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Question 1
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You are contacted by the nurse in charge of the ward to evaluate a patient who has been recently admitted from her nursing home with pneumonia and confusion. While bathing her, the nurses have observed a pressure sore near her sacrum and have requested for you to examine it. Upon assessment, you discover a 4 cm circular wound lateral to the sacrum with some surrounding redness. It is roughly 1-2 cm deep. The wound bed shows subcutaneous fat with some slough, but no bone, muscle, or tendon is exposed. What grade of pressure sore would be consistent with this?
Your Answer: EPUAP Grade/Stage III
Explanation:Understanding EPUAP Pressure Sore Grades/Stages
Pressure sores, also known as pressure ulcers, are a common problem for individuals who are bedridden or have limited mobility. The European Pressure Ulcer Advisory Panel (EPUAP) has established a grading system to classify pressure sores based on their severity.
Grade I pressure sores are the mildest form and are characterised by non-blanching erythema, which means the skin is red but not broken. Grade II pressure sores are shallow open ulcers with a pink wound bed. Grade III pressure sores involve full thickness tissue loss with exposed subcutaneous fat, but not muscle or tendon. These can be shallow or deep and may include some undermining of the wound edges. Grade IV pressure sores are the most severe and involve exposed bone, muscle, or tendon.
It is important to understand the different grades of pressure sores to properly assess and treat them. Early detection and intervention can prevent the progression of pressure sores and improve the overall health and well-being of individuals at risk.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Plastics
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Question 2
Correct
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A 21-year-old man visits the Emergency Department after getting into a brawl at a bar, resulting in a cut on his left cheek. He is anxious about the wound leaving a scar as he works as a model, and scarring could affect his career opportunities. What is the most precise statement about wound healing by secondary intention?
Your Answer: Wound edges are initially unopposed
Explanation:Understanding the Differences between Healing by Primary and Secondary Intention
When it comes to wound healing, there are two main types: primary intention and secondary intention. The former is used for wounds with minimal tissue loss, where the edges can be easily brought together for rapid healing. The latter, on the other hand, is used for wounds with significant tissue loss, where the edges cannot be easily opposed without tension. Here are some key differences between the two types of healing:
– Wound edges are initially unopposed in secondary intention healing, as the wound is left open for healing from the deeper layers.
– Repair, which involves scar formation and altered tissue architecture and function, is more likely in secondary intention healing due to the extent of tissue damage.
– Superficial healing occurs before deep healing in secondary intention healing, as granulation tissue forms and epithelialisation occurs from the wound edges.
– Rapid wound healing is more likely in primary intention healing, as the wound edges can be easily brought together for rapid epithelialisation and minimal granulation tissue formation.
– Scar formation is more likely in secondary intention healing, as the prolonged healing process can lead to worse scarring.By understanding these differences, healthcare professionals can choose the appropriate type of wound healing for their patients and help promote optimal healing outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Plastics
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old university student comes to the Emergency Department following a fireworks injury. She reports experiencing intense pain in her forearm. Upon examination, her left forearm appears pale pink and is extremely sensitive, with visible blisters. You conduct a palpation of the affected area and find no loss of sensation throughout the region.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Third-degree burn
Correct Answer: Second-degree, superficial
Explanation:Different Types of Burns and Their Characteristics
Burns can be classified into different types based on their severity and depth of tissue damage. Understanding the characteristics of each type of burn is important for proper management and treatment.
First-degree burn: This type of burn affects only the epidermis and presents with redness, pain, and mild swelling. Blisters are not a feature of this type of burn.
Second-degree, superficial burn: This type of burn affects the epidermis and part of the dermis, resulting in pink-colored skin with painful blisters. Management involves cleansing the wound, leaving the blisters intact, using a non-adherent dressing, and reviewing in 24 hours.
Second-degree, deep burn: This type of burn affects the epidermis and deeper layers of the dermis, resulting in waxy skin with reduced blanching to pressure and reduced sensation. It is frequently less painful than superficial dermal burns.
Third-degree burn: This type of burn affects the epidermis and all of the dermis, resulting in white/brown/black-colored skin without pain or blister formation. The skin will be dry and leathery and will not heal.
Mixed-depth burn: This type of burn involves features of different types of burns and requires individualized management.
Understanding the characteristics of each type of burn is crucial for proper management and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Plastics
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Question 4
Correct
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A 75-year-old bedridden patient presents with a wound under their left heel. They complain of pain in the area and feel that the situation is getting worse. Apart from this, they are in good health and have no fever. On examination, you observe an erythematosus area measuring around 2 cm under the left heel, with partial-thickness skin loss affecting the epidermis. There is no necrotic tissue, discharge, or foul odor.
What is the most suitable course of action for this probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Topical barrier cream and repositioning
Explanation:Management of Grade II Pressure Ulcers: Topical Barrier Cream and Repositioning
Grade II pressure ulcers with partial-thickness skin loss can be managed with topical barrier creams such as Sudocrem®, Proshield™, and Cavilon™. These creams protect the underlying skin and prevent further damage. Regular repositioning and the use of aids to relieve pressure should also be implemented to improve symptoms.
Debridement may be necessary for more severe pressure ulcers or those not responding to treatment. Compression hosiery is not indicated for pressure ulcers and should only be used after ankle-brachial pressure index testing in cases of venous ulceration.
Oral antibiotics such as flucloxacillin are not necessary unless there is evidence of infection. Topical fusidic acid with hydrocortisone is only indicated for mildly infected eczema or skin rashes and is not appropriate for pressure ulcers. The primary focus for managing grade II pressure ulcers is barrier protection and repositioning.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Plastics
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man arrives in the resuscitation area of the Emergency Department with significant burns to his face, torso, and hands after throwing petrol on a bonfire. According to the rule of nines, he has 31.5% burns. He weighs 95 kg.
What would be the appropriate amount of fluid resuscitation based on the Parkland formula?Your Answer: 18L, with 6L given in the first 6 h followed by 12L over the next 12 h
Correct Answer: 12L, with 6L given in the first 8 h followed by 6L over the next 16 h
Explanation:Understanding Fluid Resuscitation in Major Burns
Fluid resuscitation is a crucial aspect of treating patients with major burns. The goal is to replace fluid losses and maintain tissue perfusion to prevent the spread of tissue damage. The Parkland formula is a guide used to calculate the total fluid requirement in 24 hours, based on the patient’s body weight and the percentage of burn surface area. The formula recommends giving 50% of the total fluid requirement in the first 8 hours and the remaining 50% over the next 16 hours.
However, caution should be exercised to avoid overly aggressive fluid resuscitation, which can worsen tissue oedema and hypoxia. The aim is to achieve a urine output of 0.5-1.0 ml/kg/hour in adults. Children require maintenance fluid in addition to the calculated fluid requirement.
It’s important to note that the Parkland formula is a guide, and the fluid requirement may vary depending on the patient’s condition. The initial shift of fluid from the intravascular compartment to the interstitial tissues can lead to hypotension, and burns to the skin can reduce the body’s ability to regulate fluid losses and temperature. Therefore, careful monitoring and adjustment of fluid resuscitation are necessary to ensure optimal outcomes for patients with major burns.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Plastics
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old man weighing 100 kg was pulled from a house fire. He was intubated by the HEMS team at the scene for airway compromise (nasal soot, singed facial hair and a change in voice). He has sustained full-thickness burns to his face, anterior torso and full legs. The specialist registrar (SPR) has asked you to calculate this man’s fluids requirements for the first 24 hours.
Which of the following is the correct volume to the nearest litre?Your Answer: 25 litres
Correct Answer: 27 litres
Explanation:Understanding the Parkland Formula for Fluid Resuscitation in Burns Patients
The Parkland formula is a widely used method for estimating the amount of fluid required for a burns patient in the first 24 hours. This formula takes into account the patient’s weight and the percentage of their body that has been burned, which is determined using the Wallace Rule of Nines.
Once the percentage of burn has been calculated, the fluid volume needed is determined by multiplying the weight of the patient in kilograms by four and then multiplying that by the percentage of burn. For example, a patient who weighs 100 kg and has a 67% burn would require 26,800 ml or 27 litres of fluid in the first 24 hours.
It is important to note that half of the fluid is given over the first 8 hours, with the remaining half given over the next 16 hours. Additionally, the fluid should be warmed and urine output should be carefully monitored to ensure that the patient is receiving adequate hydration.
In conclusion, understanding the Parkland formula is crucial for healthcare professionals who are treating burns patients. By accurately calculating the amount of fluid needed, healthcare providers can help prevent complications and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Plastics
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A young adult is admitted after being rescued from a house fire. They have sustained significant burns to both upper limbs, as well as the front of their torso.
Estimate the size of the burn in terms of percentage of body surface area.Your Answer: 27%
Correct Answer: 36%
Explanation:Understanding the Wallace Rule of Nines for Estimating Burn Size
The Wallace Rule of Nines is a widely used method for estimating the size of a burn. It involves dividing the body into regions, each representing a certain percentage of the total body surface area. According to this rule, each arm represents 9%, each leg represents 18%, the head represents 9%, the front and back of the torso represent 18% each, and the genitals and the area of the patient’s palm represent 1% each.
Once the percentage of burn is estimated using the rule of nines, it can be used in formulae such as the Parkland formula to calculate the amount of fluid replacement required for the patient. The Parkland formula is used to determine the total amount of fluid required in the first 24 hours following a burn.
It is important to note that an accurate assessment of the percentage of body surface area affected by burns is crucial for determining the appropriate treatment and fluid replacement. Any overestimation or underestimation can lead to inadequate or excessive fluid replacement, which can have serious consequences for the patient’s recovery.
In conclusion, understanding the Wallace Rule of Nines is essential for healthcare professionals involved in the management of burn injuries. It provides a quick and reliable method for estimating the size of a burn and determining the appropriate fluid replacement.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Plastics
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 25 year old patient presents to the accident and emergency department after being involved in a fight an hour ago. Due to being intoxicated, the patient is unable to provide much history. Upon examination, the patient has significant facial swelling on the lower left side and bruising around the left eye. The patient does not experience tenderness when palpated on either side of the nose. However, when asked to bite down, the patient complains of an unusual sensation in their mouth, and the left side teeth come together before the right side. Additionally, two teeth are missing on the left side. What would be the most appropriate next investigation?
Your Answer: MRI facial skeleton
Correct Answer: Mandible radiography with (orthopantogram)
Explanation:Imaging for Mandibular Fractures: Options and Considerations
Mandibular fractures are less common now with the use of seat belts in motor vehicles, but they still occur, especially in young males. A standard mandible series, including a PA view, Towne view, and left and right oblique views, along with an orthopantogram (OPG), can provide a full evaluation of the mandible and teeth. If further imaging is needed, a CT of the facial skeleton and mandible may be necessary.
In cases of suspected mandibular fractures, it is important to document the function of the marginal mandibular nerve and sensation over the chin. If teeth are missing, a chest X-ray may be necessary to check for inhaled foreign bodies. Lateral facial radiographs are not typically used for the facial skeleton, and MRI is not the first choice for bony injuries but can be useful for evaluating TMJ pathology.
It is important to consider the potential risks and benefits of each imaging option, especially in terms of ionizing radiation exposure. Chest radiographs and CT scans involve higher doses of radiation and should not be the first choice unless necessary. Overall, a thorough evaluation of mandibular fractures requires careful consideration of the patient’s individual needs and circumstances.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Plastics
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Question 9
Correct
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A 7-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department after falling off her scooter and hitting her face. She had a brief episode of nosebleed which stopped on its own. However, her mother is worried about her breathing, which has become congested and noisy, and her right nostril is getting more swollen. Upon examination, there is an enlarged and red nasal septum on the right side, and a fluctuating swelling can be felt upon palpation. What is the best course of action for this likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Refer to Ear, Nose and Throat (ENT) for urgent drainage
Explanation:Management of Septal Haematoma: Urgent Drainage is Key
Septal haematoma is a blood-filled cavity between the nasal cartilage and the perichondrium, commonly caused by nasal trauma and more prevalent in children. The nasal cartilage relies on the perichondrium for nutrients, and any disruption to this process can lead to necrosis of the cartilage. Urgent drainage is crucial to prevent complications such as septal abscess, necrosis, and collapse of the nasal bridge, which can result in septal fibrosis and saddle nose deformity. While oral antibiotics may be given post-drainage to prevent abscess formation, they are not a substitute for drainage. Conservative management with analgesia and nasal packing may be used in conjunction with drainage, but an urgent referral to an Ear, Nose and Throat (ENT) specialist is necessary for proper management. Therefore, urgent drainage is key in the management of septal haematoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Plastics
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man was saved from a building blaze. Consequently, he sustained burns on his entire back and left leg. What is the percentage of his total body surface area (TBSA) that has been impacted?
Your Answer: 36%
Correct Answer: 45%
Explanation:Calculating Total Body Area Affected by Burns using the Rule of 9s
The rule of 9s is a commonly used method for calculating the total body area affected by burns. According to this rule, the body is divided into different regions, each representing a certain percentage of the total body surface area (TBSA). For instance, the head represents 9% of the TBSA, with 4.5% for the anterior head and 4.5% for the posterior head. The anterior and posterior torso each represent 18% of the TBSA, while each arm and leg represents 9%. The genitalia/perineum represents 1% of the TBSA.
As a rule of thumb, the patient’s palm can be used to estimate 1% of the TBSA for burns not involving whole body areas. For example, if a patient has burns on their right leg (18%), left leg (18%), and right arm (9%), the total body area affected by burns would be 45%.
Other percentages can also be calculated using the rule of 9s. For instance, 30% would indicate burns to both legs only (18% for each leg), while 36% would indicate burns to both legs only (18% for each leg). 40% would be consistent with burns to the right leg (18%), left leg (18%), and right arm (9%). 54% would indicate burns to both arms and both legs (18% for each leg, 9% for each arm).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Plastics
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