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  • Question 1 - A 29-year-old woman presents to an ophthalmologist with complaints of vision problems. She...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old woman presents to an ophthalmologist with complaints of vision problems. She reports experiencing blackouts in her peripheral vision and severe headaches. Upon examination, the ophthalmologist notes bitemporal hemianopia in her visual fields. Where is the likely site of the lesion in her optic pathway?

      Your Answer: Optic chiasm

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Effects of Lesions in the Visual Pathway

      The visual pathway is a complex system that allows us to perceive and interpret visual information. However, lesions in different parts of this pathway can result in various visual field defects. Here is a breakdown of the effects of lesions in different parts of the visual pathway:

      Optic Chiasm: Lesions in the optic chiasm can cause bitemporal hemianopia or tunnel vision. This is due to damage to the fibers that receive visual stimuli from the temporal visual fields.

      Optic Nerve: Lesions in the optic nerve can result in monocular blindness of the ipsilateral eye. If only one eye has a visual field defect, then the lesion cannot be further back than the optic nerve.

      Optic Tract: Lesions in the optic tract can cause homonymous hemianopia of the contralateral visual field. This means that a lesion of the left optic tract causes loss of the right visual field in both eyes.

      Lateral Geniculate Nucleus: Any lesions after the optic chiasm will result in a homonymous hemianopia.

      Primary Visual Cortex: Lesions in the primary visual cortex can also result in homonymous hemianopia, but with cortical lesions, there is usually macular sparing because of the relatively large cortical representation of the macula. Less extensive lesions are associated with scotoma and quadrantic field loss.

      Understanding the effects of lesions in the visual pathway is crucial in diagnosing and treating visual field defects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      4.6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 29-year-old man visits his General Practitioner (GP) with complaints of painful red...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old man visits his General Practitioner (GP) with complaints of painful red eye on one side. Upon examination, the GP observes reduced visual acuity, photophobia, eye watering, and a poorly reactive pupil. The patient is suspected to have uveitis. What is the most suitable course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Same-day referral to an Ophthalmologist

      Explanation:

      Management of Acutely Painful Red Eye with Suspected Uveitis

      Explanation:
      When a patient presents with an acutely painful red eye and suspected uveitis, it is crucial to refer them for same-day assessment by an Ophthalmologist. A slit-lamp examination is necessary to confirm the diagnosis, which cannot be performed by a GP. Non-infective anterior uveitis is treated with a combination of steroids and cycloplegics to reduce inflammation and ciliary spasm. In cases of infective uveitis, antimicrobials are also added.

      Chloramphenicol is used in the treatment of conjunctivitis, but it is not appropriate for uveitis. Conservative management with pain relief alone is not sufficient for this condition. Topical steroids are required to reduce inflammation, along with a cycloplegic such as atropine to reduce ciliary spasm. However, topical steroids should not be initiated in primary care, and patients require urgent assessment in secondary care.

      Referral within two weeks is not appropriate for a patient with an acutely painful red eye and suspected uveitis. Any delay in treatment can result in adhesions within the eye and long-term damage. Therefore, same-day referral to an Ophthalmologist is necessary for prompt diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      8.2
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 56-year-old female patient complains of photophobia and a painful, red left eye....

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old female patient complains of photophobia and a painful, red left eye. During examination, a dendritic corneal ulcer is observed. The patient has recently finished taking oral prednisolone for an asthma flare-up. What is the recommended treatment for this condition?

      Your Answer: Intravenous (IV) acyclovir

      Correct Answer: Topical acyclovir

      Explanation:

      The most suitable treatment for herpes simplex keratitis is topical acyclovir. This patient’s symptoms, including a dendritic corneal ulcer, suggest herpes simplex keratitis, which may have been triggered by their recent use of oral prednisolone. Therefore, the most appropriate medication would be topical antivirals, such as acyclovir. It is important to note that acyclovir should be given topically rather than intravenously. Topical ciprofloxacin would be appropriate for bacterial or amoebic keratitis, which is more common in patients who wear contact lenses. Topical chloramphenicol would be suitable for a superficial eye infection like conjunctivitis, but it would not be appropriate for this patient, who likely has a viral cause for their symptoms.

      Understanding Herpes Simplex Keratitis

      Herpes simplex keratitis is a condition that affects the cornea of the eye and is caused by the herpes simplex virus. The most common symptom of this condition is a dendritic corneal ulcer, which can cause a red, painful eye, photophobia, and epiphora. In some cases, visual acuity may also be decreased. Fluorescein staining may show an epithelial ulcer, which can help with diagnosis. One common treatment for this condition is topical acyclovir, which can help to reduce the severity of symptoms and prevent further damage to the cornea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      17.5
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  • Question 4 - An older woman presents to the Emergency Department with severe headache, nausea, vomiting...

    Correct

    • An older woman presents to the Emergency Department with severe headache, nausea, vomiting and a painful, red right eye. She has reduced visual acuity in the right eye and normal visual acuity in the left eye. On examination, she had a stony hard eye with marked pericorneal reddening and a hazy corneal reflex. Tonometry revealed raised intraocular pressure.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate management plan?

      Your Answer: Admit for immediate review by on call ophthalmologist. Topical pilocarpine, followed by a single dose of oral acetazolamide (500 mg) if there is a significant delay prior to specialist review

      Explanation:

      Emergency Management of Acute Closed Angle Glaucoma

      Acute closed angle glaucoma is a medical emergency that requires urgent ophthalmological review. The condition causes sudden loss of vision, severe eye pain, and marked pericorneal injection. The patient may also experience nausea and vomiting. On examination, the eye is stony hard with a semi-dilated, non-reactive pupil, and tonometry reveals a high intraocular pressure (40–80 mmHg).

      The primary treatment for acute closed angle glaucoma is urgent referral to an ophthalmologist. However, if there is a significant delay in specialist review, a single dose of oral acetazolamide (500 mg) can be given to reduce aqueous secretion, and topical pilocarpine can be used to cause pupillary constriction.

      It is important to note that topical steroids are not effective in resolving the underlying problems of acute closed angle glaucoma. Urgent referral to a neurologist is also not appropriate for managing this condition. Additionally, topical tropicamide should not be used as it has the opposite effect to pilocarpine and can worsen attacks of glaucoma.

      In summary, acute closed angle glaucoma is a medical emergency that requires urgent ophthalmological review. If there is a delay in specialist review, a single dose of oral acetazolamide and topical pilocarpine can be given to manage the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      32.1
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  • Question 5 - A 9-year-old boy comes to his General Practitioner complaining of redness around his...

    Correct

    • A 9-year-old boy comes to his General Practitioner complaining of redness around his left eye and pain when moving his eye since waking up this morning. He has been experiencing symptoms of a cold for a few days. Upon examination of his left eye, there is redness around the eye, proptosis, limited and painful eye movements, and decreased visual acuity. The examination of his right eye is normal.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Orbital cellulitis

      Explanation:

      Orbital cellulitis is a serious eye infection that can cause redness around the eye, pain when moving the eye, limited eye movement, bulging of the eye, and decreased vision. It is more commonly seen in children and is caused by an infection behind the orbital septum. This infection can spread from the sinuses, trauma to the eye, or from preseptal cellulitis. On the other hand, a chalazion, which is a small cyst in the eyelid, would not cause these symptoms. Optic neuritis, which is inflammation of the optic nerve, is often associated with multiple sclerosis and can cause vision problems and abnormal color vision. Preseptal cellulitis, which is an infection in front of the orbital septum, can cause eyelid swelling and drooping, but does not cause the same symptoms as orbital cellulitis. Sinusitis, which is inflammation of the sinuses, can lead to orbital cellulitis, but it does not fully explain the patient’s symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      39.8
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  • Question 6 - A 65-year-old woman was referred to ophthalmology with a vesicular rash around her...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman was referred to ophthalmology with a vesicular rash around her left lower eyelid. The left eye is swollen and itchy. What is the recommended treatment for this condition?

      Your Answer: Oral acyclovir

      Explanation:

      Herpes Zoster Ophthalmicus: Symptoms, Treatment, and Complications

      Herpes zoster ophthalmicus (HZO) is a condition that occurs when the varicella-zoster virus reactivates in the area supplied by the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve. It is responsible for approximately 10% of shingles cases. The main symptom of HZO is a vesicular rash around the eye, which may or may not involve the eye itself. Hutchinson’s sign, a rash on the tip or side of the nose, is a strong indicator of nasociliary involvement and increases the risk of ocular involvement.

      Treatment for HZO involves oral antiviral medication for 7-10 days, ideally started within 72 hours of symptom onset. Intravenous antivirals may be necessary for severe infections or immunocompromised patients. Topical antiviral treatment is not recommended for HZO, but topical corticosteroids may be used to treat any secondary inflammation of the eye. Ocular involvement requires urgent ophthalmology review to prevent complications such as conjunctivitis, keratitis, episcleritis, anterior uveitis, ptosis, and post-herpetic neuralgia.

      In summary, HZO is a condition caused by the reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus in the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve. It presents with a vesicular rash around the eye and may involve the eye itself. Treatment involves oral antiviral medication and urgent ophthalmology review is necessary for ocular involvement. Complications of HZO include various eye conditions, ptosis, and post-herpetic neuralgia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      11.1
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  • Question 7 - A 25-year-old pregnant woman visits her General Practitioner (GP) with a complaint of...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old pregnant woman visits her General Practitioner (GP) with a complaint of redness, grittiness, and stickiness in both eyes for the past 5 days. She also reports experiencing whitish-yellow discharge on her lids, particularly in the morning. Upon examination, her vision is 6/6 in both eyes, and there is diffuse injection of the conjunctivae with mild chemosis. The cornea shows no fluorescein uptake. What is the recommended first-line treatment for this patient's eye condition?

      Your Answer: Topical chloramphenicol eye drops

      Correct Answer: Topical fusidic acid eye drops

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Bacterial Conjunctivitis in Pregnant Women

      Bacterial conjunctivitis is a common eye infection that can occur during pregnancy. While topical antibiotics are the mainstay of treatment, certain options should be avoided or used with caution in pregnant women. Here are the treatment options for bacterial conjunctivitis in pregnant women:

      Topical Fusidic Acid Eye Drops: These eye drops are typically a second-line choice for treating bacterial conjunctivitis, but they are often the first-line treatment for pregnant women.

      Topical Steroid Eye Drops: These eye drops are not recommended for bacterial conjunctivitis, especially in pregnant women.

      Artificial Tears: While artificial tears can provide relief for dry eyes, they are not useful in treating bacterial conjunctivitis.

      Eye Shield: An eye shield is not necessary for bacterial conjunctivitis.

      Topical Chloramphenicol Eye Drops: Topical antibiotics are effective in treating bacterial conjunctivitis, but chloramphenicol should be avoided in pregnant women unless it is essential. The British National Formulary recommends avoiding topical chloramphenicol due to the risk of neonatal grey-baby syndrome with oral use in the third trimester.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      20
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 14-year-old boy with a family history of short-sightedness visits his General Practice...

    Correct

    • A 14-year-old boy with a family history of short-sightedness visits his General Practice Clinic, reporting difficulty seeing distant objects. He is interested in the underlying pathophysiology of his condition as he is passionate about science. What is the most appropriate explanation for the pathophysiology of his myopia?

      Your Answer: Increased axial length of the eye, meaning the focal point is anterior to the retina

      Explanation:

      Understanding Refractive Errors: Causes and Effects

      Refractive errors are common vision problems that occur when the shape of the eye prevents light from focusing properly on the retina. This can result in blurry vision at various distances. Here are some common types of refractive errors and their effects:

      Myopia: This occurs when the axial length of the eye is increased, causing the focal point to be anterior to the retina. Myopia gives clear close vision but blurry far vision.

      Hyperopia: This occurs when the axial length of the eye is reduced, causing the focal point to be posterior to the retina. Hyperopia results in blurry close vision but clear far vision.

      Astigmatism: This occurs when the cornea has an abnormal curvature, resulting in two or more focal points that can be anterior and/or posterior to the retina. Astigmatism hinders refraction and leads to blurred vision at all distances.

      Understanding the causes and effects of refractive errors can help individuals seek appropriate treatment and improve their vision.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      15.1
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  • Question 9 - A 55-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner complaining of pain in her...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner complaining of pain in her left eye. She reports no sensitivity to light and no vision problems. She denies any past eye injuries or diseases. She has been managing her diabetes through diet alone for the past two years. During the examination, the eye is found to be red and tender to the touch.

      What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Urgent and immediate referral to ophthalmic surgeon

      Explanation:

      Management of a Patient with a Painful Red Eye and Diabetes

      When managing a patient with a painful red eye and diabetes, it is important to consider the potential causes and appropriate interventions. Urgent referral to an ophthalmic surgeon is necessary if there is suspicion of acute closed-angle glaucoma, which is more common in diabetic patients. Referring the patient back to the diabetic clinic would not be appropriate in this case. Chloramphenicol drops are not indicated unless there is evidence of an infection. Oral flucloxacillin and eye swabs are not necessary unless there is suspicion of skin infection or bacterial conjunctivitis. Reassuring the patient and providing eye lubrication without addressing the underlying cause would be negligent. Prompt and appropriate management is crucial in preventing vision loss in diabetic patients with a painful red eye.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      107.7
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 45-year-old woman with a history of rheumatoid arthritis complains of a painful,...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old woman with a history of rheumatoid arthritis complains of a painful, red eye with excessive tearing and blurred vision that has been ongoing for a few days. She has a family history of glaucoma and is also nearsighted. Upon examination, you diagnose her with scleritis. What potential complication should you be concerned about?

      Your Answer: Perforation of the globe

      Explanation:

      Scleritis is a serious condition that requires urgent ophthalmology attention within 24 hours to prevent complications such as perforation of the globe. Other potential complications of scleritis include glaucoma, cataracts, raised intraocular pressure, retinal detachment, and uveitis. It is important to note that scleritis can lead to raised intraocular pressure, not decreased, and that entropion and episcleritis are not complications of this condition.

      Understanding Scleritis: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Scleritis is a condition that involves inflammation of the sclera, which is the white outer layer of the eye. This condition is typically non-infectious and can cause a red, painful eye. The most common risk factor associated with scleritis is rheumatoid arthritis, but it can also be linked to other conditions such as systemic lupus erythematosus, sarcoidosis, and granulomatosis with polyangiitis.

      Symptoms of scleritis include a red eye, which is often accompanied by pain and discomfort. Patients may also experience watering and photophobia, as well as a gradual decrease in vision.

      Treatment for scleritis typically involves the use of oral NSAIDs as a first-line treatment. In more severe cases, oral glucocorticoids may be used. For resistant cases, immunosuppressive drugs may be necessary, especially if there is an underlying associated disease. With proper treatment, most patients with scleritis can achieve relief from their symptoms and prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      7.2
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 57-year-old man presented to the Emergency Department with a 1-day history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old man presented to the Emergency Department with a 1-day history of blurring of vision and headache. He does not complain of any pain when touching the scalp or any pain when eating and chewing food.
      Past medical history includes hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus, which is well controlled with metformin.
      On further history taking, he tells you that he has a family history of brain cancer and he is afraid that this could be relevant to his symptoms.
      On examination, his visual acuity is 6/18 in both eyes. On dilated fundoscopy, you could see some arterioles narrower than others. You also see venules being compressed by arterioles. There are also some dot-and-blot and flame-shaped haemorrhages, as well as some cotton-wool spots.
      His vital observations are as follows:
      Heart rate 80 bpm
      Blood pressure 221/119 mmHg
      Oxygen saturation 98% on room air
      Respiratory rate 14 per minute
      Temperature 37 °C
      According to the Keith-Wagener-Barker classification of hypertensive retinopathy, what grade of hypertensive retinopathy is this?

      Your Answer: Grade 4

      Correct Answer: Grade 3

      Explanation:

      Stages of Diabetic Retinopathy

      Diabetic retinopathy is a condition that affects the eyes of people with diabetes. It is important to detect and treat it early to prevent vision loss. There are different stages of diabetic retinopathy, each with its own set of features.

      Grade 1 is characterized by arteriolar narrowing. Grade 2 includes features of grade 1 and arteriovenous nipping. Grade 3 includes features of grade 2 and microaneurysms, dot-and-blot haemorrhages, flame-shaped haemorrhages, cotton-wool spots, and hard exudates. Grade 4 includes features of grade 3 and optic disc swelling.

      It is important to have regular eye exams if you have diabetes to detect any signs of diabetic retinopathy early. With proper management and treatment, vision loss can be prevented or delayed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      10.9
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 35-year-old woman, who is typically healthy, arrives at the Emergency Department with...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman, who is typically healthy, arrives at the Emergency Department with a red, watery eye that has been mildly tender for the past two days. She had visited her GP and was prescribed chloramphenicol ointment to apply to her eyes four times daily, but saw no improvement. Upon examination, her visual acuity is 6/6 in both eyes, and a red patch is visible on the lateral side of her affected eye. After administering phenylephrine 10% eye drops, the redness appeared to have improved. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Episcleritis

      Explanation:

      Eye Inflammation: Differentiating Episcleritis from Other Conditions

      Episcleritis is a common eye condition that presents with mild discomfort and grittiness, similar to conjunctivitis. However, it can cause tenderness on palpation and worsened pain on ocular movements. The redness is sectorial and deeper compared to the superficial inflammation in conjunctivitis. Other eye conditions, such as iritis, keratitis, and scleritis, have distinct characteristics that differentiate them from episcleritis. Iritis presents with severe pain and worsened visual acuity, while keratitis causes an uptake of fluorescein under cobalt blue light. Scleritis causes severe aching pain and a blueish-red tinge under natural light. Understanding the differences between these conditions is crucial in making an accurate diagnosis and providing appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      15.3
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 72-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of a gradual decline in...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of a gradual decline in his vision. He mentions difficulty driving at night due to glare from headlights. He does not experience any pain in his eyes. The physician suspects that he may have developed cataracts.
      What are the typical examination findings for cataract formation?

      Your Answer: Reduced visual acuity

      Correct Answer: Absent red reflex

      Explanation:

      Common Ophthalmic Findings and Their Significance

      Red reflex absence, increased ocular pressure, cotton wool spots, positive Schirmer’s test, and reduced visual acuity are common ophthalmic findings that can indicate various eye conditions.

      Red Reflex Absence: This finding is often seen in patients with cataracts, where the lens becomes opaque and prevents light from reaching the retina. A slit-lamp examination can confirm the opacity of the lens.

      Increased Ocular Pressure: This finding is associated with glaucoma, where patients may experience reduced peripheral vision and headaches in addition to problems with glare.

      Cotton Wool Spots: These white patches on the retina are often seen in patients with diabetic retinopathy and hypertension, caused by ischaemia of the nerve fibres supplying the retina.

      Positive Schirmer’s Test: This test is used to diagnose dry eyes or Sjögren syndrome by measuring tear production using litmus paper placed on the lower eyelid.

      Reduced Visual Acuity: While this finding is not specific to any particular condition, it is often reported by patients with cataracts as a gradual progressive visual loss.

      Overall, these ophthalmic findings can provide important clues to help diagnose and manage various eye conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      21
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 32-year-old individual who wears contact lenses presents to the emergency department complaining...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old individual who wears contact lenses presents to the emergency department complaining of pain in their left eye. They describe a sensation of having something gritty stuck in their eye. The eye appears red all over and they have difficulty looking at bright lights. Upon examination with a slit-lamp, there is a hypopyon and focal white infiltrates on the cornea. What is the probable causative organism?

      Your Answer: Acanthamoeba

      Correct Answer: Pseudomonas aeruginosa

      Explanation:

      Pseudomonas aeruginosa is the likely cause of bacterial keratitis in contact lens wearers. Symptoms include a foreign body sensation, conjunctival injection, and hypopyon on slit-lamp examination. Staphylococci and streptococci are also common causes, but pseudomonas is particularly prevalent in this population. Neisseria gonorrhoeae, Acanthamoeba, and herpes simplex are less likely causes.

      Understanding Keratitis: Inflammation of the Cornea

      Keratitis is a condition that refers to the inflammation of the cornea. While conjunctivitis is a common eye infection that is not usually serious, microbial keratitis can be sight-threatening and requires urgent evaluation and treatment. The causes of keratitis can vary, with bacterial infections typically caused by Staphylococcus aureus and Pseudomonas aeruginosa commonly seen in contact lens wearers. Fungal and amoebic infections can also cause keratitis, with acanthamoebic keratitis accounting for around 5% of cases. Parasitic infections such as onchocercal keratitis can also cause inflammation of the cornea.

      Other factors that can cause keratitis include viral infections such as herpes simplex keratitis, environmental factors like photokeratitis (e.g. welder’s arc eye), and exposure keratitis. Clinical features of keratitis include a red eye with pain and erythema, photophobia, a foreign body sensation, and the presence of hypopyon. Referral is necessary for contact lens wearers who present with a painful red eye, as an accurate diagnosis can only be made with a slit-lamp examination.

      Management of keratitis involves stopping the use of contact lenses until symptoms have fully resolved, as well as the use of topical antibiotics such as quinolones. Cycloplegic agents like cyclopentolate can also be used for pain relief. Complications of keratitis can include corneal scarring, perforation, endophthalmitis, and visual loss. Understanding the causes and symptoms of keratitis is important for prompt diagnosis and treatment to prevent serious complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      15
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  • Question 15 - A 68-year-old woman presents to eye casualty with a painful, red eye and...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old woman presents to eye casualty with a painful, red eye and blurred vision. She reports that the pain started suddenly this morning. On examination, there is swelling of the eyelid and a small hypopyon is present. Her vision is blurry in the affected eye and she can only see moving fingers at a distance of one meter. Fundoscopy reveals periphlebitis. The patient has no significant medical history except for cataract surgery performed 3 days ago. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Endophthalmitis

      Explanation:

      Endophthalmitis is a rare but serious complication of cataract surgery that requires urgent treatment. This patient is experiencing a painful and red eye after undergoing cataract surgery, which is a common symptom of endophthalmitis. The condition occurs when microbial organisms are introduced into the eye during surgery, either from the patient’s normal flora or contaminated instruments. Symptoms include retinal periphlebitis, pain, redness, ocular discharge, and worsening vision. Treatment involves prompt administration of intravitreal or systemic antibiotics. Blepharitis, infective conjunctivitis, and keratitis are other ocular conditions that do not fit the symptoms presented by this patient.

      Understanding Cataracts: Causes, Symptoms, and Management

      A cataract is a common eye condition that affects the lens of the eye, causing it to become cloudy and reducing the amount of light that reaches the retina. This can lead to blurred or reduced vision, making it difficult to see clearly. Cataracts are more common in women and tend to increase in incidence with age. While the normal ageing process is the most common cause, other factors such as smoking, alcohol consumption, trauma, diabetes, and long-term corticosteroid use can also contribute to the development of cataracts.

      Symptoms of cataracts include reduced vision, faded colour vision, glare, and halos around lights. A defect in the red reflex is also a sign of cataracts. Diagnosis is typically made through ophthalmoscopy and slit-lamp examination, which can reveal the presence of a visible cataract.

      In the early stages, age-related cataracts can be managed conservatively with stronger glasses or contact lenses and brighter lighting. However, surgery is the only effective treatment for cataracts and involves removing the cloudy lens and replacing it with an artificial one. Referral for surgery should be based on the presence of visual impairment, impact on quality of life, and patient choice. Complications following surgery can include posterior capsule opacification, retinal detachment, posterior capsule rupture, and endophthalmitis.

      Overall, cataracts are a common and treatable eye condition that can significantly impact a person’s vision. Understanding the causes, symptoms, and management options can help individuals make informed decisions about their eye health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      9.6
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  • Question 16 - A 60-year-old man comes in with a painful red eye. What feature would...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old man comes in with a painful red eye. What feature would not indicate a diagnosis of acute angle closure glaucoma?

      Your Answer: Small pupil

      Explanation:

      Glaucoma is a group of disorders that cause optic neuropathy due to increased intraocular pressure (IOP). However, not all patients with raised IOP have glaucoma, and vice versa. Acute angle-closure glaucoma (AACG) is a type of glaucoma where there is a rise in IOP due to impaired aqueous outflow. Factors that increase the risk of AACG include hypermetropia, pupillary dilation, and lens growth associated with age. Symptoms of AACG include severe pain, decreased visual acuity, halos around lights, and a hard, red-eye. Management of AACG is an emergency and requires urgent referral to an ophthalmologist. Emergency medical treatment is necessary to lower the IOP, followed by definitive surgical treatment once the acute attack has subsided.

      There are no specific guidelines for the initial medical treatment of AACG, but a combination of eye drops may be used, including a direct parasympathomimetic, a beta-blocker, and an alpha-2 agonist. Intravenous acetazolamide may also be administered to reduce aqueous secretions. Definitive management of AACG involves laser peripheral iridotomy, which creates a small hole in the peripheral iris to allow aqueous humour to flow to the angle. It is important to seek medical attention immediately if symptoms of AACG are present to prevent permanent vision loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      8.5
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 68-year-old man visits his GP with a complaint of a droopy eyelid...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old man visits his GP with a complaint of a droopy eyelid that started yesterday and has not improved. He has a medical history of poorly controlled type two diabetes mellitus and hypertension, which cause him recurrent foot ulcers. Additionally, he has been a smoker for his entire life.

      During the eye examination, the doctor observes ptosis of the left palpebra with a constricted pupil. However, the patient's visual acuity is 6/6 in both eyes, and he has normal colour vision, intact central and peripheral fields. The patient had a similar episode after a motorbike accident, which was diagnosed as a nerve palsy and later resolved.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Horner's syndrome

      Explanation:

      The correct diagnosis is Horner’s syndrome, which is characterized by ptosis and a constricted pupil. This syndrome is caused by a loss of sympathetic innervation and is likely due to a Pancoast tumor in this patient, who has a history of smoking. Other features of Horner’s syndrome include anhidrosis.

      An abducens nerve palsy would cause horizontal diplopia and defective eye abduction. Lateral medullary syndrome, caused by a stroke, can also cause Horner’s syndrome but would present with additional symptoms such as ataxia and dysphagia.

      An oculomotor nerve palsy would cause ptosis, a ‘down and out’ eye, and a dilated pupil. This patient only has ptosis and a constricted pupil, making oculomotor nerve palsy an incorrect diagnosis. A trochlear nerve palsy would cause vertical diplopia and limitations in eye movement.

      Horner’s syndrome is a medical condition that is characterized by a set of symptoms including a small pupil (miosis), drooping of the upper eyelid (ptosis), sunken eye (enophthalmos), and loss of sweating on one side of the face (anhidrosis). The presence of heterochromia, or a difference in iris color, is often seen in cases of congenital Horner’s syndrome. Anhidrosis is also a distinguishing feature that can help differentiate between central, Preganglionic, and postganglionic lesions. Pharmacologic tests, such as the use of apraclonidine drops, can be helpful in confirming the diagnosis of Horner’s syndrome and localizing the lesion.

      Central lesions, Preganglionic lesions, and postganglionic lesions can all cause Horner’s syndrome, with each type of lesion presenting with different symptoms. Central lesions can result in anhidrosis of the face, arm, and trunk, while Preganglionic lesions can cause anhidrosis of the face only. postganglionic lesions, on the other hand, do not typically result in anhidrosis.

      There are many potential causes of Horner’s syndrome, including stroke, syringomyelia, multiple sclerosis, tumors, encephalitis, thyroidectomy, trauma, cervical rib, carotid artery dissection, carotid aneurysm, cavernous sinus thrombosis, and cluster headache. It is important to identify the underlying cause of Horner’s syndrome in order to determine the appropriate treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      80.4
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  • Question 18 - As an FY-2 doctor in ophthalmology, you encounter a 59-year-old male patient who...

    Correct

    • As an FY-2 doctor in ophthalmology, you encounter a 59-year-old male patient who complains of pain in his right eye, accompanied by tearing and reduced vision. Upon examination, you diagnose a corneal ulcer. What is the most probable cause of this condition?

      Your Answer: Steroid eye drops

      Explanation:

      Fungal infections and subsequent corneal ulcers can be caused by the use of steroid eye drops. These drops are designed to reduce inflammation, but they can also weaken the immune response to infections, leaving the cornea vulnerable to bacteria, fungi, or protists. Treatment for corneal ulcers typically involves targeted eye drops to address the specific organism causing the infection, such as antibacterial or antifungal drops. Saline or lubricant eye drops, on the other hand, are sterile and do not pose a risk for corneal ulcers.

      Understanding Corneal Ulcers

      A corneal ulcer is a condition that occurs when there is a defect in the cornea, which is usually caused by an infection. It is important to note that corneal abrasions, on the other hand, are typically caused by physical trauma. There are several risk factors that can increase the likelihood of developing a corneal ulcer, including contact lens use and vitamin A deficiency, which is particularly common in developing countries.

      The pathophysiology of corneal ulcers can vary depending on the underlying cause. Bacterial, fungal, and viral infections can all lead to the development of a corneal ulcer. In some cases, contact lens use can also be associated with a type of infection called Acanthamoeba keratitis.

      Symptoms of a corneal ulcer typically include eye pain, sensitivity to light, and excessive tearing. Additionally, a focal fluorescein staining of the cornea may be present.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 19 - A 28-year-old female patient visits her GP clinic complaining of a painful lump...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old female patient visits her GP clinic complaining of a painful lump on the border of her left eyelid. She has no medical history and is generally healthy. Upon examination, a small abscess filled with pus is observed in the area. Her visual field is unaffected. What treatment should be recommended for the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Regular warm steaming or soaking with a warm flannel

      Explanation:

      It is recommended to use regular warm steaming as the initial treatment for a stye. This is the most appropriate course of action based on the given information. Other treatments mentioned are not necessary for this particular condition. Styes are commonly caused by staphylococcus bacteria.

      Eyelid problems are quite common and can include a variety of issues. One such issue is blepharitis, which is inflammation of the eyelid margins that can cause redness in the eye. Another problem is a stye, which is an infection of the glands in the eyelids. Chalazion, also known as Meibomian cyst, is another eyelid problem that can occur. Entropion is when the eyelids turn inward, while ectropion is when they turn outward.

      Styes can come in different forms, such as external or internal. An external stye is an infection of the glands that produce sebum or sweat, while an internal stye is an infection of the Meibomian glands. Treatment for styes typically involves hot compresses and pain relief, with topical antibiotics only being recommended if there is also conjunctivitis present. A chalazion, on the other hand, is a painless lump that can form in the eyelid due to a retention cyst of the Meibomian gland. While most cases will resolve on their own, some may require surgical drainage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 20 - A 22-year-old woman, who is a known type 1 diabetic, visited the GP...

    Correct

    • A 22-year-old woman, who is a known type 1 diabetic, visited the GP clinic with a complaint of decreased vision. Her left eye has a vision of 6/6, while her right eye has a vision of 6/18.
      Your GP placement supervisor has requested you to conduct a dilated direct fundoscopy on her eyes. During the examination, you observed exudates forming a ring around a dot haemorrhage near the fovea.
      What is the initial treatment for this eye condition?

      Your Answer: Anti-vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) intravitreal injection

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Diabetic Maculopathy

      Diabetic maculopathy is a condition that affects the retina and can lead to vision loss. There are several treatment options available to manage this condition, including anti-vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) intravitreal injection, focal laser photocoagulation, community diabetic eye screening, increase daily insulin dose, and pan-retinal photocoagulation.

      Anti-VEGF intravitreal injection is a first-line treatment that works by stopping abnormal blood vessels from leaking, growing, and bleeding under the retina. This treatment targets VEGF, a protein that promotes the growth of new blood vessels.

      Focal laser photocoagulation is another treatment option, but it is not recommended for lesions near the fovea due to the risk of damaging vision.

      Community diabetic eye screening is not appropriate for diabetic maculopathy, as it requires more specialized treatment.

      Increasing the daily insulin dose is not recommended unless blood glucose levels are erratic.

      Pan-retinal photocoagulation is typically used in cases of proliferative diabetic retinopathy.

      Overall, the best treatment option for diabetic maculopathy will depend on the individual patient’s condition and needs. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional to determine the most appropriate course of action.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 21 - A 23-year-old female patient visits her GP complaining of vision abnormalities. She reports...

    Correct

    • A 23-year-old female patient visits her GP complaining of vision abnormalities. She reports seeing a black shadow in her right eye's upper field of vision unilaterally. Additionally, she has been experiencing sudden flashing lights in spindly shapes for a few hours. Upon examination, there are no visible abnormalities in the eye, and both pupils are equal and reactive. The patient has no known medical conditions or allergies. What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Retinal detachment

      Explanation:

      The patient is experiencing painless vision loss with a peripheral curtain over her vision, spider web-like flashing lights, and requires an urgent referral to eye casualty. These symptoms are indicative of a retinal detachment, which is a serious condition that can lead to permanent vision loss if not treated promptly. Other potential causes of vision loss, such as ischemic optic neuropathy, vitreous hemorrhage, and acute optic neuritis, have been ruled out based on the patient’s symptoms and medical history.

      Sudden loss of vision can be a scary symptom for patients, as it may indicate a serious issue or only be temporary. Transient monocular visual loss (TMVL) is a term used to describe a sudden, brief loss of vision that lasts less than 24 hours. The most common causes of sudden, painless loss of vision include ischaemic/vascular issues (such as thrombosis, embolism, and temporal arthritis), vitreous haemorrhage, retinal detachment, and retinal migraine.

      Ischaemic/vascular issues, also known as ‘amaurosis fugax’, have a wide range of potential causes, including large artery disease, small artery occlusive disease, venous disease, and hypoperfusion. Altitudinal field defects are often seen, and ischaemic optic neuropathy can occur due to occlusion of the short posterior ciliary arteries. Central retinal vein occlusion is more common than arterial occlusion and can be caused by glaucoma, polycythaemia, or hypertension. Central retinal artery occlusion is typically caused by thromboembolism or arthritis and may present with an afferent pupillary defect and a ‘cherry red’ spot on a pale retina.

      Vitreous haemorrhage can be caused by diabetes, bleeding disorders, or anticoagulants and may present with sudden visual loss and dark spots. Retinal detachment may be preceded by flashes of light or floaters, which are also common in posterior vitreous detachment. Differentiating between posterior vitreous detachment, retinal detachment, and vitreous haemorrhage can be challenging, but each has distinct features such as photopsia and floaters for posterior vitreous detachment, a dense shadow that progresses towards central vision for retinal detachment, and large bleeds causing sudden visual loss for vitreous haemorrhage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 22 - A 63-year-old man visits his optician for routine screening and is discovered to...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old man visits his optician for routine screening and is discovered to have elevated intraocular pressure without any symptoms. The diagnosis of primary open-angle glaucoma is confirmed. He has no significant medical history and is not taking any medications. Can you identify a potential treatment and its mode of action?

      Your Answer: Oral latanoprost - increases uveoscleral outflow

      Correct Answer: Topical timolol - reduces aqueous production

      Explanation:

      Timolol eye drops are effective in treating primary open-angle glaucoma by reducing the production of aqueous fluid in the anterior chamber. This helps to lower the intraocular pressure and prevent further fluid buildup. Other medications, such as acetazolamide, latanoprost, brimonidine, and pilocarpine, work by different mechanisms such as reducing aqueous production or increasing uveoscleral outflow. However, timolol is specifically known for its ability to reduce aqueous production and is commonly used as a first-line treatment for primary open-angle glaucoma.

      Glaucoma is a condition where the optic nerve is damaged due to increased pressure in the eye. Primary open-angle glaucoma is a type where the iris is clear of the trabecular meshwork, which is responsible for draining aqueous humour from the eye. This results in increased resistance to outflow and raised intraocular pressure. The condition affects 0.5% of people over 40 years old and increases with age. Genetics also play a role, with first-degree relatives having a 16% chance of developing the disease. Symptoms are usually absent, and diagnosis is made through routine eye examinations. Investigations include visual field tests, tonometry, and slit lamp examinations. Treatment involves eye drops to lower intraocular pressure, with prostaglandin analogues being the first line of treatment. Surgery may be considered in refractory cases. Regular reassessment is necessary to monitor progression and prevent visual field loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 23 - A 65-year-old man presents with sudden vision loss in his right eye and...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents with sudden vision loss in his right eye and dark floaters over the past few weeks. Fundoscopy is challenging due to patches of redness obscuring the fundus. He has a 20-year history of type 2 diabetes mellitus, hypercholesterolaemia, and proliferative diabetic retinopathy, and takes metformin, pioglitazone, atorvastatin, and dapagliflozin. He is concerned about having a stroke, as his father had one in the past. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Posterior vitreous detachment

      Correct Answer: Vitreous haemorrhage

      Explanation:

      Retinal detachment and vitreous haemorrhage are the two main causes of sight loss in proliferative diabetic retinopathy.

      Understanding Diabetic Retinopathy

      Diabetic retinopathy is a leading cause of blindness among adults aged 35-65 years old. The condition is caused by hyperglycemia, which leads to abnormal metabolism in the retinal vessel walls and damage to endothelial cells and pericytes. This damage causes increased vascular permeability, resulting in exudates seen on fundoscopy. Pericyte dysfunction predisposes to the formation of microaneurysms, while neovascularization is caused by the production of growth factors in response to retinal ischemia.

      Patients with diabetic retinopathy are classified into those with nonproliferative diabetic retinopathy (NPDR), proliferative retinopathy (PDR), and maculopathy. NPDR is further classified into mild, moderate, and severe, depending on the presence of microaneurysms, blot hemorrhages, hard exudates, cotton wool spots, venous beading/looping, and intraretinal microvascular abnormalities. PDR is characterized by retinal neovascularization, which may lead to vitreous hemorrhage, and fibrous tissue forming anterior to the retinal disc. Maculopathy is based on location rather than severity and is more common in Type II DM.

      Management of diabetic retinopathy involves optimizing glycaemic control, blood pressure, and hyperlipidemia, as well as regular review by ophthalmology. Treatment options include intravitreal vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) inhibitors for maculopathy, regular observation for nonproliferative retinopathy, and panretinal laser photocoagulation and intravitreal VEGF inhibitors for proliferative retinopathy. Vitreoretinal surgery may be necessary in cases of severe or vitreous hemorrhage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 24 - A 72-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department reporting a sudden loss of...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department reporting a sudden loss of vision in her left eye that occurred three hours ago and lasted for approximately 3 minutes. She explains the episode as a 'black-out' of her vision in that eye, without associated pain or nausea, and denies any other symptoms. The patient has a medical history of hypertension, hypercholesterolaemia, and depression, and is currently taking amlodipine, ramipril, simvastatin, and citalopram. What is the best description of this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Amaurosis fugax

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptom of painless, temporary blindness in one eye, accompanied by the sensation of a black curtain coming down, is indicative of amaurosis fugax. While advanced age and sudden vision loss may suggest giant cell arthritis, this condition typically causes pain and other symptoms such as scalp tenderness, headache, and jaw claudication. Acute closed-angle glaucoma is also unlikely as it is typically painful and causes redness and increased tearing. None of the medications the patient is taking are known to cause transient visual loss. A TIA of the posterior circulation is unlikely as the visual loss occurred in both eyes. Amaurosis fugax is the most likely cause, which is characterized by painless, temporary vision loss in one or both eyes, often due to retinal ischemia from an embolic or thrombotic event, which is consistent with the patient’s medical history. Reference: Wilkinson & Longmore, Oxford Handbook of Clinical Medicine (10th Ed.), p. 476.

      Sudden loss of vision can be a scary symptom for patients, as it may indicate a serious issue or only be temporary. Transient monocular visual loss (TMVL) is a term used to describe a sudden, brief loss of vision that lasts less than 24 hours. The most common causes of sudden, painless loss of vision include ischaemic/vascular issues (such as thrombosis, embolism, and temporal arthritis), vitreous haemorrhage, retinal detachment, and retinal migraine.

      Ischaemic/vascular issues, also known as ‘amaurosis fugax’, have a wide range of potential causes, including large artery disease, small artery occlusive disease, venous disease, and hypoperfusion. Altitudinal field defects are often seen, and ischaemic optic neuropathy can occur due to occlusion of the short posterior ciliary arteries. Central retinal vein occlusion is more common than arterial occlusion and can be caused by glaucoma, polycythaemia, or hypertension. Central retinal artery occlusion is typically caused by thromboembolism or arthritis and may present with an afferent pupillary defect and a ‘cherry red’ spot on a pale retina.

      Vitreous haemorrhage can be caused by diabetes, bleeding disorders, or anticoagulants and may present with sudden visual loss and dark spots. Retinal detachment may be preceded by flashes of light or floaters, which are also common in posterior vitreous detachment. Differentiating between posterior vitreous detachment, retinal detachment, and vitreous haemorrhage can be challenging, but each has distinct features such as photopsia and floaters for posterior vitreous detachment, a dense shadow that progresses towards central vision for retinal detachment, and large bleeds causing sudden visual loss for vitreous haemorrhage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      8.2
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  • Question 25 - A 50-year-old welder comes to the Emergency Department with a metal splinter in...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old welder comes to the Emergency Department with a metal splinter in his eye. What is the most effective course of action that can be provided in this setting?

      Your Answer: Immediate ophthalmology referral

      Explanation:

      Immediate Referral and Management of Corneal Foreign Body

      If a patient presents with a suspected corneal foreign body, immediate referral to the emergency eye service is necessary. High-velocity injuries or injuries caused by sharp objects should be treated as penetrating injuries until proven otherwise. Once referred, the foreign body can be removed under magnification with a slit lamp and a blunted needle, using a topical anaesthetic to the cornea. Topical antibiotics are given, and the eye is covered with an eye pad. Chemical injuries require eye wash, but this will not remove a corneal foreign body. Retinoscopy is not relevant to this scenario. While topical antibiotics may play a role in management, the most important first step is to remove the foreign body to prevent corneal ulceration, secondary infection, and inflammation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 26 - A 70-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a right-sided headache associated...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a right-sided headache associated with diplopia, binocularly. He is known to have hypertension and type II diabetes mellitus.
      On examination, his visual acuity is 6/9 in both eyes. There is a ptosis of his right eye. His right pupil appears larger than the left. His right eye is abducted on primary gaze. His right eye movements are restricted in most directions except abduction.
      Which one of the following is the most important cause you need to rule out in this condition?

      Your Answer: Posterior-communicating artery aneurysm

      Explanation:

      Causes of Third-Nerve Palsy and Their Differentiating Features

      Third-nerve palsy is a condition that can be caused by various factors, each with its own differentiating features. One of the most urgent causes is a posterior-communicating artery aneurysm, which can be fatal due to subarachnoid hemorrhage. A space-occupying lesion can also compress onto the third nerve, but ruling out an impending subarachnoid hemorrhage caused by a posterior-communicating artery aneurysm is more urgent. On the other hand, an anterior-communicating artery aneurysm does not normally cause a third-nerve palsy. Demyelination can cause third-nerve palsy, but the presentation usually points towards a more ‘surgical’ than ‘medical’ cause. Microvascular ischemia is a common cause of ‘medical’ third-nerve palsy, but the pupillary fibers that control pupil dilation are not affected. Therefore, understanding the differentiating features of each cause is crucial in determining the appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 27 - During duty surgery (urgent care), you encounter a 55-year-old woman who is experiencing...

    Correct

    • During duty surgery (urgent care), you encounter a 55-year-old woman who is experiencing excruciating pain around her right eye. She has tried over-the-counter drops from the chemist, but they have not provided any relief. Although she has no significant medical history, she has been working 12-hour night shifts as a bank nurse. Upon examination, you notice a mild vesicular rash on the conjunctiva, but the eye itself appears normal under direct vision. Her visual acuity is normal, and fundoscopy reveals no abnormalities.

      What would be the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer: Oral acyclovir and urgent ophthalmology referral

      Explanation:

      The recommended course of action for suspected herpes zoster ophthalmicus is urgent referral to an ophthalmologist and a 7-10 day course of oral antivirals such as acyclovir. Prescribing high dose oral steroids or topical dexamethasone is not the appropriate treatment for this condition. While direct referral to the emergency department may result in eventual referral to ophthalmology and treatment, it is not the most efficient or effective approach.

      Herpes Zoster Ophthalmicus: Symptoms, Treatment, and Complications

      Herpes zoster ophthalmicus (HZO) is a condition that occurs when the varicella-zoster virus reactivates in the area supplied by the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve. It is responsible for approximately 10% of shingles cases. The main symptom of HZO is a vesicular rash around the eye, which may or may not involve the eye itself. Hutchinson’s sign, a rash on the tip or side of the nose, is a strong indicator of nasociliary involvement and increases the risk of ocular involvement.

      Treatment for HZO involves oral antiviral medication for 7-10 days, ideally started within 72 hours of symptom onset. Intravenous antivirals may be necessary for severe infections or immunocompromised patients. Topical antiviral treatment is not recommended for HZO, but topical corticosteroids may be used to treat any secondary inflammation of the eye. Ocular involvement requires urgent ophthalmology review to prevent complications such as conjunctivitis, keratitis, episcleritis, anterior uveitis, ptosis, and post-herpetic neuralgia.

      In summary, HZO is a condition caused by the reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus in the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve. It presents with a vesicular rash around the eye and may involve the eye itself. Treatment involves oral antiviral medication and urgent ophthalmology review is necessary for ocular involvement. Complications of HZO include various eye conditions, ptosis, and post-herpetic neuralgia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 28 - A 68-year-old woman comes to the Ophthalmology Clinic complaining of decreased vision in...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old woman comes to the Ophthalmology Clinic complaining of decreased vision in her right eye for the past 2 weeks. She reports seeing wavy lines and experiencing blurred vision in the centre of her right eye. She denies any pain in either eye. Upon fundoscopic examination, the doctor observes a greyish-green discolouration of the retina and subretinal exudate. Fluorescence angiography reveals neovascularisation and exudation in the macular region. What is the initial treatment option for this patient?

      Your Answer: Vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) inhibitor (bevacizumab, ranibizumab)

      Explanation:

      Management of Wet Macular Degeneration: Treatment Options and Supportive Care

      Wet macular degeneration is a serious eye condition that can lead to vision loss if left untreated. The most important first-line treatment for this condition is to prevent further neovascularisation with a Vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) inhibitor, such as bevacizumab or ranibizumab. These drugs work by binding to specific endothelial growth factor receptors that promote the growth and survival of new blood vessels.

      Laser coagulation therapy is a second-line treatment option if VEGF inhibitors do not work or are contraindicated. Photodynamic therapy may also be recommended alongside VEGF inhibitors, but is also a second-line treatment if there is insufficient response to VEGF inhibitors.

      Supportive treatment, including patient education and risk-factor-avoidance education, plays a role in the management of wet macular degeneration. However, the most important aspect of management is treatment with a VEGF inhibitor. Contrast this with dry macular degeneration, whereby supportive treatment is the first-line and mainstay of management.

      Visual and reading aids can also be helpful for patients with macular degeneration, but it is important to start therapy with a VEGF inhibitor to prevent further visual loss. Overall, early diagnosis and prompt treatment are crucial for the management of wet macular degeneration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      9
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  • Question 29 - A 54-year-old man visits his optician for a check-up after being diagnosed with...

    Correct

    • A 54-year-old man visits his optician for a check-up after being diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus. During the examination, the doctor examines the back of his eye using a slit lamp and observes the presence of cotton wool spots. What is the probable underlying pathology responsible for this finding?

      Your Answer: Retinal infarction

      Explanation:

      Retinal detachment is a condition where the retina becomes separated from the normal structure of the eye, resulting in a large bullous separation in rhegmatogenous cases. On the other hand, retinal necrosis is an acute condition that causes an abrupt, one-sided, painful loss of vision. During a slit-lamp examination, multiple areas of retinal whitening and opacification with scalloped edges that merge together can be observed.

      Understanding Diabetic Retinopathy

      Diabetic retinopathy is a leading cause of blindness among adults aged 35-65 years old. The condition is caused by hyperglycemia, which leads to abnormal metabolism in the retinal vessel walls and damage to endothelial cells and pericytes. This damage causes increased vascular permeability, resulting in exudates seen on fundoscopy. Pericyte dysfunction predisposes to the formation of microaneurysms, while neovascularization is caused by the production of growth factors in response to retinal ischemia.

      Patients with diabetic retinopathy are classified into those with nonproliferative diabetic retinopathy (NPDR), proliferative retinopathy (PDR), and maculopathy. NPDR is further classified into mild, moderate, and severe, depending on the presence of microaneurysms, blot hemorrhages, hard exudates, cotton wool spots, venous beading/looping, and intraretinal microvascular abnormalities. PDR is characterized by retinal neovascularization, which may lead to vitreous hemorrhage, and fibrous tissue forming anterior to the retinal disc. Maculopathy is based on location rather than severity and is more common in Type II DM.

      Management of diabetic retinopathy involves optimizing glycaemic control, blood pressure, and hyperlipidemia, as well as regular review by ophthalmology. Treatment options include intravitreal vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) inhibitors for maculopathy, regular observation for nonproliferative retinopathy, and panretinal laser photocoagulation and intravitreal VEGF inhibitors for proliferative retinopathy. Vitreoretinal surgery may be necessary in cases of severe or vitreous hemorrhage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 30 - Which of the following does not predispose to cataract formation? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following does not predispose to cataract formation?

      Your Answer: Hypercalcaemia

      Explanation:

      Cataract formation is more likely to occur due to hypocalcaemia rather than hypercalcaemia.

      Understanding Cataracts: Causes, Symptoms, and Management

      A cataract is a common eye condition that affects the lens of the eye, causing it to become cloudy and reducing the amount of light that reaches the retina. This can lead to blurred or reduced vision, making it difficult to see clearly. Cataracts are more common in women and tend to increase in incidence with age. While the normal ageing process is the most common cause, other factors such as smoking, alcohol consumption, trauma, diabetes, and long-term corticosteroid use can also contribute to the development of cataracts.

      Symptoms of cataracts include reduced vision, faded colour vision, glare, and halos around lights. A defect in the red reflex is also a sign of cataracts. Diagnosis is typically made through ophthalmoscopy and slit-lamp examination, which can reveal the presence of a visible cataract.

      In the early stages, age-related cataracts can be managed conservatively with stronger glasses or contact lenses and brighter lighting. However, surgery is the only effective treatment for cataracts and involves removing the cloudy lens and replacing it with an artificial one. Referral for surgery should be based on the presence of visual impairment, impact on quality of life, and patient choice. Complications following surgery can include posterior capsule opacification, retinal detachment, posterior capsule rupture, and endophthalmitis.

      Overall, cataracts are a common and treatable eye condition that can significantly impact a person’s vision. Understanding the causes, symptoms, and management options can help individuals make informed decisions about their eye health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Ophthalmology (23/30) 77%
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