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  • Question 1 - Which statement accurately describes the pharmacokinetics during pregnancy? ...

    Correct

    • Which statement accurately describes the pharmacokinetics during pregnancy?

      Your Answer: The glomerular filtration rate increases during pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Pharmacokinetics in Pregnancy

      During pregnancy, there are significant changes in maternal physiology that can affect the pharmacokinetics of drugs. These changes are most pronounced in the third trimester. One of the most notable changes is an increase in plasma volume, which can lead to haemodilution and a decrease in the concentration of plasma albumin. As a result, the total plasma concentrations of albumin-bound drugs may decrease during pregnancy. Additionally, lipophilic drugs may have an increased volume of distribution due to the increase in plasma volume.

      Progesterone levels are also elevated during pregnancy, which can lead to delayed gastric emptying and reduced small intestine motility. This may affect the absorption of drugs, but the overall impact on bioavailability is likely to be relatively small.

      The activity of hepatic drug-metabolizing enzymes can also change during pregnancy. Estrogens and progesterone can induce some CYP enzymes and inhibit others, leading to altered drug metabolism.

      Finally, renal blood flow and the glomerular filtration rate increase during pregnancy, which can enhance the elimination of some drugs. The GFR can increase by up to 50% during pregnancy. These changes in pharmacokinetics during pregnancy must be taken into account when prescribing drugs to pregnant women.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      9.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which statement accurately describes puberty? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement accurately describes puberty?

      Your Answer: On average, boys enter puberty 2 years after girls

      Correct Answer: On average, puberty last 3-4 years

      Explanation:

      Puberty

      Puberty is a natural process that occurs in both boys and girls. The age range for the onset of puberty is between 8-14 years for females and 9-14 years for males, with the mean age of onset being 11 years for girls and 12 years for boys. The duration of puberty is typically 3-4 years. The onset of puberty is marked by the appearance of secondary sex characteristics, such as breast development in females and testicular enlargement in males. These characteristics evolve over time and are rated into 5 stages according to Tanner’s criteria. The sequence of events differs between boys and girls, with the onset of breast development (thelarche) generally preceding the onset of the first period (menarche) by around 2 years in girls. The pubertal growth spurt occurs during stages 3 to 4 in most boys and during stages 2 and 3 in girls. Precocious puberty, which occurs earlier than usual, is more common in girls than in boys. The age of onset of puberty in girls has been decreasing over time, with environmental factors such as nutrition potentially playing a role in this trend.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychological Development
      9.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 35-year-old drug addict decides to quit using drugs. On the fifth day...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old drug addict decides to quit using drugs. On the fifth day of sobriety, he begins to experience visual and auditory hallucinations of tiny beings in his bedroom, sometimes even feeling them crawling on him. What is the term for this perceptual disturbance?

      Your Answer: Lilliputian hallucination

      Explanation:

      Delirium tremens, which can occur after alcohol withdrawal, may cause tactile and auditory hallucinations. Lilliputian hallucinations, which involve seeing small objects of animals, can also occur during alcohol withdrawal and in various other conditions such as delirium, dementia, and schizophrenia. Affect illusions occur when perception of everyday objects is altered based on a person’s prevailing mood, but this experience is temporary and disappears with increased attention. Charles Bonnet syndrome is a condition where individuals experience complex visual hallucinations due to impaired vision without any underlying psychological issues. Pseudohallucinations are different from normal sense perceptions as they are figurative and subjective, not concrete of real. Pareidolic illusions involve mixing sensory perceptions with imagination, such as seeing faces in clouds.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Descriptive Psychopathology
      12.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which condition has been eliminated due to the use of highly active antiretroviral...

    Correct

    • Which condition has been eliminated due to the use of highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART) in individuals who are HIV positive?

      Your Answer: Toxoplasmosis

      Explanation:

      The use of HAART has led to a complete elimination of new cases of toxoplasmosis in individuals who are HIV positive. Studies conducted on the Edinburgh cohort have revealed a significant decrease in the occurrence of CMV by 50% during autopsy, a 68% reduction in HIVE, and complete eradication of toxoplasmosis. However, there has been a slight increase in the incidence of PML and lymphoma in this group and other samples.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      3
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - What combination of symptoms and signs would strongly indicate the presence of tuberous...

    Correct

    • What combination of symptoms and signs would strongly indicate the presence of tuberous sclerosis?

      Your Answer: Seizures, developmental delay, and skin lesions

      Explanation:

      Tuberous Sclerosis: A Neurocutaneous Syndrome with Psychiatric Comorbidity

      Tuberous sclerosis is a genetic disorder that affects multiple organs, including the brain, and is associated with significant psychiatric comorbidity. This neurocutaneous syndrome is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern with a high penetrance rate of 95%, but its expression can vary widely. The hallmark of this disorder is the growth of multiple non-cancerous tumors in vital organs, including the brain. These tumors result from mutations in one of two tumor suppressor genes, TSC1 and TSC2. The psychiatric comorbidities associated with tuberous sclerosis include autism, ADHD, depression, anxiety, and even psychosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      18.5
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 35-year-old patient with bipolar affective disorder experiences a decline in their mental...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old patient with bipolar affective disorder experiences a decline in their mental health and develops hypomania. They were seen in the outpatient clinic two months ago and had their lithium dosage increased from 400 mg to 900 mg per day. Their serum lithium levels were checked again and were found to be 0.1 mmol/L. The patient is physically healthy. What type of non-compliance is most probable in this case?

      Your Answer: Errors of omission

      Explanation:

      The serum lithium level is not in the therapeutic range, which is an example of an error of omission. It is likely that the patient has not been taking their medication, as the dose was increased during the last medical review. Errors in drug adherence can be classified into four categories: errors of omission (not taking medication), errors of purpose (taking medication for the wrong reason), errors of dosage (taking the wrong dosage of medication), and errors of timing and sequence (taking medication at the wrong time and sequence). Schwartz et al. added a fifth category, which involves taking additional medication not prescribed by a doctor.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Advanced Psychological Processes And Treatments
      22.1
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - What is the total number of codon triplet sequences that can be formed...

    Correct

    • What is the total number of codon triplet sequences that can be formed from human DNA?

      Your Answer: 64

      Explanation:

      There are four different bases in DNA, and since a codon consists of three bases, there are 64 potential combinations of bases in a codon due to the formula 4 * 4 * 4.

      Codons and Amino Acids

      Codons are made up of three bases and each codon codes for an amino acid. There are 64 different triplet sequences, with three of them indicating the end of the polypeptide chain. The start codon always has the code AUG in mRNA and codes for the amino acid methionine. This leaves 61 codons that code for a total of 20 different amino acids. As a result, most of the amino acids are represented by more than one codon. Amino acids are the building blocks of proteins, which can form short polymer chains called peptides of longer chains called polypeptides of proteins.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      3.5
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - What is the cause of diabetes insipidus induced by lithium? ...

    Correct

    • What is the cause of diabetes insipidus induced by lithium?

      Your Answer: Impaired action of ADH on principal cells

      Explanation:

      Lithium – Pharmacology

      Pharmacokinetics:
      Lithium salts are rapidly absorbed following oral administration and are almost exclusively excreted by the kidneys unchanged. Blood samples for lithium should be taken 12 hours post-dose.

      Ebstein’s:
      Ebstein’s anomaly is a congenital malformation consisting of a prolapse of the tricuspid valve into the right ventricle. It occurs in 1:20,000 of the general population. Initial data suggested it was more common in those using lithium but this had not held to be true.

      Contraindications:
      Addison’s disease, Brugada syndrome, cardiac disease associated with rhythm disorders, clinically significant renal impairment, untreated of untreatable hypothyroidism, low sodium levels.

      Side-effects:
      Common side effects include nausea, tremor, polyuria/polydipsia, rash/dermatitis, blurred vision, dizziness, decreased appetite, drowsiness, metallic taste, and diarrhea. Side-effects are often dose-related.

      Long-term use is associated with hypothyroidism, hyperthyroidism, hypercalcemia/hyperparathyroidism, irreversible nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, and reduced GFR.

      Lithium-induced diabetes insipidus:
      Treatment options include stopping lithium (if feasible), keeping levels within 0.4-0.8 mmol/L, once-daily dose of the drug taken at bedtime, amiloride, thiazide diuretics, indomethacin, and desmopressin.

      Toxicity:
      Lithium salts have a narrow therapeutic/toxic ratio. Risk factors for lithium toxicity include drugs altering renal function, decreased circulating volume, infections, fever, decreased oral intake of water, renal insufficiency, and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Features of lithium toxicity include GI symptoms and neuro symptoms.

      Pre-prescribing:
      Before prescribing lithium, renal function, cardiac function, thyroid function, FBC, and BMI should be checked. Women of childbearing age should be advised regarding contraception, and information about toxicity should be provided.

      Monitoring:
      Lithium blood levels should be checked weekly until stable, and then every 3-6 months once stable. Thyroid and renal function should be checked every 6 months. Patients should be issued with an information booklet, alert card, and record book.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      11.4
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which of the following is not a known trigger for migraines? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is not a known trigger for migraines?

      Your Answer: Spicy foods

      Explanation:

      Migraine

      Migraine is a common condition that affects 5-10% of the population, with a higher prevalence in women than men (2-3:1). It typically starts in childhood of adolescence and has a strong familial association, with 2/3 of cases reporting a family history of migraine.

      The most prominent symptom of migraine is headache, which is usually unilateral but can occur on both sides. Other symptoms include anorexia, nausea and vomiting, photophobia, and intolerance of noise.

      In about 1/3 of cases, migraines are preceded by a visual aura (known as classic migraine). The most common form of visual aura is the ‘fortification spectra’ (semicircle of zigzag lights), but other disturbances such as micropsia, macropsia, zoom vision, mosaic vision, scotomas, and even hallucinations can occur.

      Basilar migraines are a subtype of migraine where headache and aura are accompanied by difficulty speaking, vertigo, ringing in ears, of other brainstem-related symptoms, but not motor weakness.

      Migraine can be triggered by various factors, including alcohol, cheese, chocolate, skipping meals, missing sleep, and oral contraceptives. Stress is also a common precipitant of migraine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      5.5
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - What is the procedure that entails administering the hepatitis virus to individuals with...

    Correct

    • What is the procedure that entails administering the hepatitis virus to individuals with learning disabilities who are in good health?

      Your Answer: Willowbrook study

      Explanation:

      Controversial studies in psychiatry have been a popular topic in exams. One such study was the Willowbrook School Study, where healthy children with learning difficulties were inoculated with hepatitis to assess the potential of gamma globulin to treat the disorder. Beecher’s study listed over 20 cases of mainstream research where subjects were experimented on without being fully informed of the risks. The Tuskegee syphilis experiment followed impoverished African-American sharecroppers with syphilis, and a significant proportion did not receive available treatment. Stanford’s prison experiment created a simulated prison environment where participants became their assigned roles, with guards becoming harsh and cruel to prisoners. The Tearooms Study involved Humphreys pretending to be a ‘watch queen’ to study men who have sex in public toilets, raising the issue of informed consent. Milgram’s Study investigated authority and obedience, where participants administered fake shocks to a confederate, with 30 participants continuing to administer shocks until 450 volts was reached. The Rosenhan experiment involved pseudopatients presenting themselves at institutions with the same symptoms and being admitted and diagnosed with serious mental disorders, leading to deinstitutionalisation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      8.1
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Which condition is thought to have the highest degree of genetic inheritance? ...

    Correct

    • Which condition is thought to have the highest degree of genetic inheritance?

      Your Answer: ADHD

      Explanation:

      Both ADHD and ASD are believed to have a strong genetic component, although only one of them is classified as a developmental disorder.

      Heritability: Understanding the Concept

      Heritability is a concept that is often misunderstood. It is not a measure of the extent to which genes cause a condition in an individual. Rather, it is the proportion of phenotypic variance attributable to genetic variance. In other words, it tells us how much of the variation in a condition seen in a population is due to genetic factors. Heritability is calculated using statistical techniques and can range from 0.0 to 1.0. For human behavior, most estimates of heritability fall in the moderate range of .30 to .60.

      The quantity (1.0 – heritability) gives the environment ability of the trait. This is the proportion of phenotypic variance attributable to environmental variance. The following table provides estimates of heritability for major conditions:

      Condition Heritability estimate (approx)
      ADHD 85%
      Autism 70%
      Schizophrenia 55%
      Bipolar 55%
      Anorexia 35%
      Alcohol dependence 35%
      Major depression 30%
      OCD 25%

      It is important to note that heritability tells us nothing about individuals. It is a population-level measure that helps us understand the relative contributions of genetic and environmental factors to a particular condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      5
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  • Question 12 - What is a true statement about opioid receptors? ...

    Correct

    • What is a true statement about opioid receptors?

      Your Answer: Stimulation of mu receptors results in dopamine release from the ventral tegmental area

      Explanation:

      Opioid Pharmacology and Treatment Medications

      Opioids work by binding to opioid receptors in the brain, specifically the µ, k, and δ receptors. The µ receptor is the main target for opioids and mediates euphoria, respiratory depression, and dependence. Dopaminergic cells in the ventral tegmental area produce dopamine, which is released into the nucleus accumbens upon stimulation of µ receptors, leading to the reward and euphoria that drives repeated use. However, with repeated exposure, µ receptors become less responsive, leading to dysphoria and drug craving.

      There are several medications used in opioid treatment. Methadone is a full agonist targeting µ receptors, with some action against k and δ receptors, and has a half-life of 15-22 hours. However, it carries a risk of respiratory depression, especially when used with hypnotics and alcohol. Buprenorphine is a partial agonist targeting µ receptors, as well as a partial k agonist of functional antagonist and a weak δ antagonist. It has a high affinity for µ receptors and a longer half-life of 24-42 hours, making it safer than methadone. Naloxone is an antagonist targeting all opioid receptors and is used to reverse opioid overdose, with a half-life of 30-120 minutes. However, it can cause noncardiogenic pulmonary edema in some cases. Naltrexone is a reversible competitive antagonist at µ and ĸ receptors, with a half-life of 4-6 hours, and is used as an adjunctive prophylactic treatment for detoxified formerly opioid-dependent people.

      Alpha2 adrenergic agonists, such as clonidine and lofexidine, can ameliorate opioid withdrawal symptoms associated with the noradrenaline system, including sweating, shivering, and runny nose and eyes. The locus coeruleus, a nucleus in the pons with a high density of noradrenergic neurons possessing µ-opioid receptors, is involved in wakefulness, blood pressure, breathing, and overall alertness. Exposure to opioids results in heightened neuronal activity of the nucleus cells, and if opioids are not present to suppress this activity, increased amounts of norepinephrine are released, leading to withdrawal symptoms. Clonidine was originally developed as an antihypertensive, but its antihypertensive effects are problematic in detox, so lofexidine was developed as an alternative with less hypotensive effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      6.5
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - What is a true statement about Erikson's theory of human development? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about Erikson's theory of human development?

      Your Answer: It is a theory of psychosexual development

      Correct Answer: It accords with the 'epigenetic principle'

      Explanation:

      Erik Erikson and Daniel Levinson expanded the understanding of adult development. Erikson proposed a life-span model of human development consisting of eight successive psychosocial stages, each associated with an inherent conflict of crisis that the individual must encounter and successfully resolve to proceed with development. Levinson proposed a developmental theory consisting of universal stages of phases that extend from the infancy state to the elderly state, based on biographical interviews of 40 men in America. Both theorists maintained that personality develops in a predetermined order and builds upon each previous stage, and that failure to successfully negotiate a stage can result in a reduced ability to complete further stages and therefore a more unhealthy personality and sense of self. However, Levinson’s theory is age-based rather than event-based, and his model proposed a ‘life sequence’ consisting of a series of alternating stable (structure-building) periods and cross-era transitional (structure-changing) periods, with transitional periods typically lasting 5 years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychological Development
      7
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - What substance is considered a monoamine oxidase-A (MAOI) inhibitor? ...

    Correct

    • What substance is considered a monoamine oxidase-A (MAOI) inhibitor?

      Your Answer: Phenelzine

      Explanation:

      Phenelzine is the most commonly prescribed MAOI in the UK and is considered the safest among the MAOIs. Tranylcypromine and isocarboxazid are the other MAOIs that are licensed for use. Perphenazine and pericyazine are typical antipsychotics, while promazine is less effective when taken orally and is related to chlorpromazine. Promethazine, also known as Phenergan, is a sedating antihistamine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      7.6
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Can you identify the neurotransmitter that is often studied and also referred to...

    Correct

    • Can you identify the neurotransmitter that is often studied and also referred to as prolactin-inhibiting factor (PIF)?

      Your Answer: Dopamine

      Explanation:

      Prolactin secretion from the anterior pituitary gland is inhibited by dopamine, which is also referred to as prolactin-inhibiting factor (PIF) and prolactin-inhibiting hormone (PIH). The reason why antipsychotic medications are linked to hyperprolactinaemia is due to the antagonism of dopamine receptors. On the other hand, serotonin and melatonin seem to stimulate prolactin secretion. While animal studies have indicated that adrenaline and noradrenaline can decrease prolactin secretion, their effect is not as significant as that of dopamine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      6.1
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - How can we differentiate between a pseudohallucination and a true hallucination? ...

    Correct

    • How can we differentiate between a pseudohallucination and a true hallucination?

      Your Answer: Occurs in inner subjective space

      Explanation:

      The distinguishing factors between the two are based on personal interpretation and tangible versus intangible concepts.

      Altered Perceptual Experiences

      Disorders of perception can be categorized into sensory distortions and sensory deceptions. Sensory distortions involve changes in the intensity, spatial form, of quality of a perception. Examples include hyperaesthesia, hyperacusis, and micropsia. Sensory deceptions, on the other hand, involve new perceptions that are not based on any external stimulus. These include illusions and hallucinations.

      Illusions are altered perceptions of a stimulus, while hallucinations are perceptions in the absence of a stimulus. Completion illusions, affect illusions, and pareidolic illusions are examples of illusions. Auditory, visual, gustatory, olfactory, and tactile hallucinations are different types of hallucinations. Pseudohallucinations are involuntary and vivid sensory experiences that are interpreted in a non-morbid way. They are different from true hallucinations in that the individual is able to recognize that the experience is an internally generated event.

      Understanding the different types of altered perceptual experiences is important in the diagnosis and treatment of various mental health conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      8
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  • Question 17 - What is a true statement about sigma waves in relation to EEG? ...

    Correct

    • What is a true statement about sigma waves in relation to EEG?

      Your Answer: They are absent in familial fatal insomnia

      Explanation:

      Sigma waves are typically observed during stage 2 sleep and are considered a normal occurrence during sleep. They usually follow muscle twitches and are believed to help maintain a peaceful state during sleep. These waves are produced in the reticular nucleus of the thalamus and arise from the interplay between the thalamus and the cortex. However, in familial fatal insomnia (a prion disease), the absence of sigma waves is a characteristic feature.

      Electroencephalography

      Electroencephalography (EEG) is a clinical test that records the brain’s spontaneous electrical activity over a short period of time using multiple electrodes placed on the scalp. It is mainly used to rule out organic conditions and can help differentiate dementia from other disorders such as metabolic encephalopathies, CJD, herpes encephalitis, and non-convulsive status epilepticus. EEG can also distinguish possible psychotic episodes and acute confusional states from non-convulsive status epilepticus.

      Not all abnormal EEGs represent an underlying condition, and psychotropic medications can affect EEG findings. EEG abnormalities can also be triggered purposely by activation procedures such as hyperventilation, photic stimulation, certain drugs, and sleep deprivation.

      Specific waveforms are seen in an EEG, including delta, theta, alpha, sigma, beta, and gamma waves. Delta waves are found frontally in adults and posteriorly in children during slow wave sleep, and excessive amounts when awake may indicate pathology. Theta waves are generally seen in young children, drowsy and sleeping adults, and during meditation. Alpha waves are seen posteriorly when relaxed and when the eyes are closed, and are also seen in meditation. Sigma waves are bursts of oscillatory activity that occur in stage 2 sleep. Beta waves are seen frontally when busy of concentrating, and gamma waves are seen in advanced/very experienced meditators.

      Certain conditions are associated with specific EEG changes, such as nonspecific slowing in early CJD, low voltage EEG in Huntington’s, diffuse slowing in encephalopathy, and reduced alpha and beta with increased delta and theta in Alzheimer’s.

      Common epileptiform patterns include spikes, spike/sharp waves, and spike-waves. Medications can have important effects on EEG findings, with clozapine decreasing alpha and increasing delta and theta, lithium increasing all waveforms, lamotrigine decreasing all waveforms, and valproate having inconclusive effects on delta and theta and increasing beta.

      Overall, EEG is a useful tool in clinical contexts for ruling out organic conditions and differentiating between various disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
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  • Question 18 - You are conducting an annual medication review for a female patient in an...

    Correct

    • You are conducting an annual medication review for a female patient in an outpatient clinic. While reviewing her ECG, you notice that her QTc value is 660 ms, which puts her at high risk for arrhythmia. You decide to seek cardiology advice and during the handover, the cardiologist asks for your opinion on which medication may be responsible for the QTc prolongation. Which medication do you think is likely to be the culprit in this case?

      Your Answer: Clarithromycin

      Explanation:

      While antipsychotics, tricyclic antidepressants, and citalopram are known to cause QTc prolongation and require ECG monitoring, they are not the only drugs that can cause this condition. However, in psychiatric practice, they are the most commonly prescribed drugs associated with QTc prolongation. It is important to note that clarithromycin is a high-risk drug for QTc prolongation, unlike the other drugs listed, which are considered low risk.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 19 - What is considered a 'neurological soft sign' in children? ...

    Correct

    • What is considered a 'neurological soft sign' in children?

      Your Answer: Impaired fist-edge-palm test

      Explanation:

      Subtle impairments of motor or sensory function that are not specific to a particular neurological condition and are referred to as neurological ‘soft’ signs. These signs are prevalent in individuals with schizophrenia and may serve as a potential endophenotype.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Description And Measurement
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  • Question 20 - What is the most effective way to address sexual dysfunction in a male...

    Correct

    • What is the most effective way to address sexual dysfunction in a male patient who is taking sertraline and wishes to continue its use due to positive response to the medication?

      Your Answer: Sildenafil

      Explanation:

      The medication with the strongest evidence is sildenafil.

      Antidepressants can cause sexual dysfunction as a side-effect, although the rates vary. The impact on sexual desire, arousal, and orgasm can differ depending on the type of antidepressant. It is important to rule out other causes and consider non-pharmacological strategies such as reducing the dosage of taking drug holidays. If necessary, switching to a lower risk antidepressant of using pharmacological options such as phosphodiesterase inhibitors of mirtazapine augmentation can be considered. The Maudsley Guidelines 14th Edition provides a helpful table outlining the risk of sexual dysfunction for different antidepressants.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      6.6
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  • Question 21 - Which antihistamine is associated with the side effects of dry mouth, blurred vision,...

    Correct

    • Which antihistamine is associated with the side effects of dry mouth, blurred vision, and urinary retention?

      Your Answer: Diphenhydramine

      Explanation:

      Anticholinergic side effects such as dry mouth, blurred vision, and urinary retention are commonly observed with the use of first generation H1 antihistamines like diphenhydramine.

      Antihistamines: Types and Uses

      Antihistamines are drugs that block the effects of histamine, a neurotransmitter that regulates physiological function in the gut and potentiates the inflammatory and immune responses of the body. There are two types of antihistamines: H1 receptor blockers and H2 receptor blockers. H1 blockers are mainly used for allergic conditions and sedation, while H2 blockers are used for excess stomach acid.

      There are also first and second generation antihistamines. First generation antihistamines, such as diphenhydramine and promethazine, have uses in psychiatry due to their ability to cross the blood brain barrier and their anticholinergic properties. They tend to be sedating and are useful for managing extrapyramidal side effects. Second generation antihistamines, such as loratadine and cetirizine, show limited penetration of the blood brain barrier and are less sedating.

      It is important to note that there are contraindications to first-generation antihistamines, including benign prostatic hyperplasia, angle-closure glaucoma, and pyloric stenosis in infants. These do not apply to second-generation antihistamines.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      7.1
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  • Question 22 - Which medical conditions have been linked to the potential involvement of nitric oxide...

    Incorrect

    • Which medical conditions have been linked to the potential involvement of nitric oxide in their development?

      Your Answer: Autism

      Correct Answer: Depression

      Explanation:

      Nitric Oxide and Depression

      Recent research has indicated that nitric oxide (NO) may play a role in the development of depression. Inhibitors of NO synthase have been found to exhibit antidepressant-like effects in preclinical studies, suggesting that NO may be involved in the pathogenesis of depression. These findings suggest that targeting NO signaling pathways may be a potential therapeutic approach for treating depression. Further research is needed to fully understand the role of NO in depression and to develop effective treatments based on this knowledge.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      13.9
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  • Question 23 - From which amino acid is noradrenaline (norepinephrine) derived? ...

    Correct

    • From which amino acid is noradrenaline (norepinephrine) derived?

      Your Answer: Tyrosine

      Explanation:

      Catecholamines are a group of chemical compounds that have a distinct structure consisting of a benzene ring with two hydroxyl groups, an intermediate ethyl chain, and a terminal amine group. These compounds play an important role in the body and are involved in various physiological processes. The three main catecholamines found in the body are dopamine, adrenaline, and noradrenaline. All of these compounds are derived from the amino acid tyrosine. Overall, catecholamines are essential for maintaining proper bodily functions and are involved in a wide range of physiological processes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      8.9
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Which statement accurately describes the CATIE study? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement accurately describes the CATIE study?

      Your Answer: It demonstrated the increased risk of extrapyramidal side effects with the typical antipsychotics

      Correct Answer: Olanzapine was found to be more effective than the other atypical antipsychotics used in phase I

      Explanation:

      Olanzapine was found to have the highest duration of treatment before discontinuation due to inadequate efficacy, the longest period of successful treatment, and the lowest number of hospitalizations caused by worsening of schizophrenia among the patients.

      CATIE Study: Comparing Antipsychotic Medications for Schizophrenia Treatment

      The Clinical Antipsychotic Trials of Intervention Effectiveness (CATIE) Study, funded by the National Institute of Mental Health (NIMH), was a nationwide clinical trial that aimed to compare the effectiveness of older and newer antipsychotic medications used to treat schizophrenia. It is the largest, longest, and most comprehensive independent trial ever conducted to examine existing therapies for schizophrenia. The study consisted of two phases.

      Phase I of CATIE compared four newer antipsychotic medications to one another and an older medication. Participants were followed for 18 months to evaluate longer-term patient outcomes. The study involved over 1400 participants and was conducted at various treatment sites, representative of real-life settings where patients receive care. The results from CATIE are applicable to a wide range of people with schizophrenia in the United States.

      The medications were comparably effective, but high rates of discontinuation were observed due to intolerable side-effects of failure to adequately control symptoms. Olanzapine was slightly better than the other drugs but was associated with significant weight gain as a side-effect. Surprisingly, the older, less expensive medication (perphenazine) used in the study generally performed as well as the four newer medications. Movement side effects primarily associated with the older medications were not seen more frequently with perphenazine than with the newer drugs.

      Phase II of CATIE sought to provide guidance on which antipsychotic to try next if the first failed due to ineffectiveness of intolerability. Participants who discontinued their first antipsychotic medication because of inadequate management of symptoms were encouraged to enter the efficacy (clozapine) pathway, while those who discontinued their first treatment because of intolerable side effects were encouraged to enter the tolerability (ziprasidone) pathway. Clozapine was remarkably effective and was substantially better than all the other atypical medications.

      The CATIE study also looked at the risk of metabolic syndrome (MS) using the US National Cholesterol Education Program Adult Treatment Panel criteria. The prevalence of MS at baseline in the CATIE group was 40.9%, with female patients being three times as likely to have MS compared to matched controls and male patients being twice as likely.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      20.1
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  • Question 25 - Which of the following is an example of a closed question? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is an example of a closed question?

      Your Answer: Do you mind seeing all my patients today?

      Explanation:

      Interview Techniques: Open and Closed Questions

      When conducting an interview, it is important to use the appropriate types of questions. Open questions are designed to encourage a detailed response and can help to open up the conversation. In contrast, closed questions typically result in a yes of no answer and are useful for clarifying specific details. By using a combination of open and closed questions, interviewers can gather more information and gain a better understanding of the interviewee’s perspective. It is important to use these techniques effectively to ensure a successful interview.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      6
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 42-year-old woman complains of seeing two of everything. During the exam, it...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old woman complains of seeing two of everything. During the exam, it is noted that her right eye is turned inward while looking straight ahead.
      What is the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Right abducens nerve palsy

      Explanation:

      The abducens nerve (CN VI) controls the lateral rectus muscle, which allows for outward eye movement. If a patient has an isolated unilateral abducens nerve palsy, they may experience horizontal diplopia, where the affected eye deviates inward due to the unopposed medial rectus muscle. This results in the patient being unable to move their eye outward when looking to the affected side. If the right eye is deviated inward, it indicates right nerve palsy.

      The oculomotor nerve (CN III) controls several eye muscles, including the superior rectus, inferior rectus, inferior oblique, and medial rectus muscles. It also controls the levator palpebrae superioris (LPS) muscles responsible for lifting the upper eyelid and the muscles that constrict the pupil. The presentation of an oculomotor nerve lesion can vary depending on which branch of area is affected. In a complete oculomotor nerve palsy, the affected eye may be positioned downward and outward, resulting in strabismus and diplopia. The patient may also experience mydriasis (dilated pupil) and ptosis (drooping of the eyelid).

      The trochlear nerve (CN IV) controls the superior oblique muscle, which allows for downward, inward, and outward eye movement. If a patient has a trochlear nerve lesion, they may experience vertical diplopia and develop a head tilt away from the affected eye.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological Examination
      22.9
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - What is a common phenomenon observed among adolescents from immigrant backgrounds where adolescents...

    Correct

    • What is a common phenomenon observed among adolescents from immigrant backgrounds where adolescents take on the culture/practices of their new country and give up their own culture?

      Your Answer: Assimilation

      Explanation:

      Assimilation is another phenomenon commonly observed among adolescents from immigrant backgrounds.

      Assimilation refers to the process by which individuals adopt the cultural norms, values, and practices of the dominant culture in which they reside, often at the expense of their own cultural heritage. In the context of immigrant adolescents, assimilation may involve adopting the language, customs, clothing, and behaviors of the majority culture in order to fit in and gain acceptance within their new environment.

      While assimilation can facilitate integration into the mainstream society and may provide certain advantages, such as improved access to education and employment opportunities, it can also result in a loss of cultural identity and connection to one’s heritage.

      High degree of adoption of new culture and high degree of retention of culture of origin result in integration, while low degree of adoption of new culture and high degree of retention of culture of origin lead to separation. On the other hand, high degree of adoption of new culture and low degree of retention of culture of origin result in assimilation, while low degree of adoption of new culture and low degree of retention of culture of origin lead to marginalization.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Advanced Psychological Processes And Treatments
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      Seconds
  • Question 28 - How does memantine work in the body? ...

    Incorrect

    • How does memantine work in the body?

      Your Answer: Non-competitive NMDA agonist

      Correct Answer: Non-competitive NMDA antagonist

      Explanation:

      Memantine is a type of medication that works by blocking the NMDA receptors in the brain. These receptors are activated by glutamate, a neurotransmitter that is involved in many important brain functions. However, in some individuals, these receptors can become hypersensitive to glutamate, leading to excessive activation and the death of nerve cells. This is known as excitotoxicity.

      Memantine works by decreasing the sensitivity of the NMDA receptors to glutamate. It does this by binding to a different site on the receptor than glutamate does, which changes the shape of the receptor and makes it more difficult for glutamate to bind. This prevents excessive activation of the NMDA receptors and helps to protect nerve cells from damage. Memantine is known as a non-competitive antagonist because it binds to a different site on the receptor than the neurotransmitter it is blocking.

      Mechanisms of Action of Different Drugs

      Understanding the mechanisms of action of different drugs is crucial for medical professionals. It is a common topic in exams and can earn easy marks if studied well. This article provides a list of drugs and their mechanisms of action in different categories such as antidepressants, anti dementia drugs, mood stabilizers, anxiolytic/hypnotic drugs, antipsychotics, drugs of abuse, and other drugs. For example, mirtazapine is a noradrenaline and serotonin specific antidepressant that works as a 5HT2 antagonist, 5HT3 antagonist, H1 antagonist, alpha 1 and alpha 2 antagonist, and moderate muscarinic antagonist. Similarly, donepezil is a reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor used as an anti dementia drug, while valproate is a GABA agonist and NMDA antagonist used as a mood stabilizer. The article also explains the mechanisms of action of drugs such as ketamine, phencyclidine, buprenorphine, naloxone, atomoxetine, varenicline, disulfiram, acamprosate, and sildenafil.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      10.3
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Which of the following is not a recognized symptom associated with hyponatremia? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is not a recognized symptom associated with hyponatremia?

      Your Answer: Chest pain

      Explanation:

      Hyponatremia in Psychiatric Patients

      Hyponatremia, of low serum sodium, can occur in psychiatric patients due to the disorder itself, its treatment, of other medical conditions. Symptoms include nausea, confusion, seizures, and muscular cramps. Drug-induced hyponatremia is known as the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone hypersecretion (SIADH), which results from excessive secretion of ADH and fluid overload. Diagnosis is based on clinically euvolaemic state with low serum sodium and osmolality, raised urine sodium and osmolality. SSRIs, SNRIs, and tricyclics are the most common drugs that can cause SIADH. Risk factors for SIADH include starting a new drug, and treatment usually involves fluid restriction and sometimes demeclocycline.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      7.6
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - What is the term used to describe the disciplinary action of taking away...

    Correct

    • What is the term used to describe the disciplinary action of taking away a child's train set for hitting their friend?

      Your Answer: Negative punishment

      Explanation:

      The objective is to decrease the occurrence of the conduct through punishment, which involves taking away a pleasurable stimulus (the train set).

      Operant Conditioning: Reinforcement, Punishment, and More

      Operant conditioning, also known as instrumental learning, is a theory of learning developed by B.F. Skinner. It suggests that people learn by interacting with their environment. Reinforcement and punishment are key concepts in operant conditioning. A reinforcer is a stimulus of event that increases the likelihood of a behavior being repeated. Reinforcement can be positive of negative. Positive reinforcement occurs when a behavior is strengthened by adding a rewarding stimulus, while negative reinforcement occurs when a behavior is strengthened by removing an unpleasant stimulus. A punisher is a stimulus that decreases the likelihood of a behavior being repeated. Positive punishment occurs when a behavior is reduced in frequency by adding an unpleasant stimulus, while negative punishment occurs when a behavior is reduced in frequency by removing a pleasant stimulus.

      Primary reinforcers are instinctual desires such as food, water, social approval, and sex. Secondary reinforcers, also known as conditioned reinforcers, are not innately appreciated and people have to learn to like them through classical conditioning of other methods. Secondary reinforcers include things such as money. Different patterns of reinforcement have different influences on the response. There are five main reinforcement schedules: fixed interval, variable interval, fixed ratio, variable ratio, and random. Variable ratio schedules are most resistant to extinction.

      Shaping and chaining are techniques used when an exact behavior cannot be performed and so cannot be rewarded. Shaping involves rewarding successive, increasingly accurate approximations to the behavior, while chaining involves breaking a complex task into smaller, more manageable sections. Escape conditioning refers to a situation whereby an aversive situation is removed after a response. It is a form of negative reinforcement. Habituation refers to the phenomenon whereby there is a decrease in response to a stimulus over time. Covert sensitization is a technique used whereby someone learns to use mental imagery to associate a behavior with a negative consequence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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      Seconds
  • Question 31 - What is a common compulsion that may be present in individuals with OCD?...

    Incorrect

    • What is a common compulsion that may be present in individuals with OCD?

      Your Answer: Fears of contamination

      Correct Answer: Checking locks

      Explanation:

      The typical compulsive behaviors in OCD involve checking locks, taps, and safety issues, which serve to alleviate anxiety and reinforce the behavior. Breath-holding is not a common manifestation of OCD, nor is hand-wringing of stepping on cracks in the pavement. While fear of contamination is a common obsession, it is not a compulsion in and of itself. Instead, the compulsion typically involves behaviors aimed at avoiding contamination.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Diagnosis
      20.7
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - What is a correct statement about the blood brain barrier? ...

    Correct

    • What is a correct statement about the blood brain barrier?

      Your Answer: Nasally administered drugs can bypass the blood brain barrier

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Blood Brain Barrier

      The blood brain barrier (BBB) is a crucial component of the brain’s defense system against harmful chemicals and ion imbalances. It is a semi-permeable membrane formed by tight junctions of endothelial cells in the brain’s capillaries, which separates the blood from the cerebrospinal fluid. However, certain areas of the BBB, known as circumventricular organs, are fenestrated to allow neurosecretory products to enter the blood.

      When it comes to MRCPsych questions, the focus is on the following aspects of the BBB: the tight junctions between endothelial cells, the ease with which lipid-soluble molecules pass through compared to water-soluble ones, the difficulty large and highly charged molecules face in passing through, the increased permeability of the BBB during inflammation, and the theoretical ability of nasally administered drugs to bypass the BBB.

      It is important to remember the specific circumventricular organs where the BBB is fenestrated, including the posterior pituitary and the area postrema. Understanding the BBB’s function and characteristics is essential for medical professionals to diagnose and treat neurological disorders effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
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      Seconds
  • Question 33 - Which of the five major personality traits assesses an individual's concern for and...

    Correct

    • Which of the five major personality traits assesses an individual's concern for and ability to understand others?

      Your Answer: Agreeableness

      Explanation:

      Agreeableness pertains to an individual’s prioritization of social harmony, often demonstrated through traits such as generosity, consideration, trust, and helpfulness. Conscientiousness refers to an individual’s level of self-discipline. Extraversion pertains to an individual’s engagement with the external world. Neuroticism describes an individual’s emotional stability, rather than the Freudian concept of neuroticism. Openness to experience pertains to an individual’s inclination towards intellectual curiosity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Advanced Psychological Processes And Treatments
      7.6
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  • Question 34 - How can the rights of patients be defined as an international statement? ...

    Incorrect

    • How can the rights of patients be defined as an international statement?

      Your Answer: Declaration of Geneva

      Correct Answer: Declaration of Lisbon

      Explanation:

      Declarations

      The World Medical Association has established global ethical standards through various declarations. These include:

      Declaration of Geneva: This declaration was created as a revision of the Hippocratic Oath after the atrocities committed in Nazi Germany.

      Declaration of Helsinki: This statement outlines ethical principles for medical research involving human subjects.

      Declaration of Tokyo: This declaration states that doctors should not participate in, condone, of allow torture, degradation, of cruel treatment of prisoners of detainees.

      Declaration of Malta: This declaration provides guidance to doctors treating individuals on hunger strike.

      Declaration of Lisbon: This international statement outlines the rights of patients.

      Declaration of Ottawa: This declaration sets out the principles necessary for optimal child health.

      Each of these declarations serves as a guide for medical professionals to uphold ethical standards in their practice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      8
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - Who was the first psychiatrist to utilize electroconvulsive therapy as a treatment method?...

    Correct

    • Who was the first psychiatrist to utilize electroconvulsive therapy as a treatment method?

      Your Answer: Ugo Cerletti

      Explanation:

      Ugo Cerletti was a neurologist from Italy who is known for his work in developing electroconvulsive therapy (ECT). Emil Kraepelin, considered the founder of modern scientific psychiatry, coined the term dementia praecox. Eugen Bleuler, on the other hand, replaced the term with schizophrenia. Karl Jaspers, a psychiatrist and existential philosopher, made significant contributions to the field. Lastly, Carl Jung founded analytical psychology.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • History Of Psychiatry
      4.2
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - In what century did psychiatry become established as a distinct medical field? ...

    Correct

    • In what century did psychiatry become established as a distinct medical field?

      Your Answer: 18th century

      Explanation:

      Psychiatry emerged as a distinct medical field in the late 1700s, leading to the establishment of specialized asylums designed to provide therapeutic care for individuals with mental illnesses who were previously confined in institutions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • History Of Psychiatry
      7.3
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  • Question 37 - Which brain system enables the integration of emotional sensory information between the cortex...

    Correct

    • Which brain system enables the integration of emotional sensory information between the cortex and hypothalamus?

      Your Answer: Papez circuit

      Explanation:

      In 1937, James Papez proposed a neural circuit that explained how emotional experiences occur in the brain. According to Papez, sensory messages related to emotional stimuli are first received by the thalamus, which then directs them to both the cortex (stream of thinking) and hypothalamus (stream of feeling). The cingulate cortex integrates this information from the hypothalamus and sensory cortex, leading to emotional experiences. The output via the hippocampus and hypothalamus allows cortical control of emotional responses. This circuit has since been reconceptualized as the limbic system.

      The medial longitudinal fasciculus carries fibres from cranial nerves III, IV and IV. The nucleus accumbens plays a major role in the reward circuit, while the somatosensory cortex is involved in processing pain. The basal ganglia are involved in voluntary motor control.

      Overall, the Papez circuit theory provides a framework for understanding the functional neuroanatomy of emotion. It highlights the importance of the limbic system in emotional experiences and the role of various brain regions in processing different aspects of emotional stimuli.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      11.1
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - Which enzyme is affected by presenilin mutations in individuals with early-onset Alzheimer's disease?...

    Incorrect

    • Which enzyme is affected by presenilin mutations in individuals with early-onset Alzheimer's disease?

      Your Answer: α Secretase

      Correct Answer: γ Secretase

      Explanation:

      The gamma secretase complex, consisting of four key proteins including presenilin, plays a crucial role in converting Amyloid Precursor Protein to Amyloid β-protein. Amyloid β-peptides are the primary components of the amyloid plaques found in the brains of individuals with Alzheimer’s disease. In the brain, APP is primarily cleaved by β-secretase, while in other tissues it is cleaved by α-secretase, followed by γ-secretase. The presence of the APOE4 allele is associated with a higher likelihood of developing Alzheimer’s dementia later in life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Psychological Processes
      4.9
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - Which antipsychotic medication belongs to the substituted benzamide class? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which antipsychotic medication belongs to the substituted benzamide class?

      Your Answer: Haloperidol

      Correct Answer: Sulpiride

      Explanation:

      Sulpiride belongs to the substituted benzamide class of drugs.
      Chlorpromazine falls under the phenothiazine category.
      Flupentixol is classified as a thioxanthene medication.
      Haloperidol is a butyrophenone compound.
      Pimozide is a diphenylbutylpiperidine drug.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      5
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - You are seeing a 45-year-old male on the ward. He is experiencing a...

    Correct

    • You are seeing a 45-year-old male on the ward. He is experiencing a delusional episode and is detained under section 2 of the Mental Health Act. He firmly believes that one of the doctors on the ward is his long-lost brother, despite acknowledging that they have different facial features.
      What is the name of the syndrome he is experiencing?

      Your Answer: Fregoli syndrome

      Explanation:

      The term Fregoli syndrome refers to a delusion where the patient mistakenly identifies an unfamiliar person as someone they know. This condition is named after Leopoldo Fregoli, an Italian actor who was known for his ability to quickly change his appearance during performances. Cotard syndrome is a type of delusion that occurs in cases of psychotic depression, where the patient believes that they are already dead. Capgras syndrome is another type of misidentification delusion, but in this case, the patient believes that someone they know has been replaced by an identical imposter. Charles Bonnet Syndrome is a condition that causes complex visual hallucinations. Finally, Couvade syndrome, also known as sympathetic pregnancy, is a phenomenon where men experience symptoms similar to their pregnant partners. These conditions are all well-documented in the field of psychiatry.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Descriptive Psychopathology
      17.2
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - Which of the following rating scales would be most suitable for evaluating the...

    Correct

    • Which of the following rating scales would be most suitable for evaluating the effectiveness of a new antipsychotic medication in reducing delusional beliefs among individuals diagnosed with schizophrenia?

      Your Answer: PANSS- Positive and Negative Syndrome Scale

      Explanation:

      The PANSS is commonly utilized in clinical trials to assess positive and negative symptoms as well as general psychopathology (30 items in total). To measure extrapyramidal side effects, the Simpson Angus Scale, Abnormal Involuntary Movement Scale (AIMS), and Barnes Akathisia Scale are frequently employed. While the Clinical Global Impression (CGI) scale provides a general score of 1 to 5 for a patient’s overall presentation, it may not be as useful for evaluating a specific positive symptom of schizophrenia as the question suggests.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Description And Measurement
      10.4
      Seconds
  • Question 42 - A middle-aged patient comes to your clinic with a complaint of double vision...

    Correct

    • A middle-aged patient comes to your clinic with a complaint of double vision that they believe is caused by a new medication you prescribed. They report experiencing both vertical and torsional diplopia. During the examination, you observe that they are unable to move their left eye downwards and outwards. Which cranial nerve is most likely affected?

      Your Answer: IV

      Explanation:

      Overview of Cranial Nerves and Their Functions

      The cranial nerves are a complex system of nerves that originate from the brain and control various functions of the head and neck. There are twelve cranial nerves, each with a specific function and origin. The following table provides a simplified overview of the cranial nerves, including their origin, skull exit, modality, and functions.

      The first cranial nerve, the olfactory nerve, originates from the telencephalon and exits through the cribriform plate. It is a sensory nerve that controls the sense of smell. The second cranial nerve, the optic nerve, originates from the diencephalon and exits through the optic foramen. It is a sensory nerve that controls vision.

      The third cranial nerve, the oculomotor nerve, originates from the midbrain and exits through the superior orbital fissure. It is a motor nerve that controls eye movement, pupillary constriction, and lens accommodation. The fourth cranial nerve, the trochlear nerve, also originates from the midbrain and exits through the superior orbital fissure. It is a motor nerve that controls eye movement.

      The fifth cranial nerve, the trigeminal nerve, originates from the pons and exits through different foramina depending on the division. It is a mixed nerve that controls chewing and sensation of the anterior 2/3 of the scalp. It also tenses the tympanic membrane to dampen loud noises.

      The sixth cranial nerve, the abducens nerve, originates from the pons and exits through the superior orbital fissure. It is a motor nerve that controls eye movement. The seventh cranial nerve, the facial nerve, also originates from the pons and exits through the internal auditory canal. It is a mixed nerve that controls facial expression, taste of the anterior 2/3 of the tongue, and tension on the stapes to dampen loud noises.

      The eighth cranial nerve, the vestibulocochlear nerve, originates from the pons and exits through the internal auditory canal. It is a sensory nerve that controls hearing. The ninth cranial nerve, the glossopharyngeal nerve, originates from the medulla and exits through the jugular foramen. It is a mixed nerve that controls taste of the posterior 1/3 of the tongue, elevation of the larynx and pharynx, and swallowing.

      The tenth cranial nerve, the vagus nerve, also originates from the medulla and exits through the jugular foramen. It is a mixed nerve that controls swallowing, voice production, and parasympathetic supply to nearly all thoracic and abdominal viscera. The eleventh cranial nerve, the accessory nerve, originates from the medulla and exits through the jugular foramen. It is a motor nerve that controls shoulder shrugging and head turning.

      The twelfth cranial nerve, the hypoglossal nerve, originates from the medulla and exits through the hypoglossal canal. It is a motor nerve that controls tongue movement. Overall, the cranial nerves play a crucial role in controlling various functions of the head and neck, and any damage of dysfunction can have significant consequences.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
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  • Question 43 - What is the term used to describe an agonist that produces effects below...

    Correct

    • What is the term used to describe an agonist that produces effects below the maximum level at a receptor?

      Your Answer: A partial agonist

      Explanation:

      Agonists and Antagonists in Pharmacology

      In pharmacology, an agonist is a substance that binds to a receptor and triggers a biological response. On the other hand, an antagonist is a substance that blocks the effects of an agonist. A partial agonist produces a response but cannot produce the maximum response even at high doses.

      Competitive antagonists bind to the receptor in a reversible way without affecting the biological response. They make the agonist appear less potent. Inverse agonists, on the other hand, have opposite effects from those of full agonists. They are not the same as antagonists, which block the effect of both agonists and inverse agonists.

      Full agonists display full efficacy at a receptor. Some substances can act as an agonist at certain receptors and as an antagonist at others. Such a substance is called an agonist-antagonist. Understanding the differences between agonists and antagonists is crucial in drug development and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      14.8
      Seconds
  • Question 44 - Who established Kingsley Hall as a therapeutic community based on the principles of...

    Incorrect

    • Who established Kingsley Hall as a therapeutic community based on the principles of the antipsychiatry movement?

      Your Answer: Thomas Szasz

      Correct Answer: RD Laing

      Explanation:

      RD Laing, a Scottish anti psychiatrist, established Kingsley Hall in response to a letter from Mary Barnes seeking therapy. Barnes, who later wrote a book about her experiences, is the most well-known patient. Laing encouraged her to embrace her madness and regress to infancy, leading to behaviors such as abandoning continence, fixating on her feces, and demanding to be fed milk, even from a male doctor’s breast. She also used her feces to decorate her surroundings and create babies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • History Of Psychiatry
      8.6
      Seconds
  • Question 45 - What is a true statement about Williams syndrome? ...

    Correct

    • What is a true statement about Williams syndrome?

      Your Answer: It is commonly associated with hyperacusis

      Explanation:

      Williams syndrome is a genetic condition resulting from the deletion of a portion of chromosome 7. Individuals with this syndrome often experience cognitive challenges, but possess strong social skills and impressive language abilities. While hyperacusis is a common symptom, those affected often have a passion for music and may excel in this area. Williams syndrome is also linked to endocrine irregularities, specifically hypercalcemia.

      Understanding Williams Syndrome

      Williams syndrome is a rare neurodevelopmental disorder that is characterized by distinct physical and behavioral traits. Individuals with this syndrome have a unique facial appearance, including a low nasal bridge and a cheerful demeanor. They also tend to have mild to moderate mental retardation and are highly sociable and verbal.

      Children with Williams syndrome are particularly sensitive to sound and may overreact to loud of high-pitched noises. The syndrome is caused by a deletion in the q11.23 region of chromosome 7, which codes for more than 20 genes. This deletion typically occurs during the recombination phase of meiosis and can be detected using fluorescent in situ hybridization (FISH).

      Although Williams syndrome is an autosomal dominant condition, most cases are not inherited and occur sporadically in individuals with no family history of the disorder. With a prevalence of around 1 in 20,000, Williams syndrome is a rare condition that requires specialized care and support.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      10.9
      Seconds
  • Question 46 - A clinician wishes to assess the perceived impact of antipsychotic medications on their...

    Correct

    • A clinician wishes to assess the perceived impact of antipsychotic medications on their adolescent patient with a diagnosis of schizophrenia. Which rating scale is most commonly utilized for this purpose?

      Your Answer: Drug attitude inventory

      Explanation:

      The Drug Attitude Inventory assesses the subjective effects of antipsychotic drugs in patients with schizophrenia. The ASK-20 Adherence Barrier Survey measures barriers to treatment adherence with 20 clinical items. The Brief Evaluation of Medication Influences and Beliefs (BEMIB) Scale is an eight-item Likert-type scale that evaluates the costs and benefits of medication use based on the health belief model. The Medication Adherence Rating Scale (MARS) is a 10-item self-report scale that combines elements of the Drug Attitude Inventory and Medication Adherence Questionnaire for use in patients with schizophrenia and psychosis. The Rating of Medication Influences (ROMI) Scale is a 20-item interviewer-rated scale that assesses adherence attitudes in psychiatric patients, particularly those with schizophrenia, with good inter-rater reliability.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Advanced Psychological Processes And Treatments
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  • Question 47 - Which of the following is most strongly linked to delirium? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is most strongly linked to delirium?

      Your Answer: Pethidine

      Explanation:

      Prescribing in the Elderly: Iatrogenic Consequences

      Many medications, both prescribed and over-the-counter, can have significant adverse effects in the elderly population. It is important to note that the lists provided below are not exhaustive, and only the most common and important examples are given.

      Medications Linked to Delirium and Other Cognitive Disorders

      Medications are the most common reversible cause of delirium and dementia in the elderly. Many medications can cause cognitive impairment, but the classes of drugs most strongly associated with the development of drug-induced dementia are opioids, benzodiazepines, and anticholinergics.

      According to a systematic review done in 2011 (Clegg, 2011), long-acting benzodiazepines (e.g., diazepam) are more troublesome than those that are shorter-acting. Opioids are associated with an approximately 2-fold increased risk of delirium in medical and surgical patients (Clegg, 2011). Pethidine appears to have a higher risk of delirium compared with other members of the opioid class. This may be because pethidine can accumulate when renal function is impaired and is converted to a metabolite with anticholinergic properties.

      Some antipsychotic drugs have considerable antimuscarinic (anticholinergic) activity (e.g., chlorpromazine and clozapine), which may cause of worsen delirium. Delirium is uncommon in newer antipsychotics (but has been reported).

      Medications Linked to Mood Changes

      The following medications are well known to precipitate mood changes:

      – Centrally-acting antihypertensives (e.g., methyldopa, reserpine, and clonidine) can cause depressive symptoms.
      – Interferon-a is capable of inducing depressive symptoms.
      – Digoxin is capable of inducing depressive symptoms.
      – Corticosteroids can cause depressive, manic, and mixed symptoms with of without psychosis.
      – Antidepressants can precipitate mania.

      Medications Linked to Psychosis

      The following medications are well known to precipitate psychosis:

      – Anti-Parkinson’s Medications (e.g., bromocriptine, amantadine, selegiline, anticholinergics (e.g., trihexyphenidyl, benztropine, benzhexol), and levodopa).
      – Corticosteroids

      Medications Linked to Anxiety

      The following medications are well known to precipitate anxiety:

      – Stimulants
      – β adrenergic inhalers

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      4.8
      Seconds
  • Question 48 - What is the main focus of behavioural activation therapy? ...

    Correct

    • What is the main focus of behavioural activation therapy?

      Your Answer: Depression

      Explanation:

      Understanding Behavioural Activation Therapy for Depression

      Behavioural activation therapy is a formal treatment for depression that emphasizes activity scheduling to encourage patients to approach activities they are avoiding. Unlike traditional cognitive therapy, it involves less cognitive therapy and is easier to train staff in its use. The therapy was introduced by Martell in 2001 and has two primary focuses: the use of avoided activities as a guide for activity scheduling and functional analysis of cognitive processes that involve avoidance.

      Behavioural activation theory suggests that when people become depressed, many of their activities function as avoidance and escape from aversive thoughts, feelings, of external situations. As a result, someone with depression engages less frequently in pleasant of satisfying activities and obtains less positive reinforcement than someone without depression. To address this, the patient is encouraged to identify activities and problems that they avoid and to establish valued directions to be followed. These are set out on planned timetables (activity schedules).

      In behavioural activation therapy, therapists do not engage in the content of the patient’s thinking. Instead, they use functional analysis to focus on the context and process of the individual’s response. The most common cognitive responses are rumination, fusion, and self-attack. A typical session has a structured agenda to review homework and progress towards goals, discuss feedback on the previous session, and focus on one of two specific issues. The number of sessions required to treat depression is typically between 12 and 24.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      2.9
      Seconds
  • Question 49 - A 45-year-old man with a mild depressive disorder currently taking an SSRI reports...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old man with a mild depressive disorder currently taking an SSRI reports worsening tiredness. His blood test shows a sodium level of 122 mmol/L.
      Which antidepressant would be more suitable in this situation?

      Your Answer: Agomelatine

      Explanation:

      Unlike other antidepressants, agomelatine (Valdoxan) does not affect serotonin transmission and is a melatonin agonist. It has a good safety profile and there have been no reported cases of hyponatraemia associated with its use. On the other hand, the other listed antidepressants have been linked to hyponatraemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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      Seconds
  • Question 50 - Which three terms were identified by Thomas and Chess as part of their...

    Correct

    • Which three terms were identified by Thomas and Chess as part of their classification system for child temperament?

      Your Answer: Easy, difficult, slow to warm up

      Explanation:

      Temperament is the innate aspect of an individual’s personality that is believed to be influenced by genetics, while character is shaped by learned experiences. Thomas and Chess developed a classification system that assesses children’s behavior based on nine traits, including activity level, adaptability, and emotional response. They found that 65% of children fall into one of three temperament types: easy, difficult, of slow to warm up. Thomas and Chess also introduced the concept of goodness of fit, which refers to the compatibility between a child’s temperament and their environment. When there is a good fit, children are more likely to reach their potential. For example, teachers can provide active learning experiences for children with high activity levels instead of seat work.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      8.2
      Seconds
  • Question 51 - What is the sole authorized therapy for tardive dyskinesia in the United Kingdom?...

    Correct

    • What is the sole authorized therapy for tardive dyskinesia in the United Kingdom?

      Your Answer: Tetrabenazine

      Explanation:

      Extrapyramidal side-effects (EPSE’s) are a group of side effects that affect voluntary motor control, commonly seen in patients taking antipsychotic drugs. EPSE’s include dystonias, parkinsonism, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. They can be frightening and uncomfortable, leading to problems with non-compliance and can even be life-threatening in the case of laryngeal dystonia. EPSE’s are thought to be due to antagonism of dopaminergic D2 receptors in the basal ganglia. Symptoms generally occur within the first few days of treatment, with dystonias appearing quickly, within a few hours of administration of the first dose. Newer antipsychotics tend to produce less EPSE’s, with clozapine carrying the lowest risk and haloperidol carrying the highest risk. Akathisia is the most resistant EPSE to treat. EPSE’s can also occur when antipsychotics are discontinued (withdrawal dystonia).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      6.7
      Seconds
  • Question 52 - What is the life event that Holmes and Rahe consider to be the...

    Correct

    • What is the life event that Holmes and Rahe consider to be the most stressful?

      Your Answer: Death of a spouse

      Explanation:

      Holmes Rahe Stress Scale (Social Readjustment Rating Scale)

      In 1967, Holmes and Rahe conducted a study on the impact of stress on illness. They surveyed over 5,000 medical patients and asked them to report whether they had experienced any of 43 life events in the past two years. Each event was assigned a Life Change Unit (LCU) value, which represented its weight for stress. The higher the score, the more likely the patient was to become ill.

      The first 10 life events and their corresponding LCU values are listed below.

      1. Death of spouse – 100
      2. Divorce – 73
      3. Marital separation – 65
      4. Jail term – 63
      5. Death of a close family member – 63
      6. Personal illness – 53
      7. Marriage – 50
      8. Being fired from work – 47
      9. Marital reconciliation – 45
      10. Retirement – 45

      This scale is known as the Holmes Rahe Stress Scale of the Social Readjustment Rating Scale. It is still widely used today to assess the impact of life events on stress levels and overall health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      4.3
      Seconds
  • Question 53 - A 50-year-old woman comes to the clinic with complaints of memory problems, frequent...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman comes to the clinic with complaints of memory problems, frequent falls, and disrupted REM sleep. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Lewy body dementia

      Explanation:

      In addition to fluctuating cognition and visual hallucinations, Lewy body dementia often involves sensitivity to neuroleptics. Patients may also experience falls and REM sleep disorder as common symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      11.4
      Seconds
  • Question 54 - Before administering regular doses of which long-acting injectable antipsychotic medication, a test dose...

    Incorrect

    • Before administering regular doses of which long-acting injectable antipsychotic medication, a test dose must be given?

      Your Answer: Paliperidone

      Correct Answer: Zuclopenthixol

      Explanation:

      According to the Maudsley Guidelines, it is recommended to administer a test dose for all first generation antipsychotics. Following the test dose, it is advised to wait 4-10 days before administering the next dose.

      , coma, respiratory depression (rare)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      9
      Seconds
  • Question 55 - What is the most prevalent type of Down's syndrome? ...

    Correct

    • What is the most prevalent type of Down's syndrome?

      Your Answer: Trisomy 21

      Explanation:

      Down Syndrome: Causes and Risk Factors

      Down syndrome is a genetic disorder caused by the presence of extra genetic material from chromosome 21. There are three different types of Down syndrome, each with its own cause and inheritance pattern. The most common form, full trisomy 21, is not inherited and accounts for 95% of cases. It occurs when there is a failure of chromosome 21 to separate properly during cell division, resulting in an extra copy of the chromosome. This can happen randomly, with the extra chromosome coming from the mother 88% of the time and from the father 12% of the time.

      The second type, translocation Down syndrome, is inherited and accounts for 2-3% of cases. It occurs when a piece of chromosome 21 breaks off and attaches to another chromosome, resulting in extra genetic material. This type of Down syndrome is caused by a balanced translocation, which means that the parent carrying the translocation has no signs of symptoms of the disorder.

      The third type, mosaic Down syndrome, is not inherited and also accounts for 2-3% of cases. It occurs as a random event during cell division early in fetal development, resulting in some cells having an extra copy of chromosome 21 while others do not.

      The risk of having a child with Down syndrome increases as a mother gets older. At age 35, the risk is 1 in 385; at age 40, the risk is 1 in 106; and at age 45, the risk is 1 in 30. It is important for women to be aware of these risk factors and to discuss them with their healthcare provider if they are planning to have a child.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychological Development
      4.5
      Seconds
  • Question 56 - During an evaluation, it appears difficult to obtain a straightforward response from your...

    Correct

    • During an evaluation, it appears difficult to obtain a straightforward response from your elderly client. They do eventually provide an answer, but only after an extended conversation about the intricacies of the topic, including precise and detailed information about each aspect. What is this occurrence referred to as?

      Your Answer: Circumstantiality

      Explanation:

      Different types of thought disorders are associated with specific personality traits of mental illnesses. Circumstantiality involves taking a long and detailed route to get to the initial point. Loosening of association makes it difficult to follow how one idea connects to the previous one, resulting in derailment. Overinclusive thinking blurs the boundaries between words and concepts, causing unrelated ideas to be associated with each other. Tangentiality involves answers that are related to the question but do not directly answer it.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • History And Mental State
      8
      Seconds
  • Question 57 - What neuroimaging result is typically seen in individuals diagnosed with obsessive compulsive disorder?...

    Incorrect

    • What neuroimaging result is typically seen in individuals diagnosed with obsessive compulsive disorder?

      Your Answer: Hypometabolism of orbitofrontal area

      Correct Answer: Hypermetabolism of orbitofrontal area

      Explanation:

      This question is a common one, but it is worded in various ways each time.

      Neuroimaging Findings in Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD)

      Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is a mental disorder characterized by intrusive thoughts (obsessions) and repetitive behaviors (compulsions). Neuroimaging studies have been conducted to investigate the underlying neural mechanisms of OCD. Two commonly used techniques are 18 Fluorodeoxyglucose PET (FDG-PET) and Technetium-99m (99mTc)-hexamethylpropyleneamine-oxime SPECT (HMPAO-SPECT).

      Studies using FDG-PET have reported increased glucose metabolism in several brain regions among OCD patients, including the orbitofrontal cortex (OFC), caudate, thalamus, prefrontal cortex, and anterior cingulate. These regions are involved in cognitive and emotional processing, decision-making, and motor control. The increased activity in these regions may contribute to the symptoms of OCD, such as repetitive behaviors and difficulty controlling intrusive thoughts.

      On the other hand, studies using HMPAO-SPECT have found both increased and decreased blood flow to various brain regions in OCD patients compared to normal controls. These regions include the OFC, caudate, various areas of the cortex, and thalamus. The inconsistent findings may be due to differences in the severity and subtype of OCD, as well as the specific task of stimulus used in the imaging studies.

      Overall, neuroimaging studies have provided valuable insights into the neural mechanisms of OCD. However, further research is needed to better understand the complex interactions between different brain regions and how they contribute to the development and maintenance of OCD symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      11.6
      Seconds
  • Question 58 - What is the characteristic feature that is specific to Wilson's disease? ...

    Correct

    • What is the characteristic feature that is specific to Wilson's disease?

      Your Answer: Kayser-Fleischer Ring

      Explanation:

      While other conditions may also present with the same symptoms, a Kayser-Fleischer Ring, characterized by a golden-brown corneal ring due to copper deposits at the Descemet’s membrane, is considered a definitive indicator of Wilson’s disease.

      Understanding Wilson’s Disease: Causes, Symptoms, and Management

      Wilson’s disease, also known as hepatolenticular degeneration, is a genetic disorder that affects copper storage in the body. This condition is caused by a defect in the ATP7B gene, which leads to the accumulation of copper in the liver and brain. The onset of symptoms usually occurs between the ages of 10 and 25, with liver disease being the most common presentation in children and neurological symptoms in young adults.

      The excessive deposition of copper in the tissues can cause a range of symptoms, including hepatitis, cirrhosis, basal ganglia degeneration, speech and behavioral problems, asterixis, chorea, dementia, Kayser-Fleischer rings, sunflower cataract, renal tubular acidosis, haemolysis, and blue nails. Diagnosis is based on reduced serum ceruloplasmin, reduced serum copper, and increased 24-hour urinary copper excretion.

      The traditional first-line treatment for Wilson’s disease is penicillamine, which chelates copper. Trientine hydrochloride is an alternative chelating agent that may become first-line treatment in the future. Tetrathiomolybdate is a newer agent that is currently under investigation.

      In summary, Wilson’s disease is a genetic disorder that affects copper storage in the body, leading to a range of symptoms that can affect the liver, brain, and eyes. Early diagnosis and treatment are essential to prevent complications and improve outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      4.8
      Seconds
  • Question 59 - A 45-year-old man experiences intense anxiety when approaching bridges of overpasses. He attributes...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old man experiences intense anxiety when approaching bridges of overpasses. He attributes this to an episode several years ago when he witnessed a car accident on a bridge. Since then, he has had repetitive, intense imagery of himself of others falling off the bridge and into the water below. He is distressed by these thoughts and tries to avoid bridges of overpasses whenever possible. He recognizes the thoughts as his own but fears they represent a desire to harm himself of others, which he does not want to do at any other time. What is the best way to describe his anxiety?

      Your Answer: Obsessive thought

      Explanation:

      A woman is experiencing an obsessive thought that manifests as persistent imagery, which she cannot control. She tries to suppress the thought, indicating the development of compulsive behavior. She may also experience autoscopic hallucinations, where she sees a hallucinatory double of herself. Compulsions are repetitive behaviors that she uses to alleviate anxiety caused by obsessive experiences, which can be either motor of cognitive. Additionally, she may experience ruminative cognitions, which are repetitive thoughts that do not lead to any conclusion. In some cases, she may also experience thought insertion, where she attributes the source of the image to an external force.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Descriptive Psychopathology
      20.6
      Seconds
  • Question 60 - What is a true statement about the Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale? ...

    Correct

    • What is a true statement about the Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale?

      Your Answer: It includes an assessment of working memory

      Explanation:

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      10.7
      Seconds
  • Question 61 - What is the purpose of the Sally-Anne test? ...

    Correct

    • What is the purpose of the Sally-Anne test?

      Your Answer: Theory of mind

      Explanation:

      The Sally-Anne Test and the Theory of Mind

      The Sally-Anne test, conducted by Simon Baron-Cohen, led to the development of the theory of mind idea. The experiment involved several groups of children, including those with autism. During the test, a skit was performed where Sally put a marble in a basket and left the room. Anne then removed the marble from the basket and placed it in a box. When Sally returned, the children were asked where she would look for her marble.

      The results showed that most non-autistic children correctly identified the basket, while most autistic children pointed to of named the box. This led the researchers to conclude that the autistic children who chose the box lacked the ability to understand that Sally did not know the marble was in the box. The Sally-Anne test thus became a crucial tool in understanding the theory of mind, which refers to the ability to attribute mental states to oneself and others.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      2.6
      Seconds
  • Question 62 - What is the primary neurotransmitter responsible for excitatory signals in the brain? ...

    Correct

    • What is the primary neurotransmitter responsible for excitatory signals in the brain?

      Your Answer: Glutamate

      Explanation:

      Glutamate is the primary neurotransmitter responsible for excitatory signaling in the brain.

      Glutamate: The Most Abundant Neurotransmitter in the Brain

      Glutamate is a neurotransmitter that is found in abundance in the brain. It is always excitatory and can act through both ionotropic and metabotropic receptors. This neurotransmitter is believed to play a crucial role in learning and memory processes. Its ability to stimulate neurons and enhance synaptic plasticity is thought to be responsible for its role in memory formation. Glutamate is also involved in various other brain functions, including motor control, sensory perception, and emotional regulation. Its importance in the brain makes it a target for various neurological disorders, including Alzheimer’s disease, Parkinson’s disease, and epilepsy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      3
      Seconds
  • Question 63 - What is the purpose of the Sally-Anne test? ...

    Correct

    • What is the purpose of the Sally-Anne test?

      Your Answer: Theory of mind

      Explanation:

      The Sally-Anne Test and the Theory of Mind

      The Sally-Anne test, conducted by Simon Baron-Cohen, led to the development of the theory of mind idea. The experiment involved several groups of children, including those with autism. During the test, a skit was performed where Sally put a marble in a basket and left the room. Anne then removed the marble from the basket and placed it in a box. When Sally returned, the children were asked where she would look for her marble.

      The results showed that most non-autistic children correctly identified the basket, while most autistic children pointed to of named the box. This led the researchers to conclude that the autistic children who chose the box lacked the ability to understand that Sally did not know the marble was in the box. The Sally-Anne test thus became a crucial tool in understanding the theory of mind, which refers to the ability to attribute mental states to oneself and others.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      2.1
      Seconds
  • Question 64 - What is the enzyme that is inhibited by disulfiram and responsible for its...

    Correct

    • What is the enzyme that is inhibited by disulfiram and responsible for its effect?

      Your Answer: Aldehyde dehydrogenase

      Explanation:

      Mechanisms of Action of Different Drugs

      Understanding the mechanisms of action of different drugs is crucial for medical professionals. It is a common topic in exams and can earn easy marks if studied well. This article provides a list of drugs and their mechanisms of action in different categories such as antidepressants, anti dementia drugs, mood stabilizers, anxiolytic/hypnotic drugs, antipsychotics, drugs of abuse, and other drugs. For example, mirtazapine is a noradrenaline and serotonin specific antidepressant that works as a 5HT2 antagonist, 5HT3 antagonist, H1 antagonist, alpha 1 and alpha 2 antagonist, and moderate muscarinic antagonist. Similarly, donepezil is a reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor used as an anti dementia drug, while valproate is a GABA agonist and NMDA antagonist used as a mood stabilizer. The article also explains the mechanisms of action of drugs such as ketamine, phencyclidine, buprenorphine, naloxone, atomoxetine, varenicline, disulfiram, acamprosate, and sildenafil.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      6.8
      Seconds
  • Question 65 - Which receptors in the basal ganglia are believed to be responsible for the...

    Correct

    • Which receptors in the basal ganglia are believed to be responsible for the development of extrapyramidal side effects as a result of their antagonism?

      Your Answer: Dopamine

      Explanation:

      The observation that haloperidol, which has a high D2 occupancy, has a greater likelihood of causing EPSE, while clozapine, which has a lower D2 occupancy, has a lower risk, is in line with the research.

      Extrapyramidal side-effects (EPSE’s) are a group of side effects that affect voluntary motor control, commonly seen in patients taking antipsychotic drugs. EPSE’s include dystonias, parkinsonism, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. They can be frightening and uncomfortable, leading to problems with non-compliance and can even be life-threatening in the case of laryngeal dystonia. EPSE’s are thought to be due to antagonism of dopaminergic D2 receptors in the basal ganglia. Symptoms generally occur within the first few days of treatment, with dystonias appearing quickly, within a few hours of administration of the first dose. Newer antipsychotics tend to produce less EPSE’s, with clozapine carrying the lowest risk and haloperidol carrying the highest risk. Akathisia is the most resistant EPSE to treat. EPSE’s can also occur when antipsychotics are discontinued (withdrawal dystonia).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      13.4
      Seconds
  • Question 66 - A 35-year-old individual with schizophrenia experiences the belief that their thoughts are being...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old individual with schizophrenia experiences the belief that their thoughts are being controlled externally through a process of telephony. What type of speech disorder is probable in this case?

      Your Answer: Neologism

      Explanation:

      Neologism is a symptom of schizophrenia where a person creates new words of uses existing words in a way that only makes sense to them. Alogia is a difficulty in speaking, which can be caused by a lack of thoughts of negative thought disorder. Clang associations occur when words are linked based on their sound rather than their meaning. Logoclonia is a condition where a person gets stuck on a particular word, often repeating syllables of parts of words. Stuttering is a speech disorder characterized by involuntary repetitions, prolongations, and pauses in speech.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Descriptive Psychopathology
      12.4
      Seconds
  • Question 67 - A 45-year-old woman complains of feeling excessively sleepy during the day and experiencing...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old woman complains of feeling excessively sleepy during the day and experiencing auditory hallucinations upon waking up. She also reports instances of feeling paralyzed even after awakening. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Narcolepsy

      Explanation:

      The symptoms described in the scenario are indicative of narcolepsy, specifically hypnopompic hallucinations and sleep paralysis. Narcolepsy is characterized by a set of symptoms including sleep attacks, cataplexy, sleep paralysis, and hypnagogic or hypnopompic hallucinations. Primary hypersomnia is excessive daytime sleepiness without the associated features of other sleep disorders of narcolepsy. REM sleep behavioral disorder (RBD) is characterized by complex behaviors during sleep, typically occurring during the longest periods of REM sleep and accompanied by vivid dream recall. Sleep terror disorder, also known as night terror, occurs during partial arousal from delta sleep and is typically amnestic. In contrast, the patient in the scenario was able to recall the episode of sleep paralysis. Schizophrenia cannot be diagnosed based on the symptoms described, as the criteria for hallucinations and an additional symptom from criterion A must be present for a significant portion of the time, and the symptoms can be attributed to narcolepsy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Diagnosis
      8
      Seconds
  • Question 68 - Who is credited with creating the term 'hebephrenia'? ...

    Correct

    • Who is credited with creating the term 'hebephrenia'?

      Your Answer: Hecker

      Explanation:

      History of Psychiatric Terms

      In the exams, it is important to be familiar with the individuals associated with certain psychiatric terms. For example, Kraepelin is associated with dementia praecox and manic depression, while Bleuler is associated with schizophrenia. Other terms and their associated individuals include Hebephrenia (Hecker), Catatonia (Kahlbaum), Schizoaffective (Kasanin), Neurasthenia (Beard), Unipolar and bipolar (Kleist), Hypnosis (Braid), Group dynamics (Lewin), Group psychotherapy (Moreno), Psychopathic inferiority (Koch), Psychiatry (Reil), and Institutional Neurosis (Barton).

      It should be noted that there is some debate over the origins of certain terms. While Kraepelin is often credited with coining the term dementia praecox, some sources suggest that it was first used in its Latin form by Arnold Pick in 1891. The original term demence precoce was first used by Morel in 1852. Despite this, the College appears to favor the Kraepelin attribution.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      3.7
      Seconds
  • Question 69 - A medical student taking a patient's history agrees to the patient's request not...

    Correct

    • A medical student taking a patient's history agrees to the patient's request not to ask any personal questions.
      Which principle of medical ethics, as proposed by Tom Beauchamp and James Childress, is the student adhering to?

      Your Answer: Respect for autonomy

      Explanation:

      The doctor is adhering to the principle of respecting the patient’s autonomy, allowing them to make their own decisions about their treatment. The four principles of medical ethics, as proposed by Tom Beauchamp and James Childress, include nonmaleficence (avoiding harm), justice (fair distribution of resources), and beneficence (acting in the patient’s best interest).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Ethics And Philosophy Of Psychiatry
      7.4
      Seconds
  • Question 70 - What is located within Brodmann area 22? ...

    Correct

    • What is located within Brodmann area 22?

      Your Answer: Wernicke's area

      Explanation:

      Broca’s and Wernicke’s are two types of expressive dysphasia, which is characterized by difficulty producing speech despite intact comprehension. Dysarthria is a type of expressive dysphasia caused by damage to the speech production apparatus, while Broca’s aphasia is caused by damage to the area of the brain responsible for speech production, specifically Broca’s area located in Brodmann areas 44 and 45. On the other hand, Wernicke’s aphasia is a type of receptive of fluent aphasia caused by damage to the comprehension of speech, while the actual production of speech remains normal. Wernicke’s area is located in the posterior part of the superior temporal gyrus in the dominant hemisphere, within Brodmann area 22.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      2.9
      Seconds
  • Question 71 - What is the neurotransmitter that encourages sleep? ...

    Correct

    • What is the neurotransmitter that encourages sleep?

      Your Answer: Acetylcholine

      Explanation:

      REM sleep is facilitated by the presence of acetylcholine (Ach), while dopamine, histamine, noradrenaline, and serotonin act as inhibitors of sleep.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      2.9
      Seconds
  • Question 72 - Who is credited with coining the term 'démence precoce'? ...

    Incorrect

    • Who is credited with coining the term 'démence precoce'?

      Your Answer: Kahlbaum

      Correct Answer: Morel

      Explanation:

      History of Psychiatric Terms

      In the exams, it is important to be familiar with the individuals associated with certain psychiatric terms. For example, Kraepelin is associated with dementia praecox and manic depression, while Bleuler is associated with schizophrenia. Other terms and their associated individuals include Hebephrenia (Hecker), Catatonia (Kahlbaum), Schizoaffective (Kasanin), Neurasthenia (Beard), Unipolar and bipolar (Kleist), Hypnosis (Braid), Group dynamics (Lewin), Group psychotherapy (Moreno), Psychopathic inferiority (Koch), Psychiatry (Reil), and Institutional Neurosis (Barton).

      It should be noted that there is some debate over the origins of certain terms. While Kraepelin is often credited with coining the term dementia praecox, some sources suggest that it was first used in its Latin form by Arnold Pick in 1891. The original term demence precoce was first used by Morel in 1852. Despite this, the College appears to favor the Kraepelin attribution.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      7.3
      Seconds
  • Question 73 - Which of the options below produces a metabolite that remains active in the...

    Correct

    • Which of the options below produces a metabolite that remains active in the body?

      Your Answer: Fluoxetine

      Explanation:

      Antidepressants with Active Metabolites

      Many antidepressants have active metabolites that can affect the body’s response to the medication. For example, amitriptyline has nortriptyline as an active metabolite, while clomipramine has desmethyl-clomipramine. Other antidepressants with active metabolites include dosulepin, doxepin, imipramine, lofepramine, fluoxetine, mirtazapine, trazodone, and venlafaxine.

      These active metabolites can have different effects on the body compared to the original medication. For example, nortriptyline is a more potent inhibitor of serotonin and norepinephrine reuptake than amitriptyline. Similarly, desipramine, the active metabolite of imipramine and lofepramine, has a longer half-life and is less sedating than the original medication.

      It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of the active metabolites of antidepressants when prescribing medication and monitoring patients for side effects and efficacy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      5.4
      Seconds
  • Question 74 - The Wisconsin Card sorting test is used to assess which of the following?...

    Correct

    • The Wisconsin Card sorting test is used to assess which of the following?

      Your Answer: Frontal lobe

      Explanation:

      Frontal Lobe Tests

      The frontal lobe is responsible for a variety of cognitive functions, including initiation, abstraction, problem-solving, decision-making, response inhibition, and set shifting. Different tests can be used to assess these functions.

      Verbal and categorical fluency tests can be used to assess initiation. These tests require individuals to generate as many words of items as possible within a specific category of starting letter.

      Proverbs, similarities, and cognitive estimates are examples of tests that can be used to assess abstraction. These tests require individuals to identify similarities between objects of concepts, make judgments based on incomplete information, of estimate quantities.

      Tower of London, Cambridge stockings, and gambling tasks are examples of tests that can be used to assess problem-solving and decision-making. These tests require individuals to plan and execute a sequence of actions to achieve a goal of make decisions based on uncertain outcomes.

      Alternating sequences, go-no-go test, Luria motor test, trail making test, Wisconsin card sorting test, and Stroop test are examples of tests that can be used to assess response inhibition and set shifting. These tests require individuals to inhibit prepotent responses, switch between tasks of mental sets, of ignore irrelevant information.

      Overall, these tests can provide valuable information about an individual’s frontal lobe functioning and can be used to diagnose and treat various neurological and psychiatric conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      3.7
      Seconds
  • Question 75 - A 42-year-old female with a history of bipolar disorder is undergoing second line...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old female with a history of bipolar disorder is undergoing second line mood stabilisation therapy due to inadequate response to first line agents. She was discovered unconscious on the street. She has no history of seizures of fainting. All laboratory tests are normal except for a serum sodium level of 105 mmol/L (135-150). What is the most probable cause of this?

      Your Answer: Sodium valproate

      Correct Answer: Carbamazepine

      Explanation:

      Monitoring for hyponatraemia is essential when administering carbamazepine due to its established side effect. However, it is important to note that NICE recommends lithium, olanzapine, and valproate as first line agents for treating bipolar disorder, with carbamazepine being a second line option.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      17.5
      Seconds
  • Question 76 - After several sessions over a period of six weeks, a female therapist and...

    Incorrect

    • After several sessions over a period of six weeks, a female therapist and female client meet to discuss the therapist's understanding of the client's issues. The therapist presents the client with two diagrams. The first illustrates the client's relationship with her partner, the therapist, and the client's mother. The second diagram depicts the interplay between the unconscious feeling of abandonment, the defense mechanism of denial, and the feeling of fear.

      Which prominent psychoanalytic theorist's approach to therapy is reflected in this formulation?

      Your Answer: John Bowlby

      Correct Answer: David Malan

      Explanation:

      Malan’s research centered on the development of the client’s challenges using two ‘triangles’ – the triangle of person and the triangle of defence. Bowlby is recognized for his work on attachment theory, while Anna Freud is known for her work on defence mechanisms and object relations. Sigmund Freud is linked to time-limited psychotherapies, and Ryle created cognitive analytic therapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Advanced Psychological Processes And Treatments
      24.2
      Seconds
  • Question 77 - What type of memory is demonstrated when an individual can recall a phone...

    Correct

    • What type of memory is demonstrated when an individual can recall a phone number from a directory and dial it accurately without writing it down?

      Your Answer: Working

      Explanation:

      The term ‘short-term memory’ is a less advanced term compared to ‘working memory’.

      Memory Forms

      Memory is the ability to store, retain, and retrieve information. There are different forms of memory, including sensory memory, short-term/working memory, and long-term memory.

      Sensory memory is the capacity for briefly retaining the large amounts of information that people encounter daily. It includes echoic memory (gathered through auditory stimuli), iconic memory (gathered through sight), and haptic memory (acquired through touch).

      Short-term memory is the ability to keep a small amount of information available for a short period of time. Atkinson and Shiffrin’s multistore model (1968) suggests the existence of a short-term storehouse with limited capacity. Baddeley and Hitch (1974) further developed the concept of short-term memory, which eventually became known as Baddeley’s multi-storehouse model (2000). This model includes the central executive, visuospatial sketchpad, phonological buffer/loop, and episodic buffer.

      Long-term memory includes declarative (of explicit) memories, which can be consciously retrieved, and nondeclarative (of implicit) memories, which cannot. Declarative memory includes episodic memory (stores personal experiences) and semantic memory (stores information about facts and concepts). Non-declarative memory includes procedural memory (recalls motor and executive skills), associative memory (storage and retrieval of information through association with other information), and non-associative memory (refers to newly learned behavior through repeated exposure to an isolated stimulus).

      Overall, memory is a complex and essential cognitive function that plays a crucial role in learning, reasoning, and understanding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      6.9
      Seconds
  • Question 78 - Which medication is known to cause nephrogenic diabetes insipidus as a significant adverse...

    Correct

    • Which medication is known to cause nephrogenic diabetes insipidus as a significant adverse reaction?

      Your Answer: Lithium

      Explanation:

      The exact reason for the development of polyuria and polydipsia (nephrogenic diabetes insipidus) as a side effect of lithium treatment is not fully understood, but it is believed to be linked to the impact of lithium on ion transportation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      4.3
      Seconds
  • Question 79 - What is the primary focus of the serial sevens test, which is included...

    Correct

    • What is the primary focus of the serial sevens test, which is included in the MMSE?

      Your Answer: Concentration

      Explanation:

      The main purpose of the ‘serial sevens’ is to evaluate an individual’s ability to focus and maintain attention. It also has a secondary function of assessing memory to some degree.

      Mini Mental State Exam (MMSE)

      The Mini Mental State Exam (MMSE) was developed in 1975 by Folstein et al. Its original purpose was to differentiate between organic and functional disorders, but it is now mainly used to detect and track the progression of cognitive impairment. The exam is scored out of 30 and is divided into seven categories: orientation to place and time, registration, attention and concentration, recall, language, visual construction, and attention to written command. Each category has a possible score, and the total score can indicate the severity of cognitive impairment. A score equal to or greater than 27 indicates normal cognition, while scores below this can indicate severe, moderate, of mild cognitive impairment. The MMSE is a useful tool for detecting and tracking cognitive impairment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      5.2
      Seconds
  • Question 80 - Which of the following symptoms is uncommon during the discontinuation of SSRIs? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following symptoms is uncommon during the discontinuation of SSRIs?

      Your Answer: Palpitations

      Explanation:

      Antidepressants can cause discontinuation symptoms when patients stop taking them, regardless of the type of antidepressant. These symptoms usually occur within 5 days of stopping the medication and can last up to 3 weeks. Symptoms include flu-like symptoms, dizziness, insomnia, vivid dreams, irritability, crying spells, and sensory symptoms. SSRIs and related drugs with short half-lives, such as paroxetine and venlafaxine, are particularly associated with discontinuation symptoms. Tapering antidepressants at the end of treatment is recommended to prevent these symptoms. TCAs and MAOIs are also associated with discontinuation symptoms, with amitriptyline and imipramine being the most common TCAs and all MAOIs being associated with prominent discontinuation symptoms. Patients at highest risk for discontinuation symptoms include those on antidepressants with shorter half-lives, those who have been taking antidepressants for 8 weeks of longer, those using higher doses, younger people, and those who have experienced discontinuation symptoms before. Agomelatine is not associated with any discontinuation syndrome. If a discontinuation reaction occurs, restarting the antidepressant of switching to an alternative with a longer half-life and tapering more slowly may be necessary. Explanation and reassurance are often sufficient for mild symptoms. These guidelines are based on the Maudsley Guidelines 14th Edition and a study by Tint (2008).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      5.1
      Seconds
  • Question 81 - Which of the following is an example of a non-fluent aphasia? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is an example of a non-fluent aphasia?

      Your Answer: Broca's aphasia

      Explanation:

      Aphasia is a language impairment that affects the production of comprehension of speech, as well as the ability to read of write. The areas involved in language are situated around the Sylvian fissure, referred to as the ‘perisylvian language area’. For repetition, the primary auditory cortex, Wernicke, Broca via the Arcuate fasciculus (AF), Broca recodes into articulatory plan, primary motor cortex, and pyramidal system to cranial nerves are involved. For oral reading, the visual cortex to Wernicke and the same processes as for repetition follows. For writing, Wernicke via AF to premotor cortex for arm and hand, movement planned, sent to motor cortex. The classification of aphasia is complex and imprecise, with the Boston Group classification and Luria’s aphasia interpretation being the most influential. The important subtypes of aphasia include global aphasia, Broca’s aphasia, Wernicke’s aphasia, conduction aphasia, anomic aphasia, transcortical motor aphasia, and transcortical sensory aphasia. Additional syndromes include alexia without agraphia, alexia with agraphia, and pure word deafness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      6.7
      Seconds
  • Question 82 - In what field of medicine is the concept of 'therapeutic privilege' commonly used?...

    Incorrect

    • In what field of medicine is the concept of 'therapeutic privilege' commonly used?

      Your Answer: Research ethics

      Correct Answer: Informed consent

      Explanation:

      Professionalism and UK Regulation

      Oaths and declarations are important in establishing trust and credibility for professions. The Hippocratic Oath, dating back to 425 BC, is a part of the Western medical tradition and emphasizes the teaching of medicine, patient’s best interests, confidentiality, and abstinence from harmful practices. However, it does not mention concepts such as autonomy of justice and forbids surgery. The Declaration of Geneva (1948) and the Declaration of Helsinki (1964) are modern-day versions of the Hippocratic Oath, emphasizing the patient’s health and interests over science and society. These declarations arose from the concern of the medical community’s complicity with the Nazi party during World War II.

      In the UK, doctors must register with the General Medical Council (GMC), which sets professional standards and maintains a register of licensed doctors. It is illegal to practice medicine without a license in the UK. The GMC’s Good Medical Practice and the Good Medical Practice: Framework for Appraisal and Revalidation document emphasizes the duty of doctors to be honest and trustworthy, with dishonesty viewed harshly. Confidentiality is an important legal and ethical duty, but it is not absolute. Breaches of confidentiality may occur in emergencies, in the interests of others, when required by statute of the courts, of when required by the Driver and Vehicle Licensing Agency (DVLA). Sexualized relationships with current patients are prohibited, and accepting unsolicited gifts from patients is allowed but must not affect the way doctors prescribe, advise, treat, refer, of commission services.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      12.2
      Seconds
  • Question 83 - Which of the options has the lowest degree of first pass effect association?...

    Correct

    • Which of the options has the lowest degree of first pass effect association?

      Your Answer: Lithium

      Explanation:

      The First Pass Effect in Psychiatric Drugs

      The first-pass effect is a process in drug metabolism that significantly reduces the concentration of a drug before it reaches the systemic circulation. This phenomenon is related to the liver and gut wall, which absorb and metabolize the drug before it can enter the bloodstream. Psychiatric drugs are not exempt from this effect, and some undergo a significant reduction in concentration before reaching their target site. Examples of psychiatric drugs that undergo a significant first-pass effect include imipramine, fluphenazine, morphine, diazepam, and buprenorphine. On the other hand, some drugs undergo little to no first-pass effect, such as lithium and pregabalin.

      Orally administered drugs are the most affected by the first-pass effect. However, there are other routes of administration that can avoid of partly avoid this effect. These include sublingual, rectal (partly avoids first pass), intravenous, intramuscular, transdermal, and inhalation. Understanding the first-pass effect is crucial in drug development and administration, especially in psychiatric drugs, where the concentration of the drug can significantly affect its efficacy and safety.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      6.7
      Seconds
  • Question 84 - Which of the following is not indicated by a limited emotional expression? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is not indicated by a limited emotional expression?

      Your Answer: Histrionic personality disorder

      Explanation:

      Individuals with histrionic personality disorder are commonly characterized as having superficial and unstable emotions.

      Mental State Exam – Mood and Affect

      Affect is a term used to describe a patient’s present emotional responsiveness, which is indicated by their facial expression and tone of voice. It can be described as being within normal range, constricted (where the affect is restricted in range and intensity), blunted (similar to constricted but a bit more so), of flat (where there are virtually no signs of affective expression). Mood, on the other hand, is a more prolonged prevailing state of disposition. A feeling is an active experience of somatic sensation of a passive subjective experience of an emotion, while an emotion is best thought of as a feeling and memory intertwined. Apathy is the absence of feeling. It is important to distinguish between affect and mood, as affect is momentary and mood is more prolonged.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      8
      Seconds
  • Question 85 - What is a true statement about the working memory? ...

    Correct

    • What is a true statement about the working memory?

      Your Answer: The central executive enables the performance of verbal and visual tasks concurrently

      Explanation:

      The working memory is overseen by the central executive, which manages all its functions. Although the exact location of the central executive is not fully comprehended, it is believed to involve various regions of the brain.

      Memory Forms

      Memory is the ability to store, retain, and retrieve information. There are different forms of memory, including sensory memory, short-term/working memory, and long-term memory.

      Sensory memory is the capacity for briefly retaining the large amounts of information that people encounter daily. It includes echoic memory (gathered through auditory stimuli), iconic memory (gathered through sight), and haptic memory (acquired through touch).

      Short-term memory is the ability to keep a small amount of information available for a short period of time. Atkinson and Shiffrin’s multistore model (1968) suggests the existence of a short-term storehouse with limited capacity. Baddeley and Hitch (1974) further developed the concept of short-term memory, which eventually became known as Baddeley’s multi-storehouse model (2000). This model includes the central executive, visuospatial sketchpad, phonological buffer/loop, and episodic buffer.

      Long-term memory includes declarative (of explicit) memories, which can be consciously retrieved, and nondeclarative (of implicit) memories, which cannot. Declarative memory includes episodic memory (stores personal experiences) and semantic memory (stores information about facts and concepts). Non-declarative memory includes procedural memory (recalls motor and executive skills), associative memory (storage and retrieval of information through association with other information), and non-associative memory (refers to newly learned behavior through repeated exposure to an isolated stimulus).

      Overall, memory is a complex and essential cognitive function that plays a crucial role in learning, reasoning, and understanding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      12.1
      Seconds
  • Question 86 - What is a true statement about Broca's aphasia? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about Broca's aphasia?

      Your Answer: Ability to write is usually preserved

      Correct Answer: Main areas affected are Brodmann areas 44 and 45

      Explanation:

      Aphasia is a language impairment that affects the production of comprehension of speech, as well as the ability to read of write. The areas involved in language are situated around the Sylvian fissure, referred to as the ‘perisylvian language area’. For repetition, the primary auditory cortex, Wernicke, Broca via the Arcuate fasciculus (AF), Broca recodes into articulatory plan, primary motor cortex, and pyramidal system to cranial nerves are involved. For oral reading, the visual cortex to Wernicke and the same processes as for repetition follows. For writing, Wernicke via AF to premotor cortex for arm and hand, movement planned, sent to motor cortex. The classification of aphasia is complex and imprecise, with the Boston Group classification and Luria’s aphasia interpretation being the most influential. The important subtypes of aphasia include global aphasia, Broca’s aphasia, Wernicke’s aphasia, conduction aphasia, anomic aphasia, transcortical motor aphasia, and transcortical sensory aphasia. Additional syndromes include alexia without agraphia, alexia with agraphia, and pure word deafness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      26.4
      Seconds
  • Question 87 - A researcher studying obesity in adolescents is interested in creating a medication that...

    Correct

    • A researcher studying obesity in adolescents is interested in creating a medication that suppresses hunger. Which neuropeptide transmitter would be the target for developing an antagonist drug?

      Your Answer: Neuropeptide Y

      Explanation:

      Neuropeptide Y is a neuropeptide that stimulates appetite and is a target for developing antagonists in obesity research. Angiotensin is a peptide hormone involved in controlling blood pressure through vasoconstriction. Cholecystokinin has been linked to schizophrenia, eating disorders, movement disorders, anxiety, and panic attacks. Neurotensin is hypothesized to be involved in schizophrenia due to its co-existence with dopamine in some axon terminals. Substance P is primarily associated with pain perception.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological Examination
      54
      Seconds
  • Question 88 - At what time was the ICD-11 released? ...

    Incorrect

    • At what time was the ICD-11 released?

      Your Answer: 1998

      Correct Answer: 1992

      Explanation:

      The initial version of ICD-10 was released in 1992, while the first edition of ICD was published in 1855 to standardize the classification of causes of death. In 1948, ICD underwent a major revision and expanded from solely recording causes of death to encompass the International Lists of Diseases and Causes of Death, which was the 6th edition. DSM 4 was published in 1994, and there were no noteworthy alterations to the ICD/ DSM classifications in 1998.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      4.1
      Seconds
  • Question 89 - What characteristic is commonly observed in individuals originating from West Africa? ...

    Correct

    • What characteristic is commonly observed in individuals originating from West Africa?

      Your Answer: Brain fag

      Explanation:

      Culture bound illnesses are psychiatric conditions that are specific to one particular culture. There are many different types of culture bound illnesses, including Amok, Shenjing shuairuo, Ataque de nervios, Bilis, colera, Bouffee delirante, Brain fag, Dhat, Falling-out, blacking out, Ghost sickness, Hwa-byung, wool-hwa-byung, Koro, Latah, Locura, Mal de ojo, Nervios, Rootwork, Pibloktoq, Qi-gong psychotic reaction, Sangue dormido, Shen-k’uei, shenkui, Shin-byung, Taijin kyofusho, Spell, Susto, Zar, and Wendigo.

      Some of the most commonly discussed culture bound illnesses include Amok, which is confined to males in the Philippines and Malaysia who experience blind, murderous violence after a real of imagined insult. Ataque de nervios is a condition that occurs in those of Latino descent and is characterized by intense emotional upset, shouting uncontrollably, aggression, dissociation, seizure-like episodes, and suicidal gestures. Brain fag is a form of psychological distress first identified in Nigerian students in the 1960s but reported more generally in the African diaspora. It consists of a variety of cognitive and sensory disturbances that occur during periods of intense intellectual activity. Koro is a condition that affects Chinese patients who believe that their penis is withdrawing inside their abdomen, resulting in panic and the belief that they will die. Taijin kyofusho is a Japanese culture bound illness characterized by anxiety about and avoidance of interpersonal situations due to the thought, feeling, of conviction that one’s appearance and actions in social interactions are inadequate of offensive to others. Finally, Wendigo is a culture bound illness that occurs in Native American tribes during severe winters and scarcity of food, characterized by a distaste for food that leads to anxiety and the belief that one is turning into a cannibalistic ice spirit.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      5.9
      Seconds
  • Question 90 - Whose work on imprinting had a significant impact on the field of attachment?...

    Correct

    • Whose work on imprinting had a significant impact on the field of attachment?

      Your Answer: Lorenz

      Explanation:

      Imprinting – A Rapid, Unreinforced, Irreversible Attachment in Animals and Humans

      Imprinting is a fascinating phenomenon observed in some animals and humans, where a phase-sensitive attachment is formed towards the first conspicuous object seen after birth of hatching. Konrad Lorenz’s classic experiment with Greylag geese demonstrated that imprinting consists of three stages – following response, attachment development, and sexual preference formation. Imprinting is a rapid process that can occur within minutes, and it does not require any reinforcement to happen. It also occurs during a clearly defined period known as the critical period, and once it happens, it is irreversible.

      Imprinting has been observed in various species, including birds, mammals, and even humans. In humans, imprinting can occur during the early stages of life and can influence social and emotional development. For example, infants may develop an attachment towards their primary caregiver, which can shape their future relationships and social interactions.

      Overall, imprinting is a fascinating and complex phenomenon that highlights the importance of early experiences in shaping an individual’s behavior and preferences.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychological Development
      4.4
      Seconds
  • Question 91 - An adult patient while receiving treatment in a hospital ward thinks that they...

    Correct

    • An adult patient while receiving treatment in a hospital ward thinks that they are in their own house that has magically turned into the hospital. What type of condition does this scenario illustrate?

      Your Answer: Reduplicative paramnesia

      Explanation:

      The term paramnesia refers to memory disorders where fantasy and reality are confused. There are various types of paramnesias, including déjà vu, jamais vu, confabulation, reduplicative paramnesia, retrospective falsification, and cryptomnesia. Reduplicative paramnesia is a subset of delusional misidentification syndromes, which include Capgras delusion, the Fregoli delusion, and others. A review of reduplicative paramnesia was conducted by Politis in 2012.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      6.2
      Seconds
  • Question 92 - What is the term that describes a patient's tendency to provide a lengthy...

    Correct

    • What is the term that describes a patient's tendency to provide a lengthy and convoluted answer to a question, struggling to filter out irrelevant associations?

      Your Answer: Circumstantiality

      Explanation:

      Formal Thought Disorders

      In formal thought disorders, changes in the speed, coherence, and cogency of thought can be observed from a patient’s speech. These disorders can also be self-reported and may be accompanied by enhanced use of nonverbal language. One possible indication is a lack of an adequate connection between two consecutive thoughts, which is called ‘asyndesis’.

      There are several types of formal thought disorders, including inhibited thinking, retarded thinking, circumstantial thinking, restricted thinking, perseverative thinking, rumination, pressured thinking, flight of ideas, tangential thinking, thought blocking, disruption of thought, incoherence/derailment, and neologisms.

      Inhibited thinking is about the subjective experience of the patient, who may feel that their thinking process is slowed down of blocked by an inner wall of resistance. Retarded thinking, on the other hand, is about the observed quality of thought as inferred through speech, where the flow of thought processes is slowed down and sluggish.

      Circumstantial thinking refers to an inability to separate the essential from the unessential during a conversation without rendering the conversation incoherent. Restricted thinking involves a limited range of thought content, fixation on one particular topic of a small number of topics only, and a stereotyped pattern of thinking.

      Perseverative thinking is characterized by the persistent repetition of previously used words, phrases, of details to the point where they become meaningless in the context of the current stage of the interview. Rumination is the endless mental preoccupation with, of excessive concern over, mostly unpleasant thoughts.

      Pressured thinking, also known as crowding of thought, is when the patient feels helplessly exposed to the pressures of floods of different ideas of thoughts. Flight of ideas involves an increasing multitude of thoughts and ideas which are no longer firmly guided by clear goal-directed thinking.

      Tangential thinking occurs when the patient appears to understand the contents of the questions addressed to them but provides answers which are completely out of context. Thought blocking of disruption of thought refers to sudden disruption of an otherwise normal flow of thought of speech for no obvious reason.

      Incoherence of derailment is when the interviewer is unable to establish sensible connections between the patient’s thinking and verbal output, which is sometimes also called derailment. Neologisms involve the formation of new words of usage of words which disregard normal conventions and are generally not easily understandable.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      6.8
      Seconds
  • Question 93 - A teenager presents to A&E in distress. She claims that she has been...

    Correct

    • A teenager presents to A&E in distress. She claims that she has been transformed into a wolf by a witch doctor. What type of delusion does this represent?

      Your Answer: Lycanthropic

      Explanation:

      Types of Delusions

      Delusions come in many different forms. It is important to familiarize oneself with these types as they may be tested in an exam. Some of the most common types of delusions include:

      – Folie a deux: a shared delusion between two or more people
      – Grandiose: belief that one has special powers, beliefs, of purpose
      – Hypochondriacal: belief that something is physically wrong with the patient
      – Ekbom’s syndrome: belief that one has been infested with insects
      – Othello syndrome: belief that a sexual partner is cheating on them
      – Capgras delusion: belief that a person close to them has been replaced by a double
      – Fregoli delusion: patient identifies a familiar person (usually suspected to be a persecutor) in other people they meet
      – Syndrome of subjective doubles: belief that doubles of him/her exist
      – Lycanthropy: belief that one has been transformed into an animal
      – De Clérambault’s syndrome: false belief that a person is in love with them
      – Cotard’s syndrome/nihilistic delusions: belief that they are dead of do not exist
      – Referential: belief that others/TV/radio are speaking directly to of about the patient
      – Delusional perception: belief that a normal percept (product of perception) has a special meaning
      – Pseudocyesis: a condition whereby a woman believes herself to be pregnant when she is not. Objective signs accompany the belief such as abdominal enlargement, menstrual disturbance, apparent foetal movements, nausea, breast changes, and labour pains.

      Remembering these types of delusions can be helpful in understanding and diagnosing patients with delusional disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      6.2
      Seconds
  • Question 94 - Which of the subsequent medical conditions was wrongly attributed to political dissidents during...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the subsequent medical conditions was wrongly attributed to political dissidents during the Soviet era?

      Your Answer: Simple schizophrenia

      Correct Answer: Sluggish schizophrenia

      Explanation:

      While sluggish schizophrenia was a term misused to categorize political dissidents in the USSR, secondary schizophrenia refers to symptoms of schizophrenia that arise from another disorder and was not utilized in the same context. It is important to note that other countries have also engaged in the misuse of psychiatry for political purposes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • History Of Psychiatry
      8.9
      Seconds
  • Question 95 - What aspect of frontal lobe function is assessed by the Tower of London...

    Correct

    • What aspect of frontal lobe function is assessed by the Tower of London test?

      Your Answer: Problem solving

      Explanation:

      Frontal Lobe Tests

      The frontal lobe is responsible for a variety of cognitive functions, including initiation, abstraction, problem-solving, decision-making, response inhibition, and set shifting. Different tests can be used to assess these functions.

      Verbal and categorical fluency tests can be used to assess initiation. These tests require individuals to generate as many words of items as possible within a specific category of starting letter.

      Proverbs, similarities, and cognitive estimates are examples of tests that can be used to assess abstraction. These tests require individuals to identify similarities between objects of concepts, make judgments based on incomplete information, of estimate quantities.

      Tower of London, Cambridge stockings, and gambling tasks are examples of tests that can be used to assess problem-solving and decision-making. These tests require individuals to plan and execute a sequence of actions to achieve a goal of make decisions based on uncertain outcomes.

      Alternating sequences, go-no-go test, Luria motor test, trail making test, Wisconsin card sorting test, and Stroop test are examples of tests that can be used to assess response inhibition and set shifting. These tests require individuals to inhibit prepotent responses, switch between tasks of mental sets, of ignore irrelevant information.

      Overall, these tests can provide valuable information about an individual’s frontal lobe functioning and can be used to diagnose and treat various neurological and psychiatric conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      7.2
      Seconds
  • Question 96 - The doctor asks the patient the following question:
    Sometimes when kids feel really sad,...

    Incorrect

    • The doctor asks the patient the following question:
      Sometimes when kids feel really sad, they might have thoughts of hurting themselves. Have you ever had thoughts like that?
      What technique is he using?

      Your Answer: Facilitation

      Correct Answer: Validation

      Explanation:

      To encourage patients to express themselves freely, doctors use various techniques such as validation, confrontation, clarification, facilitation, and open-ended questions. Validation involves making patients feel more comfortable by normalizing their thoughts, feelings, of behaviors. Confrontation involves pointing out something that the patient may be missing of denying. Clarification is used to clarify something that the patient has said. Facilitation involves using verbal and non-verbal cues to encourage patients to continue sharing. Open-ended questions are used to prompt patients to respond in their own words, rather than with a simple yes or no answer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • History And Mental State
      7.4
      Seconds
  • Question 97 - What was the first neurotransmitter to be recognized? ...

    Correct

    • What was the first neurotransmitter to be recognized?

      Your Answer: Acetylcholine

      Explanation:

      Henry Dale was the first to identify acetylcholine in 1915 through its effects on cardiac tissue, and he was awarded the Nobel Prize in Medicine in 1936 alongside Otto Loewi for their work. Arvid Carlsson discovered dopamine as a neurotransmitter in 1957, while von Euler discovered noradrenaline (also known as norepinephrine) as both a hormone and neurotransmitter in 1946. Oxytocin is typically classified as a hormone, while substance P is a neuropeptide that functions as both a neurotransmitter and neuromodulator and was first discovered in 1931.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      4.4
      Seconds
  • Question 98 - Which ethical situation is associated with the Tarasoff decision? ...

    Correct

    • Which ethical situation is associated with the Tarasoff decision?

      Your Answer: The failure to protect the rights of potential victims

      Explanation:

      Double Agentry in Psychiatry

      Double agentry is a term used to describe a situation where a psychiatrist’s conflict of interest interferes with their ability to act in the best interests of their patient. Psychiatrists often have to balance the interests of multiple parties, such as the patient, family, society, and hospital commissioners, which is known as multiagency.

      The Tarasoff case is a prime example of double agentry in psychiatry. Two therapists failed to warn a woman that their patient had expressed an intention to kill her. They chose not to do so to respect the patient’s confidentiality, but failed to recognize their duty of care to both the patient and the potential victim. Unfortunately, the woman was eventually murdered by the patient.

      This case, which occurred in California, led to a change in the law that now requires therapists to have a legal duty to both their patients and potential victims. It highlights the importance of psychiatrists being aware of their responsibilities to all parties involved and ensuring that they act in the best interests of their patients while also fulfilling their duty of care to others.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      18.3
      Seconds
  • Question 99 - A 65-year-old woman passed away unexpectedly due to a heart attack. She had...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman passed away unexpectedly due to a heart attack. She had been experiencing significant difficulties with her short-term memory, which had been impacting her daily activities. Upon conducting an autopsy of her brain, it was discovered that she had widespread cerebral atrophy, as well as numerous neurofibrillary tangles and neuritic plaques. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Alzheimer's disease

      Explanation:

      Neurofibrillary tangles and neuritic (senile) plaques are commonly found in the brains of elderly individuals, but they are not present in Lewy body dementia. Pick’s disease is characterized by the presence of Pick’s bodies and knife blade atrophy. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD) is identified by the spongy appearance of the grey matter in the cerebral cortex due to multiple vacuoles. If an individual experiences short-term memory problems that affect their daily life, it may indicate the presence of dementia. Alzheimer’s disease is characterized by extensive tangles and plaques in the brain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      15.4
      Seconds
  • Question 100 - Which type of brain lesion is typically associated with Alexia without agraphia? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which type of brain lesion is typically associated with Alexia without agraphia?

      Your Answer: Posterior communicating artery

      Correct Answer: Posterior cerebral artery

      Explanation:

      Aphasia is a language impairment that affects the production of comprehension of speech, as well as the ability to read of write. The areas involved in language are situated around the Sylvian fissure, referred to as the ‘perisylvian language area’. For repetition, the primary auditory cortex, Wernicke, Broca via the Arcuate fasciculus (AF), Broca recodes into articulatory plan, primary motor cortex, and pyramidal system to cranial nerves are involved. For oral reading, the visual cortex to Wernicke and the same processes as for repetition follows. For writing, Wernicke via AF to premotor cortex for arm and hand, movement planned, sent to motor cortex. The classification of aphasia is complex and imprecise, with the Boston Group classification and Luria’s aphasia interpretation being the most influential. The important subtypes of aphasia include global aphasia, Broca’s aphasia, Wernicke’s aphasia, conduction aphasia, anomic aphasia, transcortical motor aphasia, and transcortical sensory aphasia. Additional syndromes include alexia without agraphia, alexia with agraphia, and pure word deafness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      6
      Seconds
  • Question 101 - Which statement about multiple sclerosis is incorrect? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement about multiple sclerosis is incorrect?

      Your Answer: Onset is normally between the the age of 20-40

      Correct Answer: It is more common in males

      Explanation:

      The statement MS is more common in females is actually correct.

      Multiple Sclerosis: An Overview

      Multiple sclerosis is a neurological disorder that is classified into three categories: primary progressive, relapsing-remitting, and secondary progressive. Primary progressive multiple sclerosis affects 5-10% of patients and is characterized by a steady progression with no remissions. Relapsing-remitting multiple sclerosis affects 20-30% of patients and presents with a relapsing-remitting course but does not lead to serious disability. Secondary progressive multiple sclerosis affects 60% of patients and initially presents with a relapsing-remitting course but is then followed by a phase of progressive deterioration.

      The disorder typically begins between the ages of 20 and 40 and is characterized by multiple demyelinating lesions that have a preference for the optic nerves, cerebellum, brainstem, and spinal cord. Patients with multiple sclerosis present with a variety of neurological signs that reflect the presence and distribution of plaques. Ocular features of multiple sclerosis include optic neuritis, internuclear ophthalmoplegia, and ocular motor cranial neuropathy.

      Multiple sclerosis is more common in women than in men and is seen with increasing frequency as the distance from the equator increases. It is believed to be caused by a combination of genetic and environmental factors, with monozygotic concordance at 25%. Overall, multiple sclerosis is a predominantly white matter disease that can have a significant impact on a patient’s quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      2.7
      Seconds
  • Question 102 - Which of the following characteristics is not associated with catatonia? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following characteristics is not associated with catatonia?

      Your Answer: Akathisia

      Explanation:

      – Catatonia is a psychiatric syndrome characterized by disturbed motor functions, mood, and thought.
      – Key behaviors associated with catatonia include stupor, posturing, waxy flexibility, negativism, automatic obedience, mitmachen, mitgehen, ambitendency, psychological pillow, forced grasping, obstruction, echopraxia, aversion, mannerisms, stereotypies, motor perseveration, echolalia, and logorrhoea.
      – These behaviors are often tested in exam questions.
      – Karl Ludwig Kahlbaum is credited with the original clinical description of catatonia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 103 - Whilst walking through the park, a teenager makes a hurtful comment towards their...

    Incorrect

    • Whilst walking through the park, a teenager makes a hurtful comment towards their friend. The friend feels too upset to confront them but points out the beautiful flowers in the garden. What defense mechanism is being demonstrated in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Sublimation

      Correct Answer: Projection

      Explanation:

      This scenario highlights the distinction between projection and projective identification. The woman is projecting her own sadness onto the cows, as she is unable to acknowledge of process her emotions. In projective identification, the recipient of the projection internalizes and identifies with the projected feelings. However, since it is impossible for the cows to experience human emotions, the correct term for this situation is projection.

      Intermediate Mechanism: Rationalisation

      Rationalisation is a defense mechanism commonly used by individuals to create false but credible justifications for their behavior of actions. It involves the use of logical reasoning to explain away of justify unacceptable behavior of feelings. The individual may not be aware that they are using this mechanism, and it can be difficult to identify in oneself.

      Rationalisation is considered an intermediate mechanism, as it is common in healthy individuals from ages three to ninety, as well as in neurotic disorders and in mastering acute adult stress. It can be dramatically changed by conventional psychotherapeutic interpretation.

      Examples of rationalisation include a student who fails an exam and blames the teacher for not teaching the material well enough, of a person who cheats on their partner and justifies it by saying their partner was neglectful of unaffectionate. It allows the individual to avoid taking responsibility for their actions and to maintain a positive self-image.

      Overall, rationalisation can be a useful defense mechanism in certain situations, but it can also be harmful if it leads to a lack of accountability and an inability to learn from mistakes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 104 - On which chromosome is the gene associated with Huntington's disease located? ...

    Correct

    • On which chromosome is the gene associated with Huntington's disease located?

      Your Answer: 4

      Explanation:

      Huntington’s Disease: Genetics and Pathology

      Huntington’s disease is a genetic disorder that follows an autosomal dominant pattern of inheritance. It is caused by a mutation in the Huntington gene, which is located on chromosome 4. The mutation involves an abnormal expansion of a trinucleotide repeat sequence (CAG), which leads to the production of a toxic protein that damages brain cells.

      The severity of the disease and the age of onset are related to the number of CAG repeats. Normally, the CAG sequence is repeated less than 27 times, but in Huntington’s disease, it is repeated many more times. The disease shows anticipation, meaning that it tends to worsen with each successive generation.

      The symptoms of Huntington’s disease typically begin in the third of fourth decade of life, but in rare cases, they can appear in childhood of adolescence. The most common symptoms include involuntary movements (chorea), cognitive decline, and psychiatric disturbances.

      The pathological hallmark of Huntington’s disease is the gross bilateral atrophy of the head of the caudate and putamen, which are regions of the brain involved in movement control. The EEG of patients with Huntington’s disease shows a flattened trace, indicating a loss of brain activity.

      Macroscopic pathological findings include frontal atrophy, marked atrophy of the caudate and putamen, and enlarged ventricles. Microscopic findings include neuronal loss and gliosis in the cortex, neuronal loss in the striatum, and the presence of inclusion bodies in the neurons of the cortex and striatum.

      In conclusion, Huntington’s disease is a devastating genetic disorder that affects the brain and causes a range of motor, cognitive, and psychiatric symptoms. The disease is caused by a mutation in the Huntington gene, which leads to the production of a toxic protein that damages brain cells. The pathological changes in the brain include atrophy of the caudate and putamen, neuronal loss, and the presence of inclusion bodies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      3
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  • Question 105 - Which of the following best describes the situation where a mental health nurse...

    Correct

    • Which of the following best describes the situation where a mental health nurse assumes that a patient is lazy because of their weight?

      Your Answer: Halo effect

      Explanation:

      The Halo Effect: How One Perception Influences Another

      The halo effect is a cognitive bias that occurs when our perception of one characteristic of a person of object is influenced by our perception of another. This means that if we perceive someone as attractive, we may also assume that they are intelligent of kind, even if we have no evidence to support these assumptions. The halo effect can have a significant impact on our judgments and decisions, as it can lead us to make assumptions based on limited information. It is important to be aware of this bias and to try to make judgments based on objective criteria rather than subjective perceptions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 106 - A woman is arrested by the police for strangling her husband. She believes...

    Incorrect

    • A woman is arrested by the police for strangling her husband. She believes he has been replaced by an impostor. Select the appropriate delusional syndrome:

      Your Answer: Fregoli

      Correct Answer: Capgras

      Explanation:

      Types of Delusions

      Delusions come in many different forms. It is important to familiarize oneself with these types as they may be tested in an exam. Some of the most common types of delusions include:

      – Folie a deux: a shared delusion between two or more people
      – Grandiose: belief that one has special powers, beliefs, of purpose
      – Hypochondriacal: belief that something is physically wrong with the patient
      – Ekbom’s syndrome: belief that one has been infested with insects
      – Othello syndrome: belief that a sexual partner is cheating on them
      – Capgras delusion: belief that a person close to them has been replaced by a double
      – Fregoli delusion: patient identifies a familiar person (usually suspected to be a persecutor) in other people they meet
      – Syndrome of subjective doubles: belief that doubles of him/her exist
      – Lycanthropy: belief that one has been transformed into an animal
      – De Clérambault’s syndrome: false belief that a person is in love with them
      – Cotard’s syndrome/nihilistic delusions: belief that they are dead of do not exist
      – Referential: belief that others/TV/radio are speaking directly to of about the patient
      – Delusional perception: belief that a normal percept (product of perception) has a special meaning
      – Pseudocyesis: a condition whereby a woman believes herself to be pregnant when she is not. Objective signs accompany the belief such as abdominal enlargement, menstrual disturbance, apparent foetal movements, nausea, breast changes, and labour pains.

      Remembering these types of delusions can be helpful in understanding and diagnosing patients with delusional disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 107 - What is the half-life of fluoxetine in the body? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the half-life of fluoxetine in the body?

      Your Answer: 30 hours

      Correct Answer: 4-6 days

      Explanation:

      Fluoxetine has the longest half life among the commonly used SSRIs, lasting four to six days. Its active metabolite, norfluoxetine, remains active for four to 16 days. This information is important when discontinuing of switching SSRIs.

      For instance, if a patient is discontinuing an SSRI with a shorter half life, such as paroxetine, they may experience SSRI discontinuation syndrome. To avoid this, they can switch to fluoxetine before tapering off the antidepressant.

      When cross-titrating from fluoxetine to another antidepressant, the longer half life means that the drug needs to be withdrawn and a longer period allowed for levels in the body to decrease. The recommended time to start a new antidepressant after withdrawing fluoxetine varies depending on the drug, such as waiting five to six weeks before starting an MAOI.

      The incorrect answers are:
      – Paroxetine has an elimination half life of 24 hours
      – Sertraline has an elimination half life of 26 hours
      – Escitalopram has an elimination half life of 30 hours
      – Citalopram has an elimination half life of 33 hours.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 108 - Which type of white matter tract is categorized as a commissural tract? ...

    Correct

    • Which type of white matter tract is categorized as a commissural tract?

      Your Answer: Corpus callosum

      Explanation:

      White matter is the cabling that links different parts of the CNS together. There are three types of white matter cables: projection tracts, commissural tracts, and association tracts. Projection tracts connect higher centers of the brain with lower centers, commissural tracts connect the two hemispheres together, and association tracts connect regions of the same hemisphere. Some common tracts include the corticospinal tract, which connects the motor cortex to the brainstem and spinal cord, and the corpus callosum, which is the largest white matter fiber bundle connecting corresponding areas of cortex between the hemispheres. Other tracts include the cingulum, superior and inferior occipitofrontal fasciculi, and the superior and inferior longitudinal fasciculi.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      12.1
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  • Question 109 - What is the most accurate approximation for the concordance of autism in dizygotic...

    Correct

    • What is the most accurate approximation for the concordance of autism in dizygotic twins (for pairs of the same sex)?

      Your Answer: 35%

      Explanation:

      Autism and Genetics

      Research has shown that there is a strong genetic component to autism. In fact, siblings of individuals with autism are significantly more likely to develop the disorder than someone in the general population. Twin studies have also demonstrated the high heritability of autism, but have also highlighted the genetic complexity of the disorder. Monozygotic twins have a concordance rate of 60-90%, while dizygotic twins have a concordance rate closer to 30%. Despite this, the molecular genetics of autism is still not well understood. Copy number variations (CNVs) have been implicated, along with a number of candidate genes. Further research is needed to fully understand the genetic basis of autism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
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  • Question 110 - Which of the following is not an example of delusional misidentification? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is not an example of delusional misidentification?

      Your Answer: Cotard's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Cotard’s syndrome is a condition where an individual has a false belief that they are deceased of do not exist.

      Delusional Misidentification Syndrome

      Delusional misidentification syndrome refers to a group of disorders where individuals believe that the identity of a person, object, of place has been altered of changed. There are several subtypes of this syndrome, including Capgras syndrome, Fregoli syndrome, intermetamorphosis, subjective doubles, reduplicative paramnesia, mirrored self, delusional companions, and clonal pluralisation of the self. Each subtype is characterised by a specific delusion, such as believing that a loved one has been replaced by an exact double of that a place has been duplicated. These delusions can have a significant impact on an individual’s daily life and require appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 111 - During a session of cognitive analytic therapy, a young adult client shared that...

    Correct

    • During a session of cognitive analytic therapy, a young adult client shared that whenever they enter a new romantic relationship, they tend to intentionally create conflict of engage in infidelity. This behavior is likely influenced by their complex and enmeshed relationship with their father, who frequently left the family home during their childhood. Additionally, the client exhibits traits of narcissism. What type of procedure is the client describing?

      Your Answer: Snag

      Explanation:

      Traps refer to circular patterns of interaction that create ‘vicious circles’. For instance, when we feel uncertain, we may try to please others, but this can result in others taking advantage of us, which reinforces our uncertainty.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Advanced Psychological Processes And Treatments
      23
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  • Question 112 - A 3-year-old girl wakes up crying in the middle of the night. This...

    Correct

    • A 3-year-old girl wakes up crying in the middle of the night. This typically occurs shortly after she has fallen asleep. Her parents report that she sits up in bed and appears to be awake but does not acknowledge them. The episodes last for a few minutes before the child falls back asleep. The parents have checked her pulse during these episodes and note that it is very rapid. This started happening around six months ago and lasted for about two weeks before resolving on its own. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Night terrors

      Explanation:

      Night terrors are a type of sleep disorder that typically occur during the first few hours of sleep. They are characterized by sudden and intense feelings of fear, panic, of terror that can cause the person to scream, thrash around, of even try to escape from their bed. Unlike nightmares, which occur during REM sleep and are often remembered upon waking, night terrors occur during non-REM sleep and are usually not remembered. Night terrors are most common in children, but can also occur in adults. They are thought to be caused by a combination of genetic and environmental factors, and may be triggered by stress, anxiety, of sleep deprivation. Treatment for night terrors may include improving sleep hygiene, reducing stress, and in some cases, medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      13.5
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  • Question 113 - A 25-year-old male working in a coffee shop strongly believes that a 35-year-old...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old male working in a coffee shop strongly believes that a 35-year-old regular customer is interested in him romantically. He thinks that she has been leaving bigger tips and was considering asking her out on a date. What is this belief known as?

      Your Answer: Erotomania

      Explanation:

      A delusion is a false and unwavering belief that is not in line with the individual’s education, cultural of social background. It is held with strong conviction. Erotomania is a type of delusional disorder where the affected person believes that someone, usually of higher status and often a stranger, is in love with them. This disorder is more common in women and can cause them to believe that someone who has no knowledge of their existence is in love with them. Nymphomania is a condition where a woman experiences uncontrollable and excessive sexual desire, while satyriasis is the male equivalent. Morbid jealousy is a disorder that can manifest in various forms, including delusions, overvalued ideas, depressive affect, of anxiety state. With this disorder, a person may believe that their partner is being unfaithful without any of little evidence to support their belief. Grandiose delusion is where a person believes they have supernatural powers of are a famous celebrity, and may think they are involved in secret missions of have connections with wealthy and famous people.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Descriptive Psychopathology
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  • Question 114 - Which mathematician, who won the Nobel Prize, had their struggle with mental illness...

    Correct

    • Which mathematician, who won the Nobel Prize, had their struggle with mental illness depicted in the movie 'A Beautiful Mind'?

      Your Answer: John Forbes Nash

      Explanation:

      The lives of several notable individuals have been impacted by mental health issues, including John Forbes Nash Jr., a gifted mathematician who battled schizophrenia and still won the Nobel Prize in economics in 1994. David Helfgott, the subject of the award-winning film ‘Shine’, was a talented pianist who also struggled with mental health. Iris Murdoch, a renowned novelist, developed Alzheimer’s disease later in life. Dr. Watson, who played a key role in discovering the molecular structure of DNA, has a son who faces mental health challenges. Additionally, Kim Peek, who inspired the film ‘Rain Man’, is another example of someone whose life was affected by mental health issues.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Stigma And Culture
      11.4
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  • Question 115 - What gene is thought to increase the likelihood of individuals developing frontotemporal dementia?...

    Correct

    • What gene is thought to increase the likelihood of individuals developing frontotemporal dementia?

      Your Answer: Progranulin

      Explanation:

      Genes Associated with Dementia

      Dementia is a complex disorder that can be caused by various genetic and environmental factors. Several genes have been implicated in different forms of dementia. For instance, familial Alzheimer’s disease, which represents less than 1-6% of all Alzheimer’s cases, is associated with mutations in PSEN1, PSEN2, APP, and ApoE genes. These mutations are inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern. On the other hand, late-onset Alzheimer’s disease is a genetic risk factor associated with the ApoE gene, particularly the APOE4 allele. However, inheriting this allele does not necessarily mean that a person will develop Alzheimer’s.

      Other forms of dementia, such as familial frontotemporal dementia, Huntington’s disease, CADASIL, and dementia with Lewy bodies, are also associated with specific genes. For example, C9orf72 is the most common mutation associated with familial frontotemporal dementia, while Huntington’s disease is caused by mutations in the HTT gene. CADASIL is associated with mutations in the Notch3 gene, while dementia with Lewy bodies is associated with the APOE, GBA, and SNCA genes.

      In summary, understanding the genetic basis of dementia is crucial for developing effective treatments and preventive measures. However, it is important to note that genetics is only one of the many factors that contribute to the development of dementia. Environmental factors, lifestyle choices, and other health conditions also play a significant role.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
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  • Question 116 - Which of the following describes separation anxiety among toddlers when temporarily separated from...

    Correct

    • Which of the following describes separation anxiety among toddlers when temporarily separated from their primary caregiver?

      Your Answer: Spitz

      Explanation:

      René Spitz coined the term anaclitic depression to describe the negative impact on children who are separated from their primary caregiver, such as during a hospital stay. In extreme cases, this can lead to hospitalism. Although this type of depression can hinder a child’s development, recovery is likely if the separation from the mother does not exceed three months. Ainsworth is known for her work on the strange situation procedure, while Bowlby focused on attachment and maternal deprivation. Main is associated with the adult attachment interview, and Rutter distinguished between privation and deprivation, with the former referring to a failure to form attachments.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Advanced Psychological Processes And Treatments
      9.3
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  • Question 117 - What is the characteristic of jaw musculature contraction? ...

    Correct

    • What is the characteristic of jaw musculature contraction?

      Your Answer: Trismus

      Explanation:

      Extrapyramidal side-effects (EPSE’s) are a group of side effects that affect voluntary motor control, commonly seen in patients taking antipsychotic drugs. EPSE’s include dystonias, parkinsonism, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. They can be frightening and uncomfortable, leading to problems with non-compliance and can even be life-threatening in the case of laryngeal dystonia. EPSE’s are thought to be due to antagonism of dopaminergic D2 receptors in the basal ganglia. Symptoms generally occur within the first few days of treatment, with dystonias appearing quickly, within a few hours of administration of the first dose. Newer antipsychotics tend to produce less EPSE’s, with clozapine carrying the lowest risk and haloperidol carrying the highest risk. Akathisia is the most resistant EPSE to treat. EPSE’s can also occur when antipsychotics are discontinued (withdrawal dystonia).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 118 - What is a true statement about the drugs prescribed for individuals with dementia?...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about the drugs prescribed for individuals with dementia?

      Your Answer: Memantine is an NMDA agonist

      Correct Answer: Donepezil is metabolised by CYP2D6, and CYP3A4

      Explanation:

      The metabolism of donepezil can be inhibited by CYP3A4 inhibitors like erythromycin and CYP2D6 inhibitors like fluoxetine. Conversely, enzyme inducers of these can decrease donepezil levels.

      Pharmacological management of dementia involves the use of acetylcholinesterase inhibitors (AChE inhibitors) and memantine. AChE inhibitors prevent the breakdown of acetylcholine, which is deficient in Alzheimer’s due to the loss of cholinergic neurons. Donepezil, galantamine, and rivastigmine are commonly used AChE inhibitors in the management of Alzheimer’s. However, gastrointestinal side effects such as nausea and vomiting are common with these drugs.

      Memantine, on the other hand, is an NMDA receptor antagonist that blocks the effects of pathologically elevated levels of glutamate that may lead to neuronal dysfunction. It has a half-life of 60-100 hours and is primarily renally eliminated. Common adverse effects of memantine include somnolence, dizziness, hypertension, dyspnea, constipation, headache, and elevated liver function tests.

      Overall, pharmacological management of dementia aims to improve cognitive function and slow down the progression of the disease. However, it is important to note that these drugs do not cure dementia and may only provide temporary relief of symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      10
      Seconds
  • Question 119 - How can pharmacokinetic drug interactions be defined? ...

    Correct

    • How can pharmacokinetic drug interactions be defined?

      Your Answer: Enzyme induction

      Explanation:

      Allosteric modulators bind to different sites on the receptor than the probe molecules (such as agonists of radioligands), and can alter the way they interact. This can lead to modifications in the effectiveness and/of strength of agonists.

      Drug Interactions: Understanding the Different Types

      Drug interactions can occur in different ways, and it is important to understand the different types to avoid potential harm. Pharmacokinetic drug interactions happen when one drug affects the metabolism, absorption, of excretion of another drug. This can be due to enzyme induction of inhibition, changes in gastrointestinal tract motility and pH, chelation, competition for renal tubular transport, of changes in protein binding. On the other hand, pharmacodynamic drug interactions occur when one drug directly alters the effect of another drug. This can happen through synergism, antagonism, of interaction at receptors, such as allosteric modulation. It is important to note that pharmacodynamic drug interactions do not involve any absorption, distribution, metabolism, of excretion processes directly. By understanding the different types of drug interactions, healthcare professionals can better manage patients’ medications and prevent potential adverse effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      14.1
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  • Question 120 - What substance can be safely consumed along with monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)? ...

    Incorrect

    • What substance can be safely consumed along with monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)?

      Your Answer: Paroxetine

      Correct Answer: Paracetamol

      Explanation:

      Taking paracetamol with MAOIs is safe, but other medications and certain foods and drinks should be avoided to prevent the cheese reaction. The list of high-tyramine foods is provided in the drug’s leaflet. MAOIs are not commonly prescribed in primary care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      12.2
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  • Question 121 - An older woman presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of left...

    Correct

    • An older woman presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of left leg dysfunction, urinary incontinence, and abulia. As her time in the department progresses, her left arm also becomes affected. She has a history of vascular disease. Which artery do you suspect is involved?

      Your Answer: Anterior cerebral artery

      Explanation:

      When there is a blockage in the anterior cerebral artery, the legs are typically impacted more than the arms. Additionally, a common symptom is abulia, which is a lack of determination of difficulty making firm decisions.

      Brain Blood Supply and Consequences of Occlusion

      The brain receives blood supply from the internal carotid and vertebral arteries, which form the circle of Willis. The circle of Willis acts as a shunt system in case of vessel damage. The three main vessels arising from the circle are the anterior cerebral artery (ACA), middle cerebral artery (MCA), and posterior cerebral artery (PCA). Occlusion of these vessels can result in various neurological deficits. ACA occlusion may cause hemiparesis of the contralateral foot and leg, sensory loss, and frontal signs. MCA occlusion is the most common and can lead to hemiparesis, dysphasia/aphasia, neglect, and visual field defects. PCA occlusion may cause alexia, loss of sensation, hemianopia, prosopagnosia, and cranial nerve defects. It is important to recognize these consequences to provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      15.3
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  • Question 122 - What is the term used to describe the process of reinforcing progressively more...

    Correct

    • What is the term used to describe the process of reinforcing progressively more accurate attempts towards a desired behavior?

      Your Answer: Shaping

      Explanation:

      Operant Conditioning: Reinforcement, Punishment, and More

      Operant conditioning, also known as instrumental learning, is a theory of learning developed by B.F. Skinner. It suggests that people learn by interacting with their environment. Reinforcement and punishment are key concepts in operant conditioning. A reinforcer is a stimulus of event that increases the likelihood of a behavior being repeated. Reinforcement can be positive of negative. Positive reinforcement occurs when a behavior is strengthened by adding a rewarding stimulus, while negative reinforcement occurs when a behavior is strengthened by removing an unpleasant stimulus. A punisher is a stimulus that decreases the likelihood of a behavior being repeated. Positive punishment occurs when a behavior is reduced in frequency by adding an unpleasant stimulus, while negative punishment occurs when a behavior is reduced in frequency by removing a pleasant stimulus.

      Primary reinforcers are instinctual desires such as food, water, social approval, and sex. Secondary reinforcers, also known as conditioned reinforcers, are not innately appreciated and people have to learn to like them through classical conditioning of other methods. Secondary reinforcers include things such as money. Different patterns of reinforcement have different influences on the response. There are five main reinforcement schedules: fixed interval, variable interval, fixed ratio, variable ratio, and random. Variable ratio schedules are most resistant to extinction.

      Shaping and chaining are techniques used when an exact behavior cannot be performed and so cannot be rewarded. Shaping involves rewarding successive, increasingly accurate approximations to the behavior, while chaining involves breaking a complex task into smaller, more manageable sections. Escape conditioning refers to a situation whereby an aversive situation is removed after a response. It is a form of negative reinforcement. Habituation refers to the phenomenon whereby there is a decrease in response to a stimulus over time. Covert sensitization is a technique used whereby someone learns to use mental imagery to associate a behavior with a negative consequence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 123 - What product has been taken off the UK market because of its impact...

    Correct

    • What product has been taken off the UK market because of its impact on the QTc interval?

      Your Answer: Thioridazine

      Explanation:

      The UK market no longer offers thioridazine and droperidol due to their impact on the QTc interval.

      Amantadine and QTc Prolongation

      Amantadine is a medication used to treat Parkinson’s disease and influenza. It has been associated with QTc prolongation, which can increase the risk of Torsades de points. Therefore, caution should be exercised when prescribing amantadine to patients with risk factors for QT prolongation. If a patient is already taking amantadine and develops a prolonged QTc interval, the medication should be discontinued and an alternative treatment considered. It is important to monitor the QTc interval in patients taking amantadine, especially those with risk factors for QT prolongation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      11.2
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  • Question 124 - What is a requirement for managing personal information under the provisions of the...

    Correct

    • What is a requirement for managing personal information under the provisions of the Data Protection Act?

      Your Answer: Data must be kept for only as long as they are needed

      Explanation:

      The Data Protection Act mandates that organisations should not retain personal of sensitive information beyond the purpose for which it was collected. Furthermore, data must only be used for the intended purpose and cannot be transferred outside the EU. While encryption of sensitive information is not mandatory, appropriate technical and organisational measures must be implemented to prevent unauthorised of unlawful access to personal data.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Ethics And Philosophy Of Psychiatry
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  • Question 125 - What tools of methods are utilized to aid in identifying personality disorders? ...

    Correct

    • What tools of methods are utilized to aid in identifying personality disorders?

      Your Answer: IPDE

      Explanation:

      The tools mentioned are used for screening and diagnosing personality disorders. The SAPAS is an interview method that focuses on 8 areas and takes 2 minutes to complete. The FFMRF is self-reported and consists of 30 items rated 1-5 for each item. The IPDE is a semistructured clinical interview compatible with the ICD and DSM and includes both a patient questionnaire and an interview. The PDQ-R is self-reported and consists of 100 true/false questions based on DSM-IV criteria. The IPDS is an interview method that consists of 11 criteria and takes less than 5 minutes. The IIP-PD is self-reported and contains 127 items rated 0-4.

      In psychiatry, various questionnaires and interviews are used to assess different conditions and areas. It is important for candidates to know whether certain assessment tools are self-rated of require clinical assistance. The table provided by the college lists some of the commonly used assessment tools and indicates whether they are self-rated of clinician-rated. For example, the HAMD and MADRS are clinician-rated scales used to assess the severity of depression, while the GDS is a self-rated scale used to screen for depression in the elderly. The YMRS is a clinician-rated scale used to assess the severity of mania in patients with bipolar disorder, while the Y-BOCS is used to measure both the severity of OCD and the response to treatment. The GAF provides a single measure of global functioning, while the CGI requires the clinician to rate the severity of the patient’s illness at the time of assessment. The CAMDEX is a tool developed to assist in the early diagnosis and measurement of dementia in the elderly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 126 - What is the most indicative sign of depression in the mental state examination?...

    Correct

    • What is the most indicative sign of depression in the mental state examination?

      Your Answer: Disheveled hair

      Explanation:

      Mental State Exam: Appearance

      The appearance of a patient can provide valuable clues to an underlying disorder. It is important to note that the following examples are not always present, but they can be helpful for educational purposes.

      Individuals experiencing hypomania or mania may tend to wear bright and colorful clothing and may apply unusual of garish makeup. On the other hand, unfashionable and mismatched clothing may indicate schizoid personality traits of autistic spectrum disorders.

      An excessively tidy appearance may suggest an obsessional personality. It is important to consider these cues in conjunction with other aspects of the mental state exam to arrive at an accurate diagnosis. Proper observation and interpretation of a patient’s appearance can aid in the development of an effective treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 127 - A 32 year old man with schizophrenia explains the sensation of being able...

    Correct

    • A 32 year old man with schizophrenia explains the sensation of being able to hear discussions from the grocery store in the nearby city. Which of the options below accurately characterizes this occurrence?

      Your Answer: Extracampine hallucinations

      Explanation:

      Altered Perceptual Experiences

      Disorders of perception can be categorized into sensory distortions and sensory deceptions. Sensory distortions involve changes in the intensity, spatial form, of quality of a perception. Examples include hyperaesthesia, hyperacusis, and micropsia. Sensory deceptions, on the other hand, involve new perceptions that are not based on any external stimulus. These include illusions and hallucinations.

      Illusions are altered perceptions of a stimulus, while hallucinations are perceptions in the absence of a stimulus. Completion illusions, affect illusions, and pareidolic illusions are examples of illusions. Auditory, visual, gustatory, olfactory, and tactile hallucinations are different types of hallucinations. Pseudohallucinations are involuntary and vivid sensory experiences that are interpreted in a non-morbid way. They are different from true hallucinations in that the individual is able to recognize that the experience is an internally generated event.

      Understanding the different types of altered perceptual experiences is important in the diagnosis and treatment of various mental health conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      8.6
      Seconds
  • Question 128 - QTc prolongation is associated with which of the following metabolic changes? ...

    Correct

    • QTc prolongation is associated with which of the following metabolic changes?

      Your Answer: Hypokalaemia

      Explanation:

      Amantadine and QTc Prolongation

      Amantadine is a medication used to treat Parkinson’s disease and influenza. It has been associated with QTc prolongation, which can increase the risk of Torsades de points. Therefore, caution should be exercised when prescribing amantadine to patients with risk factors for QT prolongation. If a patient is already taking amantadine and develops a prolonged QTc interval, the medication should be discontinued and an alternative treatment considered. It is important to monitor the QTc interval in patients taking amantadine, especially those with risk factors for QT prolongation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      7.2
      Seconds
  • Question 129 - Mirror neurons provide a biological framework for comprehending what concept? ...

    Correct

    • Mirror neurons provide a biological framework for comprehending what concept?

      Your Answer: Imitation learning

      Explanation:

      Mirror Neurons: A Model for Imitation Learning

      Mirror neurons are a unique type of visuomotor neurons that were first identified in the premotor cortex of monkeys in area F5. These neurons fire not only when the monkey performs a specific action but also when it observes another individual, whether it is a monkey of a human, performing a similar action. This discovery has led to the development of a model for understanding imitation learning.

      Mirror neurons offer a fascinating insight into how humans and animals learn by imitation. They provide a neural mechanism that allows individuals to understand the actions of others and to replicate those actions themselves. This process is essential for social learning, as it enables individuals to learn from others and to adapt to their environment.

      The discovery of mirror neurons has also led to new research in the field of neuroscience, as scientists seek to understand how these neurons work and how they can be used to improve our understanding of human behavior. As we continue to learn more about mirror neurons, we may be able to develop new therapies for individuals with social and communication disorders, such as autism.

      Overall, mirror neurons are a fascinating area of research that has the potential to revolutionize our understanding of human behavior and learning. By studying these neurons, we may be able to unlock new insights into how we learn, communicate, and interact with others.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      9.7
      Seconds
  • Question 130 - You are seeing a 35-year-old male in your office. He has been referred...

    Incorrect

    • You are seeing a 35-year-old male in your office. He has been referred by his primary care physician due to symptoms of increased appetite, weight gain, excessive sleepiness, feeling physically heavy, and sensitivity to rejection. He asks you about the most effective treatments for his condition. What would be the best response to his question?

      Your Answer: Sertraline

      Correct Answer: Phenelzine

      Explanation:

      The question pertains to a classic case of atypical depression, which is best treated with phenelzine, a MAOI. While imipramine and other TCAs have some evidence for treating atypical depression, they are not as effective as MAOIs. Nowadays, SSRIs are commonly used as a first-line treatment, but they have a weaker evidence base compared to MAOIs and TCAs. Vortioxetine is a new antidepressant that has complex effects on the 5HT system, but it has not been studied for its efficacy in treating atypical depression. Similarly, venlafaxine has not been studied for this indication either.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      17.8
      Seconds
  • Question 131 - How would you describe the delusional world of a woman who seems to...

    Correct

    • How would you describe the delusional world of a woman who seems to lack any grasp of reality?

      Your Answer: Autistic

      Explanation:

      Delusional Structure

      Delusions can be categorized based on their logical consistency and organization. Logical delusions are consistent with logical thinking, while paralogical delusions are not. Delusions can also be organized, integrated into a formed concept, of unorganized. Highly organized, logical delusions are referred to as systematized.

      The relationship between delusional beliefs and reality can also be described in different ways. Polarized delusions mix fact and delusion together, while juxtaposed delusions exist side by side with facts but do not interact. Autistic delusions completely disregard actual reality, and the patient lives in a delusional world.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      8
      Seconds
  • Question 132 - What is the general occurrence of dementia among individuals aged 80 - 85?...

    Correct

    • What is the general occurrence of dementia among individuals aged 80 - 85?

      Your Answer: 13.60%

      Explanation:

      The likelihood of developing dementia significantly rises as a person gets older. In fact, approximately one-third of individuals who are 85 years of older have dementia. The prevalence of dementia doubles every five years, starting from 1.5% for those aged 65-69 and increasing to 45% for those over 95 years old. Alzheimer’s disease accounts for about two-thirds of all cases of dementia. Here is a breakdown of the prevalence of dementia by age group:

      – 65-69: 1.5%
      – 70-74: 3.5%
      – 75-79: 6.8%
      – 80-84: 13.6%
      – 85-89: 22%
      – 90-94: 32%
      – Over 95: 45%

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology
      8.7
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  • Question 133 - What is the accuracy of the dopamine hypothesis in explaining schizophrenia? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the accuracy of the dopamine hypothesis in explaining schizophrenia?

      Your Answer: Elevated presynaptic dopamine synthesis has not been demonstrated

      Correct Answer: Cannabinoid agonists have been shown in animals to increase striatal dopamine release

      Explanation:

      The Dopamine Hypothesis is a theory that suggests that dopamine and dopaminergic mechanisms are central to schizophrenia. This hypothesis was developed based on observations that antipsychotic drugs provide at least some degree of D2-type dopamine receptor blockade and that it is possible to induce a psychotic episode in healthy subjects with pharmacological dopamine agonists. The hypothesis was further strengthened by the finding that antipsychotic drugs’ clinical effectiveness was directly related to their affinity for dopamine receptors. Initially, the belief was that the problem related to an excess of dopamine in the brain. However, later studies showed that the relationship between hypofrontality and low cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) dopamine metabolite levels indicates low frontal dopamine levels. Thus, there was a move from a one-sided dopamine hypothesis explaining all facets of schizophrenia to a regionally specific prefrontal hypodopaminergia and a subcortical hyperdopaminergia. In summary, psychosis appears to result from excessive dopamine activity in the striatum, while the negative symptoms seen in schizophrenia appear to result from too little dopamine activity in the frontal lobe. Antipsychotic medications appear to help by countering the effects of increased dopamine by blocking postsynaptic D2 receptors in the striatum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      25.4
      Seconds
  • Question 134 - What is the most probable side effect of clomipramine usage? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most probable side effect of clomipramine usage?

      Your Answer: Headache

      Correct Answer: Drowsiness

      Explanation:

      Tricyclic antidepressants are known to cause various side effects, which can be attributed to their mechanisms of action. These include antimuscarinic effects, which can lead to dry mouth and urinary retention, antihistaminergic effects, which can cause weight gain and drowsiness, antiadrenergic effects, which can result in postural hypotension, sexual dysfunction, and cognitive impairment, and antiserotonergic effects, which can lead to weight gain. Additionally, tricyclic antidepressants can cause cardiotoxicity and reduce the seizure threshold due to their membrane stabilizing effects. Other important side effects of these drugs include arrhythmias and ECG changes, black tongue, tremor, altered liver function tests, paralytic ileus, and neuroleptic malignant syndrome. Black hairy tongue, a harmless condition where the tongue appears black and hairy due to elongated filiform papillae, is also a possible side effect of tricyclic antidepressants.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      58
      Seconds
  • Question 135 - Which of the following is classified as a tertiary amine? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is classified as a tertiary amine?

      Your Answer: Protriptyline

      Correct Answer: Clomipramine

      Explanation:

      Tricyclic Antidepressants: Uses, Types, and Side-Effects

      Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) are a type of medication used for depression and neuropathic pain. However, due to their side-effects and toxicity in overdose, they are not commonly used for depression anymore. TCAs can be divided into two types: first generation (tertiary amines) and second generation (secondary amines). The secondary amines have a lower side effect profile and act primarily on noradrenaline, while the tertiary amines boost serotonin and noradrenaline.

      Some examples of secondary amines include desipramine, nortriptyline, protriptyline, and amoxapine. Examples of tertiary amines include amitriptyline, lofepramine, imipramine, clomipramine, dosulepin (dothiepin), doxepin, trimipramine, and butriptyline. Common side-effects of TCAs include drowsiness, dry mouth, blurred vision, constipation, and urinary retention.

      Low-dose amitriptyline is commonly used for neuropathic pain and prophylaxis of headache. Lofepramine has a lower incidence of toxicity in overdose. However, amitriptyline and dosulepin (dothiepin) are considered the most dangerous in overdose. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider before taking any medication and to follow their instructions carefully.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      5.9
      Seconds
  • Question 136 - What assessment tool would be most suitable for determining if a 55-year-old patient...

    Incorrect

    • What assessment tool would be most suitable for determining if a 55-year-old patient with Down's syndrome is showing signs of Alzheimer's disease?

      Your Answer: CAMDEX

      Correct Answer: DLD

      Explanation:

      The CAMDEX assessment is not effective in detecting dementia in adults with learning disabilities, whose developmental ages are typically between 2 and 10 years. However, the Dementia Questionnaire for People with Learning Disabilities (DLD) is a useful tool for early detection of dementia in this population. For individuals with Down’s syndrome, an adapted version of the CAMDEX called the CAMDEX-DS can be utilized.

      Assessment of Dementia in Down’s Syndrome

      Individuals with Down’s syndrome are at a higher risk of developing Alzheimer’s disease. However, the commonly used MMSE test is not effective in assisting diagnosis in this population. Instead, two alternative tests are recommended: the Dementia Questionnaire for people with Learning Disabilities (DLD), previously known as the Dementia Questionnaire for Persons with Mental Retardation (DMR), and the Dementia Scale for Down Syndrome (DSDS). These tests are specifically designed to assess cognitive decline in individuals with Down’s syndrome and can aid in the early detection and management of dementia in this population.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychological Development
      9.5
      Seconds
  • Question 137 - Which of the following symptoms is classified as a first rank symptom? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following symptoms is classified as a first rank symptom?

      Your Answer: Delusional perception

      Explanation:

      First Rank Symptoms: Their Significance in Identifying Schizophrenia

      First rank symptoms were introduced by Kurt Schneider in 1938 as a practical tool for non-psychiatrists to identify schizophrenia. While they are highly suggestive of schizophrenia, they are not pathognomonic and can also be seen in affective and personality disorders. Additionally, there is no evidence to support their prognostic significance.

      A systematic review in 2015 found that first rank symptoms differentiated schizophrenia from nonpsychotic mental health disorders with a sensitivity of 61.8% and a specificity of 94.1%. They also differentiated schizophrenia from other types of psychosis with a sensitivity of 58% and a specificity of 74.7%.

      The first rank symptoms include running commentary, thought echo, voices heard arguing, thought insertion, thought withdrawal, thought broadcast, delusional perception, somatic passivity, made affect, and made volition. While they can be helpful in identifying schizophrenia, they should not be relied upon as the sole diagnostic criteria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      4.3
      Seconds
  • Question 138 - A 55-year-old woman presents with symptoms of short term memory loss and changes...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old woman presents with symptoms of short term memory loss and changes in behavior. As per NICE guidelines on dementia, what is the recommended method of structural imaging to rule out any other cerebral pathology?

      Your Answer: MRI scan

      Explanation:

      Medical Imaging Techniques

      There are several medical imaging techniques used to examine the organs and tissues in the body. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) uses a strong magnetic field to create detailed images of the structures in the body. It is commonly used to exclude other cerebral pathologies in dementia investigation.

      Positron emission tomography (PET) is a nuclear medicine imaging technique that uses radiation to produce three-dimensional, colour images of the functional processes within the human body. It is used to study existing conditions in the body and also how it is developing.

      Single-photon emission computed tomography (SPECT) scan with ioflupane iodine injection, also known as DAT scan, helps to identify dopamine deficiency in the brain to rule out Parkinson’s dementia and Lewy body dementia.

      Computerised tomography (CT) scan uses x-rays and a computer to create detailed images of the inside of the body. It helps to identify injuries of any growth in the different parts of the body. Although it could be used in dementia investigation, it is not the preferred modality as per NICE.

      Ultrasound uses high frequency sounds to visualise soft tissues in the body. However, it is not used for investigations of the head.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological Examination
      12.4
      Seconds
  • Question 139 - With which of the following is John Bowlby most closely associated? ...

    Incorrect

    • With which of the following is John Bowlby most closely associated?

      Your Answer: The collective unconscious

      Correct Answer: Attachment theory

      Explanation:

      Neo-Freudians were therapists who developed their own theories while still retaining core Freudian components. Some important neo-Freudians include Alfred Adler, Carl Jung, Erik Erickson, Harry Stack Sullivan, Wilfred Bion, John Bowlby, Anna Freud, Otto Kernberg, Margaret Mahler, and Donald Winnicott. Each of these individuals contributed unique ideas to the field of psychology. For example, Carl Jung introduced the concept of the persona and differentiated between the personal and collective unconscious, while Erik Erickson is known for his stages of psychosocial development. Margaret Mahler developed theories on child development, including the three main phases of autistic, symbiotic, and separation-individuation. Donald Winnicott introduced the concept of the transitional object and the good enough mother. Overall, neo-Freudians expanded upon Freud’s ideas and helped to shape modern psychotherapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      7.9
      Seconds
  • Question 140 - A client is referred with depression and is eager to begin medication. You...

    Incorrect

    • A client is referred with depression and is eager to begin medication. You find out that they have hypertension. What would be the most suitable treatment option?

      Your Answer: Selegiline

      Correct Answer: Fluoxetine

      Explanation:

      Antidepressants and Diabetes

      Depression is a prevalent condition among patients with diabetes. It is crucial to select the appropriate antidepressant as some may have negative effects on weight and glucose levels. The first-line treatment for depression in diabetic patients is selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), with fluoxetine having the most supporting data. Serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs) are also likely to be safe, but there is less evidence to support their use. Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) and monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs) should be avoided. These recommendations are based on the Maudsley Guidelines 10th Edition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      17.1
      Seconds
  • Question 141 - What substance of drug directly inhibits the dopamine transporter, resulting in elevated levels...

    Correct

    • What substance of drug directly inhibits the dopamine transporter, resulting in elevated levels of dopamine in the synaptic cleft?

      Your Answer: Cocaine

      Explanation:

      Amphetamine engages in competition with the DAT instead of obstructing it.

      Mechanisms of action for illicit drugs can be classified based on their effects on ionotropic receptors of ion channels, G coupled receptors, of monoamine transporters. Cocaine and amphetamine both increase dopamine levels in the synaptic cleft, but through different mechanisms. Cocaine directly blocks the dopamine transporter, while amphetamine binds to the transporter and increases dopamine efflux through various mechanisms, including inhibition of vesicular monoamine transporter 2 and monoamine oxidase, and stimulation of the intracellular receptor TAAR1. These mechanisms result in increased dopamine levels in the synaptic cleft and reuptake inhibition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      10.9
      Seconds
  • Question 142 - What is the synonym for consequentialism? ...

    Correct

    • What is the synonym for consequentialism?

      Your Answer: Teleology

      Explanation:

      Teleology, derived from the Greek words for goal and theory, is a moral philosophy that emphasizes the outcomes of actions as the initial consideration in evaluating ethical behavior. This category of theories is also known as consequentialism, as it focuses on the consequences of an action as the basis for determining its morality. Consequentialism evaluates the morality of an action based on the balance of its positive and negative outcomes. Utilitarianism of social consequentialism is the most prevalent form of consequentialism, although it is not the only one.

      Ethical theory and principles are important in medical ethics. There are three key ethical theories that have dominated medical ethics: utilitarianism, deontological, and virtue-based. Utilitarianism is based on the greatest good for the greatest number and is a consequentialist theory. Deontological ethics emphasize moral duties and rules, rather than consequences. Virtue ethics is based on the ethical characteristics of a person and is associated with the concept of a good, happy, flourishing life.

      More recent frameworks have attempted to reconcile different theories and values. The ‘four principles’ of ‘principlism’ approach, developed in the United States, is based on four common, basic prima facie moral commitments: autonomy, beneficence, non-maleficence, and justice. Autonomy refers to a patient’s right to make their own decisions, beneficence refers to the expectation that a doctor will act in a way that will be helpful to the patient, non-maleficence refers to the fact that doctors should avoid harming their patients, and justice refers to the expectation that all people should be treated fairly and equally.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      4.1
      Seconds
  • Question 143 - A 70-year-old patient is admitted to a medical ward with fulminant hepatic failure....

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old patient is admitted to a medical ward with fulminant hepatic failure. The admitting team observe the patient displaying a tremor, sunflower cataracts, difficulty speaking, and personality change. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Wilson's disease

      Explanation:

      Understanding Wilson’s Disease: Causes, Symptoms, and Management

      Wilson’s disease, also known as hepatolenticular degeneration, is a genetic disorder that affects copper storage in the body. This condition is caused by a defect in the ATP7B gene, which leads to the accumulation of copper in the liver and brain. The onset of symptoms usually occurs between the ages of 10 and 25, with liver disease being the most common presentation in children and neurological symptoms in young adults.

      The excessive deposition of copper in the tissues can cause a range of symptoms, including hepatitis, cirrhosis, basal ganglia degeneration, speech and behavioral problems, asterixis, chorea, dementia, Kayser-Fleischer rings, sunflower cataract, renal tubular acidosis, haemolysis, and blue nails. Diagnosis is based on reduced serum ceruloplasmin, reduced serum copper, and increased 24-hour urinary copper excretion.

      The traditional first-line treatment for Wilson’s disease is penicillamine, which chelates copper. Trientine hydrochloride is an alternative chelating agent that may become first-line treatment in the future. Tetrathiomolybdate is a newer agent that is currently under investigation.

      In summary, Wilson’s disease is a genetic disorder that affects copper storage in the body, leading to a range of symptoms that can affect the liver, brain, and eyes. Early diagnosis and treatment are essential to prevent complications and improve outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      8.7
      Seconds
  • Question 144 - Cognitive dissonance pertains to data that causes conflicting thoughts of beliefs. ...

    Correct

    • Cognitive dissonance pertains to data that causes conflicting thoughts of beliefs.

      Your Answer: Contradictory to an individual's beliefs

      Explanation:

      Cognitive Dissonance is a term used to describe the uncomfortable feeling that arises when there is a conflict between an individual’s attitudes, beliefs, of behaviors. This feeling can lead to a change in behavior of beliefs. The theory of cognitive dissonance suggests that people have an inner drive to maintain cognitive consistency and avoid dissonance. This drive can result in irrational of maladaptive behaviors. Dissonance can be reduced by changing attitudes, behaviors, of beliefs, acquiring new information, of reducing the importance of the cognitions. Overall, cognitive dissonance plays a significant role in shaping human behavior and decision-making.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      6.5
      Seconds
  • Question 145 - What is a true statement about Anton-Babinski syndrome? ...

    Correct

    • What is a true statement about Anton-Babinski syndrome?

      Your Answer: Confabulation is a characteristic feature

      Explanation:

      Anton’s syndrome, also known as Anton-Babinski syndrome, is a condition that results from damage to the occipital lobe. People with this syndrome are cortically blind, but they are not aware of it and deny having any problem, a condition known as anosognosia. They may start falling over furniture as they cannot see, but they believe they can still see and describe their surroundings in detail, even though their descriptions are incorrect (confabulation). This syndrome is characterized by a lack of awareness of visual impairment, which can lead to significant difficulties in daily life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      14.5
      Seconds
  • Question 146 - What is one of the five major personality traits? ...

    Correct

    • What is one of the five major personality traits?

      Your Answer: Neuroticism

      Explanation:

      The Big Five Personality Traits, also known as OCEAN, are five broad categories that can be used to describe an individual’s personality. These categories include Openness to Experience, Conscientiousness, Extraversion (also known as Surgency), Agreeableness, and Neuroticism (also known as Emotional Stability). Each of these traits can be further broken down into specific characteristics that help to define an individual’s personality. For example, Openness to Experience includes traits such as imagination, creativity, and a willingness to try new things. Conscientiousness includes traits such as organization, responsibility, and dependability. Extraversion includes traits such as sociability, assertiveness, and energy level. Agreeableness includes traits such as kindness, empathy, and cooperation. Finally, Neuroticism includes traits such as anxiety, moodiness, and emotional instability. Understanding these personality traits can be helpful in a variety of settings, such as in the workplace of in personal relationships.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      4.6
      Seconds
  • Question 147 - What is the accurate statement regarding the pharmacokinetics of medications used in geriatric...

    Correct

    • What is the accurate statement regarding the pharmacokinetics of medications used in geriatric patients with mental health conditions?

      Your Answer: In first order kinetics, the rate of elimination is proportional to drug concentration

      Explanation:

      Elimination kinetics refers to the process by which drugs are removed from the body. In first order kinetics, the rate of elimination is directly proportional to the plasma concentration of the drug. This is because clearance mechanisms, such as enzymes, are typically not saturated and drug clearance is observed to be a linear function of the drug’s concentration. A constant fraction of drug is eliminated per unit time.

      The half-life of a drug is the time it takes for the plasma concentration to decrease by half. The rate of elimination is influenced by factors such as renal and hepatic function, as well as drug interactions.

      Drug distribution is influenced by factors such as plasma protein binding, tissue perfusion, permeability of tissue membranes, and active transport out of tissues. The volume of distribution is a measure of the extent to which a drug is distributed throughout the body. It is calculated as the quantity of drug administered divided by the plasma concentration.

      Drugs that are highly bound to plasma proteins can displace each other, leading to an increase in the free plasma concentration. This can result in increased drug effects of toxicity.

      In some cases, a loading dose may be necessary to achieve therapeutic levels of a drug more quickly. This is particularly true for drugs with a long half-life, as it can take a longer time for the plasma levels of these drugs to reach a steady state. An initial loading dose can help to shorten the time to reach steady state levels.

      Overall, understanding elimination kinetics is important for optimizing drug dosing and minimizing the risk of adverse effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      6.7
      Seconds
  • Question 148 - Which of the options below does not belong to the group of neo-Freudians?...

    Correct

    • Which of the options below does not belong to the group of neo-Freudians?

      Your Answer: Burrhus Skinner

      Explanation:

      B.F. Skinner, a prominent figure in the field of psychology, is renowned for his contributions to the theory of reinforcement within the behaviourist perspective.

      Neo-Freudians were therapists who developed their own theories while still retaining core Freudian components. Some important neo-Freudians include Alfred Adler, Carl Jung, Erik Erickson, Harry Stack Sullivan, Wilfred Bion, John Bowlby, Anna Freud, Otto Kernberg, Margaret Mahler, and Donald Winnicott. Each of these individuals contributed unique ideas to the field of psychology. For example, Carl Jung introduced the concept of the persona and differentiated between the personal and collective unconscious, while Erik Erickson is known for his stages of psychosocial development. Margaret Mahler developed theories on child development, including the three main phases of autistic, symbiotic, and separation-individuation. Donald Winnicott introduced the concept of the transitional object and the good enough mother. Overall, neo-Freudians expanded upon Freud’s ideas and helped to shape modern psychotherapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      8.3
      Seconds
  • Question 149 - Which of the following is the best example of a leading question? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is the best example of a leading question?

      Your Answer: So, when you took the overdose you didn't want to die, did you?

      Explanation:

      Techniques for Conducting Effective Interviews: Avoiding Leading Questions

      One technique to avoid when conducting interviews is the use of leading questions. These are questions that suggest a particular answer of response, and can result in inaccurate of biased information. Instead, interviewers should strive to ask open-ended questions that allow the respondent to provide their own thoughts and opinions. By avoiding leading questions, interviewers can gather more reliable and unbiased information from their subjects. Additionally, interviewers should be mindful of their tone and body language, as these can also influence the responses they receive. Overall, effective interviewing requires careful preparation and a focus on creating a comfortable and open environment for the respondent.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      8.1
      Seconds
  • Question 150 - What is a characteristic of typical grief? ...

    Correct

    • What is a characteristic of typical grief?

      Your Answer: Anger towards the deceased

      Explanation:

      Understanding Grief: Normal and Abnormal Phases

      Grief is a natural response to loss, and it is a complex process that can take different forms and durations. John Bowlby and Kubler-Ross have proposed models to describe the typical phases of grief, which can vary in intensity and duration for each individual. Bowlby’s model includes shock-numbness, yearning-searching, disorganization-despair, and reorganization, while Kubler-Ross’s model includes denial-dissociation-isolation, anger, bargaining, depression, and acceptance.

      However, some people may experience abnormal grief, which can be categorized as inhibited, delayed, of chronic/prolonged. Inhibited grief refers to the absence of expected grief symptoms at any stage, while delayed grief involves avoiding painful symptoms within two weeks of loss. Chronic/prolonged grief is characterized by continued significant grief-related symptoms six months after loss.

      It is important to distinguish between normal grief and major depression, as a high proportion of people may meet the criteria for major depression in the first year following bereavement. Some features that can help differentiate between the two include generalized guilt, thoughts of death unrelated to the deceased, feelings of worthlessness, psychomotor retardation, and prolonged functional impairment.

      Overall, understanding the phases and types of grief can help individuals and their loved ones navigate the grieving process and seek appropriate support and resources.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      7.7
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  • Question 151 - A woman has a particular song that reminds her of an old boyfriend...

    Incorrect

    • A woman has a particular song that reminds her of an old boyfriend that broke up with her. Every time it is played she feels a deep sense of sadness. A classmate in her school often sings the song and the woman eventually finds herself feeling sad when she sees this classmate even when he no longer sings the song. This is an example of which of the following?

      Your Answer: Stimulus generalisation

      Correct Answer: Higher order conditioning

      Explanation:

      The original response is elicited by the song, which serves as the conditioned stimulus. Through higher order conditioning, the colleague becomes associated with the song and also elicits the original response.
      When a response conditioned to a specific stimulus occurs in response to other stimuli that are similar to the original stimulus, this is known as stimulus generalisation. For instance, if someone experiences fear after being stung by a bee (CS), they may also feel fearful towards other small flying insects due to their similarity to the conditioned stimulus.
      In the given scenario, the colleague is dissimilar to the song and therefore cannot be considered as a similar stimulus. Hence, higher order conditioning is the appropriate term to describe the process.

      Classical Conditioning: A Learning Theory by Ivan Pavlov

      Classical conditioning is a learning theory developed by Ivan Pavlov. It suggests that events that occur together are associated and acquire a similar meaning. Unlike operant conditioning, which focuses on responses to behavior, classical conditioning looks at responses to stimuli. In classical conditioning, animals behave as if they have learned to associate a stimulus with a significant event. Pavlov demonstrated that innate responses, such as a dog salivating when it sees food, can be associated with a neutral stimulus, such as ringing a bell, so that ringing the bell can cause salivation even in the absence of food.

      Important terms used in classical conditioning include stimulus generalization and discrimination, higher order conditioning, spontaneous recovery, and aversive conditioning. Extinction is the laboratory analogue of exposure therapy for anxiety disorders, while Counterconditioning involves pairing a feared conditioned stimulus with a positive outcome. Incubation occurs in fear responses, and reciprocal inhibition is a technique that aims to replace an undesired response with a desired one by counterconditioning. Some stimuli are more prone to conditioning than others, which is referred to as stimulus/biological preparedness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      11.8
      Seconds
  • Question 152 - Which medication should be avoided by patients who are taking phenelzine? ...

    Correct

    • Which medication should be avoided by patients who are taking phenelzine?

      Your Answer: Broad bean pods

      Explanation:

      There is conflicting information regarding whether people should avoid only the pods of broad beans of both the beans and their pods.

      MAOIs: A Guide to Mechanism of Action, Adverse Effects, and Dietary Restrictions

      First introduced in the 1950s, MAOIs were the first antidepressants introduced. However, they are not the first choice in treating mental health disorders due to several dietary restrictions and safety concerns. They are only a treatment option when all other medications are unsuccessful. MAOIs may be particularly useful in atypical depression (over eating / over sleeping, mood reactivity).

      MAOIs block the monoamine oxidase enzyme, which breaks down different types of neurotransmitters from the brain: norepinephrine, serotonin, dopamine, as well as tyramine. There are two types of monoamine oxidase, A and B. The MOA A are mostly distributed in the placenta, gut, and liver, but MOA B is present in the brain, liver, and platelets. Selegiline and rasagiline are irreversible and selective inhibitors of MAO type B, but safinamide is a reversible and selective MAO B inhibitor.

      The most common adverse effects of MAOIs occurring early in treatment are orthostatic hypotension, daytime sleepiness, insomnia, and nausea; later common effects include weight gain, muscle pain, myoclonus, paraesthesia, and sexual dysfunction.

      Pharmacodynamic interactions with MAOIs can cause two types of problem: serotonin syndrome (mainly due to SSRIs) and elevated blood pressure (caused by indirectly acting sympathomimetic amines releasers, like pseudoephedrine and phenylephrine). The combination of MAOIs and some TCAs appears safe. Only those TCAs with significant serotonin reuptake inhibition (clomipramine and imipramine) are likely to increase the risk of serotonin syndrome.

      Tyramine is a monoamine found in various foods, and is an indirect sympathomimetic that can cause a hypertensive reaction in patients receiving MAOI therapy. For this reason, dietary restrictions are required for patients receiving MAOIs. These restrictions include avoiding matured/aged cheese, fermented sausage, improperly stored meat, fava of broad bean pods, and certain drinks such as on-tap beer. Allowed foods include fresh cottage cheese, processed cheese slices, fresh packaged of processed meat, and other alcohol (no more than two bottled or canned beers of two standard glasses of wine, per day).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      6.9
      Seconds
  • Question 153 - From which substance is melatonin produced? ...

    Correct

    • From which substance is melatonin produced?

      Your Answer: Serotonin

      Explanation:

      Melatonin: The Hormone of Darkness

      Melatonin is a hormone that is produced in the pineal gland from serotonin. This hormone is known to be released in higher amounts during the night, especially in dark environments. Melatonin plays a crucial role in regulating the sleep-wake cycle and is often referred to as the hormone of darkness.

      The production of melatonin is influenced by the amount of light that enters the eyes. When it is dark, the pineal gland releases more melatonin, which helps to promote sleep. On the other hand, when it is light, the production of melatonin is suppressed, which helps to keep us awake and alert.

      Melatonin is also known to have antioxidant properties and may help to protect the body against oxidative stress. It has been suggested that melatonin may have a role in the prevention of certain diseases, such as cancer and neurodegenerative disorders.

      Overall, melatonin is an important hormone that plays a crucial role in regulating our sleep-wake cycle and may have other health benefits as well.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
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  • Question 154 - A concerned parent of a 25-year-old daughter with schizophrenia wants to know what...

    Correct

    • A concerned parent of a 25-year-old daughter with schizophrenia wants to know what the biggest challenge is for individuals living with this condition and how it affects their overall quality of life.

      Your Answer: People with schizophrenia live with the stigma of the illness and are often seen as dangerous by society

      Explanation:

      Norman Sartorius highlights the iatrogenic stigma of mental illness as the main obstacle to a better life for those suffering from mental disorders. NICE guidelines on schizophrenia also acknowledge the stigma associated with the condition, which is often seen as dangerous and best dealt with away from society. However, research has shown that the fear of violence arising from people with schizophrenia is misplaced. Other factors that may contribute to feelings of exclusion and isolation include compulsory treatment under mental health legislation, medication side effects, and less careful use of diagnostic labels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Stigma And Culture
      14.8
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  • Question 155 - Which process breaks down dopamine? ...

    Correct

    • Which process breaks down dopamine?

      Your Answer: COMT and both forms of MAO

      Explanation:

      COMT and both types of MAO are responsible for the metabolism of dopamine.

      Neurotransmitters are substances used by neurons to communicate with each other and with target tissues. They are synthesized and released from nerve endings into the synaptic cleft, where they bind to receptor proteins in the cellular membrane of the target tissue. Neurotransmitters can be classified into different types, including small molecules (such as acetylcholine, dopamine, norepinephrine, serotonin, and GABA) and large molecules (such as neuropeptides). They can also be classified as excitatory or inhibitory. Receptors can be ionotropic or metabotropic, and the effects of neurotransmitters can be fast of slow. Some important neurotransmitters include acetylcholine, dopamine, GABA, norepinephrine, and serotonin. Each neurotransmitter has a specific synthesis, breakdown, and receptor type. Understanding neurotransmitters is important for understanding the function of the nervous system and for developing treatments for neurological and psychiatric disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      4.4
      Seconds
  • Question 156 - What is a type of hypnotic medication that is not classified as a...

    Correct

    • What is a type of hypnotic medication that is not classified as a benzodiazepine?

      Your Answer: Zaleplon

      Explanation:

      Hypnotic Drugs and Their Side Effects

      Hypnotic drugs are medications that act on GABA receptors, specifically the BZ1, BZ2, and BZ3 receptors. The BZ1 receptor is responsible for sedative effects, while the BZ2 receptor is responsible for myorelaxant and anticonvulsant effects. The BZ3 receptor is responsible for anxiolytic effects.

      Older benzodiazepines bind to all three types of receptors, while newer drugs like Z-drugs primarily bind to the BZ1 receptor. Zopiclone is a cyclopyrrolone drug that was marketed as a non-benzodiazepine sleep aid, but it can produce hangover effects and dependence. It is contraindicated in patients with marked neuromuscular respiratory weakness, respiratory failure, and severe sleep apnea syndrome. Zopiclone can cause alterations in EEG readings and sleep architecture similar to benzodiazepines. It should not be used by breastfeeding women as it passes through to the milk in high quantities. Side effects of zopiclone include metallic taste, heartburn, and lightening of sleep on withdrawal.

      Zolpidem is another hypnotic drug that acts on the BZ1 receptor. Side effects of zolpidem include drowsiness, fatigue, depression, falls, and amnesia. It is important to be aware of the potential side effects of hypnotic drugs and to use them only as directed by a healthcare provider.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      8.1
      Seconds
  • Question 157 - How many levels did Maslow's original model of needs include? ...

    Correct

    • How many levels did Maslow's original model of needs include?

      Your Answer: 5

      Explanation:

      Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs is a theory of motivation introduced by Abraham Maslow. The hierarchy consists of five levels, with the most basic needs at the bottom and the most advanced needs at the top. Maslow proposed that a person would only become concerned with the needs of a particular level when all the needs of the lower levels had been satisfied. The levels include physiological needs, safety needs, social needs, esteem needs, and self-actualization needs. Maslow also made a distinction between D-needs (deficiency needs) and B-needs (being needs), with B-needs allowing us to reach our full potential but only after D-needs have been satisfied. Later in life, Maslow expanded upon the model and included cognitive, aesthetic, and transcendence needs, resulting in an eight-staged model. The cognitive needs include knowledge and understanding, while aesthetic needs involve appreciation and search for beauty. Transcendence needs are motivated by values that transcend beyond the personal self.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      4.7
      Seconds
  • Question 158 - Under which category of memory is priming classified? ...

    Incorrect

    • Under which category of memory is priming classified?

      Your Answer: Semantic memory

      Correct Answer: Nondeclarative memory

      Explanation:

      Memory Forms

      Memory is the ability to store, retain, and retrieve information. There are different forms of memory, including sensory memory, short-term/working memory, and long-term memory.

      Sensory memory is the capacity for briefly retaining the large amounts of information that people encounter daily. It includes echoic memory (gathered through auditory stimuli), iconic memory (gathered through sight), and haptic memory (acquired through touch).

      Short-term memory is the ability to keep a small amount of information available for a short period of time. Atkinson and Shiffrin’s multistore model (1968) suggests the existence of a short-term storehouse with limited capacity. Baddeley and Hitch (1974) further developed the concept of short-term memory, which eventually became known as Baddeley’s multi-storehouse model (2000). This model includes the central executive, visuospatial sketchpad, phonological buffer/loop, and episodic buffer.

      Long-term memory includes declarative (of explicit) memories, which can be consciously retrieved, and nondeclarative (of implicit) memories, which cannot. Declarative memory includes episodic memory (stores personal experiences) and semantic memory (stores information about facts and concepts). Non-declarative memory includes procedural memory (recalls motor and executive skills), associative memory (storage and retrieval of information through association with other information), and non-associative memory (refers to newly learned behavior through repeated exposure to an isolated stimulus).

      Overall, memory is a complex and essential cognitive function that plays a crucial role in learning, reasoning, and understanding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      12.8
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  • Question 159 - Who wrote the first book on medical ethics? ...

    Correct

    • Who wrote the first book on medical ethics?

      Your Answer: Ishaq bin Ali Rahawi

      Explanation:

      Ishaq bin Ali Rahawi tackled ethical concerns in the field of medicine in his work, Adab al-Tabib (Conduct of a Physician), during the 9th century.

      Ethical theory and principles are important in medical ethics. There are three key ethical theories that have dominated medical ethics: utilitarianism, deontological, and virtue-based. Utilitarianism is based on the greatest good for the greatest number and is a consequentialist theory. Deontological ethics emphasize moral duties and rules, rather than consequences. Virtue ethics is based on the ethical characteristics of a person and is associated with the concept of a good, happy, flourishing life.

      More recent frameworks have attempted to reconcile different theories and values. The ‘four principles’ of ‘principlism’ approach, developed in the United States, is based on four common, basic prima facie moral commitments: autonomy, beneficence, non-maleficence, and justice. Autonomy refers to a patient’s right to make their own decisions, beneficence refers to the expectation that a doctor will act in a way that will be helpful to the patient, non-maleficence refers to the fact that doctors should avoid harming their patients, and justice refers to the expectation that all people should be treated fairly and equally.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      2.9
      Seconds
  • Question 160 - What is a known outcome of using lithium for an extended period of...

    Correct

    • What is a known outcome of using lithium for an extended period of time?

      Your Answer: Hypothyroidism

      Explanation:

      Lithium – Pharmacology

      Pharmacokinetics:
      Lithium salts are rapidly absorbed following oral administration and are almost exclusively excreted by the kidneys unchanged. Blood samples for lithium should be taken 12 hours post-dose.

      Ebstein’s:
      Ebstein’s anomaly is a congenital malformation consisting of a prolapse of the tricuspid valve into the right ventricle. It occurs in 1:20,000 of the general population. Initial data suggested it was more common in those using lithium but this had not held to be true.

      Contraindications:
      Addison’s disease, Brugada syndrome, cardiac disease associated with rhythm disorders, clinically significant renal impairment, untreated of untreatable hypothyroidism, low sodium levels.

      Side-effects:
      Common side effects include nausea, tremor, polyuria/polydipsia, rash/dermatitis, blurred vision, dizziness, decreased appetite, drowsiness, metallic taste, and diarrhea. Side-effects are often dose-related.

      Long-term use is associated with hypothyroidism, hyperthyroidism, hypercalcemia/hyperparathyroidism, irreversible nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, and reduced GFR.

      Lithium-induced diabetes insipidus:
      Treatment options include stopping lithium (if feasible), keeping levels within 0.4-0.8 mmol/L, once-daily dose of the drug taken at bedtime, amiloride, thiazide diuretics, indomethacin, and desmopressin.

      Toxicity:
      Lithium salts have a narrow therapeutic/toxic ratio. Risk factors for lithium toxicity include drugs altering renal function, decreased circulating volume, infections, fever, decreased oral intake of water, renal insufficiency, and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Features of lithium toxicity include GI symptoms and neuro symptoms.

      Pre-prescribing:
      Before prescribing lithium, renal function, cardiac function, thyroid function, FBC, and BMI should be checked. Women of childbearing age should be advised regarding contraception, and information about toxicity should be provided.

      Monitoring:
      Lithium blood levels should be checked weekly until stable, and then every 3-6 months once stable. Thyroid and renal function should be checked every 6 months. Patients should be issued with an information booklet, alert card, and record book.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      6.3
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  • Question 161 - A young girl who has had herpes encephalitis develops a severe carbohydrate craving...

    Correct

    • A young girl who has had herpes encephalitis develops a severe carbohydrate craving and weight gain. What would be your suspicion?

      Your Answer: Klüver-Bucy syndrome

      Explanation:

      Kluver-Bucy Syndrome: Causes and Symptoms

      Kluver-Bucy syndrome is a neurological disorder that results from bilateral medial temporal lobe dysfunction, particularly in the amygdala. This condition is characterized by a range of symptoms, including hyperorality (a tendency to explore objects with the mouth), hypersexuality, docility, visual agnosia, and dietary changes.

      The most common causes of Kluver-Bucy syndrome include herpes, late-stage Alzheimer’s disease, frontotemporal dementia, trauma, and bilateral temporal lobe infarction. In some cases, the condition may be reversible with treatment, but in others, it may be permanent and require ongoing management. If you of someone you know is experiencing symptoms of Kluver-Bucy syndrome, it is important to seek medical attention promptly to determine the underlying cause and develop an appropriate treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      8.3
      Seconds
  • Question 162 - Which of the following accurately defines a pseudohallucination? Please rephrase the question slightly...

    Correct

    • Which of the following accurately defines a pseudohallucination? Please rephrase the question slightly and maintain the paragraph spacing.

      Your Answer: A hallucination without the quality of a normal percept

      Explanation:

      Pseudohallucinations are often distinguished from true hallucinations by their lack of a genuine perceptual quality, although this distinction can be challenging to apply in practice. True hallucinations can be induced by illicit drug use. extracampine hallucinations, which are typically visual and occur outside of the normal sensory field, are considered true hallucinations. Pseudohallucinations are not exclusive to schizophrenia and can manifest in various sensory modalities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Descriptive Psychopathology
      22.3
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  • Question 163 - Which statement accurately describes the FAST questionnaire for alcohol misuse? ...

    Correct

    • Which statement accurately describes the FAST questionnaire for alcohol misuse?

      Your Answer: May be stopped after first question depending on the answer

      Explanation:

      Alcohol screening tools are available to assist in the diagnosis of alcohol problems. One such tool is the AUDIT (Alcohol Use Disorders Identification Test), which consists of 10 questions and covers harmful use, hazardous use, and dependence. Another tool is the FAST (Fast Alcohol Screening Test), which has just 4 questions and was developed for use in a busy medical setting. The CAGE is a well-known 4 question screening tool, but recent research has questioned its value. Other tools include SASQ (Single alcohol screening questionnaire), PAT (Paddington Alcohol Test), MAST (Michigan Alcoholism Screening Test), and RAPS4 (Rapid Alcohol Problem Screen 4). These tools can help identify hazardous of harmful alcohol consumption and alcohol dependence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      6.7
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  • Question 164 - Which scientist's work is most closely linked to Lorenz's theory of aggression? ...

    Correct

    • Which scientist's work is most closely linked to Lorenz's theory of aggression?

      Your Answer: Darwin

      Explanation:

      Theories of aggression can be categorized into three main perspectives: psychodynamic, sociological/drive, and cognitive and learning. Psychodynamic theory, proposed by Freud, suggests that aggression arises from a primary instinct called thanatos, which aims for destruction and death. Sociobiological/drive theory, proposed by Lorenz, suggests that aggression is instinctual and necessary for survival, and that stronger genes are selected through aggression. Cognitive and learning theory, proposed by Berkowitz, Rotter, Bandura, and Anderson, suggests that aggression can be learned through observational learning and is influenced by environmental factors. Bandura’s work introduced the concept of reciprocal determinism, which suggests that behavior is influenced by both the environment and the individual’s behavior. Rotter’s social learning theory emphasizes the interaction between the individual and their environment, while Anderson and Bushman’s general aggression model considers the role of social, cognitive, developmental, and biological factors on aggression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      5.6
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  • Question 165 - The most probable diagnosis for a diabetic patient who has started taking antidepressants...

    Correct

    • The most probable diagnosis for a diabetic patient who has started taking antidepressants and presents with symptoms of nausea, headaches, and low plasma sodium levels is:

      Your Answer: SIADH

      Explanation:

      Hyponatremia in Psychiatric Patients

      Hyponatremia, of low serum sodium, can occur in psychiatric patients due to the disorder itself, its treatment, of other medical conditions. Symptoms include nausea, confusion, seizures, and muscular cramps. Drug-induced hyponatremia is known as the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone hypersecretion (SIADH), which results from excessive secretion of ADH and fluid overload. Diagnosis is based on clinically euvolaemic state with low serum sodium and osmolality, raised urine sodium and osmolality. SSRIs, SNRIs, and tricyclics are the most common drugs that can cause SIADH. Risk factors for SIADH include starting a new drug, and treatment usually involves fluid restriction and sometimes demeclocycline.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      32.8
      Seconds
  • Question 166 - If two adults with an autosomal recessive condition have a child, what is...

    Incorrect

    • If two adults with an autosomal recessive condition have a child, what is the likelihood that the child will also have of develop the condition?

      Your Answer: 25%

      Correct Answer: 100%

      Explanation:

      Mendelian Inheritance (Pedigrees)

      Mendelian inheritance refers to the transmission patterns of genetic conditions caused by a mutation in a single gene. There are four types of Mendelian inheritance patterns: autosomal dominant, autosomal recessive, X-linked recessive, and X-linked dominant. Each pattern follows a predictable inheritance pattern within families.

      Autosomal dominant conditions are expressed in individuals who have just one copy of the mutant allele. Affected males and females have an equal probability of passing on the trait to offspring. In contrast, autosomal recessive conditions are clinically manifest only when an individual has two copies of the mutant allele. X-linked recessive traits are fully evident in males because they only have one copy of the X chromosome, while women are rarely affected by X-linked recessive diseases. X-linked dominant disorders are clinically manifest when only one copy of the mutant allele is present.

      Common examples of conditions with specific inheritance patterns include neurofibromatosis type 1 and 2, tuberous sclerosis, achondroplasia, Huntington disease, Noonan’s syndrome for autosomal dominant; phenylketonuria, homocystinuria, Hurler’s syndrome, galactosaemia, Tay-Sach’s disease, Friedreich’s ataxia, Wilson’s disease, cystic fibrosis for autosomal recessive; vitamin D resistant rickets, Rett syndrome for X-linked dominant; and cerebellar ataxia, Hunter’s syndrome, Lesch-Nyhan for X-linked recessive.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
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  • Question 167 - What factor is most likely to cause delirium in an elderly patient when...

    Correct

    • What factor is most likely to cause delirium in an elderly patient when administered?

      Your Answer: Diphenhydramine

      Explanation:

      Due to their increased vulnerability to anticholinergic side effects, elderly individuals are at a higher risk of experiencing delirium. The first generation of H1 antihistamines, which have a greater tendency for anticholinergic side effects, are more likely to trigger delirium in the elderly. Benadryl, an over-the-counter medication in the UK used to treat hay fever, contains diphenhydramine as its active ingredient.

      Antihistamines: Types and Uses

      Antihistamines are drugs that block the effects of histamine, a neurotransmitter that regulates physiological function in the gut and potentiates the inflammatory and immune responses of the body. There are two types of antihistamines: H1 receptor blockers and H2 receptor blockers. H1 blockers are mainly used for allergic conditions and sedation, while H2 blockers are used for excess stomach acid.

      There are also first and second generation antihistamines. First generation antihistamines, such as diphenhydramine and promethazine, have uses in psychiatry due to their ability to cross the blood brain barrier and their anticholinergic properties. They tend to be sedating and are useful for managing extrapyramidal side effects. Second generation antihistamines, such as loratadine and cetirizine, show limited penetration of the blood brain barrier and are less sedating.

      It is important to note that there are contraindications to first-generation antihistamines, including benign prostatic hyperplasia, angle-closure glaucoma, and pyloric stenosis in infants. These do not apply to second-generation antihistamines.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      11.1
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  • Question 168 - You are conducting individual dynamic psychotherapy with a 28-year-old female patient. During a...

    Correct

    • You are conducting individual dynamic psychotherapy with a 28-year-old female patient. During a session, she reveals that when she feels overwhelmed by her mother's constant criticism, she cleans her entire apartment from top to bottom. What defence mechanism is being employed in this situation?

      Your Answer: Sublimation

      Explanation:

      Sublimation is a type of psychodynamic defence mechanism that involves directing unacceptable emotions into more acceptable outlets. In this case, going for a run is a positive way for the patient to cope with the emotions brought about by thinking about their abuser. The other answer options are also types of psychodynamic defence mechanisms described by Sigmund and Anna Freud, but they are considered less healthy ways of coping.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dynamic Psychopathology
      14.5
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  • Question 169 - What is the heuristic that best explains a junior psychiatrist's misdiagnosis of a...

    Correct

    • What is the heuristic that best explains a junior psychiatrist's misdiagnosis of a simple case of depression as a rare mental health condition they recently read about?

      Your Answer: Availability

      Explanation:

      Heuristics: Cognitive Shortcuts that can Lead to Diagnostic Errors

      In the 1970s, Tversky and Kahneman proposed that humans use cognitive heuristics, of mental shortcuts, to simplify complex decision-making processes. However, these heuristics can also lead to systematic errors. One such heuristic is the representativeness bias, where individuals judge the likelihood of an event based on how closely it resembles a stereotype. For example, a person described as shy and detail-oriented may be more likely to be perceived as a librarian than a farmer.

      Another heuristic is the availability bias, where individuals favor recent and readily available information over more accurate but less accessible information. This can lead to overestimating the frequency of certain events, such as violent crime. The anchoring-and-adjustment bias occurs when individuals lock onto salient features in a patient’s initial presentation and fail to adjust their impression in light of new information.

      The framing effect is another bias where individuals react differently to a choice depending on how the information is presented. For example, a pharmaceutical company may present a drug as having a 95% cure rate, making it seem superior to a drug with a 2.5% failure rate. Base rate neglect occurs when individuals ignore underlying incident rates of population-based knowledge, leading to unnecessary testing of treatment.

      Confirmation bias is a tendency to interpret information to fit preconceived diagnoses, rather than considering alternative explanations. The conjunction rule is the incorrect belief that the probability of multiple events being true is greater than a single event. Finally, diagnostic momentum occurs when clinicians continue a course of action initiated by previous clinicians without considering new information.

      Overall, while heuristics can be useful in simplifying complex decision-making processes, they can also lead to diagnostic errors if not used appropriately. It is important for clinicians to be aware of these biases and actively work to avoid them in their practice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 170 - Which topic is associated with the Tarasoff case? ...

    Correct

    • Which topic is associated with the Tarasoff case?

      Your Answer: Confidentiality

      Explanation:

      Tarasoff Case: Mental Health Professionals’ Duty to Protect

      The Tarasoff case was brought before the Supreme Court of California, which ruled that mental health professionals have a responsibility to safeguard individuals who are at risk of physical harm from a patient. This decision has significant implications for the issue of confidentiality in mental health treatment. The court’s ruling establishes that the duty to protect supersedes the duty to maintain confidentiality in situations where a patient poses a threat to others. This case highlights the importance of mental health professionals’ obligation to balance their ethical responsibilities with the safety of their patients and the public.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      4.6
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  • Question 171 - What is the most frequently occurring genetic mutation in individuals with early onset...

    Correct

    • What is the most frequently occurring genetic mutation in individuals with early onset familial Alzheimer's disease?

      Your Answer: PSEN1

      Explanation:

      Genetics plays a role in the development of Alzheimer’s disease, with different genes being associated with early onset and late onset cases. Early onset Alzheimer’s, which is rare, is linked to three genes: amyloid precursor protein (APP), presenilin one (PSEN-1), and presenilin two (PSEN-2). The APP gene, located on chromosome 21, produces a protein that is a precursor to amyloid. The presenilins are enzymes that cleave APP to produce amyloid beta fragments, and alterations in the ratios of these fragments can lead to plaque formation. Late onset Alzheimer’s is associated with the apolipoprotein E (APOE) gene on chromosome 19, with the E4 variant increasing the risk of developing the disease. People with Down’s syndrome are also at high risk of developing Alzheimer’s due to inheriting an extra copy of the APP gene.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      3.7
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  • Question 172 - What proportion of individuals who experience suicidal thoughts progress to making a plan...

    Correct

    • What proportion of individuals who experience suicidal thoughts progress to making a plan and attempting suicide within the initial year of onset?

      Your Answer: 60%

      Explanation:

      In a survey conducted by Nock et al.1, which involved interviewing more than 80,000 individuals across 17 countries regarding suicidal behaviors, it was discovered that 60% of individuals who transitioned from suicidal ideation to planning and attempting suicide did so within the first year of experiencing ideation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology
      6.7
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  • Question 173 - You are evaluating a 56-year-old patient with depression that has not responded to...

    Correct

    • You are evaluating a 56-year-old patient with depression that has not responded to previous treatments. The patient inquires about the potential use of phenelzine. However, they have a pertinent medical history.
      What medical condition would prohibit the prescription of phenelzine in this patient?

      Your Answer: Phaeochromocytoma

      Explanation:

      Phenelzine belongs to a class of antidepressants called Monoamine Oxidase Inhibitors (MAOIs). However, it is contraindicated in patients with phaeochromocytoma, a rare tumor that secretes catecholamines, as MAOIs inhibit the breakdown of catecholamines and can lead to hypertensive crises, brain hemorrhage, and even death in such patients.

      While antidepressants are generally considered to have a negligible effect on seizure activity in epileptics, caution should be exercised when using MAOIs in patients with thyroid disease. Additionally, as with all antidepressants, MAOIs may precipitate mania and should be used with caution in bipolar disorder, although they are not contraindicated.

      Hyponatremia, a condition characterized by low sodium levels, is a potential side effect of most antidepressants, including MAOIs. However, MAOIs are not considered high risk compared to other antidepressant drugs. If sodium levels fall below 125 mmol/L, antidepressants should be stopped.

      Reference:
      Taylor, D., Paton, C., & Kapur, S. (2018). The Maudsley Prescribing Guidelines in Psychiatry (13th ed.). John Wiley & Sons.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      19.9
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  • Question 174 - Which of the following antipsychotics is currently offered in the United Kingdom as...

    Correct

    • Which of the following antipsychotics is currently offered in the United Kingdom as a prolonged-release injection?

      Your Answer: Olanzapine

      Explanation:

      Olanzapine pamoate is the only antipsychotic with a long acting injectable (LAI) form. A three hour observation period is necessary after administration due to the potential for post-injection syndrome. The remaining antipsychotics do not have an LAI form available.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      10.2
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  • Question 175 - What is the term used to refer to a chromosome with arms of...

    Correct

    • What is the term used to refer to a chromosome with arms of equal size?

      Your Answer: Metacentric

      Explanation:

      Understanding Centromeres

      A centromere is a crucial part of DNA that connects two sister chromatids. It plays a vital role in cell division by keeping the sister chromatids aligned and allowing the chromosomes to be lined up during metaphase. The position of the centromere divides the chromosome into two arms, the long (q) and the short (p). Chromosomes are classified based on the position of the centromere. Metacentric chromosomes have arms of roughly equal length, and they can be formed by Robertsonian translocations. Acrocentric chromosomes can also be involved in Robertsonian translocations. Monocentric chromosomes have only one centromere and form a narrow constriction, while holocentric chromosomes have the entire length of the chromosome acting as the centromere. Understanding the role and classification of centromeres is essential in comprehending the process of cell division.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      7.5
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  • Question 176 - What statement accurately describes the DSM? ...

    Correct

    • What statement accurately describes the DSM?

      Your Answer: Shows better agreement between assessors than ICD

      Explanation:

      DSM versus ICD: A Comparison of Mental Disorder Classifications

      The DSM and ICD are two widely used classifications of mental disorders. While the ICD was initiated in Paris in 1900, the DSM-I was published in the USA in 1952 as a military classification of mental disorders. The ICD is intended for use by all health practitioners, while the DSM is primarily used by psychiatrists. The ICD is the official world classification, while the DSM is the official classification in the USA.

      One major difference between the two classifications is their focus. The ICD has a major focus on clinical utility, with a planned reduction of the number of diagnoses in the upcoming ICD-11. On the other hand, the DSM tends to increase the number of diagnoses with each succeeding revision. Additionally, the ICD provides diagnostic descriptions and guidance but does not employ operational criteria, while the DSM depends on operational criteria.

      It is important to note that the ICD has to be flexible and simple in the use of language to enable all practitioners, including those with very little formal qualifications in low- and middle-income countries, to be acceptable. Overall, understanding the differences between the DSM and ICD can help mental health practitioners choose the most appropriate classification for their needs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      16.5
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  • Question 177 - What is a true statement about the neocortex? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about the neocortex?

      Your Answer: It is the innermost part of the cerebral hemispheres

      Correct Answer: It contains both pyramidal and nonpyramidal cells

      Explanation:

      The Cerebral Cortex and Neocortex

      The cerebral cortex is the outermost layer of the cerebral hemispheres and is composed of three parts: the archicortex, paleocortex, and neocortex. The neocortex accounts for 90% of the cortex and is involved in higher functions such as thought and language. It is divided into 6-7 layers, with two main cell types: pyramidal cells and nonpyramidal cells. The surface of the neocortex is divided into separate areas, each given a number by Brodmann (e.g. Brodmann’s area 17 is the primary visual cortex). The surface is folded to increase surface area, with grooves called sulci and ridges called gyri. The neocortex is responsible for higher cognitive functions and is essential for human consciousness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      3.9
      Seconds
  • Question 178 - A friend contacts you about her elderly mother who has come to her...

    Correct

    • A friend contacts you about her elderly mother who has come to her complaining of withdrawal symptoms. She suspects that her mother may be seeking drugs for non-medical reasons. The mother explains that she recently moved into a retirement home and does not have access to her usual pain medication. What non-addictive options are available to alleviate her withdrawal symptoms?

      Your Answer: Lofexidine

      Explanation:

      Lofexidine is administered to relieve the symptoms of withdrawal from heroin and opiates. Alprazolam and lormetazepam belong to the benzodiazepine class of drugs and are likely to cause physical dependence with prolonged use. Codeine is an analgesic opiate and frequent use can result in significant physical dependence. Phenobarbitone is a potent barbiturate with anaesthetic properties and its regular use can lead to the development of physical dependence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      18.6
      Seconds
  • Question 179 - What is a true statement about the CAGE questionnaire? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about the CAGE questionnaire?

      Your Answer: It is a useful measure of treatment program effectiveness

      Correct Answer: It is a 4-item scale

      Explanation:

      Although CAGE is commonly used for screening, it should not be used as a diagnostic tool. Additionally, it is not recommended to use CAGE as an outcome measure. AUDIT has been found to be more effective than CAGE and is the preferred screening tool according to the NICE Guidelines (CG115).

      Alcohol screening tools are available to assist in the diagnosis of alcohol problems. One such tool is the AUDIT (Alcohol Use Disorders Identification Test), which consists of 10 questions and covers harmful use, hazardous use, and dependence. Another tool is the FAST (Fast Alcohol Screening Test), which has just 4 questions and was developed for use in a busy medical setting. The CAGE is a well-known 4 question screening tool, but recent research has questioned its value. Other tools include SASQ (Single alcohol screening questionnaire), PAT (Paddington Alcohol Test), MAST (Michigan Alcoholism Screening Test), and RAPS4 (Rapid Alcohol Problem Screen 4). These tools can help identify hazardous of harmful alcohol consumption and alcohol dependence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      12.2
      Seconds
  • Question 180 - A 35-year-old woman with a history of bipolar disorder, currently on medication, experiences...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman with a history of bipolar disorder, currently on medication, experiences a low white blood cell count after developing a sore throat. Which antipsychotic medication is most likely responsible for these side effects?

      Your Answer: Olanzapine

      Correct Answer: Clozapine

      Explanation:

      Regular monitoring of white cell count and differential is necessary for all patients receiving clozapine due to the risk of neutropenia and fatal agranulocytosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      18.8
      Seconds
  • Question 181 - A 28-year-old female with a history of seizures is prescribed an anticonvulsant but...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old female with a history of seizures is prescribed an anticonvulsant but experiences pain in her left flank after 10 months. An ultrasound reveals the presence of a kidney stone.
      Which anticonvulsant is the most probable cause of this adverse effect?

      Your Answer: Carbamazepine

      Correct Answer: Topiramate

      Explanation:

      Long-term use of topiramate for approximately one year can result in systemic metabolic acidosis due to the inhibition of carbonic anhydrase, leading to distal tubular acidification and impaired acid excretion by the kidneys. Additionally, topiramate use can elevate urine pH and decreased urine citrate, which is a crucial inhibitor of kidney stone formation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      21
      Seconds
  • Question 182 - Which statement about EPSEs is incorrect? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement about EPSEs is incorrect?

      Your Answer: Patients who develop one EPSE are more vulnerable to developing another

      Correct Answer: Anticholinergics are indicated in the treatment of tardive dyskinesia

      Explanation:

      Patients who develop TD who are prescribed an anticholinergic drug should not have this discontinued if possible.

      Extrapyramidal side-effects (EPSE’s) are a group of side effects that affect voluntary motor control, commonly seen in patients taking antipsychotic drugs. EPSE’s include dystonias, parkinsonism, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. They can be frightening and uncomfortable, leading to problems with non-compliance and can even be life-threatening in the case of laryngeal dystonia. EPSE’s are thought to be due to antagonism of dopaminergic D2 receptors in the basal ganglia. Symptoms generally occur within the first few days of treatment, with dystonias appearing quickly, within a few hours of administration of the first dose. Newer antipsychotics tend to produce less EPSE’s, with clozapine carrying the lowest risk and haloperidol carrying the highest risk. Akathisia is the most resistant EPSE to treat. EPSE’s can also occur when antipsychotics are discontinued (withdrawal dystonia).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      8.4
      Seconds
  • Question 183 - Which statement accurately describes the pathology of Huntington's disease? ...

    Correct

    • Which statement accurately describes the pathology of Huntington's disease?

      Your Answer: The most striking feature is that of caudate head atrophy

      Explanation:

      Huntington’s Disease: Genetics and Pathology

      Huntington’s disease is a genetic disorder that follows an autosomal dominant pattern of inheritance. It is caused by a mutation in the Huntington gene, which is located on chromosome 4. The mutation involves an abnormal expansion of a trinucleotide repeat sequence (CAG), which leads to the production of a toxic protein that damages brain cells.

      The severity of the disease and the age of onset are related to the number of CAG repeats. Normally, the CAG sequence is repeated less than 27 times, but in Huntington’s disease, it is repeated many more times. The disease shows anticipation, meaning that it tends to worsen with each successive generation.

      The symptoms of Huntington’s disease typically begin in the third of fourth decade of life, but in rare cases, they can appear in childhood of adolescence. The most common symptoms include involuntary movements (chorea), cognitive decline, and psychiatric disturbances.

      The pathological hallmark of Huntington’s disease is the gross bilateral atrophy of the head of the caudate and putamen, which are regions of the brain involved in movement control. The EEG of patients with Huntington’s disease shows a flattened trace, indicating a loss of brain activity.

      Macroscopic pathological findings include frontal atrophy, marked atrophy of the caudate and putamen, and enlarged ventricles. Microscopic findings include neuronal loss and gliosis in the cortex, neuronal loss in the striatum, and the presence of inclusion bodies in the neurons of the cortex and striatum.

      In conclusion, Huntington’s disease is a devastating genetic disorder that affects the brain and causes a range of motor, cognitive, and psychiatric symptoms. The disease is caused by a mutation in the Huntington gene, which leads to the production of a toxic protein that damages brain cells. The pathological changes in the brain include atrophy of the caudate and putamen, neuronal loss, and the presence of inclusion bodies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      18.1
      Seconds
  • Question 184 - Who is the originator of the term 'cheese effect' in reference to the...

    Incorrect

    • Who is the originator of the term 'cheese effect' in reference to the negative effects associated with MAOI antidepressants?

      Your Answer: Fischer

      Correct Answer: Blackwell

      Explanation:

      A Historical Note on the Development of Zimelidine, the First Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitor

      In 1960s, evidence began to emerge suggesting a significant role of serotonin in depression. This led to the development of zimelidine, the first selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI). Zimelidine was derived from pheniramine and was marketed in Europe in 1982. However, it was removed from the market in 1983 due to severe side effects such as hypersensitivity reactions and Guillain-Barre syndrome.

      Despite its short-lived availability, zimelidine paved the way for the development of other SSRIs such as fluoxetine, which was approved by the FDA in 1987 and launched in the US market in 1988 under the trade name Prozac. The development of SSRIs revolutionized the treatment of depression and other mood disorders, providing a safer and more effective alternative to earlier antidepressants such as the tricyclics and MAO inhibitors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      18.6
      Seconds
  • Question 185 - Which statement about Rett syndrome is accurate? ...

    Correct

    • Which statement about Rett syndrome is accurate?

      Your Answer: It almost exclusively occurs in females

      Explanation:

      While Rett syndrome is predominantly found in females, there have been studies conducted on boys who have either Rett syndrome of the MECP2 gene defect commonly associated with the syndrome. These studies have shown that boys with the MECP2 gene defect may exhibit symptoms that differ from those typically seen in classic Rett syndrome.

      Rett Syndrome: A Rare Neurodevelopmental Disorder

      Rett syndrome is a neurodevelopmental disorder that is rare, affecting approximately 1 in 10,000 female births. Although it mostly affects females, there have been cases of males with the disorder. While the exact cause of the disorder is not known, it is believed to have a genetic basis, with mutations in the MECP2 gene (Xq28) being associated with the disorder. Monozygotic twins have been found to have complete concordance in cases of Rett syndrome.

      The disorder has a unique presentation, with affected children experiencing a normal period of development until 6-18 months. After this period, they begin to develop problems with language, losing previously acquired speech. Purposeful hand movements are replaced with stereotypic movements, such as hand wringing, and ataxia and psychomotor retardation may occur. Other stereotypical movements, such as finger licking of biting and tapping of slapping, may also be seen. Head circumference is normal at birth, but growth begins to decelerate between 6-12 months, resulting in microcephaly. All language skills are lost, both receptive and expressive, and social skills plateau at developmental levels between 6-12 months.

      Seizures are associated with Rett syndrome in 75% of those affected, and almost all affected children have abnormal EEG findings. Breathing problems, such as hyperventilation, apnea, and breath holding, are also seen. Children with Rett syndrome may live for well over a decade after the onset of the disorder, but after 10 years, many patients are wheelchair-bound with virtually no language ability. Additional features of the disorder include seizures, breath holding and hyperventilation, sleep difficulties, and issues with locomotion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychological Development
      5.8
      Seconds
  • Question 186 - What is the term used to describe the decrease in anxiety that occurs...

    Correct

    • What is the term used to describe the decrease in anxiety that occurs during flooding therapy?

      Your Answer: Habituation

      Explanation:

      Flooding as a Treatment for Phobias

      Flooding is a treatment method for phobias that involves directly confronting the fear and remaining in the situation until the anxiety subsides. This process is called habituation and is different from systematic desensitization. However, flooding can be challenging for patients as it produces high levels of anxiety, which can cause them to leave the situation before the fear response is extinguished. As a result, desensitization is generally preferred over flooding as a treatment method for phobias.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      29.1
      Seconds
  • Question 187 - What is removed during splicing? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is removed during splicing?

      Your Answer: Exon

      Correct Answer: Intron

      Explanation:

      Splicing of mRNA

      After the transcription of DNA into mRNA, the mRNA undergoes a crucial process known as splicing. This process involves the removal of certain portions of the mRNA, called introns, leaving behind the remaining portions known as exons. The exons are then translated into proteins. The resulting spliced form of RNA is referred to as mature mRNA. This process of splicing is essential for the proper functioning of genes and the production of functional proteins.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      7.1
      Seconds
  • Question 188 - From where does the nerve that originates in the medulla oblongata come? ...

    Incorrect

    • From where does the nerve that originates in the medulla oblongata come?

      Your Answer: Optic

      Correct Answer: Vagus

      Explanation:

      Overview of Cranial Nerves and Their Functions

      The cranial nerves are a complex system of nerves that originate from the brain and control various functions of the head and neck. There are twelve cranial nerves, each with a specific function and origin. The following table provides a simplified overview of the cranial nerves, including their origin, skull exit, modality, and functions.

      The first cranial nerve, the olfactory nerve, originates from the telencephalon and exits through the cribriform plate. It is a sensory nerve that controls the sense of smell. The second cranial nerve, the optic nerve, originates from the diencephalon and exits through the optic foramen. It is a sensory nerve that controls vision.

      The third cranial nerve, the oculomotor nerve, originates from the midbrain and exits through the superior orbital fissure. It is a motor nerve that controls eye movement, pupillary constriction, and lens accommodation. The fourth cranial nerve, the trochlear nerve, also originates from the midbrain and exits through the superior orbital fissure. It is a motor nerve that controls eye movement.

      The fifth cranial nerve, the trigeminal nerve, originates from the pons and exits through different foramina depending on the division. It is a mixed nerve that controls chewing and sensation of the anterior 2/3 of the scalp. It also tenses the tympanic membrane to dampen loud noises.

      The sixth cranial nerve, the abducens nerve, originates from the pons and exits through the superior orbital fissure. It is a motor nerve that controls eye movement. The seventh cranial nerve, the facial nerve, also originates from the pons and exits through the internal auditory canal. It is a mixed nerve that controls facial expression, taste of the anterior 2/3 of the tongue, and tension on the stapes to dampen loud noises.

      The eighth cranial nerve, the vestibulocochlear nerve, originates from the pons and exits through the internal auditory canal. It is a sensory nerve that controls hearing. The ninth cranial nerve, the glossopharyngeal nerve, originates from the medulla and exits through the jugular foramen. It is a mixed nerve that controls taste of the posterior 1/3 of the tongue, elevation of the larynx and pharynx, and swallowing.

      The tenth cranial nerve, the vagus nerve, also originates from the medulla and exits through the jugular foramen. It is a mixed nerve that controls swallowing, voice production, and parasympathetic supply to nearly all thoracic and abdominal viscera. The eleventh cranial nerve, the accessory nerve, originates from the medulla and exits through the jugular foramen. It is a motor nerve that controls shoulder shrugging and head turning.

      The twelfth cranial nerve, the hypoglossal nerve, originates from the medulla and exits through the hypoglossal canal. It is a motor nerve that controls tongue movement. Overall, the cranial nerves play a crucial role in controlling various functions of the head and neck, and any damage of dysfunction can have significant consequences.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      14
      Seconds
  • Question 189 - Which disorder is not included in the list of dissociative disorders in the...

    Correct

    • Which disorder is not included in the list of dissociative disorders in the ICD-11?

      Your Answer: Body integrity dysphoria

      Explanation:

      The classification of body integrity dysphoria falls under the group of conditions known as ‘disorders of bodily distress of bodily experience’, which was previously referred to as somatoform disorder.

      Somatoform and dissociative disorders are two groups of psychiatric disorders that are characterised by physical symptoms and disruptions in the normal integration of identity, sensations, perceptions, affects, thoughts, memories, control over bodily movements, of behaviour. Somatoform disorders are characterised by physical symptoms that are presumed to have a psychiatric origin, while dissociative disorders are characterised by the loss of integration between memories, identity, immediate sensations, and control of bodily movements. The ICD-11 lists two main types of somatoform disorders: bodily distress disorder and body integrity dysphoria. The former involves bodily symptoms that the individual finds distressing and to which excessive attention is directed, while the latter involves a disturbance in the person’s experience of the body manifested by the persistent desire to have a specific physical disability accompanied by persistent discomfort of intense feelings of inappropriateness concerning current non-disabled body configuration. Dissociative disorders, on the other hand, are characterised by involuntary disruption of discontinuity in the normal integration of identity, sensations, perceptions, affects, thoughts, memories, control over bodily movements, of behaviour. The ICD-11 dissociative disorders include dissociative neurological symptom disorder, dissociative amnesia, trance disorder, possession trance disorder, dissociative identity disorder, partial dissociative identity disorder, depersonalization-derealization disorder, and other specified dissociative disorders. Each disorder has its own set of essential features and diagnostic criteria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      12.3
      Seconds
  • Question 190 - Which of the following describes the concept of 'goodness of fit', the reciprocal...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following describes the concept of 'goodness of fit', the reciprocal relationship between a child's personality and their surroundings?

      Your Answer: Bowlby

      Correct Answer: Thomas and Chess

      Explanation:

      The concept of ‘goodness of fit’ was introduced by Thomas and Chess, which refers to the interdependent relationship between a child’s temperament and their environment that impacts their development. The strange situation procedure is linked to Ainsworth, while Bowlby is known for his research on attachment and maternal deprivation. Main is recognized for developing the adult attachment interview. Winnicott coined the term ‘good-enough mother’.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Advanced Psychological Processes And Treatments
      61.4
      Seconds
  • Question 191 - What physical finding is most indicative of hepatic encephalopathy in a 60-year-old man...

    Incorrect

    • What physical finding is most indicative of hepatic encephalopathy in a 60-year-old man with cirrhosis of the liver due to alcohol abuse?

      Your Answer: Extensor plantar reflex

      Correct Answer: Flapping tremor

      Explanation:

      Hepatic encephalopathy is indicated by the presence of a distinctive ‘liver flap’.

      Hepatomegaly

      Chronic alcohol abuse can lead to hepatomegaly, which is an enlargement of the liver. This can be detected on physical examination by palpating the liver below the right ribcage. Hepatomegaly can also be associated with other signs of liver disease, such as jaundice, spider naevi, and caput medusa. It is important for psychiatrists to be aware of these physical findings in patients with alcohol use disorder, as they may indicate the need for further medical evaluation and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      8.1
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  • Question 192 - What is the Glasgow Coma Scale score of an elderly patient who, after...

    Incorrect

    • What is the Glasgow Coma Scale score of an elderly patient who, after experiencing a stroke, displays signs of confusion, responds to painful stimuli with purposeful movement, and is able to engage in a basic conversation but still appears disoriented?

      Your Answer: 9

      Correct Answer: 11

      Explanation:

      The score is 11, with E2, V4, and M5 contributing to it.

      The Glasgow Coma Scale is used to assess the depth of coma and impaired consciousness. Scores range from 3 to 15, with impaired consciousness rated as mild, moderate, of severe. The scale assesses eye opening response, verbal response, and motor response, with specific criteria for scoring each behavior. The final score is a combination of these three scores.
      Scoring Guide;
      Eye opening response
      4 Spontaneous opening
      3 Opens to verbal stimuli
      2 Opens to pain
      1 No response
      Verbal response
      5 Orientated
      4 Confused conversation
      3 Inappropriate words
      2 Incoherent
      1 No response
      Motor response
      6 Obeys commands
      5 Purposeful movement to painful stimuli
      4 Withdraws in response to pain
      3 Flexion in response to pain (decorticate posturing)
      2 Extension in response to pain (decerebrate posturing)
      1 No response

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      4.5
      Seconds
  • Question 193 - What is a true statement about thiamine? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about thiamine?

      Your Answer: It is also known as vitamin B12

      Correct Answer: It is required for carbohydrate catabolism

      Explanation:

      A lack of vitamin C is commonly linked to gum inflammation and bleeding.

      Thiamine Deficiency and Alcohol-Related Brain Disease

      Thiamine deficiency is a well-known cause of a neurological disorder called Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome (WKS) in individuals with alcohol use disorder. Thiamine, also known as vitamin B1, is an essential nutrient that cannot be produced by the body and must be obtained through the diet. Thiamine is required for the proper functioning of enzymes involved in the metabolism of carbohydrates, the synthesis of neurotransmitters, nucleic acids, fatty acids, and complex sugar molecules, and the body’s defense against oxidative stress.

      Three enzymes that require thiamine as a cofactor are transketolase, pyruvate dehydrogenase (PDH), and alpha ketoglutarate dehydrogenase (KGDH), all of which participate in the breakdown of carbohydrates. Thiamine deficiency leads to suboptimal levels of functional enzymes in the cell, which can cause cell damage in the central nervous system through cell necrosis, cellular apoptosis, and oxidative stress.

      Alcoholism can contribute to thiamine deficiency through inadequate nutritional intake, decreased absorption of thiamine from the gastrointestinal tract, and impaired utilization of thiamine in the cells. Giving thiamine to patients with WKS can reverse many of the acute symptoms of the disease, highlighting the importance of this nutrient in the prevention and treatment of alcohol-related brain disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      30.6
      Seconds
  • Question 194 - What is the maximum duration of a normal QTc interval in an adult...

    Incorrect

    • What is the maximum duration of a normal QTc interval in an adult male?

      Your Answer: 400

      Correct Answer: 440

      Explanation:

      While the upper limit technically reaches 439, it is evident that 440 is the optimal choice among the options provided.

      Amantadine and QTc Prolongation

      Amantadine is a medication used to treat Parkinson’s disease and influenza. It has been associated with QTc prolongation, which can increase the risk of Torsades de points. Therefore, caution should be exercised when prescribing amantadine to patients with risk factors for QT prolongation. If a patient is already taking amantadine and develops a prolonged QTc interval, the medication should be discontinued and an alternative treatment considered. It is important to monitor the QTc interval in patients taking amantadine, especially those with risk factors for QT prolongation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      19
      Seconds
  • Question 195 - A 10 year old boy comes up to his parents and inquires if...

    Incorrect

    • A 10 year old boy comes up to his parents and inquires if they have any plans of having another child. He is curious about how having a sibling would impact their family. At what Piagetian stage is he currently situated?

      Your Answer: Preoperational

      Correct Answer: Formal operational

      Explanation:

      During the formal operational stage, individuals possess the capacity to conceive of intangible concepts that are not perceptible through the senses. This includes the ability to formulate hypotheses and process abstract ideas.

      Piaget’s Stages of Development and Key Concepts

      Piaget developed four stages of development that describe how children think and acquire knowledge. The first stage is the Sensorimotor stage, which occurs from birth to 18-24 months. In this stage, infants learn through sensory observation and gain control of their motor functions through activity, exploration, and manipulation of the environment.

      The second stage is the Preoperational stage, which occurs from 2 to 7 years. During this stage, children use symbols and language more extensively, but they are unable to think logically of deductively. They also use a type of magical thinking and animistic thinking.

      The third stage is the Concrete Operational stage, which occurs from 7 to 11 years. In this stage, egocentric thought is replaced by operational thought, which involves dealing with a wide array of information outside the child. Children in this stage begin to use limited logical thought and can serialise, order, and group things into classes on the basis of common characteristics.

      The fourth and final stage is the Formal Operations stage, which occurs from 11 through the end of adolescence. This stage is characterized by the ability to think abstractly, to reason deductively, to define concepts, and also by the emergence of skills for dealing with permutations and combinations.

      Piaget also developed key concepts, including schema, assimilation, and accommodation. A schema is a category of knowledge and the process of obtaining that knowledge. Assimilation is the process of taking new information into an existing schema, while accommodation involves altering a schema in view of additional information.

      Overall, Piaget’s stages of development and key concepts provide a framework for understanding how children learn and acquire knowledge.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychological Development
      12.9
      Seconds
  • Question 196 - What sign of symptom is most indicative of a long-term issue with alcohol...

    Incorrect

    • What sign of symptom is most indicative of a long-term issue with alcohol consumption?

      Your Answer: A nasal septal defect

      Correct Answer: Multiple spider naevi

      Explanation:

      Spider Nevus: Causes and Symptoms

      A spider nevus is a common type of angioma that appears on the skin’s surface. It is usually considered a normal finding when one of two are present. However, if there is a rapid development of numerous prominent spider nevi, it may indicate an underlying liver problem. The most common cause of this condition is alcohol consumption. Pregnant women and those who use oral contraceptives are also prone to developing spider nevi due to the dilation of existing vessels on the skin surface. If you notice any unusual changes in the appearance of spider nevi, it is important to consult a healthcare professional for proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      13.2
      Seconds
  • Question 197 - What was the significant accomplishment made by Eve Johnstone and her team in...

    Incorrect

    • What was the significant accomplishment made by Eve Johnstone and her team in 1976 regarding the treatment of schizophrenia?

      Your Answer: Expressed emotion

      Correct Answer: Brain abnormalities seen on CT

      Explanation:

      The discovery of brain abnormalities in schizophrenia using computed tomography was made by Eve Johnstone and her team at Harrow, who were the pioneers in this field. In Australia, John Kane was the first to introduce clozapine treatment. The dopamine theory of schizophrenia was formally proposed by Snyder and colleagues in 1976. The investigation and description of expressed emotion was initiated by George Brown at the MRC during the 1950s.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • History Of Psychiatry
      4
      Seconds
  • Question 198 - What is a true statement about the falx cerebri? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about the falx cerebri?

      Your Answer: It is a layer of arachnoid mater which lines the hypophyseal fossa

      Correct Answer: It is a layer of dura mater which separates the two cerebral hemispheres

      Explanation:

      Dura Mater

      The dura mater is one of the three membranes, known as meninges, that cover the brain and spinal cord. It is the outermost and most fibrous layer, with the pia mater and arachnoid mater making up the remaining layers. The pia mater is the innermost layer.

      The dura mater is folded at certain points, including the falx cerebri, which separates the two cerebral hemispheres of the brain, the tentorium cerebelli, which separates the cerebellum from the cerebrum, the falx cerebelli, which separates the cerebellar hemispheres, and the sellar diaphragm, which covers the pituitary gland and forms a roof over the hypophyseal fossa.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      4.1
      Seconds
  • Question 199 - Which medication is impacted by moisture and therefore cannot be included in a...

    Incorrect

    • Which medication is impacted by moisture and therefore cannot be included in a medication compliance aid?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sodium valproate

      Explanation:

      Drug Stability

      The stability of drugs can vary greatly, with some medications being unable to be included in compliance aids due to their susceptibility to environmental factors. Certain drugs have a tendency to absorb moisture from the air, rendering them ineffective, with light known to accelerate this process. Examples of drugs that are unsuitable for compliance aids due to their susceptibility to environmental factors include Sodium valproate, Zopiclone, Venlafaxine, Topiramate, Methylphenidate, Mirtazapine, Olanzapine, Amisulpride, and Aripiprazole.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 200 - Which individual is linked to the structural approach in family therapy? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which individual is linked to the structural approach in family therapy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Minuchin

      Explanation:

      Family therapy has been shaped by various influential figures, each with their own unique approach. Salvador Minuchin is known for his structural model, which emphasizes the importance of family hierarchy, rules, and boundaries. Gregory Bateson, on the other hand, is associated with paradoxical therapy. Murray Bowen is linked to the family systems approach, while Jay Haley is known for his strategic systemic therapy. Finally, the Milan systemic approach is associated with Mara Selvini Palazzoli. Each of these figures has contributed to the development of family therapy, and their approaches continue to be used and adapted by therapists today.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Advanced Psychological Processes And Treatments
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Psychopharmacology (36/50) 72%
Psychological Development (4/7) 57%
Descriptive Psychopathology (6/6) 100%
Neurosciences (24/30) 80%
Genetics (10/12) 83%
Advanced Psychological Processes And Treatments (6/9) 67%
Classification And Assessment (30/33) 91%
Social Psychology (23/29) 79%
Description And Measurement (2/2) 100%
Neurological Examination (3/3) 100%
Diagnosis (1/2) 50%
History Of Psychiatry (2/5) 40%
Basic Psychological Processes (0/1) 0%
History And Mental State (1/2) 50%
Basic Ethics And Philosophy Of Psychiatry (2/2) 100%
Stigma And Culture (2/2) 100%
Epidemiology (2/2) 100%
Dynamic Psychopathology (1/1) 100%
Passmed