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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 51-year-old man is admitted at the request of his concerned family due to increased confusion. This has occurred over the past 3 months and has become steadily worse. He was living independently and had been an active local councillor. Now he is unable to identify his family members.
Examination findings: pleasantly confused, intermittent jerky movements of both upper arms.
The following investigations were performed:
CT brain: normal
Dementia screen: normal
Which one of the following diagnostic tests will assist most in diagnosis?Your Answer: Muscle biopsy
Correct Answer: Electroencephalogram
Explanation:Investigations for Rapid Cognitive Decline in a Middle-Aged Patient: A Case of Sporadic Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease
When a patient in their 60s presents with rapid cognitive decline and myoclonic jerks, the possibility of sporadic Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (sCJD) should be considered. Despite negative findings from other investigations, a lumbar puncture and electroencephalogram (EEG) can support the diagnosis of sCJD. The EEG will show generalised bi- or triphasic periodic sharp wave complexes, while definitive diagnosis can only be made from biopsy. Doppler ultrasound of carotids is relevant for vascular dementia, but the steady decline in this case suggests sCJD. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) brain is unlikely to aid diagnosis, and muscle biopsy is unnecessary as myoclonic jerks are a symptom of sCJD. Bone marrow biopsy is only useful if myelodysplastic syndrome is suspected, which is not the case here.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 2
Correct
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A 65-year-old female presents with a three month history of headaches, shoulder pain and weight loss. Over this time she has lost approximately 6 kg in weight.
She describes early morning stiffness of the shoulders. Also, she has become aware of frontal headaches and has noticed tenderness of the scalp particularly when she combs her hair. She has little in her past medical history, she is a lifelong non-smoker and takes no medication.
During examination, she appears to be in good health with a blood pressure of 126/88 mmHg and a BMI of 23.4. Neurological examination is normal though she is tender over the shoulders and scalp.
Which of the following investigations would you select for this patient?Your Answer: Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
Explanation:Temporal arthritis/Polymyalgia Rheumatica: A Condition of Unknown Aetiology
This condition, which is of unknown aetiology, typically affects the elderly and is associated with inflammation of the extracranial arteries. It is characterized by weight loss, proximal muscle stiffness and tenderness, headaches, and scalp tenderness. Elevated inflammatory markers, particularly erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) and C reactive protein, are usually associated with it. Temporal arthritis may also be diagnosed through biopsy of the inflamed temporal artery, although false negatives may occur as the disease may patchily affect the artery.
It is important to recognize and treat the disease early to reduce morbidity and prevent blindness due to involvement of the optic arteries with retinal ischemia. The condition usually rapidly improves with steroid therapy, and the disease may be monitored through reduction of ESR.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 3
Correct
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Which statement about the facial nerve is accurate in terms of its paragraph structure?
Your Answer: Is secretomotor to the lacrimal gland
Explanation:Functions of the Facial Nerve
The facial nerve, also known as the seventh cranial nerve, has several important functions. It carries secretomotor fibers to the lacrimal gland through the greater petrosal nerve and is secretomotor to the submandibular and sublingual glands. It also supplies the muscles of facial expression and is associated developmentally with the second branchial arch. The facial nerve carries special taste sensation to the anterior two-thirds of the tongue via the chorda tympani nerve and somatic sensation to the external auditory meatus. However, it does not innervate the levator palpebrae superioris or the principal muscles of mastication, which are supplied by other nerves.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 4
Correct
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A 10-year-old girl is referred to the neurologist by her GP. She loves playing basketball, but is worried because her teammates have been teasing her about her appearance. They have been making fun of her in the locker room because of the spots she has under her armpits and around her groin. They have also been teasing her about her height, as she is the tallest girl on the team. During a skin examination, the doctor finds evidence of inguinal and axillary freckling, as well as 9 coffee-colored spots on her arms, legs, and chest. An eye exam reveals iris hamartomas.
What is the mode of inheritance for the underlying condition?Your Answer: It is inherited in an autosomal-dominant fashion; de novo presentations are common
Explanation:Neurofibromatosis type I (NF-1) is caused by a mutation in the neurofibromin gene on chromosome 17 and is inherited in an autosomal-dominant pattern. De novo presentations are common, meaning that around 50% of cases occur in individuals without family history. To make a diagnosis, at least two of the seven core features must be present, with two or more neurofibromas or one plexiform neurofibroma being one of them. Other features associated with NF-1 include short stature and learning difficulties, but these are not necessary for diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 5
Correct
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Through which opening is the structure transmitted that passes through the base of the skull?
Your Answer: Spinal accessory nerves
Explanation:The Foramen Magnum and its Contents
The foramen magnum is a large opening at the base of the skull that allows for the passage of various structures. These structures include the medulla, which is the lower part of the brainstem responsible for vital functions such as breathing and heart rate. The meninges, which are the protective membranes that surround the brain and spinal cord, also pass through the foramen magnum.
In addition, the foramen magnum transmits the vertebral arteries, which supply blood to the brainstem and cerebellum. The anterior and posterior spinal arteries, which provide blood to the spinal cord, also pass through this opening. The spinal accessory nerves, which control certain muscles in the neck and shoulders, and the sympathetic plexus, which regulates involuntary functions such as blood pressure and digestion, also pass through the foramen magnum.
Overall, the foramen magnum plays a crucial role in allowing for the passage of important structures that are essential for the proper functioning of the brain, spinal cord, and other vital organs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of sudden-onset painful right eye and visual loss. Upon examination, the doctor observes visual loss to counting fingers on the right, right eye proptosis, conjunctival injection, and acute tenderness on palpation. The patient's erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is 12 mm/hour. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Giant cell arthritis
Correct Answer: Carotid cavernous fistula
Explanation:Differentiating Acute Eye Conditions: Symptoms and Management
Carotid Cavernous Fistula: This condition presents with sudden painful visual loss, proptosis, conjunctival injection, and a firm, tender, and pulsatile eyeball. It is caused by an abnormal communication between the carotid artery and venous system within the cavernous sinus. Endovascular surgery is the recommended management to obliterate the fistula.
Giant Cell arthritis: This is a medical emergency that is uncommon in individuals under 50 years old. Symptoms include acute visual loss, tenderness over the temporal artery, jaw claudication, and an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) of >50 mm/hour. Diagnosis is confirmed through a temporal artery biopsy.
Optic Neuritis: This condition presents as painful visual loss but is not associated with proptosis or changes to the conjunctiva. Optic disc pallor is a common symptom.
Keratoconus: This is a degenerative disorder that causes distortion of vision, which may be painful, due to structural changes within the cornea. It does not present acutely.
Acute Cavernous Sinus Thrombosis: Symptoms include retro-orbital pain, ophthalmoplegia (often complete, with involvement of the oculomotor, trochlear, and abducens nerves), and loss of sensation over the ophthalmic division on the trigeminal nerve ipsilateral. Horner’s syndrome may also occur.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 7
Correct
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A 68-year-old male comes to the clinic complaining of weakness and difficulty moving around. During the examination, it is observed that he has a slow gait with reduced arm movement and a tremor in his right arm. What is the usual frequency of the resting tremor in Parkinson's disease?
Your Answer: 4 Hz
Explanation:the Tremor of Parkinson’s Disease
The tremor associated with Parkinson’s disease is a type of rest tremor that typically has a frequency of 3 to 6 HZ. It usually starts on one side of the body and becomes more severe as the disease progresses. Eventually, the tremor becomes bilateral, affecting both sides of the body.
While the tremor is initially a rest tremor, it may develop into an action tremor over time. Additionally, the severity of the tremor may increase with the use of levodopa. the characteristics of the tremor associated with Parkinson’s disease is important for both patients and healthcare providers in managing the symptoms of the disease. By recognizing the progression of the tremor, appropriate treatment options can be explored to improve quality of life for those living with Parkinson’s disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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You see a 92-year-old lady in clinic. Over the past 3 months, her family believes she is becoming more forgetful. She has also noticed a tremor in her right hand and is generally ‘slowing down’. She takes amlodipine for hypertension and a daily aspirin of her own volition. She has recently been treated for a urinary tract infection by her general practitioner. She also complains of confusion and seeing spiders climbing the walls of her bedroom. She has no other urinary complaints. Her abbreviated mental test score is 5/10. Lying and standing blood pressures are 138/76 and 127/70, respectively.
Select the most likely diagnosis from the list below.Your Answer: Parkinson's disease
Correct Answer: Lewy body dementia (LBD)
Explanation:Distinguishing between Dementia Types: Lewy Body Dementia, Parkinson’s Disease, Alzheimer’s Disease, Vascular Dementia, and Multisystem Atrophy
Dementia is a complex condition that can have various underlying causes. Lewy body dementia (LBD) is a type of dementia that is characterized by cognitive impairment, parkinsonism, visual hallucinations, rapid eye movement (REM) sleep disorders, and autonomic disturbance. Treatment for LBD focuses on symptom management, including the use of cholinesterase inhibitors and antidepressants.
Parkinson’s disease, on the other hand, typically presents with bradykinesia, tremor, and rigidity, but not cognitive impairment in the initial stages. Autonomic dysfunction is also expected in Parkinson’s disease, which is not evident in the given case. Alzheimer’s disease may cause forgetfulness and slowing down, but visual hallucinations are not typical. Vascular dementia usually presents with a stepwise deterioration that correlates with small cerebrovascular events, but not visual hallucinations. Multisystem atrophy is a rare condition characterized by parkinsonism with autonomic dysfunction, but it is less likely in this case due to the lack of orthostatic hypotension.
Therefore, distinguishing between different types of dementia is crucial for accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A middle-aged homeless alcoholic who frequently attends the Emergency Department is brought by ambulance, having been found unconscious on the street. He had been examined the previous day with head and facial injuries following a fist fight. Examination on admission reveals an unconscious patient smelling strongly of alcohol. He is rousable with painful stimuli, but confused and unco-operative. His pupils are unequal, with the left pupil measuring approximately 8 mm and the right 4 mm. The left pupil is unreactive to both direct and consensual light stimulus, whereas the right pupil constricts normally to direct and consensual light stimulus.
Which cranial nerve(s) is this lesion affecting?Your Answer: A combined lesion of the left oculomotor and optic nerves
Correct Answer: The left oculomotor nerve
Explanation:Assessing the Pupillary Light Reflex and Nerve Lesions
The pupillary light reflex involves two cranial nerves, the second and third, and their respective pathways. The optic nerve carries visual stimuli to the brain, while the oculomotor nerve controls the constriction of the pupil. Second-order neurons from the optic tract bypass the thalamus and primary visual cortex to reach the midbrain’s pretectal area. From there, neurons pass to the Edinger-Westphal nuclei, which send preganglionic parasympathetic fibers to both oculomotor nerves en route to the ciliary ganglion and sphincter pupillae.
If a lesion occurs in the left oculomotor nerve, the left pupil will not constrict to light. This can happen due to raised intracranial pressure with a left-sided subdural hematoma, which can impinge on the nerve. However, if the right pupil constricts normally, the right oculomotor nerve and optic nerve must be intact.
If a lesion occurs in the left optic nerve, the left pupil will not constrict to light, and the right pupil will not constrict to consensual light. This is because the optic nerve relays visual stimuli from the retina to the brain, and both eyes must be intact for the reflex to occur.
If a combined lesion occurs in the left oculomotor and optic nerves, the left pupil will not constrict to light, and the right pupil will not constrict to consensual light. However, the right pupil will still constrict to direct light, indicating that the optic nerve is intact bilaterally.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 79-year-old man is brought to see his general practitioner by his daughter who has noticed that he is becoming increasingly forgetful and unsteady on his feet. Unfortunately his daughter does not know anything about his previous medical history or whether he takes any medications. Routine investigations reveal:
Investigation Result Normal Value
Haemaglobin 105 g/l 135–175 g/l
Mean corpuscular value 101 fl 76–98 fl
White cell count 7.2 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Platelets 80 × 109/l 150–400 x 109/
Sodium 132 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium 4.8 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Urea 1.3 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
Creatinine 78 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
Random blood sugar 6.1 mmol/l 3.5–5.5 mmol/l
Given these results, which is the most likely cause of his symptoms?Your Answer: B12 deficiency
Correct Answer: Alcohol excess
Explanation:Possible Diagnoses for Abnormal Blood Results: Alcohol Excess, Hypothyroidism, B12 Deficiency, Myelodysplasia, and Phenytoin Toxicity
The patient’s blood results suggest a diagnosis of alcohol excess, which can cause confusion and increase the risk of subdural hematomas and recurrent falls. The macrocytosis, thrombocytopenia, mild hyponatremia, and low urea are all consistent with excess alcohol. Hypothyroidism can also cause macrocytosis and hyponatremia, but not thrombocytopenia or low urea. B12 deficiency may cause pancytopenia and marked macrocytosis, making it the next most likely option after alcohol excess. Myelodysplasia typically presents with shortness of breath and fatigue, and may show macrocytosis and thrombocytopenia on blood results. Phenytoin toxicity may cause macrocytosis and ataxia, as well as a range of other symptoms and signs such as fever and gingival hyperplasia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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What is the most common visual field defect associated with multiple sclerosis?
Your Answer: Homonymous hemianopia
Correct Answer: Central scotoma
Explanation:Visual Field Defects and Their Causes
Central scotoma refers to a reduction in vision at the point of fixation, which can interfere with central vision. This condition is often caused by a lesion between the optic nerve head and the chiasm and is commonly associated with retrobulbar neuritis and optic atrophy. Tunnel vision, on the other hand, occurs in conditions such as glaucoma, retinitis pigmentosa, and retinal panphotocoagulation. These conditions cause a loss of peripheral vision, resulting in a narrow visual field.
Another visual field defect is an increased blind spot, which is often caused by papilloedema. This condition can lead to optic atrophy and is characterized by an enlargement of the blind spot. Finally, optic chiasma compression can cause bitemporal hemianopia, which is a loss of vision in both temporal fields. This condition is often caused by tumors or other lesions that compress the optic chiasm. these different visual field defects and their causes is important for diagnosing and treating vision problems.
Overall, it is important to note that any changes in vision should be promptly evaluated by a healthcare professional. Early detection and treatment of visual field defects can help prevent further vision loss and improve overall quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old, fit and healthy woman develops severe headache, confusion and nausea on day 5 of climbing Mount Kilimanjaro in her adventure trip. A doctor accompanying the group examines her and finds her to be tachycardic with a raised temperature. They diagnose high-altitude cerebral oedema.
What is the most crucial step in managing this patient?Your Answer: Oxygen
Correct Answer: Descent
Explanation:Treatment of High-Altitude Cerebral Oedema: The Importance of Rapid Descent
High-altitude cerebral oedema is a serious medical emergency that can be fatal if not treated promptly. It is caused by swelling of the brain at high altitudes and requires immediate action. The most important management for this condition is rapid descent to lower altitudes. In severe cases, patients may need to be air-lifted or carried down as their symptoms prevent them from doing so themselves. While oxygen and steroids like dexamethasone can help improve symptoms, they are secondary to descent.
Acetazolamide is a medication that can be used to prevent acute mountain sickness, but it is not effective in treating high-altitude cerebral oedema. Oxygen can also help reduce symptoms, but it is not a substitute for rapid descent.
Rest is important in preventing acute mountain sickness, but it is not appropriate for a patient with high-altitude cerebral oedema. Adequate time for acclimatisation and following the principles of climb high, sleep low can reduce the risk of developing symptoms.
In summary, rapid descent is the most important treatment for high-altitude cerebral oedema. Other interventions like oxygen and steroids can be helpful, but they are not a substitute for immediate action.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 13
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman presents with a 48-hour history of headache and malaise that has worsened in the last 6 hours. She has vomited twice and recently had a sore throat. Her general practitioner has been treating her with a topical anti-fungal cream for vaginal thrush. On examination, she is photophobic and has moderate neck stiffness. The Glasgow Coma Score is 15/15, and she has no focal neurological signs. Her temperature is 38.5 °C. A computed tomography (CT) brain scan is reported as ‘Normal intracranial appearances’. A lumbar puncture is performed and CSF results are as follows: CSF protein 0.6 g/l (<0.45), cell count 98 white cells/mm3, mainly lymphocytes (<5), CSF glucose 2.8 mmol/l (2.5 – 4.4 mmol/l), and blood glucose 4.3 mmol/l (3-6 mmol/l). What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Acute viral meningitis
Explanation:Distinguishing Acute Viral Meningitis from Other Neurological Disorders
Acute viral meningitis is characterized by mild elevation of protein, a mainly lymphocytic cellular reaction, and a CSF: blood glucose ratio of >50%. In contrast, bacterial meningitis presents with a polymorph leukocytosis, lower relative glucose level, and more severe signs of meningism. Tuberculous meningitis typically presents subacutely with very high CSF protein and very low CSF glucose. Fungal meningitis is rare and mainly occurs in immunocompromised individuals. Guillain–Barré syndrome, an autoimmune peripheral nerve disorder causing ascending paralysis, is often triggered by a recent viral illness but presents with focal neurological signs, which are absent in viral meningitis. Accurate diagnosis is crucial for appropriate treatment and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 14
Correct
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A father brings his 7-year-old daughter to the Emergency Department following three events which occurred earlier in the day. The father describes multiple events throughout the day whereby his daughter has been sitting on the floor and suddenly stops what she is doing, becoming somewhat vacant. She would not respond to anything that he said. He describes the events lasting for around five seconds and they end quite rapidly. She is not aware of these events and cannot recall any odd feelings. The father is very worried and is sure that this is not normal.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Typical absence seizure
Explanation:Understanding Absence Seizures: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Differential Diagnosis
Absence seizures are a type of seizure that typically begins in childhood, between the ages of four and seven years. They can occur several times every day and are characterized by an immediate distraction from what is being done and vacant staring into space, accompanied by unresponsiveness lasting for around 5–10 seconds. The event will usually terminate as quickly as it commences, with the child immediately carrying on with whatever they were doing.
Diagnosing absence seizures can be challenging, as they can be mistaken for daydreaming or other types of seizures. Atypical absence seizures have been reported to start slowly and also gradually fade away, while focal dyscognitive seizures are more likely to include focal automatic behaviors such as lip smacking and mumbling.
To differentiate between absence seizures and other conditions, clinical tests such as hyperventilation and electroencephalogram (EEG) can be implemented. It is also important to consider the duration of the seizure and any accompanying symptoms, such as myoclonic jerks or confusion.
Overall, understanding the symptoms, diagnosis, and differential diagnosis of absence seizures is crucial for proper management and treatment of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old pregnant woman is recuperating from cavernous venous sinus thrombosis. The wall of the sinus has impacted all nerves passing through it.
What is the most prominent clinical indication of cranial nerve impairment caused by this pathological condition?Your Answer: Loss of somatic sensation over the anterior two-thirds of the tongue
Correct Answer: Ipsilateral corneal reflex absent
Explanation:Trigeminal Nerve Dysfunction and its Effects on Facial and Oral Function
The trigeminal nerve is responsible for carrying sensory and motor information from the face and oral cavity to the brain. Dysfunction of this nerve can lead to various symptoms affecting facial and oral function.
One common symptom is the absence of the ipsilateral corneal reflex, which is carried by the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve. Damage to this nerve interrupts the reflex arc of the corneal reflex.
Another symptom is the inability to resist forced lateral mandibular excursion with the mouth partially open. This is due to damage to the pterygoid muscles, which are innervated by the motor fibers in the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve.
Loss of sensation over the lower lip is also a result of trigeminal nerve dysfunction. The mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve carries general somatic afferent nerves from the lower lip.
Similarly, loss of somatic sensation over the anterior two-thirds of the tongue is also carried by the trigeminal nerve.
Lastly, the facial nerve innervates the buccinator muscle, which is responsible for the ability to blow out the cheeks. Damage to this nerve can result in the inability to perform this action.
Overall, dysfunction of the trigeminal nerve can have significant effects on facial and oral function, highlighting the importance of this nerve in everyday activities.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 16
Correct
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A 5-year-old boy is brought to his General Practitioner as his parents are worried about his walking. Up until four months ago, he was developing normally. However, they have now noticed he has difficulty getting up from the floor or climbing stairs. During the examination, the doctor observes Gowers’ sign and the boy has large, bulky calf muscles. His mother remembers having an uncle who died at a young age but cannot recall the cause of death. What is the probable reason for his walking difficulties?
Your Answer: Duchenne muscular dystrophy
Explanation:Different Types of Muscular Dystrophy and their Characteristics
Muscular dystrophy is a group of genetic disorders that cause progressive muscle weakness and wasting. Here are some of the different types of muscular dystrophy and their characteristics:
1. Duchenne muscular dystrophy: This is an X-linked myopathy that occurs in boys aged 3-5. It can present as delay in motor development or regression of previously obtained motor milestones. Treatment is with steroids and respiratory support. Average life expectancy is around 25 years.
2. Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy: This is the third most common muscular dystrophy and causes proximal upper limb weakness due to dysfunction of the scapula. Patients may also experience facial muscle weakness and progressive lower limb weakness. It typically presents in the third decade.
3. Emery-Dreifuss muscular dystrophy: This is a rare muscular dystrophy characterised by weakness and progressive wasting of the lower leg and arm muscles. It is more common in boys, with typical onset in teenage years.
4. Myotonic dystrophy: This is the most common inherited muscular dystrophy in adults. It is characterised by delayed muscle relaxation after contraction and muscle weakness. Patients may also experience myotonic facies with facial weakness, ptosis and cardiorespiratory complications.
5. Polymyositis: This is an inflammatory myopathy in which patients experience proximal muscle weakness. It is more common in women in the fifth decade and is associated with underlying malignancy.
It is important to identify the type of muscular dystrophy a patient has in order to provide appropriate treatment and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old gentleman is admitted following a fall with a painful right knee. He has a history of osteoarthritis and atrial fibrillation (AF). Prior to admission, he was independent and living alone. While in the Emergency Department, he gives a history of falling on his knee. Staff reported an incident of urinary incontinence while in their care. No seizure activity was reported. While on the ward, he becomes sleepy but arousable. Later in the night, the nurses state he is no longer opening his eyes to voices and is making incomprehensible noises.
What is the most important potential diagnosis which requires exclusion?Your Answer: Stroke
Correct Answer: Subdural haematoma
Explanation:Diagnosing Acute Subdural Haematoma: Vital Clues and Differential Diagnoses
Acute subdural haematoma is a serious neurosurgical emergency that requires prompt diagnosis and intervention. Elderly patients and those on anticoagulant medications are at higher risk. A fluctuating conscious level in an elderly patient should raise suspicion. Vital clues from the patient’s history, such as a history of AF and fall, episode of urinary incontinence, and rapid drop in conscious level, should be considered. Urgent computed tomography (CT) brain imaging is necessary to exclude this diagnosis.
Other possible diagnoses, such as stroke, postictal state, obstructive sleep apnoea, and hypoglycaemia, may present with similar symptoms. However, given the history of a recent fall and deteriorating GCS, an intracranial event must be investigated. Checking the patient’s capillary glucose level is reasonable, but excluding an acute subdural haematoma is paramount.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 18
Correct
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A 29-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a sudden-onset headache that began 12 hours ago. She describes it as ‘an explosion’ and ‘the worst headache of her life’. She denies any vomiting or recent trauma and has not experienced any weight loss. On examination, there are no cranial nerve abnormalities. A CT scan of the head shows no abnormalities. She has no significant medical or family history. The pain has subsided with codeine, and she wants to be discharged.
What is the most appropriate course of action for this patient?Your Answer: Lumbar puncture
Explanation:Management of Suspected Subarachnoid Haemorrhage: Importance of Lumbar Puncture
When a patient presents with signs and symptoms suggestive of subarachnoid haemorrhage (SAH), it is crucial to confirm the diagnosis through appropriate investigations. While a CT scan of the head is often the first-line investigation, it may not always detect an SAH. In such cases, a lumbar puncture can be a valuable tool to confirm the presence of blood in the cerebrospinal fluid.
Xanthochromia analysis, which detects the presence of oxyhaemoglobin and bilirubin in the cerebrospinal fluid, can help differentiate between traumatic and non-traumatic causes of blood in the fluid. To ensure the accuracy of the test, the lumbar puncture should be performed at least 12 hours after the onset of headache, and the third sample should be sent for xanthochromia analysis.
In cases where an SAH is suspected, it is crucial not to discharge the patient without further investigation. Overnight observation may be an option, but it is not ideal as it delays diagnosis and treatment. Similarly, prescribing analgesia may provide symptomatic relief but does not address the underlying issue.
The best course of action in suspected SAH is to perform a lumbar puncture to confirm the diagnosis and initiate appropriate management. Early diagnosis and treatment can prevent further damage and improve outcomes for the patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 19
Correct
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A 32-year-old man presents to the Emergency department with a three-day history of paraesthesia in his feet and hands. He has also noticed weakness in his thighs, particularly when walking down stairs, and weakness affecting his shoulders. Prior to this, he had been well, except for a mild case of gastroenteritis after eating Chinese food. On examination, he appears anxious, but cranial nerve examination and fundoscopy are normal. Upper limb examination reveals reduced tone and absent reflexes bilaterally at both wrists. Lower limb examination shows 2/5 power, absent reflexes, and reduced sensation affecting both feet. A lumbar puncture is performed, yielding the following results: opening pressure 14 cmH2O (5-18), CSF protein 0.40 g/L (0.15-0.45), CSF white cell count 4 cells per ml (<5 cells), CSF red cell count 2 cells per ml (<5 cells), and negative CSF oligoclonal bands. What is the diagnosis for this patient?
Your Answer: Guillain-Barré syndrome
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for Acute Motor and Sensory Neuropathy
His symptoms and signs suggest that he may be experiencing an acute motor and sensory neuropathy, which is commonly seen in Guillain-Barré syndrome following an infection. Patients with this condition often experience paraesthesias in their hands and feet, along with weakness. However, sensory abnormalities on examination are usually mild. Brainstem lesions are unlikely due to normal eye movements, and multiple sclerosis is a central demyelinating disorder that does not affect peripheral nerves. Wernicke’s encephalopathy typically presents as acute ataxia and ophthalmoplegia, while spinal cord lesions cause lower motor signs at the level of the lesion with upper motor signs below and a sensory level and bladder involvement. Although neurological complications can occur in systemic lupus erythematosus, including a peripheral neuropathy, the absence of common features such as joint or skin lesions makes this diagnosis unlikely. It is worth noting that cerebrospinal fluid protein is often normal at the onset of symptoms in Guillain-Barré syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 20
Correct
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A 30-year-old man presented to the Emergency Department, complaining of severe headache, neck stiffness and photophobia. There is no history of trauma and there has been no recent foreign travel. On examination, he has fever and a non-blanching rash on his chest. Meningococcal septicaemia is suspected and treatment is commenced. A lumbar puncture was performed.
Select the result most consistent with a diagnosis of bacterial meningitis.Your Answer: Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) pressure raised, protein elevated, glucose low and the predominant cells are polymorphs
Explanation:Interpreting CSF Results: Understanding Meningitis
Meningitis is a serious condition that can be caused by bacterial, viral, or tuberculous infections. The diagnosis of meningitis is often made by analyzing cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) obtained through a lumbar puncture. The results of the CSF analysis can provide important clues about the underlying cause of the infection.
CSF pressure raised, protein elevated, glucose low and the predominant cells are polymorphs: This result is indicative of bacterial meningitis, specifically meningococcal septicaemia. Immediate antibiotic treatment is necessary to prevent serious complications.
CSF pressure raised, protein elevated, glucose raised and the predominant cells are lymphocytes: This result can be consistent with either viral or tuberculous meningitis. Further testing, such as PCR, may be necessary to determine the specific cause.
CSF pressure low, protein normal, glucose raised and the predominant cells are polymorphs: This result is less indicative of infection, as the normal protein level and raised glucose level make bacterial meningitis unlikely. However, further investigation may be necessary to determine the underlying cause.
CSF pressure normal, protein low, glucose normal and the predominant cells are polymorphs: This result suggests that infection is unlikely, as the low CSF pressure and protein level are not consistent with meningitis.
CSF pressure normal, protein elevated, glucose raised and the predominant cells are lymphocytes: This result is consistent with viral meningitis, and further testing may be necessary to confirm the diagnosis.
Understanding the results of a CSF analysis is crucial in the diagnosis and treatment of meningitis. Prompt and appropriate treatment can prevent serious complications and improve outcomes for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 21
Correct
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A 55-year-old man has been referred to you due to a personality change that has been going on for a year. He has become loud, sexually flirtatious, and inappropriate in social situations. He has also been experiencing difficulties with memory and abstract thinking, but his arithmetic ability remains intact. There is no motor impairment, and his speech is relatively preserved. Which area of the brain is most likely affected?
Your Answer: Frontal lobe
Explanation:Pick’s Disease: A Rare Form of Dementia
Pick’s disease is a type of dementia that is not commonly seen. It is characterized by the degeneration of the frontal and temporal lobes of the brain. The symptoms of this disease depend on the location of the lobar atrophy, with patients experiencing either frontal or temporal lobe syndromes. Those with frontal atrophy may exhibit early personality changes, while those with temporal lobe atrophy may experience aphasia and semantic memory impairment.
Pathologically, Pick’s disease is associated with Pick bodies, which are inclusion bodies found in the neuronal cytoplasm. These bodies are argyrophilic, meaning they have an affinity for silver staining. Unlike Alzheimer’s disease, EEG readings for Pick’s disease are relatively normal.
To learn more about Pick’s disease, the National Institute of Neurological Disorders and Stroke provides an information page on frontotemporal dementia. this rare form of dementia can help individuals and their loved ones better manage the symptoms and seek appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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If a corticospinal tract lesion occurs above the nuclei of cranial nerves, what neurological signs would be anticipated?
Your Answer: Plexiform neuroma
Correct Answer: Upper motor neurone signs in the limbs
Explanation:Neurological Lesions and Their Effects on Motor Function: An Overview
The human body relies on a complex network of nerves to control movement. When these nerves are damaged, it can result in a variety of motor function impairments. Two types of nerve lesions are upper motor neurone and lower motor neurone lesions.
Upper motor neurone lesions affect the corticospinal tract, which connects the primary motor cortex to the alpha motor neurones in the spinal cord. This type of lesion causes spasticity, hyperreflexia, pyramidal weakness, clasp-knife rigidity, and extensor plantar responses.
Lower motor neurone lesions affect the alpha motor neurone and can occur anywhere along the path of the final nerve, from the spinal cord to the peripheral nerve. This type of lesion causes muscle weakness, wasting, hyporeflexia, and fasciculations.
Other nerve lesions can also affect motor function. Vagus nerve palsy, for example, can result in palatal weakness, nasal speech, loss of reflex contraction in the gag reflex, hoarseness of the voice, and a bovine cough. A plexiform neuroma, a benign tumor of the peripheral nerves, can cause a lower motor neurone lesion.
Understanding the effects of neurological lesions on motor function is crucial for diagnosing and treating these conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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What are the characteristics of Brown-Sequard syndrome?
Your Answer: There is loss of temperature sensation ipsilateral to the lesion
Correct Answer: There is loss of motor function ipsilateral to the lesion
Explanation:Brown-Sequard Syndrome
Brown-Sequard syndrome is a condition that results in the loss of motor function on one side of the body and the loss of pain and temperature sensation on the opposite side. This syndrome is typically caused by a penetrating injury to the spinal cord. Despite the severity of the injury, Brown-Sequard syndrome has a relatively good prognosis compared to other incomplete spinal cord syndromes.
To summarise, Brown-Sequard syndrome is characterised by a specific set of symptoms that occur as a result of a spinal cord injury. While it can be a serious condition, it is important to note that it has a better prognosis than other incomplete spinal cord syndromes. the symptoms and causes of Brown-Sequard syndrome can help individuals better manage and cope with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 46-year-old alcoholic is brought in after a fall. He has a deep cut on the side of his head and a witness tells the paramedics what happened. He opens his eyes when prompted by the nurses. He attempts to answer questions, but his speech is slurred and unintelligible. The patient pulls away from a trapezius pinch.
What is the appropriate Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score for this patient?Your Answer: E3V3M3
Correct Answer: E3V2M4
Explanation:Understanding the Glasgow Coma Scale
The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is a standardized tool used to assess a patient’s level of consciousness following a head injury. It measures the best eye, verbal, and motor responses and assigns a total score. A fully conscious patient will score 15/15, while the lowest possible score is 3/15 (a score of 0 is not possible).
The GCS is calculated as follows: for eyes, a score of 4 is given if they open spontaneously, 3 if they open to speech, 2 if they open to pain, and 1 if they do not open. For verbal response, a score of 5 is given if the patient is oriented, 4 if they are confused, 3 if they use inappropriate words, 2 if they make inappropriate sounds, and 1 if there is no verbal response. For motor response, a score of 6 is given if the patient obeys commands, 5 if they localize pain, 4 if they withdraw from pain, 3 if they exhibit abnormal flexion, 2 if they exhibit abnormal extension, and 1 if there is no response.
If the GCS score is 8 or below, the patient will require airway protection as they will be unable to protect their own airway. This usually means intubation. It is important to use the GCS to objectively measure a patient’s conscious state and provide a common language between clinicians when discussing a patient with a head injury.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 36-year-old man is discharged from hospital after an episode of meningitis. The organism was diagnosed as being Streptococcus pneumoniae after a lumbar puncture and the patient was treated with ceftriaxone. On discharge, his observations were normal. He has a past medical history of asthma treated with salbutamol and low-dose inhaled corticosteroids. He has no known drug allergies.
A few days following his discharge, he started experiencing postural headaches that were worse when sitting upright. He grades his pain as 7/10. He has been feeling nauseated, although has had no vomiting episodes. He also has some minor neck stiffness and is not confused. He attends A&E, as he is worried about his new symptoms. There is evidence of extrathecal cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). Diagnosis is confirmed on a computed tomography (CT) myelogram.
What is the most likely cause of this patient’s headache?Your Answer: Insufficiently treated meningitis
Correct Answer: Spontaneous intracranial hypotension
Explanation:Distinguishing Spontaneous Intracranial Hypotension from Other Conditions
Spontaneous intracranial hypotension (SIH) is a condition that affects around 5 per 100,000 of the general population, with a peak age at diagnosis of 40 years. It is more common in women and develops due to a weakness in the spinal dura, which could be congenital, iatrogenic, or due to calcification of spinal discs. Lumbar punctures, which are commonly performed to aid the diagnosis of meningitis, are a common cause of SIH.
Clinically, SIH causes a postural headache that worsens when standing or sitting and improves when lying down. It is associated with leakage of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) and can be diagnosed with a CT myelogram. Interestingly, CSF opening pressure is often normal, making diagnosis by repeat lumbar puncture unhelpful. Treatment typically involves an epidural blood patch.
It is important to distinguish SIH from other conditions that may present with similar symptoms. A subdural hematoma, for example, would be diagnosed on a CT head by the presence of concave opacity and typically has a slow onset with fluctuating confusion. Aseptic meningitis, which presents with symptoms similar to meningitis, would be confirmed on microscopy of lumbar puncture. Insufficiently treated meningitis would not cause a postural headache, and a subarachnoid hemorrhage would cause a sudden-onset thunderclap headache.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 26
Correct
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Which of the following indicates a psychiatric illness rather than an organic brain disorder?
Your Answer: A family history of major psychiatric illness
Explanation:Distinguishing Psychiatric Disease from Organic Brain Disease
Psychiatric diseases such as depression and schizophrenia have distinct features that differentiate them from organic brain diseases like dementia. While loss of short term memory and advanced age are more typical of organic brain disease, a family history is particularly associated with depressive illness and schizophrenia. It is important to distinguish between psychiatric and organic brain diseases in order to provide appropriate treatment and care.
According to Prof Anton Helman, a psychiatric emergency can be due to either disease or psychological illness. In order to determine the cause, a thorough differential diagnosis is necessary. Medical mimics of psychotic symptoms can often be mistaken for psychiatric disease, making it crucial to consider all possible causes.
The NHS England’s Mental Health in Older People A Practice Primer emphasizes the importance of recognizing mental health issues in older individuals. While organic brain diseases are more common in this population, psychiatric diseases can also occur and should not be overlooked. By the typical features of psychiatric disease and differentiating them from organic brain disease, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate care and improve outcomes for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 27
Correct
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An 80-year-old male comes to the clinic with sudden vision loss in his right eye and a relative afferent pupillary defect. He has uncontrolled systemic hypertension and elevated cholesterol levels. What is the probable cause of his condition?
Your Answer: Retinal vascular occlusion
Explanation:Tips for Answering Tricky Questions in the AKT Exam
When faced with a tricky question in the AKT exam, it is important to look at the information given and consider which answer may be most likely. One helpful approach is to identify any relevant risk factors and use them to narrow down the options. Additionally, sudden changes in symptoms may be more indicative of certain conditions than chronic symptoms. It is important to remember that it is impossible to know the answer to every question, but by using these strategies, you can improve your hit rate on questions that may initially seem difficult.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 28
Correct
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You are the pediatric doctor on call. The nurses ask you to come and review a patient, as she is acting ‘odd’. Her eyes are open spontaneously, she is withdrawing to pain and she is making incomprehensible sounds.
What is this patient’s Glasgow Coma Score (GCS)?Your Answer: 11
Explanation:Understanding the Glasgow Coma Scale
The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is a tool used to assess a patient’s level of consciousness. It is based on three components: motor response, verbal response, and eye opening. Each component is scored on a scale from 1 to 6, with a total possible score of 15.
A patient with a GCS score of 11 is showing M5 (localising response to pain), E4 (incomprehensible speech), and V2 (eye opening in response to pain). This indicates that the patient is obeying commands, oriented, and has spontaneous eye opening.
It is important to note that the GCS score is just one aspect of a patient’s overall assessment and should be used in conjunction with other clinical findings.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 29
Correct
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An 80-year-old man is admitted to hospital after suddenly losing all sensation to his right leg and right arm. He has no loss of consciousness, no visual disturbances, no slurring of speech and no motor symptoms. A stroke is suspected.
Based on the findings, what type of stroke is most likely?Your Answer: Lacunar stroke
Explanation:Understanding Different Types of Strokes: A Guide to Symptoms and Diagnoses
When it comes to strokes, there are different types that can affect individuals in various ways. One type of stroke is a lacunar stroke, which typically presents with purely sensory symptoms. This occurs when small infarcts develop around the basal ganglia, internal capsule, thalamus, or pons. Lacunar strokes can present in five different ways, including pure motor, pure sensory, mixed sensorimotor, dysarthria, and ataxic hemiparesis.
Another type of stroke is Millard-Gubler syndrome, which is caused by a PICA or vertebral artery. This syndrome typically presents with paralysis of the abducens resulting in diplopia and loss of lateral movement of the eye, as well as paralysis of the facial muscles. However, it would not result in pure sensory symptoms.
Locked-in syndrome is another type of stroke, but it is characterized by widespread motor paralysis, which is not present in the case of the patient with purely sensory symptoms.
Partial anterior circulation stroke and total anterior circulation stroke are two other types of strokes that can occur. A partial anterior circulation stroke would have two out of three symptoms, including hemiparesis and/or sensory deficit, homonymous hemianopia, and higher cortical dysfunction. On the other hand, a total anterior circulation stroke would have all three of these symptoms present.
Understanding the different types of strokes and their associated symptoms can help healthcare professionals diagnose and treat patients more effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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You are requested to evaluate a 15-year-old Caucasian girl who has been feeling unwell for a few days. She has been experiencing intermittent fevers and chills and complains of extreme fatigue. Suddenly, half an hour before her admission to the hospital, she lost all vision in her left eye.
During the examination, the patient appears pale and unwell. Her vital signs are as follows: temperature 38.5°C, pulse 120/minute, regular, blood pressure 100/55 mmHg, and respiratory rate 22/minute. A pansystolic murmur is audible at the apex and lower left sternal border. Both lungs are clear.
The right pupil reacts normally to light, but there is no reaction from the left pupil, which remains fixed and dilated. The patient has complete loss of vision in the left eye, and the left fundus appears paler than the right, without papilloedema. The only additional finding on examination was a paronychia on her right thumb, and light pressure on the nail bed was very uncomfortable.
Investigations reveal the following results: Hb 109 g/L (115-165), WBC 14.1 ×109/L (4-11), Neutrophils 9.0 ×109/L (1.5-7), Lymphocytes 4.8 ×109/L (1.5-4), Monocytes 0.29 ×109/L (0-0.8), Eosinophils 0.01 ×109/L (0.04-0.4), and Platelets 550 ×109/L (150-400).
What is the most crucial investigation to determine the cause of her illness?Your Answer: MRI head with gadolinium contrast
Correct Answer: Blood cultures
Explanation:Complications of Chronic Paronychia
Chronic paronychia can lead to serious complications such as osteomyelitis and endocarditis. The most common causative organism for these complications is Staphylococcus aureus. Endocarditis can cause emboli, which are fragments of vegetation that can block or damage blood vessels in any part of the body. This can result in severe consequences such as blindness, stroke, or paralysis.
To properly assess and manage a patient with chronic paronychia and its complications, several investigations may be necessary. However, the most crucial immediate investigations are blood cultures and echocardiography. These tests can help identify the causative organism and determine the extent of damage to the heart valves. Early diagnosis and treatment are essential to prevent further complications and improve the patient’s prognosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 31
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man has been experiencing severe periorbital headaches on the right side for the past two weeks. These headaches occur at least once a day, often at night, and last for about an hour. He has also noticed tearing from his right eye and blockage of his right nostril during the headaches. However, at the time of examination, he was not experiencing any headache and there were no physical abnormalities. What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?
Your Answer: Right maxillary sinusitis
Correct Answer: Cluster headache
Explanation:Cluster Headaches
Cluster headaches are a type of headache that is more common in men, with a ratio of 10:1 compared to women. These headaches usually occur at night, particularly in the early morning. They are characterized by paroxysmal episodes, which means they occur in clusters. One of the distinguishing features of cluster headaches is the presence of autonomic symptoms, such as lacrimation, ptosis, pupil constriction, nasal congestion, redness of the eye, and swelling of the eyelid.
It is important to note that individuals with cluster headaches typically have normal examination results between attacks. This means that there are no visible signs of the headache during periods of remission. the symptoms and characteristics of cluster headaches can help individuals seek appropriate treatment and management strategies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 32
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man comes to the doctor complaining of double vision. Upon examination, his eye is turned down and out, and he has limited adduction, elevation, and depression of the eye, as well as ptosis. Additionally, his pupil is fixed and dilated. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Horner’s syndrome
Correct Answer: Third nerve palsy
Explanation:Common Cranial Nerve Palsies and Their Symptoms
Cranial nerve palsies can cause a variety of symptoms depending on which nerve is affected. Here are some common cranial nerve palsies and their associated symptoms:
Third Nerve Palsy: This affects the oculomotor nerve and causes the eye to be positioned downward and outward, along with ptosis (drooping eyelid) and mydriasis (dilated pupil).
Sixth Nerve Palsy: This affects the abducens nerve and causes medial deviation of the eye.
Fourth Nerve Palsy: This affects the trochlear nerve and causes the eye to look out and down, resulting in vertical or oblique diplopia (double vision). Patients may tilt their head away from the affected side to correct this.
Horner’s Syndrome: This presents with miosis (constricted pupil), ptosis, and ipsilateral anhidrosis (lack of sweating on one side of the face).
Fifth Nerve Palsy: This affects the trigeminal nerve, which is responsible for facial sensation and some motor functions related to biting and chewing. It does not affect the eye.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 33
Correct
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A 22-year-old student is admitted to hospital with symptoms of fever, headache, photophobia and vomiting. The general practitioner administers 1.2 g of intramuscular benzylpenicillin before transferring the patient to the hospital. On examination, the patient's temperature is 38.0 °C, pulse 100 bpm and blood pressure 150/80 mmHg. No rash is visible, but there is mild neck stiffness. A CT scan of the brain is performed and shows no abnormalities. A lumbar puncture is also performed, and the results are as follows:
- Opening pressure: 20 cm H2O
- Appearance: Clear
- Red cell count: 25/mcl
- Lymphocytes: 125/mcl
- Polymorphs: 5/mcl
- Glucose: 4.5 mmol/l (blood glucose 5.5 mmol/l)
- Protein: 0.5 g/l
- Gram stain: No organisms seen
- Culture: No growth
What diagnosis is consistent with these findings?Your Answer: Viral meningitis
Explanation:Viral meningitis is a serious condition that should be treated as such if a patient presents with a headache, sensitivity to light, and stiffness in the neck. It is important to correctly interpret the results of a lumbar puncture to ensure that the appropriate treatment is administered. The appearance, cell count, protein level, and glucose level of the cerebrospinal fluid can help distinguish between bacterial, viral, and tuberculous meningitis. Bacterial meningitis is characterized by cloudy or purulent fluid with high levels of polymorphs and low levels of lymphocytes, while tuberculous meningitis may have a clear or slightly turbid appearance with a spider web clot and high levels of lymphocytes. Viral meningitis typically has clear or slightly hazy fluid with high levels of lymphocytes and normal protein and glucose levels. A subarachnoid hemorrhage may present with similar symptoms but would not have signs of infection and would show a large number of red blood cells and a color change in the cerebrospinal fluid.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 34
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man is admitted at the request of his family due to a 3-month history of increasing confusion and unsteady gait. They have also noted intermittent jerking movements of both upper limbs. He was previously healthy and till the onset of symptoms, had continued to work part-time as a carpenter. On examination, he is not orientated to time, person or place. Myoclonic jerks of both upper limbs are noted together with non-specific cerebellar signs. CT brain and blood work-up for common causes of dementia is normal.
Which of the following tests will help in diagnosis?Your Answer: Muscle biopsy
Correct Answer: MRI of the brain
Explanation:Diagnostic Procedures for Suspected Sporadic Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease
Sporadic Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (sCJD) is a rare and fatal neurological disorder that presents with rapidly progressive dementia and other non-specific neurological symptoms. Here, we discuss the diagnostic procedures that are typically used when sCJD is suspected.
Clinical diagnosis of sCJD is based on a combination of typical history, MRI findings, positive CSF 14-3-3 protein, and characteristic EEG findings. Definitive diagnosis can only be made from biopsy, but this is often not desirable due to the difficulty in sterilizing equipment.
Renal biopsy is not indicated in cases of suspected sCJD, as the signs and symptoms described are not indicative of renal dysfunction. Echocardiography is also not necessary, as sCJD does not affect the heart.
Muscle biopsy may be indicated in suspected myopathic disorders, but is not useful in diagnosing sCJD. Similarly, bone marrow biopsy is not of diagnostic benefit in this case.
Overall, a combination of clinical history, imaging, and laboratory tests are used to diagnose sCJD, with biopsy reserved for cases where definitive diagnosis is necessary. It is important to note that there is currently no curative treatment for sCJD, and the disease is invariably fatal.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 35
Correct
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What brain structure is likely affected in a 72-year-old man who suddenly experiences paralysis on the left side of his body and oculomotor nerve dysfunction on the right side?
Your Answer: Midbrain
Explanation:Weber’s Syndrome: A Midbrain Infarction
Weber’s syndrome is a condition that occurs when there is an infarction in the midbrain. This can result in contralateral hemiplegia, which is paralysis on one side of the body, and ipsilateral oculomotor nerve palsy, which affects the eye muscles on the same side as the infarction. Patients with Weber’s syndrome often experience an abnormal level of consciousness and asymmetric hemiparesis or quadriparesis, which is weakness or paralysis in one or more limbs.
In more than 70% of cases, patients also exhibit ipsilateral third nerve palsies with pupillary abnormalities and oculomotor signs. These symptoms can include drooping eyelids, double vision, and difficulty moving the eye in certain directions. Weber’s syndrome can be a serious condition that requires prompt medical attention. Treatment may involve medications to manage symptoms and physical therapy to help patients regain strength and mobility.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 36
Correct
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A 20-year-old female underwent an appendicectomy and was administered an antiemetic for her nausea and vomiting. However, she is now experiencing an oculogyric crisis and has a protruding tongue. Which antiemetic is the most probable cause of her symptoms?
Your Answer: Metoclopramide
Explanation:Extrapyramidal Effects of Antiemetic Drugs
Anti-nausea medications such as metoclopramide, domperidone, and cyclizine can have extrapyramidal effects, which involve involuntary muscle movements. Metoclopramide is known to cause acute dystonic reactions, which can result in facial and skeletal muscle spasms and oculogyric crisis. These effects are more common in young girls and women, as well as the elderly. However, they typically subside within 24 hours of stopping treatment with metoclopramide.
On the other hand, domperidone is less likely to cause extrapyramidal effects because it does not easily cross the blood-brain barrier. Cyclizine is also less likely to cause these effects, making it a safer option for those who are susceptible to extrapyramidal reactions. It is important to discuss any concerns about potential side effects with a healthcare provider before starting any new medication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 37
Correct
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A 30-year-old man is referred to a Rapid Access Neurology Service due to severe headache. He gives a history of recurrent rapid-onset severe right-sided headache and eye pain. It sometimes wakes him up at night. He claims the eye itself becomes watery and red during the periods of pain. He also claims that side of his face feels hot and painful during episodes. They normally last 60 minutes. However, he says they can be shorter or longer. There is no significant medical history. He is a smoker. He is pain-free during the consultation and examination is non-contributory.
Which of the following is most likely to be of value in relieving pain?Your Answer: Oxygen
Explanation:Understanding Cluster Headaches and Treatment Options
Cluster headaches are a rare and severe form of headache with an unknown cause, although it is believed to be related to serotonin hyperreactivity in the superficial temporal artery smooth muscle and an autosomal dominant gene. They are more common in young male smokers but can affect any age group. Symptoms include sudden onset of severe unilateral headache, pain around one eye, watery and bloodshot eye, lid swelling, facial flushing, and more. Attacks can occur 1-2 times a day and last 15 minutes to 2 hours. Treatment options include high-flow 100% oxygen, subcutaneous sumatriptan, and verapamil or topiramate for prevention. Other treatments, such as amitriptyline for trigeminal neuralgia or high-dose prednisolone for giant cell arthritis, are not appropriate for cluster headaches.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 38
Correct
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What is the mechanism by which a neuron controls its membrane potential?
Your Answer: By regulating opening and closing ion channels
Explanation:The Role of Ion Channels in Regulating Membrane Potential
The membrane potential of a cell is the voltage difference between the inside and outside of the cell membrane. This potential is influenced by the movement of ions across the membrane, which is determined by their valence and concentration gradient. However, the permeability of ions also plays a crucial role in regulating membrane potential. This is achieved through the presence of ion channels that can open and close in response to various stimuli, such as action potentials.
Neurons, for example, are able to regulate their membrane potential by controlling the opening and closing of ion channels. This allows them to maintain a stable resting potential and respond to changes in their environment. The permeability of ions through these channels is carefully regulated to ensure that the membrane potential remains within a certain range. This is essential for proper neuronal function and communication.
In summary, the regulation of membrane potential is a complex process that involves the movement of ions across the membrane and the opening and closing of ion channels. This process is critical for maintaining proper cellular function and communication, particularly in neurons.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 39
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old retired teacher is brought to the general practitioner (GP) by her concerned son. He tells you that his mother had got lost when returning home from shopping yesterday, a trip that she had been carrying out without problems for over 20 years. He also notes that she has had a general decline in her memory function over the past year or so, frequently repeating stories, and not being able to remember if she had eaten a meal or not that day when questioned. The son would like to know if his mother could be tested for Alzheimer’s disease, a condition that also affected her maternal grandmother.
Deposition of which of the following is associated with the development of Alzheimer’s disease?Your Answer: Alpha-synuclein
Correct Answer: Amyloid precursor protein (APP)
Explanation:Proteins Associated with Neurodegenerative Diseases
Neurodegenerative diseases are characterized by the progressive loss of neurons in the brain and spinal cord. Several proteins have been identified as being associated with these diseases. For example, Alzheimer’s disease is associated with both amyloid precursor protein (APP) and tau proteins. Lewy body disease and Parkinson’s disease are associated with alpha-synuclein, while fronto-temporal dementia and ALS are associated with TARDBP-43 and tau protein. Additionally, Huntington’s disease is associated with huntingtin. Other changes, such as bunina bodies and Pick bodies, are also seen in certain neurodegenerative diseases and can serve as markers of neuronal degeneration. Understanding the role of these proteins in disease pathology is crucial for developing effective treatments for these devastating conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 40
Incorrect
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A woman presents to Accident and Emergency with a decreased level of consciousness. Her conscious state is formally assessed. She withdraws to a painful stimulus and is mumbling incoherent words randomly, irrespective of people attempting to speak to her in conversation, and her eyes open only in response to painful stimuli.
What is the breakdown of this patient’s Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score?Your Answer: Motor response 3/6, verbal response 3/5, eye opening response 2/4
Correct Answer: Motor response 4/6, verbal response 3/5, eye opening response 2/4
Explanation:Understanding the Glasgow Coma Scale: Interpreting a Patient’s Level of Consciousness
The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is a tool used to assess a patient’s level of consciousness. It consists of three scores: best motor response, best verbal response, and eye opening response. Each score is given a value out of a maximum score, and the total score is used to determine the patient’s level of consciousness.
In this case, the patient’s motor response is a score of 4 out of 6, indicating a withdrawal response to pain. The verbal response is a score of 3 out of 5, indicating mumbling words or nonsense. The eye opening response is a score of 2 out of 4, indicating opening to pain. Therefore, the patient’s total GCS score is 9, indicating a comatose state.
It is important to understand the GCS and how to interpret the scores in order to properly assess a patient’s level of consciousness and provide appropriate medical care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 41
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old apprentice is referred by his general practitioner with a query of bacterial meningitis. A computed tomography (CT) scan of the brain was normal. The patient complains of ongoing headache, photophobia and fever. A lumbar puncture (LP) is to be performed.
Which one of the following statements is correct with regard to performing an LP?Your Answer: It should only take place following neuroimaging
Correct Answer: A concurrent plasma glucose sample should be taken
Explanation:Guidelines for Lumbar Puncture in Patients with Suspected Meningitis
Lumbar puncture (LP) is a diagnostic procedure that involves the insertion of a needle into the spinal canal to obtain cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) for analysis. LP is an essential tool in the diagnosis of bacterial meningitis, but it should be performed with caution and only in appropriate patients. Here are some guidelines for LP in patients with suspected meningitis:
Concurrent plasma glucose sample should be taken to calculate the CSF: plasma glucose ratio, which is a key distinguishing feature of bacterial meningitis.
Normal CSF opening pressure ranges from 7-18 mmH2O.
Verbal consent for the procedure is sufficient, but written consent should be obtained from the patient if possible.
LP is typically performed in the left lateral position, but it may be performed in the sitting position or with imaging guidance if necessary.
Neuroimaging is required before an LP only in patients with a clinical suspicion of raised intracranial pressure, especially in immunocompromised patients.
Possible complications of LP include post-dural puncture headache, transient paraesthesiae, spinal haematoma or abscess, and tonsillar herniation. These should be discussed with the patient before the procedure.
LP should not be performed in patients with an acutely raised CSF pressure, as it may cause brainstem herniation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 42
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a complaint of unilateral facial droop. Upon examination, it is noted that she is unable to fully close her left eye. She has no significant medical history but reports having a recent viral upper respiratory tract infection. Her husband is worried that she may have had a stroke, but there are no other focal neurological deficits found except for the isolated left-sided facial nerve palsy.
What clinical finding would you anticipate during the examination?Your Answer: Loss of sensation of the left side of the face
Correct Answer: Loss of lacrimation
Explanation:Understanding Bell’s Palsy: Symptoms and Differences from a Stroke
Bell’s palsy is a condition that affects the facial nerve, causing facial weakness and loss of lacrimation. It is important to distinguish it from a stroke, which can have similar symptoms but different underlying causes. Here are some key points to keep in mind:
Loss of lacrimation: Bell’s palsy affects the parasympathetic fibers carried in the facial nerve, which are responsible for tear formation. This leads to a loss of lacrimation on the affected side.
Loss of sensation: The trigeminal nerve carries the nerve fibers responsible for facial sensation, so there will be no sensory deficit in Bell’s palsy.
Mydriasis: Bell’s palsy does not affect the fibers that supply the pupil, so there will be no mydriasis (dilation of the pupil).
Facial weakness: Bell’s palsy is a lower motor neuron lesion, which means that innervation to all the facial muscles is interrupted. This leads to left-sided facial weakness without forehead sparing.
Ptosis: Bell’s palsy affects the orbicularis oculi muscle, which prevents the eye from fully closing. This can lead to ptosis (drooping of the eyelid) and the need for eye patches and artificial tears to prevent corneal ulcers.
By understanding these symptoms and differences from a stroke, healthcare professionals can provide accurate diagnoses and appropriate treatment for patients with Bell’s palsy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 43
Correct
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What condition is Tinel's sign utilized to diagnose?
Your Answer: Carpal tunnel syndrome
Explanation:Tinel’s Sign for Median Nerve Compression
Tinel’s sign is a diagnostic test used to identify median nerve compression. It involves tapping firmly over the ventral aspect of the wrist, specifically over the carpal tunnel, which produces an electric shock along the course of the median nerve. The test is performed by tapping over the creases on the inner side of the wrist between the two bones on either side of the base of the palm.
The specificity of Tinel’s sign is high at 94%, meaning that it accurately identifies those with median nerve compression. However, the sensitivity of the test ranges from 44-70%, indicating that it may not identify all cases of median nerve compression. Despite this limitation, Tinel’s sign remains a useful tool for diagnosing median nerve compression and should be used in conjunction with other diagnostic tests.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 44
Correct
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A 60-year-old woman is referred by her general practitioner for investigation of a headache. On further questioning, she reports a 2- to 3-week history of worsening left-sided pain which is most noticeable when she brushes her hair. She also reports that, more recently, she has noticed blurred vision in her left eye. On examination, she has stiffness of her upper limbs, as well as tenderness to palpation over her left scalp and earlobe. Her past medical history is notable for hypothyroidism.
Which is the diagnostic test of choice?Your Answer: Arterial biopsy
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests for Temporal arthritis: Understanding Their Role in Diagnosis
Temporal arthritis is a condition that affects middle-aged women with a history of autoimmune disease. The most likely diagnostic test for this condition is a biopsy of the temporal artery, which shows granulomatous vasculitis in the artery walls. Treatment involves high-dose steroid therapy to prevent visual loss. Lumbar puncture for cerebrospinal fluid analysis is unlikely to be helpful, while CT brain is useful for acute haemorrhage or mass lesions. MRA of the brain is performed to assess for intracranial aneurysms, while serum ESR supports but does not confirm a diagnosis of temporal arthritis. Understanding the role of these diagnostic tests is crucial in the accurate diagnosis and treatment of temporal arthritis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 45
Correct
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A 35-year-old homeless man with known human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection presents to the Emergency Department with complaints of headache, neck stiffness, and photophobia for the past 3 weeks. He is unsure if he has had fevers but has experienced chills. He has a history of intravenous drug abuse and hepatitis C. On examination, he appears uncomfortable and avoids light. A lumbar puncture is performed, and India ink highlights several round, thickly encapsulated organisms in his cerebrospinal fluid (CSF).
What is the expected CSF finding pattern in this case?Your Answer: Opening pressure: increased; lymphocyte-predominant; protein: increased; glucose: normal/decreased
Explanation:CSF Profiles in Meningitis: Characteristics and Causes
Meningitis is a serious condition that affects the protective membranes surrounding the brain and spinal cord. Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) analysis is an important diagnostic tool for identifying the cause of meningitis. Here are some common CSF profiles seen in meningitis and their corresponding causes:
1. Cryptococcus meningitis: Increased opening pressure, lymphocyte-predominant, increased protein, normal/decreased glucose. This is a fungal meningitis commonly seen in immunocompromised individuals.
2. Non-specific meningitis: Normal opening pressure, neutrophil-predominant, decreased protein, increased glucose. This CSF profile is not characteristic of any particular cause of meningitis.
3. Aseptic meningitis: Normal opening pressure, normal cells, normal protein, normal glucose. This is a viral meningitis that typically has a milder presentation than bacterial meningitis.
4. Viral meningitis: Normal opening pressure, lymphocyte-predominant, normal protein, normal glucose. This is a common cause of meningitis and is usually self-limiting.
5. Bacterial meningitis: Increased opening pressure, neutrophil-predominant, increased protein, decreased glucose. This is a medical emergency that requires prompt treatment with antibiotics.
In summary, CSF analysis is an important tool for diagnosing meningitis and identifying its underlying cause. Understanding the characteristic CSF profiles of different types of meningitis can help guide appropriate treatment and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 46
Correct
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A patient attends the Neurology clinic following a referral from the general practitioner due to difficulty with eating and chewing food. A neurologist performs a cranial nerve assessment and suspects a lesion of the left-sided trigeminal nerve.
Which of the following is a clinical feature of a trigeminal nerve palsy?Your Answer: Bite weakness
Explanation:Understanding Cranial Nerve Functions and Their Effects on Facial and Oral Muscles
The human body is a complex system of interconnected parts, and the cranial nerves play a crucial role in ensuring that these parts function properly. In particular, the trigeminal nerve, facial nerve, and glossopharyngeal nerve are responsible for controlling various muscles in the face and mouth, as well as transmitting sensory information from these areas to the brain.
If there is weakness in the masticatory muscles, it may be due to a problem with the motor branch of the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve. Similarly, loss of taste in the anterior two-thirds of the tongue may be caused by damage to the facial nerve, which carries taste fibers from this area. Paralysis of the right buccinator muscle is also linked to the facial nerve, which supplies motor fibers to the muscles of facial expression.
Another common symptom of facial nerve palsy is the loss of control over eye blinking, which is mainly controlled by the orbicularis muscle. Finally, the glossopharyngeal nerve is responsible for supplying taste fibers to the posterior third of the tongue.
Overall, understanding the functions of these cranial nerves is essential for identifying the location of lesions and determining which nerve is affected. By doing so, healthcare professionals can provide more accurate diagnoses and develop effective treatment plans for their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 47
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old male patient is admitted with a seizure and reduced conscious level. He had been generally unwell with a fever and headaches over the previous 48 h. Computed tomography (CT) brain scan was normal. Lumbar puncture reveals: protein 0.8 g/l, glucose 3.5 mmol/l (serum glucose 5 mmol/l), WCC (white cell count) 80/mm3, 90% lymphocytes.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Viral meningitis
Correct Answer: Viral encephalitis
Explanation:Lumbar Puncture Findings for Various Neurological Conditions
Lumbar puncture is a diagnostic procedure used to collect cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) for analysis. The results of the CSF analysis can help diagnose various neurological conditions. Here are some lumbar puncture findings for different neurological conditions:
Viral Encephalitis: This condition is suspected based on clinical features and is initially treated with broad-spectrum antibiotics and antivirals. CSF analysis shows clear and colorless appearance, all lymphocytes (no neutrophils), 10 × 106/l red blood cells, 0.2–0.4 g/l protein, 3.3–4.4 mmol/l glucose, pH of 7.31, and an opening pressure of 70–180 mmH2O.
Acute Bacterial Meningitis: This condition causes neutrophilic CSF.
Viral Meningitis: This condition typically presents with headaches and flu-like symptoms, but seizures and reduced conscious level are not a feature.
Tuberculosis (TB) Meningitis: This condition causes a more protracted illness with headaches, fever, visual symptoms, and focal neurological signs. Investigations reveal raised intracranial pressure.
Stroke: This condition does not have any characteristic lumbar puncture findings, and routine use of lumbar puncture is not recommended.
It is important to note that often no cause is found, and the condition is considered idiopathic.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 48
Correct
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You are asked to give a presentation to a group of third-year medical students about the different types of dementia and how they may present.
Which of the following is characteristic of frontotemporal dementia?Your Answer: Confabulation and repetition
Explanation:Understanding Fronto-Temporal Dementia: Symptoms and Features
Fronto-temporal dementia is a complex disorder that affects both the frontal and temporal lobes of the brain. Its diagnosis can be challenging, especially in the early stages of the disease. To better understand this condition, it is helpful to examine its symptoms and features based on the affected brain regions.
Frontal lobe dysfunction is characterized by changes in personality and behavior, such as loss of tact and concern for others, disinhibition, emotional instability, distractibility, impulsivity, and fixed attitudes. However, some patients may exhibit opposite behaviors and become increasingly withdrawn.
Temporal lobe dysfunction, on the other hand, affects speech and language abilities, leading to dysphasia, confabulation, repetition, and difficulty finding words and names (semantic dementia).
Other features of fronto-temporal dementia include earlier onset (typically between 40-60 years old), slow and insidious progression, relatively preserved memory in the early stages, and loss of executive function as the disease advances. Unlike Alzheimer’s disease, hallucinations, paranoia, and delusions are rare, and personality and mood remain largely unaffected.
It is important to note that fronto-temporal dementia can present differently in late onset cases (70-80 years old) and does not typically involve bradykinesia, a hallmark symptom of Parkinson’s disease. Rapid progressive loss of memory and cognitive abilities is also not typical of fronto-temporal dementia, as the disease tends to progress slowly over time.
In summary, understanding the symptoms and features of fronto-temporal dementia can aid in its early detection and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 49
Correct
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A 35-year-old female patient, who smokes and is taking the combined oral contraceptive pill, reports experiencing pain and swelling in her right calf for the past two days. She also presents with sudden onset weakness on her right side. Upon examination, she displays a dense hemiplegia, with upper motor neuron signs and weakness in her right hand. Additionally, evidence of a deep vein thrombosis in her right calf is observed. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Paradoxical embolism
Explanation:Possible Embolic Cerebrovascular Accident in a Patient with History of DVT and Contraceptive Pill Use
This patient presents with symptoms suggestive of deep vein thrombosis (DVT), including calf pain and swelling, and has a history of using the combined oral contraceptive pill, which increases the risk of DVT. However, the sudden onset of right-sided hemiplegia indicates the possibility of an embolic cerebrovascular accident (CVA) caused by an embolus passing through the heart and crossing over to the systemic side of circulation via an atrial septal defect (ASD) or ventricular septal defect (VSD).
It is important to note that pulmonary embolism would not occur in this case without an ASD. While an aneurysm or hemorrhagic stroke are possible, they are less likely given the patient’s history of DVT. A tumor would also have a more chronic symptomatology, further supporting the possibility of an embolic CVA in this patient. Further diagnostic testing and treatment are necessary to confirm and address this potential complication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 50
Correct
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A 27-year-old female patient presents to the Emergency Department complaining of a severe headache that has been progressively worsening over the past two to three months. She also reports experiencing blurred vision. The patient has a history of depression, which she attributes to her weight problem and bad skin. However, she has been actively trying to address these issues by joining Weight Watchers and receiving treatment for her acne from her GP for the past four months. On examination, the patient is overweight and has moderately severe acne. She is afebrile, and there are no signs of nuchal rigidity. The oropharynx is benign, and the neurological examination is normal, except for blurred disc margins bilaterally and a limited ability to abduct the left eye. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Idiopathic intracranial hypertension
Explanation:Idiopathic Intracranial Hypertension
Idiopathic intracranial hypertension (IIH), previously known as benign intracranial hypertension or pseudotumour cerebri, is a condition that typically affects young obese women. Other risk factors include the use of oral contraceptive pills, treatments for acne such as tetracycline, nitrofurantoin, and retinoids, as well as hypervitaminosis A. The condition is characterized by a severe headache, loss of peripheral vision, and impaired visual acuity if papilloedema is severe. Patients may also experience a reduction in colour vision and develop a CN VI palsy.
A CT scan is often normal, and the diagnosis is confirmed by finding an elevated CSF opening pressure of more than 20 cm H2O. CSF protein, glucose, and cell count will be normal. It is important to note that early diagnosis and treatment are crucial in preventing permanent vision loss. Therefore, if you experience any of the symptoms mentioned above, seek medical attention immediately.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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