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Question 1
Incorrect
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What are the two essential components found in all viruses?
Your Answer: RNA and reverse transcriptase
Correct Answer: Genomic material and capsid
Explanation:The Structure of Viruses
Viral structure can differ greatly, but all viruses contain some form of genetic material (either DNA or RNA, single or double-stranded) enclosed in a protein coat called the capsid. The capsid is responsible for packaging the replicated genome inside and can theoretically transcribe only two or three proteins to make it.
Some viruses have a lipid coating, known as an envelope, which aids in evading the immune system and entering cells. The envelope can also have surface glycoproteins that are involved in attachment, but these glycoproteins are different from and external to the capsid.
Certain RNA viruses have reverse transcriptase, which allows for the formation of DNA from RNA, such as HIV. However, not all viruses have RNA or reverse transcriptase.
Overall, the structure of viruses can vary, but they all contain genetic material enclosed in a protein coat, with some having an additional lipid coating and surface glycoproteins.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 5-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department due to breathing difficulties. Upon examination, you observe that his lips are swollen and he has a red rash on his abdomen. After further inquiry, you discover that the breathing difficulties started after consuming a peanut butter sandwich. The boy is administered intramuscular adrenaline, which results in an improvement in his breathing. An elevated serum tryptase level is detected.
Which specific cell is accountable for producing the immunoglobulin that caused this patient's symptoms?Your Answer: Monocytes
Correct Answer: Plasma cells
Explanation:Plasma cells are responsible for synthesising IgE. During a type 1 hypersensitivity reaction, IgE released by plasma cells can cause anaphylaxis, which can lead to symptoms such as urticarial rashes, bronchospasm, and haemodynamic collapse. Common allergens associated with anaphylaxis include peanuts, shellfish, eggs, or pollen. When IgE is released, it triggers basophil and mast cell degranulation of histamine, leading to vasodilation and bronchospasm, which can cause haemodynamic collapse.
CD4+ lymphocytes are not responsible for synthesising IgE, as they are T-helper cells.
Eosinophils are not responsible for synthesising IgE, as they are involved in the anti-parasitic immune response and play a role in the pathogenesis of asthma.
Kupffer cells are not responsible for synthesising IgE, as they are specialised macrophages of the liver.
Monocytes are not responsible for synthesising IgE, as they are white blood cells involved in the innate immune response.
Immunoglobulins, also known as antibodies, are proteins produced by the immune system to help fight off infections and diseases. There are five types of immunoglobulins found in the body, each with their own unique characteristics.
IgG is the most abundant type of immunoglobulin in blood serum and plays a crucial role in enhancing phagocytosis of bacteria and viruses. It also fixes complement and can be passed to the fetal circulation.
IgA is the most commonly produced immunoglobulin in the body and is found in the secretions of digestive, respiratory, and urogenital tracts and systems. It provides localized protection on mucous membranes and is transported across the interior of the cell via transcytosis.
IgM is the first immunoglobulin to be secreted in response to an infection and fixes complement, but does not pass to the fetal circulation. It is also responsible for producing anti-A, B blood antibodies.
IgD’s role in the immune system is largely unknown, but it is involved in the activation of B cells.
IgE is the least abundant type of immunoglobulin in blood serum and is responsible for mediating type 1 hypersensitivity reactions. It provides immunity to parasites such as helminths and binds to Fc receptors found on the surface of mast cells and basophils.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 3
Correct
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During an Ivor Lewis Oesophagectomy for carcinoma of the upper third of the oesophagus which structure is divided to allow mobilisation of the oesophagus?
Your Answer: Azygos vein
Explanation:The azygos vein is divided during oesophagectomy to allow mobilisation. It inserts into the SVC on the right side.
Treatment Options for Oesophageal Cancer
Oesophageal cancer is typically treated through surgical resection, with neoadjuvant chemotherapy given prior to the procedure. In situ disease may be managed through endoscopic mucosal resection, while unresectable disease may benefit from local ablative procedures, palliative chemotherapy, or stent insertion. However, resections are not typically offered to patients with distant metastasis or N2 disease, and local nodal involvement is not a contraindication to resection.
For lower and middle third oesophageal tumours, an Ivor-Lewis procedure is commonly performed. This involves a combined laparotomy and right thoracotomy, with the stomach mobilized through a rooftop incision and the oesophagus removed through a thoracotomy. The chest is then closed with underwater seal drainage and tube drains to the abdominal cavity. Postoperatively, patients will typically recover in the intensive care unit and may experience complications such as atelectasis, anastomotic leakage, and delayed gastric emptying.
Overall, treatment options for oesophageal cancer depend on the extent of the disease and the patient’s individual circumstances. While surgical resection is the mainstay of treatment, other options such as chemotherapy and local ablative procedures may be considered for unresectable disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 4
Incorrect
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Which one of the following is not an intrinsic muscle of the foot?
Your Answer: Flexor digiti minimi brevis
Correct Answer: Palmaris longus
Explanation:The origin of palmaris longus is in the forearm.
Anatomy of the Hand: Fascia, Compartments, and Tendons
The hand is composed of bones, muscles, and tendons that work together to perform various functions. The bones of the hand include eight carpal bones, five metacarpals, and 14 phalanges. The intrinsic muscles of the hand include the interossei, which are supplied by the ulnar nerve, and the lumbricals, which flex the metacarpophalangeal joints and extend the interphalangeal joint. The thenar eminence contains the abductor pollicis brevis, opponens pollicis, and flexor pollicis brevis, while the hypothenar eminence contains the opponens digiti minimi, flexor digiti minimi brevis, and abductor digiti minimi.
The fascia of the palm is thin over the thenar and hypothenar eminences but relatively thick elsewhere. The palmar aponeurosis covers the soft tissues and overlies the flexor tendons. The palmar fascia is continuous with the antebrachial fascia and the fascia of the dorsum of the hand. The hand is divided into compartments by fibrous septa, with the thenar compartment lying lateral to the lateral septum, the hypothenar compartment lying medial to the medial septum, and the central compartment containing the flexor tendons and their sheaths, the lumbricals, the superficial palmar arterial arch, and the digital vessels and nerves. The deepest muscular plane is the adductor compartment, which contains adductor pollicis.
The tendons of the flexor digitorum superficialis (FDS) and flexor digitorum profundus (FDP) enter the common flexor sheath deep to the flexor retinaculum. The tendons enter the central compartment of the hand and fan out to their respective digital synovial sheaths. The fibrous digital sheaths contain the flexor tendons and their synovial sheaths, extending from the heads of the metacarpals to the base of the distal phalanges.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 5
Incorrect
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As a junior doctor at a general practice, you have an appointment with a 58-year-old man who has been diagnosed with atrial fibrillation. Upon reviewing his notes, you see that he has been prescribed a class three antiarrhythmic medication that blocks potassium channels. Which of the following drugs functions via this mechanism?
Your Answer: Digoxin
Correct Answer: Sotalol
Explanation:Sotalol is classified as a beta-blocker, but it also blocks potassium channels, which slows down the heart rate by delaying ventricular relaxation. This makes it a class three antiarrhythmic agent, along with amiodarone. However, it can also cause a life-threatening type of ventricular tachycardia called torsades de pointes due to its effects on potassium channels.
Digoxin, on the other hand, is a cardiac glycoside that works by reducing conduction through the atrioventricular node, slowing down the ventricular rate in atrial fibrillation and flutter. It also has positive inotropic effects, meaning it can increase the heart’s contractility. It does not fit into the Vaughan Williams classification.
Flecainide is a class one antiarrhythmic agent that blocks fast inward sodium channels and prolongs the refractory period of the heart during diastole.
Propranolol is a beta-blocker and falls under category two of the Vaughan-Williams classification. It is non-selective and used to treat various conditions such as hypertension, thyrotoxicosis, pheochromocytoma, anxiety, angina, essential tremor, and migraine prophylaxis. However, caution should be exercised when using it in patients with asthma as it can cause bronchospasm.
The Vaughan Williams Classification of Antiarrhythmics
The Vaughan Williams classification is a widely used system for categorizing antiarrhythmic drugs based on their mechanism of action. The classification system is divided into four classes, each with a different mechanism of action. Class I drugs block sodium channels, Class II drugs are beta-adrenoceptor antagonists, Class III drugs block potassium channels, and Class IV drugs are calcium channel blockers.
Class Ia drugs, such as quinidine and procainamide, increase the duration of the action potential by blocking sodium channels. However, quinidine toxicity can cause cinchonism, which is characterized by symptoms such as headache, tinnitus, and thrombocytopenia. Procainamide may also cause drug-induced lupus.
Class Ib drugs, such as lidocaine and mexiletine, decrease the duration of the action potential by blocking sodium channels. Class Ic drugs, such as flecainide and propafenone, have no effect on the duration of the action potential but still block sodium channels.
Class II drugs, such as propranolol and metoprolol, are beta-adrenoceptor antagonists that decrease the heart rate and contractility of the heart.
Class III drugs, such as amiodarone and sotalol, block potassium channels, which prolongs the duration of the action potential.
Class IV drugs, such as verapamil and diltiazem, are calcium channel blockers that decrease the influx of calcium ions into the heart, which slows down the heart rate and reduces contractility.
It should be noted that some common antiarrhythmic drugs, such as adenosine, atropine, digoxin, and magnesium, are not included in the Vaughan Williams classification.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 6
Incorrect
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Sarah, a 73-year-old woman, is currently admitted to the medical ward after experiencing chest pain. A recent blood test revealed low levels of potassium. The doctors explained that potassium plays a crucial role in the normal functioning of the heart and any changes in its concentration can affect the heart's ability to contract and relax properly.
How does potassium contribute to a normal cardiac action potential?Your Answer: A rapid influx of the electrolyte causes the depolarisation of cardiomyocytes
Correct Answer: A slow influx of the electrolyte causes a plateau in the myocardial action potential
Explanation:Calcium causes a plateau in the cardiac action potential, prolonging contraction and reflected in the ST-segment of an ECG. A low concentration of calcium ions can result in a prolonged QT-segment. Sodium ions cause depolarisation, potassium ions cause repolarisation, and their movement maintains the resting potential. Calcium ions also bind to troponin-C to trigger muscle contraction.
Understanding the Cardiac Action Potential and Conduction Velocity
The cardiac action potential is a series of electrical events that occur in the heart during each heartbeat. It is responsible for the contraction of the heart muscle and the pumping of blood throughout the body. The action potential is divided into five phases, each with a specific mechanism. The first phase is rapid depolarization, which is caused by the influx of sodium ions. The second phase is early repolarization, which is caused by the efflux of potassium ions. The third phase is the plateau phase, which is caused by the slow influx of calcium ions. The fourth phase is final repolarization, which is caused by the efflux of potassium ions. The final phase is the restoration of ionic concentrations, which is achieved by the Na+/K+ ATPase pump.
Conduction velocity is the speed at which the electrical signal travels through the heart. The speed varies depending on the location of the signal. Atrial conduction spreads along ordinary atrial myocardial fibers at a speed of 1 m/sec. AV node conduction is much slower, at 0.05 m/sec. Ventricular conduction is the fastest in the heart, achieved by the large diameter of the Purkinje fibers, which can achieve velocities of 2-4 m/sec. This allows for a rapid and coordinated contraction of the ventricles, which is essential for the proper functioning of the heart. Understanding the cardiac action potential and conduction velocity is crucial for diagnosing and treating heart conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 7
Correct
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A 27-year-old man presents to the consultant's office with complaints of increased thirst and frequent urination for the past month. He has a history of physical injuries due to a motor vehicle accident that occurred 4 months ago. The patient is currently not on any medications and is in good health. Urinalysis reveals a decreased sodium concentration and urine osmolarity of 90 mOsm/L. What renal tubular changes would be anticipated in this patient due to his current condition?
Your Answer: Decreased expression of aquaporin-2 channels in the collecting ducts
Explanation:The insertion of aquaporin-2 channels by antidiuretic hormone promotes water reabsorption, which is compromised in central diabetes insipidus (DI) caused by physical trauma to the pituitary gland. Symptoms include increased thirst, polydipsia, and polyuria, with urinalysis showing decreased urine osmolality and sodium concentration. Aldosterone regulates epithelial sodium channel (ENaC) and K+/H+ exchanger, while angiotensin II regulates Na+/H+ exchanger in proximal tubules. Loop diuretics decrease activity of Na-K-Cl cotransporter in the loops of Henle. However, none of these are relevant to this patient’s presentation.
Understanding Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH)
Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) is a hormone that is produced in the supraoptic nuclei of the hypothalamus and released by the posterior pituitary gland. Its primary function is to conserve body water by promoting water reabsorption in the collecting ducts of the kidneys through the insertion of aquaporin-2 channels.
ADH secretion is regulated by various factors. An increase in extracellular fluid osmolality, a decrease in volume or pressure, and the presence of angiotensin II can all increase ADH secretion. Conversely, a decrease in extracellular fluid osmolality, an increase in volume, a decrease in temperature, or the absence of ADH can decrease its secretion.
Diabetes insipidus (DI) is a condition that occurs when there is either a deficiency of ADH (cranial DI) or an insensitivity to ADH (nephrogenic DI). Cranial DI can be treated with desmopressin, which is an analog of ADH.
Overall, understanding the role of ADH in regulating water balance in the body is crucial for maintaining proper hydration and preventing conditions like DI.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old patient presents with muscle pain and early fatigue during exercise. The patient has no significant past medical or surgical history. Lab results reveal elevated myoglobin in urine and a creatine kinase level of over 30,000. Microscopy shows periodic acid-Schiff stained glycogen, and an ischemic forearm test is positive. Based on these findings, what is the underlying cause of the patient's presentation?
Your Answer: Defect in alpha-L iduronidase
Correct Answer: Defect in glycogen phosphorylase
Explanation:McArdle disease, also known as glycogen storage disease type V, is caused by a deficiency of myophosphorylase, which results in the accumulation of glycogen in the muscle that cannot be broken down. Symptoms such as myoglobinuria, elevated creatine kinase, reduced renal function, a positive ischemic arm test, and a patient history can lead to a diagnosis of McArdle disease. It is important to note that the conditions associated with the incorrect answers listed above are Von Gierke’s disease (Type 1), Krabbe’s disease, Hurler’s disease, Inclusion cell disease, Pompe disease, Tay-Sachs disease, and Fabry’s disease, which are caused by defects in glucose-6-phosphatase, galactocerebrosidase, alpha-L iduronidase, N-acetylglucosamine-1-phosphate transferase, lysosomal acid alpha-glucosidase, Hexosaminidase A, and alpha-galactosidase, respectively.
Inherited Metabolic Disorders: Types and Deficiencies
Inherited metabolic disorders are a group of genetic disorders that affect the body’s ability to process certain substances. These disorders can be categorized into different types based on the specific substance that is affected. One type is glycogen storage disease, which is caused by deficiencies in enzymes involved in glycogen metabolism. This can lead to the accumulation of glycogen in various organs, resulting in symptoms such as hypoglycemia, lactic acidosis, and hepatomegaly.
Another type is lysosomal storage disease, which is caused by deficiencies in enzymes involved in lysosomal metabolism. This can lead to the accumulation of various substances within lysosomes, resulting in symptoms such as hepatosplenomegaly, developmental delay, and optic atrophy. Examples of lysosomal storage diseases include Gaucher’s disease, Tay-Sachs disease, and Fabry disease.
Finally, mucopolysaccharidoses are a group of disorders caused by deficiencies in enzymes involved in the breakdown of glycosaminoglycans. This can lead to the accumulation of these substances in various organs, resulting in symptoms such as coarse facial features, short stature, and corneal clouding. Examples of mucopolysaccharidoses include Hurler syndrome and Hunter syndrome.
Overall, inherited metabolic disorders can have a wide range of symptoms and can affect various organs and systems in the body. Early diagnosis and treatment are important in managing these disorders and preventing complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a several-hour history of excruciating pain in the left knee. Her medical history is significant for hypertension and a previous episode of gout. She takes amlodipine.
On examination, she is in severe pain and the left knee is swollen, red, warm and tender. Arthroscopic evaluation of the synovial fluid aspirate showed monosodium crystals that are negatively birefringent under polarized light. A diagnosis of recurrent gout is made and ultimately the patient is commenced on prophylaxis using allopurinol.
What is the mechanism of action of allopurinol?Your Answer: Oxidises urate
Correct Answer: Inhibits xanthine oxidase
Explanation:Allopurinol is a medication that inhibits xanthine oxidase, which is used for gout prophylaxis. By blocking the conversion of hypoxanthine to xanthine and xanthine to uric acid, it reduces the levels of uric acid in the blood. The other options, such as inhibition of dihydrofolate reductase, ribonucleotide reductase, and thymidylate synthase, are not related to gout prophylaxis. Rasburicase, which oxidizes urate to allantoin, is also used for gout prophylaxis, but it works differently than allopurinol.
Allopurinol can interact with other medications such as azathioprine, cyclophosphamide, and theophylline. It can lead to high levels of 6-mercaptopurine when used with azathioprine, reduced renal clearance when used with cyclophosphamide, and an increase in plasma concentration of theophylline. Patients at a high risk of severe cutaneous adverse reaction should be screened for the HLA-B *5801 allele.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 10
Incorrect
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What is measured to obtain renal plasma flow if the patient is a few years older?
Your Answer: Creatinine
Correct Answer: Para-amino hippuric acid (PAH)
Explanation:The normal value for renal plasma flow is 660ml/min, which is calculated by dividing the amount of PAH in urine per unit time by the difference in PAH concentration in the renal artery or vein.
The Loop of Henle and its Role in Renal Physiology
The Loop of Henle is a crucial component of the renal system, located in the juxtamedullary nephrons and running deep into the medulla. Approximately 60 litres of water containing 9000 mmol sodium enters the descending limb of the loop of Henle in 24 hours. The osmolarity of fluid changes and is greatest at the tip of the papilla. The thin ascending limb is impermeable to water, but highly permeable to sodium and chloride ions. This loss means that at the beginning of the thick ascending limb the fluid is hypo osmotic compared with adjacent interstitial fluid. In the thick ascending limb, the reabsorption of sodium and chloride ions occurs by both facilitated and passive diffusion pathways. The loops of Henle are co-located with vasa recta, which have similar solute compositions to the surrounding extracellular fluid, preventing the diffusion and subsequent removal of this hypertonic fluid. The energy-dependent reabsorption of sodium and chloride in the thick ascending limb helps to maintain this osmotic gradient. Overall, the Loop of Henle plays a crucial role in regulating the concentration of solutes in the renal system.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 44-year-old heavy smoker presents with a productive cough and progressively worsening shortness of breath on exertion. The patient's spirometry results are forwarded to you in clinic for review.
Tidal volume (TV) = 400 mL.
Vital capacity (VC) = 3,300 mL.
Inspiratory capacity (IC) = 2,600 mL.
FEV1/FVC = 60%
Body plethysmography is undertaken, demonstrating a residual volume (RV) of 1,200 mL.
What is this patient's total lung capacity (TLC)?Your Answer: 3,300 mL
Correct Answer: 4,500 mL
Explanation:To calculate the total lung capacity, one can add the vital capacity and residual volume. For example, if the vital capacity is 3300 mL and the residual volume is 1200 mL, the total lung capacity would be 4500 mL. It is important to note that tidal volume, inspiratory capacity, and the FEV1/FVC ratio are other measurements related to lung function. Residual volume refers to the amount of air left in the lungs after a maximal exhalation, while total lung capacity refers to the volume of air in the lungs after a maximal inhalation.
Understanding Lung Volumes in Respiratory Physiology
In respiratory physiology, lung volumes can be measured to determine the amount of air that moves in and out of the lungs during breathing. The diagram above shows the different lung volumes that can be measured.
Tidal volume (TV) refers to the amount of air that is inspired or expired with each breath at rest. In males, the TV is 500ml while in females, it is 350ml.
Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV) is the maximum volume of air that can be inspired at the end of a normal tidal inspiration. The inspiratory capacity is the sum of TV and IRV. On the other hand, expiratory reserve volume (ERV) is the maximum volume of air that can be expired at the end of a normal tidal expiration.
Residual volume (RV) is the volume of air that remains in the lungs after maximal expiration. It increases with age and can be calculated by subtracting ERV from FRC. Speaking of FRC, it is the volume in the lungs at the end-expiratory position and is equal to the sum of ERV and RV.
Vital capacity (VC) is the maximum volume of air that can be expired after a maximal inspiration. It decreases with age and can be calculated by adding inspiratory capacity and ERV. Lastly, total lung capacity (TLC) is the sum of vital capacity and residual volume.
Physiological dead space (VD) is calculated by multiplying tidal volume by the difference between arterial carbon dioxide pressure (PaCO2) and end-tidal carbon dioxide pressure (PeCO2) and then dividing the result by PaCO2.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old male patient visits the surgical clinic with an inguinal hernia. During the examination, a small direct hernia is observed along with pigmented spots on his palms, soles, and around his mouth. The patient had undergone a reduction of an intussusception when he was 10 years old. If a colonoscopy is performed, which of the following lesions is most likely to be detected?
Your Answer: Tubulovillous adenoma
Correct Answer: Hamartomas
Explanation:It is probable that he has Peutz-Jeghers syndrome, a condition that is linked to the presence of Hamartomas.
Understanding Peutz-Jeghers Syndrome
Peutz-Jeghers syndrome is a genetic condition that is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner. It is characterized by the presence of numerous hamartomatous polyps in the gastrointestinal tract, particularly in the small bowel. In addition, patients with this syndrome may also have pigmented freckles on their lips, face, palms, and soles.
While the polyps themselves are not cancerous, individuals with Peutz-Jeghers syndrome have an increased risk of developing other types of gastrointestinal tract cancers. In fact, around 50% of patients will have died from another gastrointestinal tract cancer by the age of 60 years.
Common symptoms of Peutz-Jeghers syndrome include small bowel obstruction, which is often due to intussusception, as well as gastrointestinal bleeding. Management of this condition is typically conservative unless complications develop. It is important for individuals with Peutz-Jeghers syndrome to undergo regular screening and surveillance to detect any potential cancerous growths early on.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 13
Incorrect
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Which one of the following statements about the spleen is false?
Your Answer: The hilum contains the splenic vessels.
Correct Answer: The spleen is derived from endodermal tissue.
Explanation:The spleen, which weighs 7oz (150-200g), is approximately 1 inch thick, 3 inches wide, and 5 inches long. It is located between the 9th and 11th ribs. While most of the gut is derived from endodermal tissue, the spleen is unique in that it originates from mesenchymal tissue.
The Anatomy and Function of the Spleen
The spleen is an organ located in the left upper quadrant of the abdomen. Its size can vary depending on the amount of blood it contains, but the typical adult spleen is 12.5cm long and 7.5cm wide, with a weight of 150g. The spleen is almost entirely covered by peritoneum and is separated from the 9th, 10th, and 11th ribs by both diaphragm and pleural cavity. Its shape is influenced by the state of the colon and stomach, with gastric distension causing it to resemble an orange segment and colonic distension causing it to become more tetrahedral.
The spleen has two folds of peritoneum that connect it to the posterior abdominal wall and stomach: the lienorenal ligament and gastrosplenic ligament. The lienorenal ligament contains the splenic vessels, while the short gastric and left gastroepiploic branches of the splenic artery pass through the layers of the gastrosplenic ligament. The spleen is in contact with the phrenicocolic ligament laterally.
The spleen has two main functions: filtration and immunity. It filters abnormal blood cells and foreign bodies such as bacteria, and produces properdin and tuftsin, which help target fungi and bacteria for phagocytosis. The spleen also stores 40% of platelets, reutilizes iron, and stores monocytes. Disorders of the spleen include massive splenomegaly, myelofibrosis, chronic myeloid leukemia, visceral leishmaniasis, malaria, Gaucher’s syndrome, portal hypertension, lymphoproliferative disease, haemolytic anaemia, infection, infective endocarditis, sickle-cell, thalassaemia, and rheumatoid arthritis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old woman presents to her GP with an incidental finding of megaloblastic anaemia and low vitamin B12 levels. She has a history of type 1 diabetes mellitus. What could be the probable cause of her decreased vitamin levels?
Your Answer: Drug-induced
Correct Answer: Pernicious anaemia
Explanation:Pernicious anaemia is a condition that results in a deficiency of vitamin B12 due to an autoimmune disorder affecting the gastric mucosa. The term pernicious refers to the gradual and subtle harm caused by the condition, which often leads to delayed diagnosis. While pernicious anaemia is the most common cause of vitamin B12 deficiency, other causes include atrophic gastritis, gastrectomy, and malnutrition. The condition is characterized by the presence of antibodies to intrinsic factor and/or gastric parietal cells, which can lead to reduced vitamin B12 absorption and subsequent megaloblastic anaemia and neuropathy.
Pernicious anaemia is more common in middle to old age females and is associated with other autoimmune disorders such as thyroid disease, type 1 diabetes mellitus, Addison’s, rheumatoid, and vitiligo. Symptoms of the condition include anaemia, lethargy, pallor, dyspnoea, peripheral neuropathy, subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord, neuropsychiatric features, mild jaundice, and glossitis. Diagnosis is made through a full blood count, vitamin B12 and folate levels, and the presence of antibodies.
Management of pernicious anaemia involves vitamin B12 replacement, usually given intramuscularly. Patients with neurological features may require more frequent doses. Folic acid supplementation may also be necessary. Complications of the condition include an increased risk of gastric cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 2-year-old boy with no significant medical history is brought to the ER by his mother due to a week-long crying spell and passing bright red stools. The patient cries loudly upon palpation of the right lower quadrant. Meckel's diverticulum is confirmed through a positive technetium-99m scan. What is the embryological source of this abnormality?
Your Answer: Processus vaginalis
Correct Answer: Omphalomesenteric duct
Explanation:The correct answer is omphalomesenteric duct, which is the precursor to Meckel’s diverticulum. Meckel’s diverticulum is a true diverticulum that forms due to the persistence of this duct and may contain gastric or pancreatic tissue. It is the most common congenital anomaly of the GI tract and can present with various symptoms.
Auerbach plexus is an incorrect answer. Its absence is associated with Hirschsprung disease or achalasia.
Fetal umbilical vein is also incorrect. It becomes the ligamentum teres hepatis within the falciform ligament of the liver.
Pleuroperitoneal membrane is another incorrect answer. A congenital defect in this structure can lead to a left-sided diaphragmatic hernia in infants.
Meckel’s diverticulum is a congenital diverticulum of the small intestine that is a remnant of the omphalomesenteric duct. It occurs in 2% of the population, is 2 feet from the ileocaecal valve, and is 2 inches long. It is usually asymptomatic but can present with abdominal pain, rectal bleeding, or intestinal obstruction. Investigation includes a Meckel’s scan or mesenteric arteriography. Management involves removal if narrow neck or symptomatic, with options between wedge excision or formal small bowel resection and anastomosis. Meckel’s diverticulum is typically lined by ileal mucosa but ectopic gastric, pancreatic, and jejunal mucosa can also occur.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 16
Incorrect
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What are the primary constituents of the cytoskeleton in eukaryotic cells?
Your Answer: Microfilaments and alpha/beta microtubules
Correct Answer: Microfilaments, intermediate filaments and microtubules
Explanation:The Eukaryotic Cytoskeleton: A Structural Support System
The eukaryotic cytoskeleton is a network of structures that provide structural support to the cell. It helps the cell maintain its shape, protects it from external pressure, and performs intracellular transport. The cytoskeleton is made up of three major structures: microfilaments, intermediate filaments, and microtubules. Microfilaments are thin double helices made up of actin and are involved in pressure resistance and cell motility. Intermediate filaments have a more complex structure and maintain cell shape while bearing tension. Microtubules are hollow cylinders made up of alpha and beta tubulin proteins and are involved in intracellular transport, cell movement, and form the mitotic spindle during cytokinesis.
Cilia, flagella, and lamellipodia are structures that are not part of the cell’s cytoskeleton but are made up of components of it and perform unique functions such as cell movement and extracellular sensing. Kinesin and dynein are motor proteins that support microtubule function. Microfilaments and alpha/beta microtubules are incorrect because they leave out intermediate filaments. Tubulin and actin are proteins of microtubules and microfilaments, respectively, but myosin is a motility protein involved in muscle contraction. The eukaryotic cytoskeleton is an essential component of the cell that provides structural support and enables various cellular functions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old patient has heard about the potential benefits of taking a statin. A research study involving 8901 healthy adults taking a statin and 8901 healthy adults not taking a statin showed that 142 individuals in the statin group experienced a cardiovascular event, while 251 individuals in the control group did. What is the absolute risk reduction?
Your Answer: 0.566
Correct Answer: 1.2%
Explanation:The incidence of a cardiovascular event among those who took statins was 0.0160 (142 out of 8,901), while the incidence among those who did not take statins was 0.02 (251 out of 8,901).
Numbers needed to treat (NNT) is a measure that determines how many patients need to receive a particular intervention to reduce the expected number of outcomes by one. To calculate NNT, you divide 1 by the absolute risk reduction (ARR) and round up to the nearest whole number. ARR can be calculated by finding the absolute difference between the control event rate (CER) and the experimental event rate (EER). There are two ways to calculate ARR, depending on whether the outcome of the study is desirable or undesirable. If the outcome is undesirable, then ARR equals CER minus EER. If the outcome is desirable, then ARR is equal to EER minus CER. It is important to note that ARR may also be referred to as absolute benefit increase.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 18
Incorrect
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What is a common clinical feature that is linked to hypovolemia?
Your Answer: Reduced respiratory rate
Correct Answer: Dry mucous membranes
Explanation:Hypovolaemia
Hypovolaemia is a condition that occurs when there is a decrease in the volume of blood in the body. This can be caused by severe dehydration, poor oral fluid intake, excessive fluid losses in diarrhoea or through stomas, and major haemorrhage. The symptoms of hypovolaemia include dry mucous membranes, normal or increased sodium concentration in the blood, reduced jugular venous pressure, reduced urinary flow rate, and increased respiratory rate.
Dry mucous membranes are not a highly discriminating feature of hypovolaemia. The effect of hypovolaemia on sodium concentrations is highly variable. If hypovolaemia results from the loss of blood or fluid containing isotonic amounts of sodium, the sodium concentration is likely to stay within the reference range. However, if hypovolaemia is due to prolonged poor oral intake, hypernatraemia can result. Hypovolaemia alone is generally not associated with hyponatraemia unless there is concomitant infection, inflammation, or loss of sodium-rich fluids, for example, from a high-output stoma.
Reduced jugular venous pressure is a common symptom of hypovolaemia. The low circulating volume will cause a low JVP. In normal circumstances, the body responds to hypovolaemia by reducing urinary flow rates. If circulation is impaired by loss of blood, a common response is an increase in the respiratory rate. This is often an early feature of significant blood loss. the symptoms of hypovolaemia is important for prompt diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 79-year-old man is admitted to the hospital after experiencing severe dizziness, vertigo, slurred speech, and nausea with vomiting. The diagnosis reveals a basilar artery stroke. Which blood vessels combine to form the affected artery?
Your Answer: Anterior inferior cerebellar arteries
Correct Answer: Vertebral arteries
Explanation:The Circle of Willis is an anastomosis formed by the internal carotid arteries and vertebral arteries on the bottom surface of the brain. It is divided into two halves and is made up of various arteries, including the anterior communicating artery, anterior cerebral artery, internal carotid artery, posterior communicating artery, and posterior cerebral arteries. The circle and its branches supply blood to important areas of the brain, such as the corpus striatum, internal capsule, diencephalon, and midbrain.
The vertebral arteries enter the cranial cavity through the foramen magnum and lie in the subarachnoid space. They then ascend on the anterior surface of the medulla oblongata and unite to form the basilar artery at the base of the pons. The basilar artery has several branches, including the anterior inferior cerebellar artery, labyrinthine artery, pontine arteries, superior cerebellar artery, and posterior cerebral artery.
The internal carotid arteries also have several branches, such as the posterior communicating artery, anterior cerebral artery, middle cerebral artery, and anterior choroid artery. These arteries supply blood to different parts of the brain, including the frontal, temporal, and parietal lobes. Overall, the Circle of Willis and its branches play a crucial role in providing oxygen and nutrients to the brain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 6 month-old infant brought to the clinic for a routine check-up. The child was born via a normal vaginal delivery at 40 weeks of gestation.
During the examination, the infant was found to be jaundiced.
Further investigations revealed abnormal liver function tests and a diagnosis of classic galactosaemia was confirmed through a heel prick test.
What is the underlying reason for the infant's condition?Your Answer: Aldose reductase deficiency
Correct Answer: Galactose-1-phosphate uridyltransferase (GALT) deficiency
Explanation:The condition known as classic galactosaemia is the result of a deficiency in the enzyme galactose-1-phosphate uridyltransferase (GALT). Other enzyme deficiency conditions include pyruvate kinase deficiency, galactokinase deficiency (also known as galactosemia type 2), and neonatal diabetes mellitus caused by a deficiency in glucokinase.
Disorders of Galactose Metabolism
Galactose metabolism is a complex process that involves the breakdown of galactose, a type of sugar found in milk and dairy products. There are two main disorders associated with galactose metabolism: classic galactosemia and galactokinase deficiency. Both of these disorders are inherited in an autosomal recessive manner.
Classic galactosemia is caused by a deficiency in the enzyme galactose-1-phosphate uridyltransferase, which leads to the accumulation of galactose-1-phosphate. This disorder is characterized by symptoms such as failure to thrive, infantile cataracts, and hepatomegaly.
On the other hand, galactokinase deficiency is caused by a deficiency in the enzyme galactokinase, which results in the accumulation of galactitol. This disorder is characterized by infantile cataracts, as galactitol accumulates in the lens. Unlike classic galactosemia, there is no hepatic involvement in galactokinase deficiency.
In summary, disorders of galactose metabolism can have serious consequences and require careful management. Early diagnosis and treatment are essential for improving outcomes and preventing complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of muscle cramps and fatigue. Upon ruling out any musculoskeletal issues, a blood test is conducted which reveals hyperparathyroidism and low serum phosphate levels. It is suspected that the low phosphate levels are due to the inhibitory effect of parathyroid hormone on renal phosphate reabsorption. Which site in the kidney is most likely affected by parathyroid hormone to cause these blood results?
Your Answer: Ascending Loop of Henle
Correct Answer: Proximal convoluted tubule
Explanation:The proximal convoluted tubule is responsible for the majority of renal phosphate reabsorption. This occurs through co-transport with sodium and up to two thirds of filtered water. The thin ascending limb of the Loop of Henle is impermeable to water but highly permeable to sodium and chloride, while reabsorption of these ions occurs in the thick ascending limb. Parathyroid hormone is most effective at the proximal convoluted tubule due to its role in regulating phosphate reabsorption.
The Loop of Henle and its Role in Renal Physiology
The Loop of Henle is a crucial component of the renal system, located in the juxtamedullary nephrons and running deep into the medulla. Approximately 60 litres of water containing 9000 mmol sodium enters the descending limb of the loop of Henle in 24 hours. The osmolarity of fluid changes and is greatest at the tip of the papilla. The thin ascending limb is impermeable to water, but highly permeable to sodium and chloride ions. This loss means that at the beginning of the thick ascending limb the fluid is hypo osmotic compared with adjacent interstitial fluid. In the thick ascending limb, the reabsorption of sodium and chloride ions occurs by both facilitated and passive diffusion pathways. The loops of Henle are co-located with vasa recta, which have similar solute compositions to the surrounding extracellular fluid, preventing the diffusion and subsequent removal of this hypertonic fluid. The energy-dependent reabsorption of sodium and chloride in the thick ascending limb helps to maintain this osmotic gradient. Overall, the Loop of Henle plays a crucial role in regulating the concentration of solutes in the renal system.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old girl is brought to the doctor after a peculiar incident. She complained of feeling an intense sense of terror, experiencing nausea, having a rapid heartbeat, and hearing laughter. Her mother observed her turning pale. She did not faint or feel lightheaded. The episode lasted for 90 seconds, and afterward, she felt disoriented and had a strange sense of familiarity.
What could be the probable reason for this occurrence?Your Answer: Focal parietal lobe seizure
Correct Answer: Focal temporal lobe seizure
Explanation:Temporal lobe seizures can lead to hallucinations. In this case, the boy experienced fear, epigastric discomfort, tachycardia, and heard laughter. His mother also noticed a change in his skin color and he felt confused and experienced deja vu after the seizure. These symptoms are typical of temporal lobe seizures.
The options of focal frontal lobe seizure, focal parietal lobe seizure, and panic attack are incorrect. Focal frontal lobe seizures usually involve movement, while focal parietal lobe seizures cause a sensation of paraesthesia. A panic attack may cause some of the symptoms, but not the hallucinations or deja vu. It may also lead to dizziness or loss of consciousness.
Localising Features of Focal Seizures in Epilepsy
Focal seizures in epilepsy can be localised based on the specific location of the brain where they occur. Temporal lobe seizures are common and may occur with or without impairment of consciousness or awareness. Most patients experience an aura, which is typically a rising epigastric sensation, along with psychic or experiential phenomena such as déjà vu or jamais vu. Less commonly, hallucinations may occur, such as auditory, gustatory, or olfactory hallucinations. These seizures typically last around one minute and are often accompanied by automatisms, such as lip smacking, grabbing, or plucking.
On the other hand, frontal lobe seizures are characterised by motor symptoms such as head or leg movements, posturing, postictal weakness, and Jacksonian march. Parietal lobe seizures, on the other hand, are sensory in nature and may cause paraesthesia. Finally, occipital lobe seizures may cause visual symptoms such as floaters or flashes. By identifying the specific location and type of seizure, doctors can better diagnose and treat epilepsy in patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 23
Correct
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A 15-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department by ambulance. She is experiencing a prolonged seizure and treatment for status epilepticus is being initiated. Despite the use of benzodiazepines, the seizure persists and intravenous phenytoin is given.
What is the accurate pharmacokinetic/pharmacodynamic statement for this medication?Your Answer: Drug excretion rate is not proportional to drug concentration
Explanation:Phenytoin, an anti-epileptic drug used in the management of status epilepticus, is unique due to its pharmacokinetic and pharmacodynamic properties. It follows zero-order kinetics, meaning that increasing the concentration of the drug in the body does not affect its excretion rate. Phenytoin works by blocking voltage-gated sodium channels to prevent high-frequency action potential generation involved in seizures. It exhibits high binding to plasma proteins, resulting in only a small amount of active, unbound drug. Phenytoin has a narrow therapeutic window, necessitating regular monitoring of drug levels.
Pharmacokinetics of Excretion
Pharmacokinetics refers to the study of how drugs are absorbed, distributed, metabolized, and eliminated by the body. One important aspect of pharmacokinetics is excretion, which is the process by which drugs are removed from the body. The rate of drug elimination is typically proportional to drug concentration, a phenomenon known as first-order elimination kinetics. However, some drugs exhibit zero-order kinetics, where the rate of excretion remains constant regardless of changes in plasma concentration. This occurs when the metabolic process responsible for drug elimination becomes saturated. Examples of drugs that exhibit zero-order kinetics include phenytoin and salicylates. Understanding the pharmacokinetics of excretion is important for determining appropriate dosing regimens and avoiding toxicity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 24
Incorrect
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You are observing a GP during their morning consultations. A 60-year-old man has presented to the clinic with elevated liver function tests discovered during routine blood tests over the past month. Despite being asymptomatic, the patient has a history of osteoarthritis in his knees, one of which underwent total replacement surgery three months ago. He also has arthritis affecting the small joints in his hands and feet, which is well-controlled with medication, as well as hypertension that is stable with medication. What is an important cause of hepatic damage that should be ruled out in this case?
Your Answer: ACE inhibitor use
Correct Answer: Immune suppression medication for arthritis
Explanation:The patient has both osteoarthritis and rheumatoid arthritis, with the latter affecting the smaller joints of the hands and feet. Methotrexate is a commonly used immunosuppressive medication for rheumatoid arthritis, but it can cause hepatotoxicity as a significant side effect.
Although fat emboli are a potential risk after orthopaedic surgery, they usually cause neural and respiratory symptoms rather than liver damage. Additionally, the onset of fat emboli occurs within hours to days after the operation, not three months later.
While calcium channel blockers, ACE inhibitors, and opioid medications have their own side effects, they typically do not affect liver function.
Methotrexate is an antimetabolite that hinders the activity of dihydrofolate reductase, an enzyme that is crucial for the synthesis of purines and pyrimidines. It is a significant drug that can effectively control diseases, but its side-effects can be life-threatening. Therefore, careful prescribing and close monitoring are essential. Methotrexate is commonly used to treat inflammatory arthritis, especially rheumatoid arthritis, psoriasis, and acute lymphoblastic leukaemia. However, it can cause adverse effects such as mucositis, myelosuppression, pneumonitis, pulmonary fibrosis, and liver fibrosis.
Women should avoid pregnancy for at least six months after stopping methotrexate treatment, and men using methotrexate should use effective contraception for at least six months after treatment. Prescribing methotrexate requires familiarity with guidelines relating to its use. It is taken weekly, and FBC, U&E, and LFTs need to be regularly monitored. Folic acid 5 mg once weekly should be co-prescribed, taken more than 24 hours after methotrexate dose. The starting dose of methotrexate is 7.5 mg weekly, and only one strength of methotrexate tablet should be prescribed.
It is important to avoid prescribing trimethoprim or co-trimoxazole concurrently as it increases the risk of marrow aplasia. High-dose aspirin also increases the risk of methotrexate toxicity due to reduced excretion. In case of methotrexate toxicity, the treatment of choice is folinic acid. Overall, methotrexate is a potent drug that requires careful prescribing and monitoring to ensure its effectiveness and safety.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of a lump on the left side of his neck. During the examination, a firm and non-tender swelling is found over the angle of the mandible. The patient also displays asymmetrical facial features, including drooping of the angle of the mouth on the left and an inability to close his left eyelid. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Warthin's tumour
Correct Answer: Malignant parotid tumour
Explanation:Parotid Mass and Facial Nerve Involvement
Swelling over the angle of the mandible is a common site for a parotid mass. The majority of these masses are benign, with pleomorphic adenomas being the most common type. However, Warthin’s tumour is also a possibility. Malignancy is indicated when there is involvement of the facial nerve, which is a feature found in malignant parotid tumours. Bilateral facial nerve involvement with bilateral parotid swelling may be indicative of sarcoidosis. Parotitis, on the other hand, causes painful acute swelling over the parotid gland with redness. Bell’s palsy is a benign and often temporary paralysis of the facial nerve, which is usually preceded by a viral infection that causes inflammation and paralysis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 52-year-old, male, intravenous drug user visits the doctor complaining of increased pain in the right upper quadrant. His partner has observed a recent yellowing of his skin, indicating a possible viral hepatitis cause. Which viral hepatitis types are transmitted through needle sharing and blood products?
Your Answer: Hepatitis A and Hepatitis C
Correct Answer: Hepatitis B and Hepatitis C
Explanation:Hepatitis B can be transmitted through parenteral, sexual, and vertical routes, while hepatitis A and E are transmitted through the faecal-oral route. Hepatitis B, C, and D are specifically spread through blood and blood products.
Understanding Hepatitis B: Causes, Symptoms, Complications, Prevention, and Management
Hepatitis B is a virus that spreads through exposure to infected blood or body fluids, including from mother to child during birth. The incubation period is typically 6-20 weeks. Symptoms of hepatitis B include fever, jaundice, and elevated liver transaminases. Complications of the infection can include chronic hepatitis, fulminant liver failure, hepatocellular carcinoma, glomerulonephritis, polyarteritis nodosa, and cryoglobulinemia.
Immunization against hepatitis B is recommended for at-risk groups, including healthcare workers, intravenous drug users, sex workers, close family contacts of an individual with hepatitis B, individuals receiving regular blood transfusions, chronic kidney disease patients, prisoners, and chronic liver disease patients. The vaccine is given in three doses and is typically effective, although around 10-15% of adults may not respond well to the vaccine.
Management of hepatitis B typically involves antiviral medications such as tenofovir, entecavir, and telbivudine, which aim to suppress viral replication. Pegylated interferon-alpha was previously the only treatment available and can still be used as a first-line treatment, but other medications are increasingly being used. A better response to treatment is predicted by being female, under 50 years old, having low HBV DNA levels, being non-Asian, being HIV negative, and having a high degree of inflammation on liver biopsy.
Overall, understanding the causes, symptoms, complications, prevention, and management of hepatitis B is important for both healthcare professionals and the general public. Vaccination and early detection and treatment can help prevent the spread of the virus and reduce the risk of complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 27
Incorrect
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Which one of the following nerves is not found in the posterior triangle of the neck?
Your Answer: Greater auricular nerve
Correct Answer: Ansa cervicalis
Explanation:The anterior triangle of the neck contains the ansa cervicalis.
The posterior triangle of the neck is an area that is bound by the sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles, the occipital bone, and the middle third of the clavicle. Within this triangle, there are various nerves, vessels, muscles, and lymph nodes. The nerves present include the accessory nerve, phrenic nerve, and three trunks of the brachial plexus, as well as branches of the cervical plexus such as the supraclavicular nerve, transverse cervical nerve, great auricular nerve, and lesser occipital nerve. The vessels found in this area are the external jugular vein and subclavian artery. Additionally, there are muscles such as the inferior belly of omohyoid and scalene, as well as lymph nodes including the supraclavicular and occipital nodes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man has been struck by a cricket ball on the medial side of his elbow, resulting in significant pain. Additionally, he has experienced numbness in his little finger. Despite x-rays showing no immediate fractures, there is severe swelling in the soft tissue. When requested to adduct his thumb, he is unable to do so. Which nerve is the most likely culprit for the damage?
Your Answer: Posterior interosseous nerve
Correct Answer: Ulnar nerve
Explanation:The ulnar nerve provides innervation to the adductor pollicis muscle, so any injury to the ulnar nerve can lead to a loss of adduction in the thumb.
The ulnar nerve originates from the medial cord of the brachial plexus, specifically from the C8 and T1 nerve roots. It provides motor innervation to various muscles in the hand, including the medial two lumbricals, adductor pollicis, interossei, hypothenar muscles (abductor digiti minimi, flexor digiti minimi), and flexor carpi ulnaris. Sensory innervation is also provided to the medial 1 1/2 fingers on both the palmar and dorsal aspects. The nerve travels through the posteromedial aspect of the upper arm and enters the palm of the hand via Guyon’s canal, which is located superficial to the flexor retinaculum and lateral to the pisiform bone.
The ulnar nerve has several branches that supply different muscles and areas of the hand. The muscular branch provides innervation to the flexor carpi ulnaris and the medial half of the flexor digitorum profundus. The palmar cutaneous branch arises near the middle of the forearm and supplies the skin on the medial part of the palm, while the dorsal cutaneous branch supplies the dorsal surface of the medial part of the hand. The superficial branch provides cutaneous fibers to the anterior surfaces of the medial one and one-half digits, and the deep branch supplies the hypothenar muscles, all the interosseous muscles, the third and fourth lumbricals, the adductor pollicis, and the medial head of the flexor pollicis brevis.
Damage to the ulnar nerve at the wrist can result in a claw hand deformity, where there is hyperextension of the metacarpophalangeal joints and flexion at the distal and proximal interphalangeal joints of the 4th and 5th digits. There may also be wasting and paralysis of intrinsic hand muscles (except for the lateral two lumbricals), hypothenar muscles, and sensory loss to the medial 1 1/2 fingers on both the palmar and dorsal aspects. Damage to the nerve at the elbow can result in similar symptoms, but with the addition of radial deviation of the wrist. It is important to diagnose and treat ulnar nerve damage promptly to prevent long-term complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 49-year-old woman visits the clinic complaining of occasional palpitations over the last 7 days. The palpitations occur without any physical exertion and are not accompanied by chest pain. Upon examination, her heart appears to be functioning normally. An ECG is conducted, revealing indications of hyperkalaemia. What is an ECG indicator of hyperkalaemia?
Your Answer: Prominent U waves
Correct Answer: Small or absent P waves
Explanation:The presence of small or inverted T waves on an ECG can indicate hyperkalaemia, along with other signs such as absent or reduced P waves, broad and bizarre QRS complexes, and tall-tented T waves. In severe cases, hyperkalaemia can lead to asystole.
Hyperkalaemia is a condition where there is an excess of potassium in the blood. The levels of potassium in the plasma are regulated by various factors such as aldosterone, insulin levels, and acid-base balance. When there is metabolic acidosis, hyperkalaemia can occur as hydrogen and potassium ions compete with each other for exchange with sodium ions across cell membranes and in the distal tubule. The ECG changes that can be seen in hyperkalaemia include tall-tented T waves, small P waves, widened QRS leading to a sinusoidal pattern, and asystole.
There are several causes of hyperkalaemia, including acute kidney injury, drugs such as potassium sparing diuretics, ACE inhibitors, angiotensin 2 receptor blockers, spironolactone, ciclosporin, and heparin, metabolic acidosis, Addison’s disease, rhabdomyolysis, and massive blood transfusion. Foods that are high in potassium include salt substitutes, bananas, oranges, kiwi fruit, avocado, spinach, and tomatoes.
It is important to note that beta-blockers can interfere with potassium transport into cells and potentially cause hyperkalaemia in renal failure patients. In contrast, beta-agonists such as Salbutamol are sometimes used as emergency treatment. Additionally, both unfractionated and low-molecular weight heparin can cause hyperkalaemia by inhibiting aldosterone secretion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man is scheduled to undergo a splenectomy to treat his refractory haemolytic anaemia, which is believed to be caused by a Type 2 hypersensitivity response. What is the primary mechanism involved in this process?
A) Deposition of immune complexes
B) Cell-mediated immune response
C) IgE-mediated response
D) Formation of autoantibodies against cell surface antigens
E) None of the aboveYour Answer: Cell mediated immune response
Correct Answer: Formation of autoantibodies against cell surface antigens
Explanation:Type 2 hypersensitivity reactions, such as haemolytic anaemia, involve the production of antibodies against cell surface antigens.
Classification of Hypersensitivity Reactions
Hypersensitivity reactions are classified into four types according to the Gell and Coombs classification. Type I, also known as anaphylactic hypersensitivity, occurs when an antigen reacts with IgE bound to mast cells. This type of reaction is commonly seen in atopic conditions such as asthma, eczema, and hay fever. Type II hypersensitivity occurs when cell-bound IgG or IgM binds to an antigen on the cell surface, leading to autoimmune conditions such as autoimmune hemolytic anemia, ITP, and Goodpasture’s syndrome. Type III hypersensitivity occurs when free antigen and antibody (IgG, IgA) combine to form immune complexes, leading to conditions such as serum sickness, systemic lupus erythematosus, and post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis. Type IV hypersensitivity is T-cell mediated and includes conditions such as tuberculosis, graft versus host disease, and allergic contact dermatitis.
In recent times, a fifth category has been added to the classification of hypersensitivity reactions. Type V hypersensitivity occurs when antibodies recognize and bind to cell surface receptors, either stimulating them or blocking ligand binding. This type of reaction is seen in conditions such as Graves’ disease and myasthenia gravis. Understanding the classification of hypersensitivity reactions is important in the diagnosis and management of these conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 31
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old child has been in a car accident and has a fracture of the floor of the orbit. The surgeon you consulted is worried that one of the extra-ocular muscles may be trapped in the fracture site. Which muscle is most vulnerable?
Your Answer: Lateral rectus
Correct Answer: Inferior rectus
Explanation:The correct muscle that is most at risk in a fracture of the floor of the orbit, also known as an orbital blowout fracture, is the inferior rectus muscle. This muscle is located above the thin plate of the maxillary bone that makes up the floor of the orbit, and is therefore more susceptible to being trapped in these types of fractures.
When the inferior rectus muscle becomes trapped in a blowout fracture, it can result in restricted eye movements and affect extra-orbital soft tissue. This type of fracture is known as a trapdoor fracture and is often associated with the oculocardiac reflex or Aschner phenomenon, which can cause symptoms such as bradycardia, nausea and vomiting, vertigo, and syncope.
It is important to note that the inferior oblique muscle is also commonly affected in these types of fractures, but it was not an option in this question. Additionally, levator palpebrae inferioris is not an actual muscle and is therefore a dummy answer. The muscle that raises the upper eyelid is actually called the levator palpebrae superioris.
Cranial nerves are a set of 12 nerves that emerge from the brain and control various functions of the head and neck. Each nerve has a specific function, such as smell, sight, eye movement, facial sensation, and tongue movement. Some nerves are sensory, some are motor, and some are both. A useful mnemonic to remember the order of the nerves is Some Say Marry Money But My Brother Says Big Brains Matter Most, with S representing sensory, M representing motor, and B representing both.
In addition to their specific functions, cranial nerves also play a role in various reflexes. These reflexes involve an afferent limb, which carries sensory information to the brain, and an efferent limb, which carries motor information from the brain to the muscles. Examples of cranial nerve reflexes include the corneal reflex, jaw jerk, gag reflex, carotid sinus reflex, pupillary light reflex, and lacrimation reflex. Understanding the functions and reflexes of the cranial nerves is important in diagnosing and treating neurological disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 32
Correct
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A 50-year-old man visits the GP clinic for a routine hearing examination. He reports no issues with his hearing and has no significant medical history or medication use. After conducting Rinne and Weber tests on the patient, you determine that his hearing is within normal limits.
What are the test findings for this patient?Your Answer: Rinne: air conduction > bone conduction bilaterally; Weber: equal in both ears
Explanation:The patient’s hearing exam results indicate normal hearing. The Rinne test showed more air conduction than bone conduction in both ears, which is typical for normal hearing. The Weber test also showed equal results in both ears, indicating no significant difference in hearing between the ears.
Rinne’s and Weber’s Test for Differentiating Conductive and Sensorineural Deafness
Rinne’s and Weber’s tests are used to differentiate between conductive and sensorineural deafness. Rinne’s test involves placing a tuning fork over the mastoid process until the sound is no longer heard, then repositioning it just over the external acoustic meatus. A positive test indicates that air conduction (AC) is better than bone conduction (BC), while a negative test indicates that BC is better than AC, suggesting conductive deafness.
Weber’s test involves placing a tuning fork in the middle of the forehead equidistant from the patient’s ears and asking the patient which side is loudest. In unilateral sensorineural deafness, sound is localized to the unaffected side, while in unilateral conductive deafness, sound is localized to the affected side.
The table below summarizes the interpretation of Rinne and Weber tests. A normal result indicates that AC is greater than BC bilaterally and the sound is midline. Conductive hearing loss is indicated by BC being greater than AC in the affected ear and AC being greater than BC in the unaffected ear, with the sound lateralizing to the affected ear. Sensorineural hearing loss is indicated by AC being greater than BC bilaterally, with the sound lateralizing to the unaffected ear.
Overall, Rinne’s and Weber’s tests are useful tools for differentiating between conductive and sensorineural deafness, allowing for appropriate management and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 33
Incorrect
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What is the muscle located posterior to the initial segment of the axillary nerve?
Your Answer: Long head of biceps
Correct Answer: Subscapularis
Explanation:Anatomy of the Axillary Nerve
The axillary nerve is located behind the axillary artery and in front of the subscapularis muscle. It travels downwards to the lower border of the subscapularis before winding backward with the posterior humeral circumflex artery and vein. This occurs through a quadrilateral space that is bounded by the subscapularis muscle above, the teres minor muscle below, the teres major muscle, and the long head of the triceps brachii muscle medially and laterally by the surgical neck of the humerus.
The axillary nerve then divides into two branches: the anterior branch supplies the deltoid muscle, while the posterior branch supplies the teres minor muscle, the posterior part of the deltoid muscle, and the upper lateral cutaneous nerve of the arm. the anatomy of the axillary nerve is crucial in diagnosing and treating injuries or conditions that affect this nerve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 34
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of difficulty eating and weight loss that has persisted for three months. She has a medical history of hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus, dyslipidemia, and osteoporosis.
During the examination, the patient's body appears cachectic. Fasciculation of the tongue is observed in the oral cavity, and when asked to stick her tongue out, it deviates to the left. The patient is unable to move her tongue towards her right side.
Based on these findings, where is the most likely location of the lesion?Your Answer: Right facial nerve
Correct Answer: Left hypoglossal nerve
Explanation:The tongue deviates towards the side of the lesion in a hypoglossal nerve palsy, with the left hypoglossal nerve being the correct answer. Lesions of the Edinger-Westphal nucleus, left facial nerve, and right facial nerve would not cause tongue deviation as they do not control tongue movements.
Cranial nerves are a set of 12 nerves that emerge from the brain and control various functions of the head and neck. Each nerve has a specific function, such as smell, sight, eye movement, facial sensation, and tongue movement. Some nerves are sensory, some are motor, and some are both. A useful mnemonic to remember the order of the nerves is Some Say Marry Money But My Brother Says Big Brains Matter Most, with S representing sensory, M representing motor, and B representing both.
In addition to their specific functions, cranial nerves also play a role in various reflexes. These reflexes involve an afferent limb, which carries sensory information to the brain, and an efferent limb, which carries motor information from the brain to the muscles. Examples of cranial nerve reflexes include the corneal reflex, jaw jerk, gag reflex, carotid sinus reflex, pupillary light reflex, and lacrimation reflex. Understanding the functions and reflexes of the cranial nerves is important in diagnosing and treating neurological disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 35
Correct
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A mother brings her 3-day-old baby for a physical examination. She experienced complications during delivery as her son's right shoulder was stuck behind her pubic bone, causing a delay in the birth of his body. Upon examination, you observe that his right arm is hanging by his side, rotated medially, and his forearm is extended and pronated. What nerve roots are likely to be affected based on this presentation?
Your Answer: C5-C6
Explanation:Erb-Duchenne paralysis can occur due to damage to the C5,6 roots, which is likely the case for this baby who experienced shoulder dystocia during delivery.
The ulnar nerve originates from the brachial plexus’ medial cord (C8, T1). If damaged at the wrist, it can result in claw hand, where the 4th and 5th digits experience hyperextension at the metacarpophalangeal joints and flexion at the distal and proximal interphalangeal joints.
The radial nerve is a continuation of the brachial plexus’ posterior cord (C5-T1). Damage to this nerve can cause wrist drop.
T1 damage can lead to Klumpke paralysis, which causes the forearm to remain supinated with extended wrists. The fingers are unable to abduct or adduct, and they are flexed at the interphalangeal joints.
The median nerve is formed by the lateral and medial roots of the brachial plexus’ lateral (C5-7) and medial (C8, T1) cords. If damaged at the wrist, it can cause carpal tunnel syndrome, which results in paralysis and atrophy of the thenar eminence muscles and opponens pollicis. Additionally, there is sensory loss to the palmar aspect of the lateral 2 ½ fingers.
Brachial Plexus Injuries: Erb-Duchenne and Klumpke’s Paralysis
Erb-Duchenne paralysis is a type of brachial plexus injury that results from damage to the C5 and C6 roots. This can occur during a breech presentation, where the baby’s head and neck are pulled to the side during delivery. Symptoms of Erb-Duchenne paralysis include weakness or paralysis of the arm, shoulder, and hand, as well as a winged scapula.
On the other hand, Klumpke’s paralysis is caused by damage to the T1 root of the brachial plexus. This type of injury typically occurs due to traction, such as when a baby’s arm is pulled during delivery. Klumpke’s paralysis can result in a loss of intrinsic hand muscles, which can affect fine motor skills and grip strength.
It is important to note that brachial plexus injuries can have long-term effects on a person’s mobility and quality of life. Treatment options may include physical therapy, surgery, or a combination of both. Early intervention is key to improving outcomes and minimizing the impact of these injuries.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 36
Incorrect
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A woman in her early fifties comes in with a painful shoulder and limited range of motion. The shoulder is sensitive to touch, and there is no record of injury. During the examination, both active and passive movement are restricted due to pain. Based on these symptoms, you suspect the patient has a frozen shoulder. What is the primary location of inflammation in this condition?
Your Answer: Articular cartilage of the glenoid fossa
Correct Answer: Shoulder capsule
Explanation:Frozen shoulder is caused by inflammation of the shoulder capsule, leading to pain and reduced range of movement. Other conditions that can cause shoulder pain include biceps tendonitis, shoulder arthritis, and glenoid labrum tears.
Adhesive capsulitis, also known as frozen shoulder, is a common cause of shoulder pain that is more prevalent in middle-aged women. The exact cause of this condition is not fully understood. It is associated with diabetes mellitus, with up to 20% of diabetics experiencing an episode of frozen shoulder. Symptoms typically develop over a few days and affect external rotation more than internal rotation or abduction. Both active and passive movement are affected, and patients usually experience a painful freezing phase, an adhesive phase, and a recovery phase. Bilateral frozen shoulder occurs in up to 20% of patients, and the episode typically lasts between 6 months and 2 years.
The diagnosis of frozen shoulder is usually made based on clinical presentation, although imaging may be necessary for atypical or persistent symptoms. There is no single intervention that has been proven to improve long-term outcomes. Treatment options include nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), physiotherapy, oral corticosteroids, and intra-articular corticosteroids. It is important to note that the management of frozen shoulder should be tailored to the individual patient, and a multidisciplinary approach may be necessary for optimal outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 37
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old college student comes to you with complaints of fever, lethargy, and painful swollen submandibular lymph nodes. After diagnosis, you find out that he has infectious mononucleosis. What advice would you give him?
Your Answer: He should avoid swimming
Correct Answer: He should avoid rugby
Explanation:Patients should refrain from engaging in contact sports for a period of 4 weeks due to the risk of splenic rupture. However, swimming is considered a safe activity. It is important to advise patients accordingly.
Understanding Infectious Mononucleosis
Infectious mononucleosis, also known as glandular fever, is a viral infection caused by the Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) in 90% of cases. It is most commonly seen in adolescents and young adults. The classic symptoms of sore throat, pyrexia, and lymphadenopathy are present in around 98% of patients. Other symptoms include malaise, anorexia, headache, palatal petechiae, splenomegaly, hepatitis, lymphocytosis, haemolytic anaemia, and a rash. The symptoms typically resolve after 2-4 weeks.
The diagnosis of infectious mononucleosis is confirmed through a heterophile antibody test (Monospot test) in the second week of the illness. Management is supportive and includes rest, drinking plenty of fluids, avoiding alcohol, and taking simple analgesia for any aches or pains. It is recommended to avoid playing contact sports for 4 weeks after having glandular fever to reduce the risk of splenic rupture.
Interestingly, there is a correlation between EBV and socioeconomic groups. Lower socioeconomic groups have high rates of EBV seropositivity, having frequently acquired EBV in early childhood when the primary infection is often subclinical. However, higher socioeconomic groups show a higher incidence of infectious mononucleosis, as acquiring EBV in adolescence or early adulthood results in symptomatic disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 38
Correct
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A 14-year-old girl is attending the paediatric outpatient department with symptoms of persistent polyuria, polydipsia and mild hyperglycaemia. Her blood results reveal a mutation in the glucokinase enzyme, leading to a diagnosis of maturity-onset diabetes of the young (MODY). What is the function of this enzyme?
Your Answer: Phosphorylating glucose to form glucose-6-phosphate
Explanation:Glucokinase is an enzyme primarily found in the liver that plays a crucial role in glucose homeostasis by phosphorylating glucose to form glucose-6-phosphate. This process is essential for the storage of glucose in the liver. A mutation in the glucokinase gene can lead to persistent hyperglycemia in affected individuals.
Glycogenolysis is the process by which glycogen breaks down into glucose-1-phosphate and glucose. Glucose-6-phosphate is not released during this process.
Glucokinase uses ATP to phosphorylate glucose, rather than releasing ATP during the process. Therefore, the statement ‘it dephosphorylates glucose to release ATP’ is incorrect.
Glycogen synthesis involves the phosphorylation of glucose to form glucose-6-phosphate, which is a key intermediate in the process. Therefore, the statement ‘it oxidizes glucose to form glycogen’ is incorrect.
When two molecules of glucose are joined together, they form maltose. Therefore, the statement ‘it combines two molecules of glucose to form glycogen’ is incorrect.
Glucokinase: An Enzyme Involved in Carbohydrate Metabolism
Glucokinase is an enzyme that can be found in various parts of the body such as the liver, pancreas, small intestine, and brain. Its primary function is to convert glucose into glucose-6-phosphate through a process called phosphorylation. This enzyme plays a crucial role in carbohydrate metabolism, which is the process of breaking down carbohydrates into energy that the body can use. Without glucokinase, the body would not be able to properly regulate its blood sugar levels, which can lead to various health problems such as diabetes. Overall, glucokinase is an essential enzyme that helps the body maintain its energy balance and overall health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 39
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man with a history of heart failure visits the clinic complaining of breathlessness for the past four weeks. The breathlessness worsens with activity or when lying down, and he needs to sleep on three large pillows at night. He is currently taking ramipril, bisoprolol, furosemide, and bendroflumethiazide. You are contemplating adding a low dose of spironolactone to his current treatment. What accurately describes the mechanism of action of spironolactone?
Your Answer: Inhibits epithelial sodium channels
Correct Answer: Aldosterone antagonist
Explanation:Spironolactone is classified as an aldosterone antagonist, which is a type of potassium-sparing diuretic. It works by blocking the action of aldosterone on aldosterone receptors, which inhibits the Na+/K+ exchanger in the cortical collecting ducts. Amiloride is another potassium-sparing diuretic that inhibits the epithelial sodium channels in the cortical collecting ducts. Thiazide diuretics work by inhibiting the Na+ Cl- cotransporter in the distal convoluted tubule, while loop diuretics inhibit Na+ K+ 2Cl- cotransporters in the thick ascending loop of Henle. ACE inhibitors like ramipril, on the other hand, produce an antihypertensive effect by inhibiting ACE in the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone-system. In heart failure, diuretics are commonly used to reduce fluid overload and improve heart function. However, caution should be taken when using potassium-sparing diuretics like spironolactone in patients already at risk of hyperkalemia due to treatment with ACE inhibitors. Serum potassium levels should be monitored before and after starting spironolactone.
Spironolactone is a medication that works as an aldosterone antagonist in the cortical collecting duct. It is used to treat various conditions such as ascites, hypertension, heart failure, nephrotic syndrome, and Conn’s syndrome. In patients with cirrhosis, spironolactone is often prescribed in relatively large doses of 100 or 200 mg to counteract secondary hyperaldosteronism. It is also used as a NICE ‘step 4’ treatment for hypertension. In addition, spironolactone has been shown to reduce all-cause mortality in patients with NYHA III + IV heart failure who are already taking an ACE inhibitor, according to the RALES study.
However, spironolactone can cause adverse effects such as hyperkalaemia and gynaecomastia, although the latter is less common with eplerenone. It is important to monitor potassium levels in patients taking spironolactone to prevent hyperkalaemia, which can lead to serious complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Overall, spironolactone is a useful medication for treating various conditions, but its potential adverse effects should be carefully considered and monitored.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 40
Incorrect
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What is the most accurate description of the histological composition of tendons?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dense regularly arranged connective tissue
Explanation:Types of Connective Tissue and Their Locations
Connective tissue is a type of tissue that provides support and structure to the body. There are different types of connective tissue, each with its own unique characteristics and functions. Dense regular connective tissue is found in ligaments, tendons, and aponeuroses. This type of tissue is composed of tightly packed collagen fibers that are arranged in parallel bundles. It provides strength and stability to the structures it supports.
Dense irregular connective tissue, on the other hand, is found in the dermis and periosteum. This type of tissue is composed of collagen fibers that are arranged in a random pattern. It provides strength and support to the skin and bones.
Elastic fibers are another type of connective tissue that is found in elastic ligaments such as ligamenta flava. These fibers are composed of elastin, a protein that allows the tissue to stretch and recoil.
Finally, large collagenous fibers are seen in cartilage. This type of connective tissue is found in the joints and provides cushioning and support to the bones. Overall, connective tissue plays an important role in maintaining the structure and function of the body.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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