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  • Question 1 - A 15-year-old sustains an injury playing football and presents with pain in the...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old sustains an injury playing football and presents with pain in the thigh and a shorter leg.

      Possible diagnoses include which of the following?

      Your Answer: Osgood-Schlatter disease

      Correct Answer: Slipped femoral epiphysis

      Explanation:

      Slipped Upper Femoral Epiphysis

      Slipped upper femoral epiphysis is a condition that primarily affects boys aged 10 to 15. It occurs when the upper femoral epiphysis slips in a posterior inferior direction with respect to the femur. The exact cause of this condition is unclear, but it has been suggested that hormonal or calcification abnormalities may play a role. Obese children with delayed secondary sexual development or tall thin boys are particularly susceptible.

      Symptoms of slipped upper femoral epiphysis include rest pain, limp, pain on movement, reduced range of abduction and internal rotation, and an externally rotated and shortened affected leg. It is important to note that musculoskeletal disease doesn’t typically present with a shortened leg.

      Other conditions that may be mistaken for slipped upper femoral epiphysis include Perthes’ disease, Osgood-Schlatter syndrome, and chondromalacia patellae. Perthes’ disease is avascular necrosis of the femoral head in childhood, while Osgood-Schlatter syndrome is an overuse syndrome associated with physical exertion before skeletal maturity. Chondromalacia patellae is softening of the articular cartilage of the patella usually caused by indirect trauma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      24.1
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 9-year-old boy comes to the GP with his mother who is worried...

    Correct

    • A 9-year-old boy comes to the GP with his mother who is worried about his social interaction at school. She had previously raised these concerns with his previous GP a few years ago but has now moved to a new practice. The boy started a new school 8 months ago and his teachers have reported that he often isolates himself during class and break times. He has a strict routine of having lunch at 12.30 and can become challenging to handle if this is disrupted.

      What could be the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Autism

      Explanation:

      Autism is characterized by a triad of symptoms including communication impairment, impairment of social relationships, and ritualistic behavior. In this case, the child’s lack of interaction in class represents communication impairment, spending much time alone represents impairment of social relationships, and difficulty changing routine represents ritualistic behavior.

      It is important to note that the child’s behavior doesn’t meet the criteria for conduct disorder, which is characterized by repetitive and persistent behavior that violates the basic rights of others or major age-appropriate norms.

      While depression and social anxiety may coexist with autism, they would not fully account for the child’s ritualistic behavior and are therefore not the most likely diagnoses.

      Autism spectrum disorder (ASD) is a neurodevelopmental condition that affects social interaction, communication, and behavior. It can be diagnosed in early childhood or later in life and is more common in boys than girls. Around 50% of children with ASD also have an intellectual disability. Symptoms can range from subtle difficulties in understanding and social function to severe disabilities. While there is no cure for ASD, early diagnosis and intensive educational and behavioral management can improve outcomes. Treatment involves a comprehensive approach that includes non-pharmacological therapies such as applied behavioral analysis, structured teaching methods, and family counseling. Pharmacological interventions may also be used to reduce symptoms like repetitive behavior, anxiety, and aggression. The goal of treatment is to increase functional independence and quality of life while decreasing disability and comorbidity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      49.3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Working in the minor injury unit on bonfire night, you see a 7-year-old...

    Correct

    • Working in the minor injury unit on bonfire night, you see a 7-year-old girl with a burn from a sparkler on her forearm.
      Select from the list the single statement regarding the management of burns that is correct.

      Your Answer: Full thickness burns are associated with loss of sensation on palpation of the affected area

      Explanation:

      Management of Burn Injuries

      Burn injuries can cause thermal damage and inflammation, which can be reduced by cooling the affected area with water at 15oC. However, ice-cold water should be avoided as it can cause vasospasm and further ischaemia. Sensation and capillary refill should be assessed at initial presentation, as full thickness burns are insensitive. Silver sulfadiazine has not been proven to prevent infection. Epidermal burns are characterized by erythema, while larger or awkwardly positioned blisters should be aspirated under aseptic technique to prevent bursting and infection. De-roofing blisters should not be routinely done.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      32
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 57-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with concerns about her eyelids...

    Correct

    • A 57-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with concerns about her eyelids drooping. She reports that her family has commented on this for several months and she has also been experiencing double vision and fatigue. Upon further questioning, she mentions difficulty lifting her arms above her head. On examination, there is slight ptosis but no ophthalmoplegia. Power in her arms is slightly reduced for extension, but tone, coordination, and reflexes are normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Myasthenia gravis

      Explanation:

      Myasthenia gravis is a condition caused by autoantibodies attacking acetylcholine receptors, resulting in symptoms such as double vision, drooping eyelids, and muscle weakness. It is important to review medication use as certain drugs can worsen symptoms. Testing for anti-acetylcholine receptor antibodies is the first step in diagnosis. Thymoma should be ruled out in newly diagnosed patients. Treatment typically involves oral pyridostigmine and, if necessary, surgery for thymoma. Immunomodulatory agents may be used as the disease progresses.

      Motor neurone disease, specifically amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, is characterized by the degeneration of upper and lower motor neurones, leading to progressive muscle weakness without sensory symptoms.

      Multiple sclerosis often presents with a variety of neurological symptoms and signs, including motor, sensory, and autonomic issues. Diagnosis requires objective evidence of dissemination in time and space of typical lesions and the exclusion of other possible explanations.

      Myalgic encephalomyelitis, also known as chronic fatigue syndrome, causes long-term fatigue and other symptoms such as cognitive difficulties, sleep disturbance, and muscle and joint pains.

      Polymyalgia rheumatica is an inflammatory condition with an unknown cause that presents with severe pain and stiffness in the shoulder, neck, and pelvic girdle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      24.1
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 39-year-old plumber visits his GP complaining of increased clumsiness at work that...

    Incorrect

    • A 39-year-old plumber visits his GP complaining of increased clumsiness at work that has been getting worse over the past 6 months. He reports difficulty finding tools and has fallen multiple times due to tripping over his own feet. The patient has well-controlled type 1 diabetes and is in good health otherwise. He is not taking any medication other than insulin and has no family history of illness. During the examination, the GP notes absent ankle jerks and extensor plantars, but sensation is normal. What could be a potential cause for the patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Diabetic neuropathy

      Correct Answer: Motor neuron disease

      Explanation:

      Conditions that can present with extensor plantars and absent ankle jerk, along with mixed upper and lower motor neuron signs, include motor neuron disease, subacute combined degeneration of the cord, and syringomyelia. Other possible conditions to consider are diabetic neuropathy and myasthenia gravis.

      Absent Ankle Jerks and Extensor Plantars: Causes and Implications

      When a patient presents with absent ankle jerks and extensor plantars, it is typically indicative of a lesion that affects both the upper and lower motor neurons. This combination of signs can be caused by a variety of conditions, including subacute combined degeneration of the cord, motor neuron disease, Friedreich’s ataxia, syringomyelia, taboparesis (syphilis), and conus medullaris lesion.

      The absence of ankle jerks suggests a lower motor neuron lesion, while the presence of extensor plantars indicates an upper motor neuron lesion. This combination of signs can help clinicians narrow down the potential causes of the patient’s symptoms and develop an appropriate treatment plan.

      It is important to note that absent ankle jerks and extensor plantars are not always present in the same patient, and their presence or absence can vary depending on the underlying condition. Therefore, a thorough evaluation and diagnostic workup are necessary to accurately diagnose and treat the patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      26
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 72-year-old man with a medical history of hypertension, type 2 diabetes and...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man with a medical history of hypertension, type 2 diabetes and hypercholesterolaemia presents as an emergency. He was at home four days ago when he experienced slurred speech and weakness in his right arm. His wife noticed that his face appeared droopy on one side and he had difficulty raising his right arm. The episode lasted for about 90 minutes before resolving on its own. His wife ignored it, but his son insisted that they bring him to the clinic. On examination, his blood pressure is 160/90 mmHg, he is in sinus rhythm at 70 bpm, and there are no focal neurological findings. He takes aspirin 75 mg daily. The diagnosis is a transient ischaemic attack. What is the most appropriate management plan?

      Your Answer: Start dipyridamole MR 200 mg BD immediately and refer for outpatient specialist assessment and investigation as soon as possible, but definitely within one week of onset of symptoms

      Correct Answer: Continue aspirin 75 mg OD and as symptoms have fully resolved arrange follow-up at the practice in one week to optimise her blood pressure control

      Explanation:

      Updated Guidance for Assessing Patients with TIA

      Some healthcare professionals may still be using the old ABCD2 scoring system for assessing patients with a transient ischemic attack (TIA). However, updated guidance advises that if a patient has had a TIA within the last week, they should be given 300 mg aspirin immediately and urgently assessed by a specialist stroke physician within 24 hours. Exceptions include patients with bleeding disorders or those taking anticoagulants, in which case immediate admission for urgent assessment and imaging is necessary. Patients taking low-dose aspirin regularly should continue their current dose until reviewed by a specialist, while those for whom aspirin is contraindicated should have their management discussed urgently with the specialist team.

      To aid in rapid assessment, the Face Arm Speech Test (FAST test) can be used. This test is positive if the patient exhibits new facial weakness (such as drooping of the mouth or eye), arm weakness, or speech difficulty (such as slurring or difficulty in finding names for commonplace objects). Proper assessment and management of patients with TIA can help prevent future strokes and improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Older Adults
      104.8
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which of the following patients is most likely to develop nasal polyps? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following patients is most likely to develop nasal polyps?

      Your Answer: A 40-year-old man

      Explanation:

      Male adults are the most commonly affected by nasal polyps.

      Understanding Nasal Polyps

      Nasal polyps are a relatively uncommon condition affecting around 1% of adults in the UK. They are more commonly seen in men and are not typically found in children or the elderly. There are several associations with nasal polyps, including asthma (particularly late-onset asthma), aspirin sensitivity, infective sinusitis, cystic fibrosis, Kartagener’s syndrome, and Churg-Strauss syndrome. When asthma, aspirin sensitivity, and nasal polyposis occur together, it is known as Samter’s triad.

      The most common features of nasal polyps include nasal obstruction, rhinorrhoea, sneezing, and a poor sense of taste and smell. However, if a patient experiences unilateral symptoms or bleeding, further investigation is always necessary.

      If a patient is suspected of having nasal polyps, they should be referred to an ear, nose, and throat (ENT) specialist for a full examination. Treatment typically involves the use of topical corticosteroids, which can shrink polyp size in around 80% of patients. With proper management, most patients with nasal polyps can experience relief from their symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      7
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 26-year-old man with known asthma visits your clinic with complaints of worsening...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old man with known asthma visits your clinic with complaints of worsening wheezing over the past few hours. He has a history of non-compliance with his medication regimen. During previous consultations, his best peak flow measurements have been 600 L/min. What is the characteristic feature that indicates acute severe asthma in this individual?

      Your Answer: Increasing symptoms

      Correct Answer: Heart rate 100/min

      Explanation:

      Assessment and Severity of Acute Asthma

      The British Thoracic Society provides clear guidance on the assessment and management of acute asthma, which is often tested in exams. Indicators of acute severe asthma include a peak expiratory flow rate of 33-50% of the patient’s best or predicted rate, a respiratory rate of 25 or greater, a heart rate of 110/min or greater, and the inability to complete sentences in one breath. Oxygen therapy should aim to maintain SpO2 at 94-98%. Increasing symptoms is not a marker of an acute severe attack, but rather denotes a moderate asthma exacerbation. There is no fixed numerical peak flow rate for all patients, as it depends on their personal best or predicted reading. If their actual peak flow is 33-50% of this figure, then it is a marker of an acute severe attack. In the case of a peak flow of 250 L/min, which is considerably reduced from the patient’s usual best of 600 L/min, this is the only indicator of an acute severe attack. If any of these features persist after initial treatment, the patient should be admitted.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urgent And Unscheduled Care
      18.9
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 54-year-old woman is admitted to your intermediate care unit with a significant...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old woman is admitted to your intermediate care unit with a significant medical history of chronic alcoholism. She sustained a brain injury six weeks ago after falling down the stairs at home and is currently bedridden. She was transferred for further rehabilitation and is being fed through a percutaneous gastrostomy, which was inserted three days ago after an initial period of nasogastric tube feeding. The nursing staff reports that she has become increasingly unwell over the past 24 hours, with lethargy and confusion. Upon examination, she appears to be short of breath, and there is evidence of peripheral and pulmonary edema. What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Alcohol withdrawal

      Correct Answer: Aspiration pneumonia

      Explanation:

      Refeeding Syndrome in Malnourished Patients

      Refeeding malnourished patients through enteral feeding requires careful monitoring of electrolytes and minerals. This is because refeeding can trigger a significant anabolic response that affects the levels of electrolytes and minerals essential to cellular function. Unfortunately, refeeding syndrome is often under-recognized and under-diagnosed. The metabolic changes that occur during refeeding can lead to marked hypophosphatemia and shifts in potassium, magnesium, glucose, and thiamine levels.

      Refeeding syndrome is primarily caused by hypophosphatemia and can result in severe cardiorespiratory failure, edema, confusion, convulsions, coma, and even death. Therefore, it is crucial to closely monitor patients undergoing refeeding to prevent and manage refeeding syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      79.9
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 42-year-old woman with rheumatoid arthritis has been switched from methotrexate to leflunomide....

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old woman with rheumatoid arthritis has been switched from methotrexate to leflunomide. Her full blood count and liver function tests are being monitored. What other aspects of her treatment should be monitored?

      Your Answer: Blood pressure

      Explanation:

      Hypertension can be a possible side effect of taking leflunomide.

      Leflunomide: A DMARD for Rheumatoid Arthritis

      Leflunomide is a type of disease modifying anti-rheumatic drug (DMARD) that is commonly used to manage rheumatoid arthritis. It is important to note that this medication has a very long half-life, which means that its teratogenic potential should be taken into consideration. As such, it is contraindicated in pregnant women, and effective contraception is essential during treatment and for at least two years after treatment in women, and at least three months after treatment in men. Caution should also be exercised in patients with pre-existing lung and liver disease.

      Like any medication, leflunomide can cause adverse effects. Some of the most common side effects include gastrointestinal issues such as diarrhea, hypertension, weight loss or anorexia, peripheral neuropathy, myelosuppression, and pneumonitis. To monitor for any potential complications, patients taking leflunomide should have their full blood count (FBC), liver function tests (LFT), and blood pressure checked regularly.

      If a patient needs to stop taking leflunomide, it is important to note that the medication has a very long wash-out period of up to a year. To help speed up the process, co-administration of cholestyramine may be necessary. Overall, leflunomide can be an effective treatment option for rheumatoid arthritis, but it is important to carefully consider its potential risks and benefits before starting treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      11.1
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 26-year-old woman presents to a neurology clinic after experiencing a sudden episode...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old woman presents to a neurology clinic after experiencing a sudden episode of falling to the ground and becoming unresponsive. She describes becoming stiff and blue before shaking for approximately two minutes, followed by drowsiness for 30 minutes. She has no significant medical history and both an MRI and EEG were normal. What recommendations should be made regarding her ability to drive?

      Your Answer: Stop driving for 6 months and inform the DVLA

      Explanation:

      After experiencing a first unprovoked or isolated seizure with normal brain imaging and EEG, patients are not allowed to drive for a period of 6 months. It is their responsibility to inform the DVLA and they may reapply for a license after the 6-month period if no further seizures occur. The incorrect options include stopping driving for one year and informing the DVLA, stopping driving until established on anti-epileptic medication, and stopping driving for 6 months and informing the DVLA only in the event of any further seizures.

      The DVLA has guidelines for individuals with neurological disorders who wish to drive cars or motorcycles. However, the rules for drivers of heavy goods vehicles are much stricter. For individuals with epilepsy or seizures, they must not drive and must inform the DVLA. If an individual has had a first unprovoked or isolated seizure, they must take six months off driving if there are no relevant structural abnormalities on brain imaging and no definite epileptiform activity on EEG. If these conditions are not met, the time off driving is increased to 12 months. Individuals with established epilepsy or those with multiple unprovoked seizures may qualify for a driving license if they have been free from any seizure for 12 months. If there have been no seizures for five years (with medication if necessary), a ’til 70 license is usually restored. Individuals should not drive while anti-epilepsy medication is being withdrawn and for six months after the last dose.

      For individuals with syncope, a simple faint has no restriction on driving. A single episode that is explained and treated requires four weeks off driving. A single unexplained episode requires six months off driving, while two or more episodes require 12 months off. For individuals with other conditions such as stroke or TIA, they must take one month off driving. They may not need to inform the DVLA if there is no residual neurological deficit. If an individual has had multiple TIAs over a short period of time, they must take three months off driving and inform the DVLA. For individuals who have had a craniotomy, such as for meningioma, they must take one year off driving. If an individual has had a pituitary tumor, a craniotomy requires six months off driving, while trans-sphenoidal surgery allows driving when there is no debarring residual impairment likely to affect safe driving. Individuals with narcolepsy/cataplexy must cease driving on diagnosis but can restart once there is satisfactory control of symptoms. For individuals with chronic neurological disorders such as multiple sclerosis or motor neuron disease, they should inform the DVLA and complete the PK1 form (application for driving license holders’ state of health). If the tumor is a benign meningioma and there is no seizure history, the license can be reconsidered six months after surgery if the individual remains seizure-free.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      42.2
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A male patient is prescribed oral testosterone replacement therapy. A Mirena® IUS has...

    Correct

    • A male patient is prescribed oral testosterone replacement therapy. A Mirena® IUS has been fitted and will be used for protection against endometrial hyperplasia.

      For what length of time is the Mirena® licensed for use as protection against endometrial hyperplasia?

      Your Answer: 4 years

      Explanation:

      Mirena® License for Contraception and Endometrial Hyperplasia Protection

      At the moment, question stats are not available, but it is likely that many people will choose 5 years as the answer for Mirena®’s duration of use for contraception. However, it is important to note that while Mirena® is licensed for up to 5 years for contraception and idiopathic menorrhagia, it is only licensed for 4 years for protection against endometrial hyperplasia during oestrogen replacement therapy. This means that individuals using Mirena® for this purpose should have it replaced after 4 years to ensure continued protection. It is crucial to follow the recommended duration of use for Mirena® to ensure its effectiveness and safety.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
      15.8
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 5-year-old boy is brought in by his parents with a 3-week history...

    Correct

    • A 5-year-old boy is brought in by his parents with a 3-week history of violent paroxysms of coughing that end in an inspiratory whoop. He often vomits with the coughing attacks. He and his parents are exhausted.

      Select from the list the single correct statement about whooping cough.

      Your Answer: Coughing may last up to 100 days

      Explanation:

      Treatment and Prevention of Pertussis

      Pertussis, commonly known as whooping cough, is a highly contagious respiratory disease caused by the bacterium Bordetella pertussis. Treatment with antibiotics can reduce the infectivity of the disease, but it doesn’t shorten the duration of the illness. Macrolide antibiotics are the preferred treatment for pertussis.

      Immunization is the most effective way to prevent pertussis. However, the vaccine provides only 95% protection and relies on a degree of herd immunity. Infants less than 6 months old and any unwell child should be admitted to the hospital for treatment.

      If left untreated, pertussis can lead to complications such as bronchiectasis and pneumonia. Therefore, it is important to seek medical attention if you suspect you or your child has pertussis. Early diagnosis and treatment can help prevent the spread of the disease and reduce the risk of complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      65.1
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 3-month-old boy presents with a runny nose, cough and a temperature of...

    Incorrect

    • A 3-month-old boy presents with a runny nose, cough and a temperature of 38.5°C. On auscultation, he has widespread, fine inspiratory crackles and a faint wheeze. He is not tachypnoeic, he remains alert and is taking most feeds. There is slight intercostal and subcostal recession.
      What is the most appropriate management option?

      Your Answer: Admit to hospital

      Correct Answer: Paracetamol, ibuprofen and review in 24 hours

      Explanation:

      Management of Bronchiolitis in Infants

      Bronchiolitis is an acute infectious disease of the lower respiratory tract that commonly affects infants aged between two and six months. It is caused by respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) and peaks during the winter months. Supportive measures such as fluid input, feeding, and temperature control are the mainstay of treatment. Antibiotics are not indicated as bronchiolitis is usually caused by a virus. Hospital admission is only necessary in severe cases or if there are significant comorbidities. Salbutamol via a spacer is not indicated in bronchiolitis. Careful safety netting is important to teach parents to spot deterioration and seek medical attention if necessary. Most infants with bronchiolitis have a mild, self-limiting illness that lasts for seven to ten days.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      88
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 68-year-old man presents with ankle swelling and signs of heart failure. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man presents with ankle swelling and signs of heart failure. He has a past medical history of hypertensive heart disease and is currently taking amlodipine and bendroflumethiazide. He was recently treated for an infection at the hospital but cannot recall the name of the medication or the infection. What are some possible causes of heart failure in this patient?

      Your Answer: Erythromycin

      Correct Answer: Itraconazole

      Explanation:

      Itraconazole and Heart Failure Risk

      The use of itraconazole, a common antifungal medication, can increase the risk of heart failure in certain patients. Those most at risk include individuals with a history of heart disease, those taking calcium antagonists, and the elderly. Patients with liver disease or who are taking statins may also experience adverse effects from itraconazole. It is recommended that baseline liver function tests be performed before starting treatment. While dyspepsia, abdominal pain, nausea, and constipation are common side effects, the negative ionotropic effect of itraconazole can lead to heart failure in susceptible patients. Therefore, itraconazole should be avoided in patients with a history of heart failure unless the benefits outweigh the risks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Older Adults
      27.1
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A carer calls you to see a 70-year-old lady and says There is...

    Incorrect

    • A carer calls you to see a 70-year-old lady and says There is a pressure sore down below which is not getting better. There is an associated itch and occasionally she sees blood spots on her underwear.

      She has been using over-the-counter antifungal creams from the chemist for the last six weeks but it is not helping. On examination there is a shallow ulcer, 3 cm in diameter, on the labia majora. The rest of the examination is normal.

      How would you manage this patient?

      Your Answer: Send for syphilis serology

      Correct Answer: Routine referral to dermatology

      Explanation:

      Urgent Referral for Unexplained Vulval Lump or Non-Responsive Ulceration

      Any woman who discovers a new, unexplained lump or experiences ulceration that doesn’t respond to treatment should be referred urgently. It is important to note that the term pressure sore should be used with caution, as it may not accurately describe the condition.

      If the ulcer appears to be caused by thrush, fluconazole may be considered. However, if the ulcer doesn’t arise from typical intertriginous areas and lacks satellite lesions or white discharge, a fungal infection is unlikely.

      While primary syphilis can cause a solitary painless genital ulcer, it tends to resolve within four to eight weeks. Therefore, it is unlikely that this would be the first presentation of a lady with primary syphilis.

      If the condition is suspected to be a pressure ulcer on the sacrum or another pressure point, a tissue viability nurse may be consulted. However, based on the given history, this seems unlikely. Referring to dermatology is not appropriate for a strongly suspected case of vulval carcinoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
      29.5
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 43-year-old woman comes in with a 2-month history of significant fatigue. She...

    Correct

    • A 43-year-old woman comes in with a 2-month history of significant fatigue. She had initial blood tests for 'always feeling tired' 3 weeks ago, which showed no abnormalities. Additionally, she reports experiencing tingling sensations in both legs for the past 10 days.

      However, what brought her in today was an exacerbation of right-sided eye pain when moving her eye and some loss of color vision.

      What is the probable underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Multiple sclerosis

      Explanation:

      Lethargy is a common early symptom of multiple sclerosis, an autoimmune condition that affects the myelin in the brain and spinal cord. The patient’s description of symptoms of optic neuritis is also typical of multiple sclerosis. Lyme disease can sometimes mimic multiple sclerosis, but there is no history of a tick bite. Myasthenia gravis, which causes weakness and fatigue, is not likely to cause paresthesia or optic neuritis. Sarcoidosis, a systemic inflammatory disease that often presents with fatigue, is a potential option, but multiple sclerosis is more likely to cause optic neuritis.

      Features of Multiple Sclerosis

      Multiple sclerosis (MS) is a condition that can present with nonspecific features, such as significant lethargy in around 75% of patients. Diagnosis is based on two or more relapses and either objective clinical evidence of two or more lesions or objective clinical evidence of one lesion with reasonable historical evidence of a previous relapse.

      MS can affect various parts of the body, leading to different symptoms. Visual symptoms include optic neuritis, optic atrophy, Uhthoff’s phenomenon, and internuclear ophthalmoplegia. Sensory symptoms may include pins and needles, numbness, trigeminal neuralgia, and Lhermitte’s syndrome. Motor symptoms may include spastic weakness, which is most commonly seen in the legs. Cerebellar symptoms may include ataxia and tremor. Other symptoms may include urinary incontinence, sexual dysfunction, and intellectual deterioration.

      It is important to note that MS symptoms can vary greatly between individuals and may change over time. Therefore, it is crucial for patients to work closely with their healthcare providers to manage their symptoms and receive appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
      20.6
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 26-year-old female comes to her GP complaining of feeling tired and experiencing...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old female comes to her GP complaining of feeling tired and experiencing episodes of dizziness. During the examination, the GP observes an absent pulse in the patient's left radial artery. The following blood test results are obtained:

      - Sodium (Na+): 136 mmol/l
      - Potassium (K+): 4.1 mmol/l
      - Urea: 2.3 mmol/l
      - Creatinine: 77 µmol/l
      - Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR): 66 mm/hr

      Based on these findings, what is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Takayasu's arteritis

      Explanation:

      Takayasu’s arteritis is a type of vasculitis that affects the large blood vessels, often leading to blockages in the aorta. This condition is more commonly seen in young women and Asian individuals. Symptoms may include malaise, headaches, unequal blood pressure in the arms, carotid bruits, absent or weak peripheral pulses, and claudication in the limbs during physical activity. Aortic regurgitation may also occur in around 20% of cases. Renal artery stenosis is a common association with this condition. To diagnose Takayasu’s arteritis, vascular imaging of the arterial tree is necessary, which can be done through magnetic resonance angiography or CT angiography. Treatment typically involves the use of steroids.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      61.5
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 27 year-old male patient complains of sudden hearing loss in his right...

    Correct

    • A 27 year-old male patient complains of sudden hearing loss in his right ear without any prior symptoms of cold, fever, headache or earache. Upon examination, his ear canal and tympanic membrane appear to be normal. Weber testing indicates left-sided localization. What is the recommended course of action?

      Your Answer: Refer urgently to ENT and start high dose oral steroids

      Explanation:

      The individual is experiencing sudden sensorineural hearing loss, which is typically of unknown cause. It is recommended that all patients begin treatment promptly with high dose steroids (60mg/day) for seven days, as this has been shown to improve outcomes. An ENT evaluation should be scheduled immediately to conduct pure tone audiometry testing and to rule out the presence of an acoustic neuroma through an MRI. In cases where oral steroids are ineffective, intra-tympanic steroids may be administered. Aciclovir is not typically prescribed as there is no evidence to support its efficacy.

      Rinne’s and Weber’s Test for Differentiating Conductive and Sensorineural Deafness

      Rinne’s and Weber’s tests are used to differentiate between conductive and sensorineural deafness. Rinne’s test involves placing a tuning fork over the mastoid process until the sound is no longer heard, then repositioning it just over the external acoustic meatus. A positive test indicates that air conduction (AC) is better than bone conduction (BC), while a negative test indicates that BC is better than AC, suggesting conductive deafness.

      Weber’s test involves placing a tuning fork in the middle of the forehead equidistant from the patient’s ears and asking the patient which side is loudest. In unilateral sensorineural deafness, sound is localized to the unaffected side, while in unilateral conductive deafness, sound is localized to the affected side.

      The table below summarizes the interpretation of Rinne and Weber tests. A normal result indicates that AC is greater than BC bilaterally and the sound is midline. Conductive hearing loss is indicated by BC being greater than AC in the affected ear and AC being greater than BC in the unaffected ear, with the sound lateralizing to the affected ear. Sensorineural hearing loss is indicated by AC being greater than BC bilaterally, with the sound lateralizing to the unaffected ear.

      Overall, Rinne’s and Weber’s tests are useful tools for differentiating between conductive and sensorineural deafness, allowing for appropriate management and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      16.2
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A mother brings her 3-week-old baby boy into the clinic for evaluation. She...

    Correct

    • A mother brings her 3-week-old baby boy into the clinic for evaluation. She has observed a well-defined, lobulated, and bright red lesion appearing on his left cheek. The lesion was not present at birth but has now grown to 6 mm in diameter. What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Reassure the mother that most lesions spontaneously regress

      Explanation:

      If the strawberry naevus on this baby is not causing any mechanical issues or bleeding, treatment is typically unnecessary.

      Strawberry naevi, also known as capillary haemangiomas, are not usually present at birth but can develop quickly within the first month of life. They appear as raised, red, and lobed tumours that commonly occur on the face, scalp, and back. These growths tend to increase in size until around 6-9 months before gradually disappearing over the next few years. However, in rare cases, they can obstruct the airway if they occur in the upper respiratory tract. Capillary haemangiomas are more common in white infants, particularly in females, premature infants, and those whose mothers have undergone chorionic villous sampling.

      Complications of strawberry naevi include obstruction of vision or airway, bleeding, ulceration, and thrombocytopaenia. Treatment may be necessary if there is visual field obstruction, and propranolol is now the preferred choice over systemic steroids. Topical beta-blockers such as timolol may also be used. Cavernous haemangioma is a type of deep capillary haemangioma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      30.3
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 35-year-old woman presents for the removal of her copper intrauterine device (IUD)...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman presents for the removal of her copper intrauterine device (IUD) on day 4 of her 30-day menstrual cycle. She wishes to start taking the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) after the removal of the IUD. There are no contraindications to the COCP. What is the next best step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Start the combined oral contraceptive pill today, no further contraceptive is required

      Explanation:

      If the patient removes her IUD on day 1-5 of her menstrual cycle and switches to the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP), she doesn’t need any additional contraception. The COCP is effective immediately if started on these days. However, if she starts the COCP from day 6 onwards, she will need to use barrier contraception for 7 days. There is no need to delay starting the COCP after IUD removal unless there is another reason. If the patient had recently taken ulipristal as an emergency contraceptive, she would need to wait for 5 days before starting hormonal contraception, but this is not the case for this patient.

      New intrauterine contraceptive devices include the Jaydess® IUS and Kyleena® IUS. The Jaydess® IUS is licensed for 3 years and has a smaller frame, narrower inserter tube, and less levonorgestrel than the Mirena® coil. The Kyleena® IUS has 19.5mg LNG, is smaller than the Mirena®, and is licensed for 5 years. Both result in lower serum levels of LNG, but the rate of amenorrhoea is less with Kyleena® compared to Mirena®.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
      84.6
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - What is the most probable characteristic of asthma in children? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most probable characteristic of asthma in children?

      Your Answer: Persistent nocturnal cough

      Correct Answer: Finger clubbing

      Explanation:

      Common Pediatric Respiratory Issues and Diagnostic Considerations

      Abnormal cry and stridor are indicative of potential laryngeal issues in children. When assessing for asthma, it is important to note that it is predominantly extrinsic in nature. During acute asthma episodes, relying on peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) may be unreliable due to poor technique. It is important to consider alternative diagnoses when a child presents with failure to thrive and clubbing, as these symptoms may suggest underlying health issues beyond respiratory concerns. By keeping these diagnostic considerations in mind, healthcare providers can more effectively identify and treat common pediatric respiratory issues.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      28.3
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - What is a metabolic effect of exenatide? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a metabolic effect of exenatide?

      Your Answer: Suppresses appetite

      Correct Answer: Accelerates gastric emptying

      Explanation:

      Exenatide and its Metabolic Effects

      Exenatide is a medication that imitates the effects of GLP-1, a hormone produced in the gut. It has been found to have beneficial effects on the metabolism of individuals with diabetes mellitus. This medication has several metabolic effects, including the suppression of appetite, inhibition of glucose production in the liver, slowing of gastric emptying, and stimulation of insulin release. However, it doesn’t increase insulin sensitivity, which is achieved by other drugs such as metformin and the glitazones. Overall, exenatide has been shown to have a positive impact on the management of diabetes by regulating various metabolic processes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      13.3
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 30-year-old woman has a history of recurrent moderately severe depression. She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman has a history of recurrent moderately severe depression. She has recently started citalopram and has found it effective. She prefers drug treatment to cognitive behavioural therapy, which she has had in the past. However, she has just become pregnant and is concerned about the risks of fetal malformation due to citalopram.
      Select from this list the option that seems most appropriate in these circumstances.

      Your Answer: Reduce the dose and stop over 2 weeks

      Correct Answer: Continue citalopram

      Explanation:

      Managing Depression During Pregnancy: Considerations for Antidepressant Use

      Depression affects up to 20% of pregnant women and can have negative impacts on both maternal and fetal health. While concerns about potential harm to the developing fetus may lead some women to discontinue antidepressant medication, doing so can increase the risk of relapse for those with a history of recurrent depression. Additionally, depressed women may engage in behaviors that contribute to poorer obstetric and neonatal outcomes.

      Decisions about treating depression during pregnancy should be made on an individual basis, taking into account the severity of depression, past history of affective disorder, and maternal preference. While there are no antidepressants licensed for use during pregnancy, selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are commonly prescribed. While the risks are thought to be low, some severe birth defects have been reported. Tricyclics are considered safer, but carry a greater risk of overdose.

      In cases where a woman wishes to discontinue antidepressant medication, a gradual reduction in dose is recommended. Alternative treatments, such as psychological therapy, may also be considered. St. John’s wort should be avoided due to insufficient data on its safety in pregnancy. Ultimately, the decision to continue or discontinue antidepressant medication during pregnancy should be made in consultation with a healthcare provider.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      32.3
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 55-year-old woman presents to the diabetes clinic following a recent diagnosis of...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman presents to the diabetes clinic following a recent diagnosis of type 2 diabetes. Her HbA1c levels were 59 mmol/mol and 61 mmol/mol on repeat testing. She has a medical history of stable angina and essential hypertension. Her renal function results show an eGFR of 72 ml/min/1.73m² and a urine ACR of 2.3 mg/mmol.

      What would be the best initial treatment option for this patient?

      Your Answer: Start metformin first and titrate upwards as tolerated, add an SGLT-2 inhibitor if adequate glycaemic control is not achieved

      Correct Answer: Start metformin first and titrate upwards as tolerated, add an SGLT-2 inhibitor regardless of glycaemic control

      Explanation:

      To properly manage a patient with type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) who has a history of angina, it is important to start with metformin and titrate upwards as tolerated. Additionally, an SGLT-2 inhibitor should be added regardless of glycaemic control, as it is indicated for organ protection. Once metformin tolerability is confirmed, the SGLT-2 inhibitor can be added. Starting with an SGLT-2 inhibitor first or starting both medications immediately and titrating metformin upwards as tolerated is incorrect. Adding a DPP 4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, or sulfonylurea only if adequate glycaemic control is not achieved is also not the recommended approach for this patient.

      NICE has updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022 to reflect advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. For the average patient taking metformin for T2DM, lifestyle changes and titrating up metformin to aim for a HbA1c of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) is recommended. A second drug should only be added if the HbA1c rises to 58 mmol/mol (7.5%). Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates, controlling intake of saturated fats and trans fatty acids, and initial target weight loss of 5-10% in overweight individuals.

      Individual HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients to encourage motivation, and HbA1c should be checked every 3-6 months until stable, then 6 monthly. Targets should be relaxed on a case-by-case basis, with particular consideration for older or frail adults with type 2 diabetes. Metformin remains the first-line drug of choice, and SGLT-2 inhibitors should be given in addition to metformin if the patient has a high risk of developing cardiovascular disease (CVD), established CVD, or chronic heart failure. If metformin is contraindicated, SGLT-2 monotherapy or a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, or sulfonylurea may be used.

      Further drug therapy options depend on individual clinical circumstances and patient preference. Dual therapy options include adding a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, sulfonylurea, or SGLT-2 inhibitor (if NICE criteria are met). If a patient doesn’t achieve control on dual therapy, triple therapy options include adding a sulfonylurea or GLP-1 mimetic. GLP-1 mimetics should only be added to insulin under specialist care. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and ACE inhibitors or ARBs are first-line for hypertension. Antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease, and only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      53.9
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A mother of an 8-year-old boy is worried that her son might have...

    Correct

    • A mother of an 8-year-old boy is worried that her son might have developed an egg allergy. The child is experiencing abdominal pain, constipation, and atopic eczema/erythema. What is the most appropriate test to explore the likelihood of a food allergy?

      Your Answer: Elimination diet

      Explanation:

      It is recommended to try eliminating egg as the symptoms indicate a non-IgE-mediated food allergy.

      Food allergies in children and young people can be categorized as either IgE-mediated or non-IgE-mediated. It is important to note that food intolerance is not caused by immune system dysfunction and is not covered by the 2011 NICE guidelines. Symptoms of IgE-mediated allergies include skin reactions such as pruritus, erythema, urticaria, and angioedema, as well as gastrointestinal and respiratory symptoms. Non-IgE-mediated allergies may present with symptoms such as gastro-oesophageal reflux disease, loose or frequent stools, and abdominal pain. If the history suggests an IgE-mediated allergy, skin prick tests or blood tests for specific IgE antibodies to suspected foods and co-allergens should be offered. If the history suggests a non-IgE-mediated allergy, the suspected allergen should be eliminated for 2-6 weeks and then reintroduced, with consultation from a dietitian for nutritional adequacies, timings, and follow-up.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      16.6
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 72-year-old man comes to the clinic with a highly sensitive 0.5 cm...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old man comes to the clinic with a highly sensitive 0.5 cm nodule on the free border of the helix of his left ear. The nodule has been there for approximately six weeks and has a small amount of scale attached to its surface. He has trouble sleeping on that side of his head. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Chondrodermatitis nodularis helicis

      Explanation:

      Chondrodermatitis Nodularis Chronica Helicis: A Benign Tender Lump in the Ear Cartilage

      Chondrodermatitis nodularis chronica helicis is a common condition characterized by a benign tender lump in the cartilaginous portion of the ear, specifically in the helix or antihelix. It is often caused by pressure between the head and pillow during sleep, particularly in individuals who predominantly sleep on one side. Minor trauma, exposure to cold, and tight headgear or telephone headsets can also trigger the condition.

      The lesion rarely resolves on its own and conservative measures such as using a soft pillow or sleeping on the opposite side may be attempted. Wearing a protective pressure-relieving device, using topical and intralesional steroids, or applying topical glyceryl trinitrate may also provide relief. Cryotherapy is sometimes used as well.

      Excision of the damaged cartilage area is often successful, but recurrence can occur at the edge of the excised area. The distinctive feature of chondrodermatitis nodularis chronica helicis is the associated pain and tenderness, which sets it apart from painless cutaneous tumors and non-tender actinic keratoses.

      It is important to note that tophi, which contain a white pasty material and are usually not painful or tender, typically develop around 10 years after the first attack of gout in untreated patients and are commonly found around the elbows, hands, and feet.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      16.8
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - What is the third symptom of cognitive impairment that is part of the...

    Incorrect

    • What is the third symptom of cognitive impairment that is part of the triad characterising Korsakoff's psychosis, along with loss of recent memory and disordered time appreciation?

      Your Answer: Confabulation

      Correct Answer: Cocktail party speech

      Explanation:

      Korsakoff’s Psychosis and Cocktail Party Speech

      Korsakoff’s psychosis is a condition that can cause difficulty in memorizing new events. It is often associated with alcoholism, but it can also result from head injury, cerebral hypoxia, tumor, or encephalitis. One of the characteristic symptoms of Korsakoff’s psychosis is retrograde amnesia, which is the loss of memory for events before the onset of the illness.

      On the other hand, cocktail party speech is a phenomenon that can be observed in some children with congenital syndromes that have learning difficulties. These children can engage in small talk on various topics, but they struggle when faced with more complex communication tasks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      46.6
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 55-year-old man presents for follow-up of his knee pain, which began after...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man presents for follow-up of his knee pain, which began after a bout of gardening 8 weeks ago. He recently had an x-ray and blood tests done by a colleague who advised him on soft tissue injury management and to return if his symptoms did not improve. Despite nightly icing and daily use of over-the-counter ibuprofen, his knee pain remains significant. On examination, there is a small effusion and pain with extreme flexion of the right knee. The patient has a history of rheumatoid arthritis and takes methotrexate, folic acid, and amitriptyline. His recent blood tests show normal renal function, bone profile, CRP, and full blood count, but his ALT and ALP are both elevated to over three times the upper limit of normal. He has no jaundice or focal abdominal signs and is otherwise well. What is the most appropriate immediate course of action?

      Your Answer: Aspirate his knee and send the fluid for urgent laboratory analysis

      Correct Answer: Provide medication advice and discuss his case with a rheumatologist urgently

      Explanation:

      Methotrexate and Liver Toxicity: Importance of Regular Blood Monitoring

      In this case, the patient is taking methotrexate for rheumatoid arthritis and has presented with knee pain. However, the finding of raised liver function tests, although unrelated to the knee pain, should not be ignored due to the potential for methotrexate-induced liver toxicity. Regular blood monitoring is essential for patients taking methotrexate, with full blood count and renal and liver function tests performed before starting treatment and repeated weekly until therapy is stabilised. After stabilisation, bloods should be monitored at least every two to three months.

      Local protocols often advise monthly blood tests on stabilised regimens, with GPs responsible for acting on any abnormal results. In this case, the patient’s ALT and ALP levels are raised to three times the upper limit of normal, indicating the need to withhold methotrexate and seek urgent advice from the local rheumatological department.

      It is important to ask about over-the-counter medication use, as non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) can reduce methotrexate excretion and increase the risk of toxicity. Patients should be advised to avoid self-medication with aspirin and ibuprofen, and close monitoring is required if prescribed concurrently with methotrexate. Rheumatology departments often have specialist nurses available for urgent advice on managing methotrexate-induced liver toxicity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      43.6
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 68-year-old man has metastatic disease following a carcinoma of the lung. He...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old man has metastatic disease following a carcinoma of the lung. He has been discharged to be cared for at home as per his wishes and has a home visit from his general practitioner. He is not eating or drinking and has a syringe driver of morphine and cyclizine to manage symptoms. His conscious level is variable.
      Which of the following signs would indicate that he is entering the last days of life?

      Your Answer: Cheyne-Stokes breathing

      Explanation:

      Understanding Symptoms in Palliative Care: Indicators of End-of-Life

      As a patient approaches the end of their life, it can be difficult to determine the exact moment of passing. However, certain symptoms may indicate that the end is near. Cheyne-Stokes breathing, characterized by cycles of increasingly deep and shallow respiration with possible periods of apnea, is a poor prognostic sign often seen in palliative care. Rectal bleeding may indicate progression of colorectal carcinoma, but doesn’t necessarily indicate the end of life. Abdominal distension may be related to the cancer or constipation caused by pain medication, but is not an indicator of prognosis. Grand mal seizures may require further investigation or treatment, but do not necessarily give an idea of prognosis. Pain management should be regularly reviewed, but the amount of pain doesn’t necessarily correlate with entering the end-of-life phase. Understanding these symptoms can help healthcare providers provide appropriate care and support for patients and their families during this difficult time.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • End Of Life
      23.1
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Children And Young People (2/4) 50%
Dermatology (3/3) 100%
Neurology (2/3) 67%
Older Adults (0/2) 0%
Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing (2/2) 100%
Urgent And Unscheduled Care (0/1) 0%
Gastroenterology (0/1) 0%
Musculoskeletal Health (1/2) 50%
Gynaecology And Breast (2/3) 67%
Infectious Disease And Travel Health (1/1) 100%
Eyes And Vision (1/1) 100%
Cardiovascular Health (1/1) 100%
Respiratory Health (0/1) 0%
Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology (0/2) 0%
Mental Health (0/1) 0%
Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse (0/1) 0%
End Of Life (1/1) 100%
Passmed