 years ago to address early osteoarthritis. Despite improved mobility after the procedure, he has been experiencing discomfort in his hip.

      Your Answer: Refer to orthopaedics

      Explanation:

      If a patient experiences pain after undergoing hip resurfacing with a metal-on-metal bearing, it is crucial to refer them for further investigations, such as an MRI, to rule out the possibility of a pseudotumour. While managing the patient’s pain with analgesics is important, the priority should be to refer them to orthopaedics for further evaluation. Delaying investigations by opting for physiotherapy or a watch-and-wait approach could potentially worsen the situation if a pseudotumour is present. Therefore, referring the patient to orthopaedics should be the primary next step in management.

      Joint Replacement for Osteoarthritis

      Joint replacement, also known as arthroplasty, is the most effective treatment for osteoarthritis patients who experience significant pain. Around 25% of patients are now younger than 60 years old, and despite the common belief that obesity is a barrier to joint replacement, there is only a slight increase in short-term complications. There is no difference in long-term joint replacement survival.

      For hips, the most common type of operation is a cemented hip replacement, where a metal femoral component is cemented into the femoral shaft, accompanied by a cemented acetabular polyethylene cup. However, uncemented hip replacements are becoming increasingly popular, particularly in younger and more active patients, despite being more expensive than conventional cemented hip replacements. Hip resurfacing is also sometimes used, where a metal cap is attached over the femoral head, often in younger patients, and has the advantage of preserving the femoral neck, which may be useful if conventional arthroplasty is needed later in life.

      postoperative recovery involves both physiotherapy and a course of home-exercises, and walking sticks or crutches are usually used for up to 6 weeks after hip or knee replacement surgery. Patients who have had a hip replacement operation should receive basic advice to minimize the risk of dislocation, such as avoiding flexing the hip more than 90 degrees, avoiding low chairs, not crossing their legs, and sleeping on their back for the first 6 weeks.

      Complications of joint replacement surgery include wound and joint infection, thromboembolism, and dislocation. NICE recommends that patients receive low-molecular weight heparin for 4 weeks following a hip replacement to prevent thromboembolism.

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  • Question 22 - A 75-year-old woman is being evaluated in surgery. She has a medical history...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old woman is being evaluated in surgery. She has a medical history of vertebral fractures caused by osteoporosis. However, she cannot tolerate bisphosphonates, so her doctor has initiated raloxifene. What condition would make it inappropriate to prescribe raloxifene?

      Your Answer: Epilepsy

      Correct Answer: A history of venous thromboembolism

      Explanation:

      The use of Raloxifene is associated with an elevated risk of venous thromboembolism.

      Therapeutic Management of Osteoporosis According to NICE Guidelines

      Osteoporosis is a condition that affects bone density and increases the risk of fractures. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has released guidelines on the therapeutic management of osteoporosis. The first-line treatment recommended by NICE is oral alendronate, taken once weekly at a dose of 70mg. If oral alendronate is not tolerated, NICE recommends the use of risk tables to determine whether it is worth trying another treatment. The tables display a minimum T score based on a patient’s age and number of clinical risk factors. If another treatment is indicated, alternative oral bisphosphonates such as risedronate or etidronate are recommended as the second-line treatment.

      If bisphosphonates are not tolerated, NICE recommends reviewing risk tables again to see if further treatment is indicated. Strontium ranelate or raloxifene are recommended as alternative treatments. Strontium ranelate is a ‘dual action bone agent’ that increases the deposition of new bone by osteoblasts and reduces the resorption of bone by inhibiting osteoclasts. However, concerns regarding its safety profile have been raised recently, and it should only be prescribed by a specialist in secondary care. Raloxifene is a selective oestrogen receptor modulator (SERM) that has been shown to prevent bone loss and reduce the risk of vertebral fractures. It may worsen menopausal symptoms and increase the risk of thromboembolic events.

      In summary, NICE guidelines recommend oral alendronate as the first-line treatment for osteoporosis, followed by alternative oral bisphosphonates if necessary. Strontium ranelate or raloxifene may be considered if bisphosphonates are not tolerated, but their use should be carefully monitored due to safety concerns. Clinical judgement may be required when determining the best course of action for individual patients.

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  • Question 23 - A 42-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner (GP) complaining of widespread muscular pain...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner (GP) complaining of widespread muscular pain that has persisted for several months and was previously diagnosed as osteoarthritis by another GP. She also experiences fatigue, sleep disturbance, and constipation. Despite undergoing routine tests, thyroid function tests, and rheumatological investigations, all results have been normal. Her joint examination is also normal. What is the most appropriate treatment to alleviate her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Amitriptyline

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Fibromyalgia: Choosing the Right Medication

      Fibromyalgia is a chronic condition characterized by widespread pain, fatigue, and sleep disturbances. While there is no cure for fibromyalgia, there are several treatment options available to manage its symptoms.

      One medication commonly prescribed for fibromyalgia is amitriptyline, an antidepressant that can improve pain, mood, and sleep quality. Aerobic exercise and cognitive behavior therapy can also be effective in improving overall wellbeing.

      However, medications such as methotrexate and prednisolone are not recommended for fibromyalgia as they are used for inflammatory conditions and lack evidence of benefit for this condition. Strong opioids like slow-release morphine sulfate are also not recommended due to their potential for addiction and tolerance. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs like naproxen may provide short-term relief for acute pain, but are not typically used for chronic pain management in fibromyalgia.

      It is important for patients with fibromyalgia to work closely with their healthcare provider to determine the best treatment plan for their individual needs.

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  • Question 24 - A 67-year old man with a history of osteoarthritis and prior cervical laminectomy...

    Correct

    • A 67-year old man with a history of osteoarthritis and prior cervical laminectomy for degenerative cervical myelopathy reports a 2-month progression of gait instability and urinary urgency. What is the most probable cause of his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Recurrent degenerative cervical myelopathy

      Explanation:

      Patients who have undergone decompressive surgery for cervical myelopathy need to be closely monitored postoperatively as there is a risk of adjacent segment disease, where pathology can recur at spinal levels that were not treated during the initial surgery. Additionally, spinal dynamics can be altered by surgery, increasing the likelihood of other levels being affected and causing mal-alignment of the spine, such as kyphosis and spondylolisthesis, which can also impact the spinal cord. If patients experience recurrent symptoms, they should be urgently evaluated by specialist spinal services.

      Transverse myelitis typically presents more suddenly than in this case, with a sensory level and upper motor neuron signs below the affected level. It is often seen in patients with multiple sclerosis or Devics disease (neuromyelitis optica), who may also experience optic neuritis.

      On the other hand, the patient’s symptoms are more consistent with recurrent cervical myelopathy, given his medical history and subacute presentation. Cauda equina syndrome, which results from compression of the cauda equina and typically includes leg weakness, saddle anesthesia, and sphincter disturbance, is less likely in this case.

      Degenerative cervical myelopathy (DCM) is a condition that has several risk factors, including smoking, genetics, and certain occupations that expose individuals to high axial loading. The symptoms of DCM can vary in severity and may include pain, loss of motor function, loss of sensory function, and loss of autonomic function. Early symptoms may be subtle and difficult to detect, but as the condition progresses, symptoms may worsen or new symptoms may appear. An MRI of the cervical spine is the gold standard test for diagnosing cervical myelopathy. All patients with DCM should be urgently referred to specialist spinal services for assessment and treatment. Decompressive surgery is currently the only effective treatment for DCM, and early treatment offers the best chance of a full recovery. Physiotherapy should only be initiated by specialist services to prevent further spinal cord damage.

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  • Question 25 - A 59-year-old woman has been treated for six months for reflux oesophagitis. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 59-year-old woman has been treated for six months for reflux oesophagitis. She also has a history of hypertension, Raynaud syndrome and telangiectasia. Autoimmune screening reveals a positive antinuclear antibody test and positive extractable nuclear antibody to Scl-70 (anti-topoisomerase-1). Renal function testing reveals a creatinine of 215 µmol/l (50–120 µmol/l).
      What is the most probable reason for this patient's kidney dysfunction? Choose ONE option only.

      Your Answer: Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)

      Correct Answer: Systemic sclerosis

      Explanation:

      The patient is likely suffering from systemic sclerosis, a connective tissue disease that affects multiple systems in the body. Symptoms such as oesophageal dysmotility, telangiectasia, Raynaud’s phenomenon, and renal dysfunction are all indicative of this condition. Treatment can be challenging, especially if there is associated pulmonary fibrosis, hypertension, and cardiac fibrosis. Renal involvement in systemic sclerosis carries a poor prognosis, and renal failure is a common outcome. The presence of positive anti-SCL-70 antibodies strongly supports a diagnosis of systemic sclerosis. Other conditions such as membranous glomerulonephritis, rheumatoid arthritis, systemic lupus erythematosus, and granulomatosis with polyangiitis are less likely to be the cause of the patient’s symptoms.

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  • Question 26 - A 32-year-old man presents to you with his test results. He has experienced...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old man presents to you with his test results. He has experienced three instances of a swollen left big toe in the past year. As a delivery driver, each episode prevents him from working for at least 5 days. He typically takes paracetamol and ibuprofen, but was given colchicine during his last attack which greatly improved his symptoms. He is not currently taking any other medications. A colleague ordered a blood test 4 weeks after his most recent episode, which revealed a serum urate level of 450µmol/L. He is curious if there are any preventative measures he can take to avoid future attacks. What would be your recommended course of action?

      Your Answer: Start allopurinol now

      Explanation:

      Gout Treatment Guidelines

      Gout is a condition that requires proper management to prevent acute attacks and complications. When initiating prophylactic medication for gout, it is important to be aware of the criteria for starting allopurinol. This medication can be started after two or more attacks of gout within a year or after the first attack in people at higher risk. However, allopurinol should not be initiated during an acute attack and should be started 1-2 weeks after inflammation has settled. The dose should be titrated every few weeks until the serum uric acid level is below 300µmol/L.

      When starting allopurinol, a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory tablet or colchicine should be co-prescribed and advised if an acute attack is precipitated. It is important to note that colchicine is only used for acute attacks and should not be used lifelong or for prophylaxis. Fenbuxostat is second-line therapy if allopurinol is not tolerated or is contraindicated.

      A rheumatology referral is not indicated at present and should only be instigated if the diagnosis is uncertain or the patient is having acute attacks despite maximum doses of prophylactic medication or if complications are present. For more information on gout treatment guidelines, please refer to the CKS website.

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  • Question 27 - A 28-year-old man presents with swelling and pain in the proximal interphalangeal joints...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old man presents with swelling and pain in the proximal interphalangeal joints of both hands. Both hands show ulnar deviation, with pitting of the nails and onycholysis.
      What is the single most likely cause of this patient’s condition?

      Your Answer: Psoriatic arthritis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Psoriatic Arthritis and its Differential Diagnosis

      Psoriatic arthritis is a condition that affects at least 5% of patients with psoriasis. It can occur with or without visible skin lesions and may only involve the nails. The disease can present in various ways, including asymmetrical oligoarticular arthritis, asymmetrical polyarthritis similar to rheumatoid arthritis, distal interphalangeal arthropathy, arthritis mutilans, and spondylitis with or without sacroiliitis. Dactylitis, or sausage-shaped digits, is a characteristic feature of psoriatic arthritis due to tendon and ligament inflammation.

      Dermatophyte fungal infection is limited to the skin, hair, and nails and doesn’t affect joints. Gonococcal arthritis may cause migratory arthralgia or septic arthritis in a small number of joints. Reactive arthritis typically presents with symmetrical oligoarthritis, low back pain, heel pain, and possible urethritis and conjunctivitis. Rheumatoid arthritis usually presents with tender, warm, and swollen joints, along with joint stiffness that is worse in the morning and after inactivity. However, the nail changes described in this case make psoriatic arthritis a more likely diagnosis.

      In summary, understanding the various modes of presentation and differential diagnosis of psoriatic arthritis is crucial for accurate diagnosis and effective management of the disease.

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  • Question 28 - A 7-year-old girl has fallen off the monkey bars and is now not...

    Correct

    • A 7-year-old girl has fallen off the monkey bars and is now not using her right arm. Her mother brings her to the minor injury department and an X-ray is taken. The X-ray shows a non-displaced fracture of the distal third of the humerus. There is no neurovascular involvement.
      What is the most appropriate management option in this case?

      Your Answer: Immobilising sling

      Explanation:

      Management of Clavicle Fracture: Immobilising Sling and Analgesia

      When a patient presents with an uncomplicated clavicle fracture, the correct management is to use an immobilising sling. This allows the fracture to heal in the correct position and reduces the patient’s pain during the healing process. Without immobilisation, the fracture could become displaced, leading to poor healing and loss of function. Analgesia and reassurance are also important to manage the patient’s pain and anxiety.

      It is important to note that a closed reduction is only necessary if the bones are out of alignment, and an open reduction and internal fixation are only indicated if there is neurovascular compromise. In this case, neither procedure is required as the fracture is non-displaced and there is no neurovascular compromise.

      Overall, the management of a clavicle fracture involves immobilisation, pain management, and careful monitoring for any complications.

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  • Question 29 - A 55-year-old woman presents with a painful left shoulder and limited range of...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman presents with a painful left shoulder and limited range of motion. The clinician suspects adhesive capsulitis (frozen shoulder).
      Which statement is best supported by evidence?

      Your Answer: Physiotherapy plus a corticosteroid injection is significantly superior to other treatment options in terms of long-term benefit

      Correct Answer: Spontaneous resolution occurs within 18 months to 3 years

      Explanation:

      Understanding Frozen Shoulder: Treatment Options and Efficacy

      Frozen shoulder is a common condition that causes pain and stiffness in the shoulder joint. While it is self-limiting and can resolve within 18 months to 3 years, it can still cause significant morbidity. The most effective treatments for frozen shoulder are still largely unclear, but several interventions are commonly used in general practice.

      Contrary to popular belief, intra-articular corticosteroid injection may only provide small and short-term benefits for frozen shoulder. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) are used for pain relief, but only after non-NSAIDs have been tried. Physiotherapy has been shown to have some benefit in the short-to-medium term, but its long-term efficacy is still uncertain.

      Current evidence doesn’t adequately identify the clinical situations for which a corticosteroid injection (with or without physiotherapy) is most likely to be effective. Therefore, a combination of different treatments may be necessary to manage frozen shoulder effectively. Understanding the available treatment options and their efficacy can help patients and healthcare providers make informed decisions about managing frozen shoulder.

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  • Question 30 - A 42-year-old shop stocking agent presents to her GP with complaints of pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old shop stocking agent presents to her GP with complaints of pain in both wrists and numbness and tingling at night. She reports needing to shake her wrists in the morning to regain feeling in her fingers. On examination, there is no evidence of neurovascular compromise in her hands, but Phalen's test is positive. Grip strength is reduced, and wrist range of motion is normal.

      What is the recommended initial treatment?

      Your Answer: Carpal tunnel release surgery

      Correct Answer: Wrist splinting +/- steroid injection

      Explanation:

      Carpal tunnel syndrome is a condition that occurs when the median nerve in the carpal tunnel is compressed. This can cause pain and pins and needles sensations in the thumb, index, and middle fingers. In some cases, the symptoms may even travel up the arm. Patients may shake their hand to alleviate the discomfort, especially at night. During an examination, weakness in thumb abduction and wasting of the thenar eminence may be observed. Tapping on the affected area may also cause paraesthesia, and flexing the wrist can trigger symptoms.

      There are several potential causes of carpal tunnel syndrome, including idiopathic factors, pregnancy, oedema, lunate fractures, and rheumatoid arthritis. Electrophysiology tests may reveal prolongation of the action potential in both motor and sensory nerves. Treatment options may include a six-week trial of conservative measures such as wrist splints at night or corticosteroid injections. If symptoms persist or are severe, surgical decompression may be necessary, which involves dividing the flexor retinaculum.

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  • Question 31 - A 35-year-old woman recently diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis has increasing joint pain and...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman recently diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis has increasing joint pain and stiffness throughout the day.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate initial treatment?

      Your Answer: Paracetamol and codeine

      Correct Answer: Oral non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Ankylosing Spondylitis

      Ankylosing spondylitis is a type of inflammatory arthritis that primarily affects the spine and sacroiliac joints. The following are some of the treatment options available for managing this condition:

      Oral Non-Steroidal Anti-Inflammatory Drugs (NSAIDs)
      NSAIDs are the first-line medication recommended by the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) for managing ankylosing spondylitis. They help to reduce pain and stiffness in the affected joints.

      Corticosteroid Injection
      Intra-articular steroid injections can be used to treat a flare of ankylosing spondylitis that has not responded to oral NSAIDs or other oral treatments. However, repeated injections are associated with risks such as joint infection.

      Oral Corticosteroids
      Oral corticosteroids can be used to treat symptoms that are not responding to other oral treatments. However, their use is limited due to the multiple complications and side effects associated with long-term use.

      Paracetamol and Codeine
      If patients have an allergy, severe asthma, or a high risk for gastrointestinal bleeding, alternative analgesia should be considered, such as paracetamol and codeine.

      Tumour Necrosis Factor (TNF)-Alpha Inhibitor
      TNF-alpha inhibitors are used to treat ankylosing spondylitis in patients whose symptoms are not controlled on other treatments. However, they must be prescribed and monitored in secondary care.

      Managing Ankylosing Spondylitis: Treatment Options

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  • Question 32 - A 42-year-old man presents with elbow pain.
    Which physical examination finding would be most...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old man presents with elbow pain.
      Which physical examination finding would be most indicative of a diagnosis of tennis elbow? Choose ONE answer.

      Your Answer: Pain on resisted wrist extension

      Explanation:

      Understanding Tennis Elbow: Symptoms and Causes

      Tennis elbow, also known as lateral epicondylitis, is a common condition that causes pain and tenderness in the lateral elbow and upper forearm. It is caused by repetitive stress on the extensor forearm muscle, specifically at the muscle-tendon junction at the lateral epicondyle. This article will discuss the symptoms and causes of tennis elbow.

      Symptoms of Tennis Elbow:
      – Lateral elbow and upper forearm pain and tenderness
      – Pain exacerbated by active and resisted movements of the extensor muscles of the forearm
      – Pain on resisted extension of the wrist or middle finger

      Causes of Tennis Elbow:
      – Repetitive stress on the extensor forearm muscle
      – Overuse of the forearm muscles during activities such as tennis, painting, or typing
      – Poor technique or equipment during physical activities
      – Age-related degeneration of the tendons

      It is important to note that decreased sensation in the 4th and 5th fingers is not a symptom of tennis elbow, but rather a feature of ulnar neuropathy that may be associated with medial epicondylitis (Golfer’s elbow). Severe restriction of passive movement and swelling of the elbow joint are also not typical symptoms of tennis elbow. Tenderness over the medial epicondyle of the humerus is a symptom of Golfer’s elbow, which is inflammation of the tendon at the origin of the flexor forearm muscles causing medial elbow pain.

      If you are experiencing symptoms of tennis elbow, it is important to seek medical attention and rest the affected arm to prevent further injury. Treatment options may include physical therapy, pain management, and in severe cases, surgery.

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  • Question 33 - What is the minimum steroid dosage that a patient should be on before...

    Incorrect

    • What is the minimum steroid dosage that a patient should be on before being considered for osteoporosis prevention?

      Your Answer: Equivalent of prednisolone 10 mg or more each day for 6 weeks

      Correct Answer: Equivalent of prednisolone 7.5 mg or more each day for 3 months

      Explanation:

      Managing Osteoporosis Risk in Patients on Corticosteroids

      Osteoporosis is a significant risk for patients taking corticosteroids, which are commonly used in clinical practice. To manage this risk appropriately, the 2002 Royal College of Physicians (RCP) guidelines provide a concise guide to prevention and treatment. According to these guidelines, the risk of osteoporosis increases significantly once a patient takes the equivalent of prednisolone 7.5mg a day for three or more months. Therefore, it is crucial to manage patients in an anticipatory manner, starting bone protection immediately if it is likely that the patient will need to take steroids for at least three months.

      The RCP guidelines divide patients into two groups based on age and fragility fracture history. Patients over the age of 65 years or those who have previously had a fragility fracture should be offered bone protection. For patients under the age of 65 years, a bone density scan should be offered, and further management depends on the T score. If the T score is greater than 0, patients can be reassured. If the T score is between 0 and -1.5, a repeat bone density scan should be done in 1-3 years. If the T score is less than -1.5, bone protection should be offered.

      The first-line treatment for corticosteroid-induced osteoporosis is alendronate. Patients should also be replete in calcium and vitamin D. By following these guidelines, healthcare providers can effectively manage the risk of osteoporosis in patients taking corticosteroids.

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  • Question 34 - A 14-year-old female comes to the clinic with her mother. She reports left...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old female comes to the clinic with her mother. She reports left knee pain for the past 4 weeks without any history of injury. She feels more tired than usual but is not otherwise unwell. Upon examination, her BMI is normal, and her vital signs are unremarkable. The left knee appears normal, and there is a full range of motion. All other joints are also normal. What is the best next step in management?

      Your Answer: Watch and wait, review in 2 weeks if no better

      Correct Answer: Direct access X ray (within 48 hours)

      Explanation:

      Types of Bone Tumours

      Benign and malignant bone tumours are two types of bone tumours. Benign bone tumours are non-cancerous and do not spread to other parts of the body. Osteoma is a benign overgrowth of bone that usually occurs on the skull and is associated with Gardner’s syndrome. Osteochondroma, the most common benign bone tumour, is a cartilage-capped bony projection on the external surface of a bone. Giant cell tumour is a tumour of multinucleated giant cells within a fibrous stroma that occurs most frequently in the epiphyses of long bones.

      Malignant bone tumours are cancerous and can spread to other parts of the body. Osteosarcoma is the most common primary malignant bone tumour that mainly affects children and adolescents. It occurs most frequently in the metaphyseal region of long bones prior to epiphyseal closure. Ewing’s sarcoma is a small round blue cell tumour that mainly affects children and adolescents. It occurs most frequently in the pelvis and long bones and is associated with t(11;22) translocation. Chondrosarcoma is a malignant tumour of cartilage that most commonly affects the axial skeleton and is more common in middle-age.

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  • Question 35 - A 4-year-old girl has bowed legs, thick wrists and dental caries. Her weight...

    Correct

    • A 4-year-old girl has bowed legs, thick wrists and dental caries. Her weight (12 kg) and height (85 cm) are now below the 3rd centile for her age. She has failure to thrive. She is still predominantly breastfed. No problems were reported during the antenatal period, at delivery or at the postnatal stage.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Rickets

      Explanation:

      Pediatric Orthopedic Conditions: Rickets, Blount’s Disease, Child Abuse, Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis, and Physiological Genu Varum

      Rickets, a condition characterized by bony abnormalities such as bowed legs and knock-knees, was once prevalent in the Western world but has since been largely eradicated through vitamin D fortification. However, it still affects some children, particularly those who are black or breastfed. Blood testing can reveal low levels of vitamin D and hypocalcaemia, while X-rays may show cupping, splaying, and fraying of the metaphysis. Blount’s disease, which causes bowed legs due to tibial growth plate disorders, can be difficult to distinguish from physiological genu varum in children under two years old. Child abuse allegations may arise when infants with rickets suffer bone fractures. Juvenile idiopathic arthritis, an autoimmune inflammatory joint disease, is the most common form of arthritis in children and adolescents. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these pediatric orthopedic conditions and to properly diagnose and treat them.

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  • Question 36 - A 35-year-old man falls and sprains his thumb while skiing. His thumb was...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man falls and sprains his thumb while skiing. His thumb was outstretched at the time of the fall. On examination, there is significant pain and laxity of the thumb on valgus stress.
      What is the most probable injury observed in this case?

      Your Answer: Scaphoid fracture

      Correct Answer: Ulnar collateral ligament tear

      Explanation:

      The ulnar collateral ligament tear, also known as Gamekeeper’s thumb or skier’s thumb, is a common injury among skiers who fall against the ski-pole, strap, or ground while the thumb is abducted. This ligament connects the middle of the metacarpal head to the palmar aspect of the proximal phalanx and supports the thumb when pinching or gripping. The tear can be partial or complete, and there may be an associated avulsion fracture of the volar base of the proximal phalanx. Symptoms include hyperextension and lateral deviation of the thumb, swelling, bruising over the joint, and pain felt over the ulnar side of the metacarpo-phalangeal joint. Treatment involves immobilization in a thumb spica splint for 4-6 weeks if the joint is stable, otherwise referral for possible surgical repair is indicated. De Quervain’s tenosynovitis, osteoarthritis of the metacarpo-phalyngeal joint, radial collateral ligament tear, and scaphoid fracture are different conditions and not related to ulnar collateral ligament tear.

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  • Question 37 - A 42-year-old woman has developed symmetrical synovitis affecting the small joints of the...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman has developed symmetrical synovitis affecting the small joints of the hands and feet. This has persisted for eight weeks. She has returned to her General Practitioner (GP) to discuss her test results. Her C-reactive protein is slightly elevated but her test for rheumatoid factor is negative.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate management option in primary care in addition to analgesia?

      Your Answer: Routine referral to rheumatology

      Correct Answer: Urgent referral to rheumatology

      Explanation:

      The Importance of Urgent Referral to Rheumatology for Suspected Rheumatoid Arthritis

      Suspected rheumatoid arthritis requires urgent referral to a rheumatologist to prevent irreversible joint damage. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends immediate referral as there is no specific diagnostic test for rheumatoid arthritis, and delaying treatment can lead to joint deformity and pain. Corticosteroids and DMARDs such as sulfasalazine are effective treatments, but should only be prescribed by a specialist. Repeat testing is not recommended as rheumatoid factors can be negative in a significant number of cases. Early referral to rheumatology is crucial for managing suspected rheumatoid arthritis and preventing long-term disability.

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  • Question 38 - You are conducting the yearly evaluation of a 55-year-old woman with rheumatoid arthritis....

    Correct

    • You are conducting the yearly evaluation of a 55-year-old woman with rheumatoid arthritis. What is the most probable complication that may arise due to her condition?

      Your Answer: Ischaemic heart disease

      Explanation:

      Patients with rheumatoid arthritis are at a higher risk of developing IHD.

      Complications of Rheumatoid Arthritis

      Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is a chronic autoimmune disease that affects the joints, causing inflammation and pain. However, it can also lead to a variety of extra-articular complications. These complications can affect different parts of the body, including the respiratory system, eyes, bones, heart, and mental health.

      Respiratory complications of RA include pulmonary fibrosis, pleural effusion, pulmonary nodules, bronchiolitis obliterans, methotrexate pneumonitis, and pleurisy. Ocular complications can include keratoconjunctivitis sicca, episcleritis, scleritis, corneal ulceration, keratitis, steroid-induced cataracts, and chloroquine retinopathy. RA can also lead to osteoporosis, ischaemic heart disease, and an increased risk of infections. Depression is also a common complication of RA.

      Less common complications of RA include Felty’s syndrome, which is characterized by RA, splenomegaly, and a low white cell count, and amyloidosis, which is a rare condition where abnormal proteins build up in organs and tissues.

      In summary, RA can lead to a variety of complications that affect different parts of the body. It is important for patients with RA to be aware of these potential complications and to work closely with their healthcare providers to manage their condition and prevent or treat any complications that may arise.

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  • Question 39 - You examine a femoral X-ray of a 14-year-old girl that you ordered yesterday....

    Correct

    • You examine a femoral X-ray of a 14-year-old girl that you ordered yesterday. She complained of persistent bone pain in her distal femur for the past month. The X-ray reveals destruction of the medullary and cortical bone in the distal femur. What is the recommended follow-up for this X-ray?

      Your Answer: Ensure patient is seen by a specialist within 48 hours

      Explanation:

      An urgent referral is required for specialist assessment of children and young people who have an X-ray indicating bone sarcoma, with a timeframe of less than 48 hours. This is particularly important for a child who presents with symptoms suggestive of osteosarcoma, as bony destruction is a typical finding. According to NICE guidelines, suspected cancer in children should be referred urgently within 48 hours, rather than the 2-week pathway for adults. Medications such as vitamin D, calcium, and alendronate are used to treat osteoporosis, which is not likely to be the primary cause of the child’s X-ray. If required, specialists may request a bone marrow biopsy, which cannot be performed at the GP surgery.

      Sarcomas: Types, Features, and Assessment

      Sarcomas are malignant tumors that originate from mesenchymal cells. They can either be bone or soft tissue in origin. Bone sarcomas include osteosarcoma, Ewing’s sarcoma, and chondrosarcoma, while soft tissue sarcomas are a more diverse group that includes liposarcoma, rhabdomyosarcoma, leiomyosarcoma, and synovial sarcomas. Malignant fibrous histiocytoma is a sarcoma that can arise in both soft tissue and bone.

      Certain features of a mass or swelling should raise suspicion for a sarcoma, such as a large (>5cm) soft tissue mass, deep tissue or intramuscular location, rapid growth, and a painful lump. Imaging of suspicious masses should utilize a combination of MRI, CT, and USS. Blind biopsy should not be performed prior to imaging, and where required, should be done in such a way that the biopsy tract can be subsequently included in any resection.

      Ewing’s sarcoma is more common in males, with an incidence of 0.3/1,000,000 and onset typically between 10 and 20 years of age. Osteosarcoma is more common in males, with an incidence of 5/1,000,000 and peak age 15-30. Liposarcoma is rare, with an incidence of approximately 2.5/1,000,000, and typically affects an older age group (>40 years of age). Malignant fibrous histiocytoma is the most common sarcoma in adults and is usually treated with surgical resection and adjuvant radiotherapy.

      In summary, sarcomas are a diverse group of malignant tumors that can arise from bone or soft tissue. Certain features of a mass or swelling should raise suspicion for a sarcoma, and imaging should utilize a combination of MRI, CT, and USS. Treatment options vary depending on the type and location of the sarcoma.

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  • Question 40 - A 65-year-old woman presents for her medication review. She was prescribed alendronate three...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman presents for her medication review. She was prescribed alendronate three years ago after being diagnosed with osteoporosis following a wrist fracture. The patient inquires about the duration of bone protection therapy.

      When is the optimal time to evaluate her risk and determine if ongoing treatment is necessary?

      Your Answer: At 5 years

      Explanation:

      Monitoring Osteoporosis Treatment: What Patients Need to Know

      After starting bone protection treatment, patients often wonder how they can tell if the treatment is working and if they need to repeat the DEXA scan. Unfortunately, there is little clear guidance from major guidelines on these issues. However, the general consensus is that patients do not need to assess their bone mineral density once bone protection has been started. This is because there is limited evidence of any link between improvement in bone mineral density and reduction in fracture risk.

      As for the length of treatment, the National Osteoporosis Guideline Group (NOGG) recommends a treatment review after 5 years of treatment for alendronate, risedronate, or ibandronate, and after 3 years for zoledronic acid. This review will likely involve a recalculation of the patient’s fracture risk and a DEXA scan. It is important for patients to follow their healthcare provider’s recommendations and attend regular check-ups to ensure the best possible outcomes for their osteoporosis treatment.

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  • Question 41 - A 35-year-old man works for a removal firm. While manoeuvring a package through...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man works for a removal firm. While manoeuvring a package through a difficult space on the previous day, he felt pain in his lower back. Now he has persistent pain that is worse on movement but no other symptoms. He walks awkwardly into the room. He is reasonably comfortable in bed if he takes ibuprofen.
      What is the most appropriate management option?

      Your Answer: Urgent orthopaedic referral

      Correct Answer: Advise to keep active

      Explanation:

      Active Rehabilitation for Low Back Pain: Advice and Referral Guidelines

      Low back pain, also known as mechanical low back pain, is a common condition that cannot be attributed to any specific pathology. In the past, rest was recommended for back pain, but current guidelines recommend active rehabilitation. This involves keeping the patient active and providing pain relief to facilitate this. Most people experience a reduction in pain within a month and can return to work in that time. However, there is a high risk of recurrence.

      Bed rest should not be recommended except in exceptional cases and for no longer than 48 hours. Physiotherapy should be considered if pain or disability persists for more than two weeks or if there is a risk of a poor outcome. Referral to the Accident & Emergency Department is only appropriate if there are red flag symptoms and signs suggesting cauda equina syndrome or a spinal fracture. Urgent orthopaedic referral is only necessary if there are red flag symptoms and signs suggesting cauda equina syndrome, spinal fracture, cancer, or infection. Psychological factors are also important in the transition from acute to chronic low back pain.

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  • Question 42 - Of all the malignant tumours, which one has the greatest tendency to spread...

    Correct

    • Of all the malignant tumours, which one has the greatest tendency to spread to the bone?

      Your Answer: Prostate

      Explanation:

      Common Sites of Bone Metastasis in Different Cancers

      Bone metastasis is a common occurrence in advanced stages of cancer, with the third most frequent site being the bone, following the liver and lungs. Breast and prostate cancers are the leading causes of skeletal metastases. In patients with advanced metastatic disease, the relative incidence of bone metastasis is 65-75% for both breast and prostate cancer.

      However, the prevalence of a cancer determines the frequency of metastases from that particular cancer. The overall frequencies of carcinoma-related bone metastases for both sexes involve breast, prostate, lung, colon, stomach, bladder, uterus, rectum, thyroid, and kidney, in descending order of frequency.

      It is important to note that the relative incidence of bone metastasis in advanced metastatic bladder cancer is 40%, while it is 20-25% for advanced metastatic kidney cancer. The relative incidence of bone metastasis in advanced metastatic lung cancer is also 40%, while it is 60% for advanced metastatic thyroid cancer. Understanding the common sites of bone metastasis in different cancers can aid in early detection and treatment.

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  • Question 43 - You have been caring for a 50-year-old man with chronic lower back pain...

    Correct

    • You have been caring for a 50-year-old man with chronic lower back pain for a while now. As you review his medications, you notice that he has been taking regular paracetamol, PRN NSAIDs, and oral morphine. He is currently taking a total of 120mg of morphine within 24 hours, but he is uncertain if it has ever been effective and requests an increase in dosage. What would be the most appropriate next step in managing his pain?

      Your Answer: Switch to a different opioid

      Explanation:

      Maximum Oral Morphine Use and Tapering Off

      The Faculty of Pain Management has established a maximum threshold for oral morphine use to prevent harm without additional benefits. The maximum dose should not exceed 120mg/day of oral morphine equivalent. In cases where patients report no benefit from the medication, it is sensible to taper them off completely. This approach is unlikely to lead to increased pain and can free the patient from opioid-related side effects. Switching to a different opioid or route of administration is also unlikely to be beneficial if the patient has reported no benefit from the current dose. Immediate-release preparations can provide flexibility in dosing, and patients can be encouraged to avoid taking opioids whenever possible.

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  • Question 44 - Dr. Patel, a family physician, receives a Ted Baker wallet from a patient...

    Incorrect

    • Dr. Patel, a family physician, receives a Ted Baker wallet from a patient during the holiday season. The wallet is priced at £80 online. Dr. Patel had been extensively involved in the care of the patient who was suffering from osteoarthritis of the left shoulder. The patient required several joint injections and consultations to discuss oral analgesia. What should Dr. Patel do regarding the gift?

      Your Answer: Call up the patient to thank them, accept the gift and place the gift on the practice gift register

      Correct Answer: Call up the patient to thank them, accept the gift and not place the gift on the practice gift register

      Explanation:

      According to the NHS General Medical Services Contracts Regulations 2004, GPs are required to maintain a register of gifts worth £100 or more from patients or their relatives. The register should contain details such as the name and address of the patient, the nature and estimated value of the gift, and the name of the recipient. The register must be made available to NHS England upon request. However, if the GP believes that the gift is unrelated to the services provided or is unaware of the gift, it need not be included in the register.

      The GMC’s Good Medical Practice guidelines provide guidance on accepting gifts from patients. It states that doctors should not accept any gift or hospitality that may influence or appear to influence their treatment, prescription, referral, or commissioning of services for patients. Doctors should also not encourage patients to offer gifts that may benefit them directly or indirectly. However, gifts may be accepted if they do not affect the doctor’s professional judgment and if the patient or their relatives have not been pressured or influenced to offer the gift.

      In this scenario, it would not be appropriate to decline the gift as it may offend the patient who is expressing gratitude for their care. It would also be unfair to ask the patient to provide cash instead of the gift. Offering longer appointment times as an advantage to patients who provide gifts would be considered unethical and unfair to other patients.

      As a doctor, it is important to adhere to the guidelines set forth by the GMC. One such guideline states that doctors should not accept any gifts, inducements, or hospitality from patients, colleagues, or others that could potentially influence or be perceived to influence their treatment, prescription, referral, or commissioning of services for patients. It is crucial to maintain a professional and ethical relationship with patients, and accepting gifts can compromise this relationship. Therefore, doctors should always be mindful of the GMC’s guidance and avoid accepting any gifts that could potentially affect their judgment or decision-making.

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  • Question 45 - A 32-year-old woman with a history of antiphospholipid syndrome presents with a swollen...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman with a history of antiphospholipid syndrome presents with a swollen and painful leg. Doppler ultrasound confirms a deep vein thrombosis (DVT). She had a previous DVT 6 months ago and was taking warfarin (with a target INR of 2-3) when the DVT occurred. How should her anticoagulation be managed?

      Your Answer: Lifelong warfarin, target INR 2 - 3

      Correct Answer: Lifelong warfarin, increase target INR to 3 - 4

      Explanation:

      Although there is limited evidence available, many clinicians would recommend raising the target INR to 3-4 for patients who have experienced another thrombosis while maintaining an INR of 2-3. For further information, please refer to the BCSH guidelines.

      Antiphospholipid syndrome is a condition that can be acquired and is characterized by a higher risk of both venous and arterial thromboses, recurrent fetal loss, and thrombocytopenia. It can occur as a primary disorder or secondary to other conditions, with systemic lupus erythematosus being the most common. One important point to remember for exams is that antiphospholipid syndrome causes a paradoxical increase in the APTT due to an ex-vivo reaction of lupus anticoagulant autoantibodies with phospholipids involved in the coagulation cascade.

      Other features of antiphospholipid syndrome include livedo reticularis, pre-eclampsia, and pulmonary hypertension. It is associated with other autoimmune disorders and lymphoproliferative disorders, as well as rare cases of phenothiazines. Management of antiphospholipid syndrome is based on EULAR guidelines, with primary thromboprophylaxis and low-dose aspirin being recommended. For secondary thromboprophylaxis, lifelong warfarin with a target INR of 2-3 is recommended for initial venous thromboembolic events, while recurrent venous thromboembolic events require lifelong warfarin and may benefit from the addition of low-dose aspirin and an increased target INR of 3-4. Arterial thrombosis should also be treated with lifelong warfarin with a target INR of 2-3.

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  • Question 46 - Samantha is a 58-year-old woman who works from home as a freelance writer....

    Incorrect

    • Samantha is a 58-year-old woman who works from home as a freelance writer. She owns her own home but requires assistance with daily tasks due to her severe osteoarthritis. She recently applied for Attendance Allowance but was informed that she is not eligible. What is the reason for Samantha's ineligibility for Attendance Allowance?

      Your Answer: Because Greg is in employment

      Correct Answer: Because Greg is aged under 65 years

      Explanation:

      The reason why Greg is not eligible for Attendance Allowance is because he is under 65 years of age. This benefit is specifically for individuals who are over 65 and require assistance with personal care due to physical or mental disability. Those who are under 65 and require similar assistance should apply for Personal Independence Payment instead. To be eligible for Attendance Allowance, one must have a physical or mental disability that is severe enough to require assistance with personal care or supervision for safety reasons. The allowance is paid at different levels depending on the level of assistance required.

      Patients who suffer from chronic illnesses or cancer and require assistance with caring for themselves may be eligible for benefits. Those under the age of 65 can claim Personal Independence Payment (PIP), while those aged 65 and over can claim Attendance Allowance (AA). PIP is tax-free and divided into two components: daily living and mobility. Patients must have a long-term health condition or disability and have difficulties with activities related to daily living and/or mobility for at least 3 months, with an expectation that these difficulties will last for at least 9 months. AA is also tax-free and is for those who need help with personal care. Patients should have needed help for at least 6 months to claim AA.

      Patients who have a terminal illness and are not expected to live for more than 6 months can be fast-tracked through the system for claiming incapacity benefit (IB), employment support allowance (ESA), DLA or AA. A DS1500 form is completed by a hospital or hospice consultant, which contains questions about the diagnosis, clinical features, treatment, and whether the patient is aware of the condition/prognosis. The form is given directly to the patient and a fee is payable by the Department for Works and Pensions (DWP) for its completion. This ensures that the application is dealt with promptly and that the patient automatically receives the higher rate.

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  • Question 47 - A 35-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with a 3-day history of...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with a 3-day history of a painful and swollen right knee. She is pyrexial with a temperature of 38.0 °C and has had chills. She mentions that she developed a painful left ear and saw her doctor six days ago who told her she had an ear infection and prescribed antibiotics. Her right knee is swollen, red, tender and slightly flexed. A diagnosis of septic arthritis is made.
      Which of the following is the single most likely causative organism?

      Your Answer: Staphylococcus aureus

      Explanation:

      Septic Arthritis: Common Causal Organisms and Symptoms

      Septic arthritis is a condition resulting from joint infection with pyogenic organisms. The most common causal organism is Staphylococcus aureus, which enters the joint through the bloodstream from known sites of infection. Patients typically experience pain, redness, warmth, and swelling in a single joint, most commonly the knee. Aspiration and fluid culture are diagnostic, and immediate treatment with appropriate antibiotics is crucial to prevent cartilage destruction. Joint immobilization is also recommended. Patients with prior joint damage or prosthetic joints are at higher risk.

      Other causal organisms include Neisseria meningitides, which can cause polyarthropathy, fever, and skin changes; Haemophilus influenza, which is common in children under three years old; and Streptococcus pyogenes, a common organism in ear, nose, and throat infections. Gram-negative rods, such as Escherichia coli, are rare causes of septic arthritis. It is important to differentiate septic arthritis from other similar conditions, such as transient synovitis, especially in children.

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  • Question 48 - A 75-year-old man with a history of osteoarthritis and high blood pressure presents...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old man with a history of osteoarthritis and high blood pressure presents to the GP for a follow-up on recent test results. He follows a vegetarian diet and enjoys gardening. On examination, he has joint deformities in his fingers but is otherwise unremarkable. His DEXA scan T-score was -2.5. The table below shows his blood test results.

      Calcium 2.0 mmol/L (2.1-2.6)
      Phosphate 1.2 mmol/L (0.8-1.4)
      Magnesium 0.9 mmol/L (0.7-1.0)
      Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) 2.5 mU/L (0.5-5.5)
      Free thyroxine (T4) 14 pmol/L (9.0 - 18)
      Amylase 250 U/L (70 - 300)
      Uric acid 0.22 mmol/L (0.18 - 0.48)
      Creatine kinase 150 U/L (35 - 250)

      What is the initial treatment that should be started?

      Your Answer: Calcium replacement

      Explanation:

      Before administering bisphosphonates, it is important to correct hypocalcemia/vitamin D deficiency. Therefore, calcium replacement is the correct choice for this patient. If dietary intake is inadequate, calcium should be prescribed when starting bisphosphonate treatment for osteoporosis. As this patient is vegan and hypocalcemic, it is likely that her dietary intake is insufficient, making calcium replacement necessary.

      While alendronate is a suitable first-line bisphosphonate, it cannot be initiated until the patient’s hypocalcemia is corrected.

      Dietary and lifestyle advice alone is not appropriate for this patient, as she requires correction of her hypocalcemia and osteopenia. However, such advice may be given in conjunction with pharmacological measures.

      Pamidronate is an intravenous bisphosphonate that may be used by a specialist if first-line bisphosphonates are not tolerated or contraindicated.

      Bisphosphonates: Uses, Adverse Effects, and Patient Counselling

      Bisphosphonates are drugs that mimic the action of pyrophosphate, a molecule that helps prevent bone demineralization. They work by inhibiting osteoclasts, the cells responsible for breaking down bone tissue. Bisphosphonates are commonly used to prevent and treat osteoporosis, hypercalcemia, Paget’s disease, and pain from bone metastases.

      However, bisphosphonates can cause adverse effects such as oesophageal reactions, osteonecrosis of the jaw, and an increased risk of atypical stress fractures of the proximal femoral shaft in patients taking alendronate. Patients may also experience an acute phase response, which includes fever, myalgia, and arthralgia following administration. Hypocalcemia may also occur due to reduced calcium efflux from bone, but this is usually clinically unimportant.

      To minimize the risk of adverse effects, patients taking oral bisphosphonates should swallow the tablets whole with plenty of water while sitting or standing. They should take the medication on an empty stomach at least 30 minutes before breakfast or another oral medication and remain upright for at least 30 minutes after taking the tablet. Hypocalcemia and vitamin D deficiency should be corrected before starting bisphosphonate treatment. However, calcium supplements should only be prescribed if dietary intake is inadequate when starting bisphosphonate treatment for osteoporosis. Vitamin D supplements are usually given.

      The duration of bisphosphonate treatment varies depending on the level of risk. Some experts recommend stopping bisphosphonates after five years if the patient is under 75 years old, has a femoral neck T-score of more than -2.5, and is at low risk according to FRAX/NOGG.

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  • Question 49 - A 54-year-old gentleman presents with recurrent painful and erythematous left first metatarsal joint....

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old gentleman presents with recurrent painful and erythematous left first metatarsal joint. After diagnosis of gout and treatment with an anti-inflammatory, you check his blood tests during the acute attack and find his uric acid level to be 260 µmol/L (180-380). He has experienced four episodes of gout in the past 18 months and seeks advice on how to prevent future attacks. What recommendations should you provide?

      Your Answer: The normal uric acid level rules out gout and so investigation should start into the true cause

      Correct Answer: As his uric acid level is normal he doesn't need prophylactic treatment with uric acid lowering drug therapy (such as allopurinol)

      Explanation:

      Management of Acute Gout and Prophylactic Treatment

      During an acute attack of gout, serum urate levels may appear lower than usual and should not be used to guide management or rule out the diagnosis of gout. It is recommended to check serum urate levels four to six weeks after an attack to obtain an accurate reflection of levels. Patients with recurrent attacks of acute gout are excellent candidates for prophylactic treatment. Allopurinol is the usual first-line drug, and the dose should be titrated to maintain a serum urate level of less than 300 µmol/L. While initiating and titrating allopurinol, a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) or colchicine should be co-prescribed to cover against precipitating an acute flare. However, a low dose anti-inflammatory is not a recommended long-term prophylactic approach. Genetic testing is not a usual part of the workup, although some genetic conditions are associated with hyperuricaemia, such as Lesch-Nyhan syndrome.

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  • Question 50 - A 42-year-old woman reports to her General Practitioner with complaints of lateral left...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old woman reports to her General Practitioner with complaints of lateral left elbow pain while lifting books at work with her forearm pronated. She experiences tenderness at the insertion of the common extensor tendon and pain with resisted wrist extension. What is the most suitable course of action to enhance this patient's long-term prognosis? Choose ONE option only.

      Your Answer: Reducing lifting

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Tennis Elbow: Managing Symptoms and Long-Term Prognosis

      Tennis elbow, or lateral epicondylitis, is a painful condition that can be triggered by certain activities, such as lifting objects. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence recommends modifying these activities to alleviate symptoms. However, in severe cases, other treatment options may be necessary.

      Botulinum toxin A injections can be effective in paralyzing the affected fingers, but the resulting paralysis can significantly impact daily activities and is only recommended for severe cases. Corticosteroid injections can provide short-term pain relief, but the high relapse rate at three months makes them less suitable for long-term management.

      Glyceryl trinitrate patches have shown short-term benefits in managing pain, but their long-term efficacy is uncertain. Ibuprofen may provide temporary pain relief, but it doesn’t affect the long-term prognosis. Overall, managing symptoms and preventing further injury through activity modification is the most important aspect of treating tennis elbow.

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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Musculoskeletal Health (27/50) 54%
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