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  • Question 1 - You are evaluating a 72-year-old woman with hypertension, type 2 diabetes and osteoarthritis....

    Correct

    • You are evaluating a 72-year-old woman with hypertension, type 2 diabetes and osteoarthritis. She is currently taking 10 mg of ramipril once a day, 10 mg of amlodipine once a day, indapamide 2.5 mg once a day, 500mg of Metformin twice a day, co-codamol PRN and atorvastatin 20 mg at night.

      During her visit to the clinic, her blood pressure (BP) is consistently elevated and today it is 160/98 mmHg. As per the NICE guidelines, you want to initiate another medication to help lower her BP. Her K+ level is 4.2 mmol/l.

      What would be the most suitable additional medication to prescribe?

      Your Answer: Spironolactone

      Explanation:

      The patient is suffering from poorly controlled hypertension despite being on three medications, including an ACE inhibitor, calcium channel blocker, and a thiazide diuretic. If the patient’s potassium levels are below 4.5mmol/l, the next step would be to add spironolactone to their treatment plan. However, if their potassium levels are above 4.5mmol/l, a higher dose of thiazide-like diuretic treatment should be considered. It is important to note that bendroflumethiazide is not suitable in this case as the patient is already taking indapamide, and chlortalidone is also a thiazide-like diuretic and should not be added. Additionally, candesartan, an angiotensin receptor blocker, should not be used in combination with an ACE inhibitor.

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.

      Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.

      Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.

      The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.

      If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      22.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 75 year old man has come for a surgical consultation regarding an...

    Correct

    • A 75 year old man has come for a surgical consultation regarding an ambulatory blood pressure monitoring reading of 142/84 mmHg. He has no history of coronary heart disease, renal disease or diabetes, and is only taking lansoprazole regularly. His 10-year cardiovascular risk score was recently assessed to be 8%. Which of the following should be included in his management plan for follow up?

      Your Answer: Lifestyle advice

      Explanation:

      When a patient is diagnosed with stage 2 hypertension, regardless of their age, it is recommended to start antihypertensive medication and reinforce lifestyle advice.

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.

      Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.

      Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.

      The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.

      If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      20.2
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - In this case where a 50-year-old man was diagnosed with hypertension and started...

    Incorrect

    • In this case where a 50-year-old man was diagnosed with hypertension and started on Ramipril 2.5mg, with subsequent blood tests showing a 20% reduction in eGFR but stable renal function and serum electrolytes, what would be the recommended course of action according to NICE guidelines?

      Your Answer: Stop Ramipril and monitor home blood pressure readings

      Correct Answer: Stop Ramipril and replace with calcium channel blocker

      Explanation:

      Managing Abnormal Results when Initiating or Increasing ACE-I Dose

      When initiating or increasing the dose of an ACE-I, it is important to monitor for any abnormal results. According to NICE, a slight increase in serum creatinine and potassium is expected. However, if the eGFR reduction is 25% or less (or serum creatinine increase of less than 30%), no modification to the treatment regime is needed, as long as no further reductions occur.

      If the eGFR decrease is 25% or more, it is important to consider other potential causes such as volume depletion, other nephrotoxic drugs, or vasodilators. If none of these are applicable, it may be necessary to stop the ACE-I or reduce the dose to a previously tolerated level. It is recommended to recheck levels in 5-7 days to ensure that the treatment is effective and safe for the patient. By closely monitoring and managing abnormal results, healthcare professionals can ensure that patients receive the best possible care when taking ACE-Is.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      52.3
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 40-year-old man comes to the clinic for a hypertension review, as recommended...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old man comes to the clinic for a hypertension review, as recommended by the practice nurse. Despite taking ramipril 10 mg, amlodipine 5 mg, and atenolol 50 mg, his blood pressure remains elevated at 150/90 mmHg. Upon checking his U&E, his sodium level is 140, potassium level is 3.4, and creatinine level is 110. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Phaeochromocytoma

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of Hyperaldosteronism

      Such difficult-to-control hypertension and hypokalaemia, despite maximal ACE inhibition, may indicate hyperaldosteronism. The preferred diagnostic investigation is a renin/aldosterone ratio off Antihypertensive medication, with a washout period of four to six weeks. MRI scanning can also help identify an aldosterone-producing tumour. In contrast, phaeochromocytoma typically presents with paroxysms of hypertension, accompanied by headache, anxiety, and sweating. Renal artery stenosis is expected to be associated with an abnormal creatinine in patients using ACE inhibitors. By identifying the underlying cause of hypertension, appropriate treatment can be initiated, leading to better outcomes for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      17.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 58-year-old man presents to the rapid access transient ischaemic attack clinic after...

    Correct

    • A 58-year-old man presents to the rapid access transient ischaemic attack clinic after experiencing three episodes of transient left-sided weakness in the past two weeks. What advice should be given regarding driving?

      Your Answer: Cannot drive for 3 months

      Explanation:

      DVLA guidance following multiple TIAs: driving prohibited for a period of 3 months.

      The DVLA has guidelines for individuals with neurological disorders who wish to drive cars or motorcycles. However, the rules for drivers of heavy goods vehicles are much stricter. For individuals with epilepsy or seizures, they must not drive and must inform the DVLA. If an individual has had a first unprovoked or isolated seizure, they must take six months off driving if there are no relevant structural abnormalities on brain imaging and no definite epileptiform activity on EEG. If these conditions are not met, the time off driving is increased to 12 months. Individuals with established epilepsy or those with multiple unprovoked seizures may qualify for a driving license if they have been free from any seizure for 12 months. If there have been no seizures for five years (with medication if necessary), a ’til 70 license is usually restored. Individuals should not drive while anti-epilepsy medication is being withdrawn and for six months after the last dose.

      For individuals with syncope, a simple faint has no restriction on driving. A single episode that is explained and treated requires four weeks off driving. A single unexplained episode requires six months off driving, while two or more episodes require 12 months off. For individuals with other conditions such as stroke or TIA, they must take one month off driving. They may not need to inform the DVLA if there is no residual neurological deficit. If an individual has had multiple TIAs over a short period of time, they must take three months off driving and inform the DVLA. For individuals who have had a craniotomy, such as for meningioma, they must take one year off driving. If an individual has had a pituitary tumor, a craniotomy requires six months off driving, while trans-sphenoidal surgery allows driving when there is no debarring residual impairment likely to affect safe driving. Individuals with narcolepsy/cataplexy must cease driving on diagnosis but can restart once there is satisfactory control of symptoms. For individuals with chronic neurological disorders such as multiple sclerosis or motor neuron disease, they should inform the DVLA and complete the PK1 form (application for driving license holders’ state of health). If the tumor is a benign meningioma and there is no seizure history, the license can be reconsidered six months after surgery if the individual remains seizure-free.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      23.5
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 61-year-old man with ischaemic heart disease experiences chest pain while climbing stairs....

    Correct

    • A 61-year-old man with ischaemic heart disease experiences chest pain while climbing stairs. He uses his sublingual glyceryl trinitrate (GTN) spray. What is the most likely side-effect profile of taking the GTN spray?

      Your Answer: Hypotension + tachycardia + headache

      Explanation:

      Understanding Nitrates and Their Effects on the Body

      Nitrates are a type of medication that can cause blood vessels to widen, which is known as vasodilation. They are commonly used to manage angina and treat heart failure. One of the most frequently prescribed nitrates is sublingual glyceryl trinitrate, which is used to relieve angina attacks in patients with ischaemic heart disease.

      The mechanism of action for nitrates involves the release of nitric oxide in smooth muscle, which activates guanylate cyclase. This enzyme then converts GTP to cGMP, leading to a decrease in intracellular calcium levels. In the case of angina, nitrates dilate the coronary arteries and reduce venous return, which decreases left ventricular work and reduces myocardial oxygen demand.

      However, nitrates can also cause side effects such as hypotension, tachycardia, headaches, and flushing. Additionally, many patients who take nitrates develop tolerance over time, which can reduce their effectiveness. To combat this, the British National Formulary recommends that patients who develop tolerance take the second dose of isosorbide mononitrate after 8 hours instead of 12 hours. This allows blood-nitrate levels to fall for 4 hours and maintains effectiveness. It’s important to note that this effect is not seen in patients who take modified release isosorbide mononitrate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      20.9
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 28-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of pain in both lower...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of pain in both lower legs while running. The pain gradually intensifies after a brief period of running, causing him to stop. However, the pain quickly subsides when he is at rest. Upon examination, there are no abnormal findings, and his peripheral pulses are all palpable. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Osgood-Schlatter's disease

      Explanation:

      Chronic Exertional Compartment Syndrome

      Chronic exertional compartment syndrome (CECS) is a condition that causes exertional leg pain due to the fascial compartment being unable to accommodate the increased volume of the muscle during exercise. It is often mistaken for peripheral arterial disease.

      If you experience exertional leg pain with tenderness over the middle of the muscle compartment but no bony tenderness, it may be a sign of CECS. This condition should be suspected when there is no evidence of tibial tuberosity pain, which is common in Osgood-Schlatter’s disease.

      Referral for pre- and post-exertional pressure testing may be necessary, and if conservative measures are unsuccessful, a fasciotomy may be required.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      24.7
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 72-year-old man presents as he has suffered two episodes of syncope in...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old man presents as he has suffered two episodes of syncope in the past three weeks and is feeling increasingly tired. On examination, his pulse is 40 bpm and his BP 100/60 mmHg. An ECG reveals he is in complete heart block.
      What other finding are you most likely to find?

      Your Answer: Variable S1

      Explanation:

      Characteristics of Complete Heart Block

      Complete heart block is a condition where there is no coordination between the atrial and ventricular contractions. This results in a variable intensity of the first heart sound, which is the closure of the atrioventricular (AV) valves. The blood flow from the atria to the ventricles varies from beat to beat, leading to inconsistent intensity of the first heart sound. Additionally, cannon A waves may be observed in the neck, indicating atrial contraction against closed AV valves.

      Narrow pulse pressure is not a characteristic of complete heart block. It is more commonly associated with aortic valve disease. Similarly, aortic stenosis is not typically linked with complete heart block, although it can cause reversed splitting of S2. Giant V waves are not observed in complete heart block, but they suggest tricuspid regurgitation. Reversed splitting of S2 is also not a defining feature of complete heart block, but it can be found in aortic stenosis, hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, and left bundle branch block. It is important to note that murmurs may also be present in complete heart block due to concomitant valve disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      18.5
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 56-year-old man collapses in the hospital during a nurse-led hypertension clinic. He...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old man collapses in the hospital during a nurse-led hypertension clinic. He is unresponsive and has no pulse in his carotid artery. What is the appropriate ratio of chest compressions to ventilation?

      Your Answer: 30:02:00

      Explanation:

      The 2015 Resus Council guidelines for adult advanced life support outline the steps to be taken in the event of a cardiac arrest. Patients are divided into those with ‘shockable’ rhythms (ventricular fibrillation/pulseless ventricular tachycardia) and ‘non-shockable’ rhythms (asystole/pulseless-electrical activity). Key points include the ratio of chest compressions to ventilation (30:2), continuing chest compressions while a defibrillator is charged, and delivering drugs via IV access or the intraosseous route. Adrenaline and amiodarone are recommended for non-shockable rhythms and VF/pulseless VT, respectively. Thrombolytic drugs should be considered if a pulmonary embolism is suspected. Atropine is no longer recommended for routine use in asystole or PEA. Following successful resuscitation, oxygen should be titrated to achieve saturations of 94-98%. The ‘Hs’ and ‘Ts’ outline reversible causes of cardiac arrest, including hypoxia, hypovolaemia, and thrombosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      11.2
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 48-year-old man presents to an out-of-hours community hospital walk-in centre feeling light-headed...

    Correct

    • A 48-year-old man presents to an out-of-hours community hospital walk-in centre feeling light-headed and short of breath. Shortly after he arrives, he loses consciousness. He continues to breathe spontaneously, and a nurse is able to maintain his airway and administer oxygen. Observations show a heart rate of 38 bpm and blood pressure of 88/44 mmHg. An electrocardiogram shows complete heart block.
      What is the most appropriate initial step in management?

      Your Answer: Administer atropine 1 mg IV

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Bradycardia: Understanding the Correct Administration of Medications

      Bradycardia is a condition characterized by a slow heart rate, which can lead to serious complications if left untreated. There are several treatment options available for bradycardia, but it is important to understand the correct administration of medications to ensure the best possible outcome.

      Administering atropine 1 mg IV is the first-line treatment for bradycardia caused by third-degree heart block. Atropine blocks parasympathetic activity and may improve node conduction. If necessary, it can be repeated every 3-5 minutes to a total of 3 mg.

      Cardiopulmonary resuscitation is not appropriate for patients with a pulse and breathing.

      Adenosine 3 mg IV is contraindicated in heart block and is used in the treatment and diagnosis of atrioventricular node-dependent supraventricular tachycardias.

      Aminophylline 100 mg IV may be indicated as the first line to treat life-threatening bradycardia in certain patients, but it is not the first-line treatment for all cases.

      Adrenaline 1 mg IV is an alternative treatment option if atropine is ineffective, but it is not the first-line treatment.

      Understanding the correct administration of medications is crucial in the treatment of bradycardia. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional to determine the appropriate treatment plan for each individual case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      17.9
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 58-year-old African gentleman is seen by his GP at a first visit...

    Correct

    • A 58-year-old African gentleman is seen by his GP at a first visit registration medical.

      He is completely asymptomatic but his blood pressure measures 150/95 mmHg, then 148/90 mmHg and 155/98 mmHg on two further visits a few weeks apart. He is not taking any medication currently.

      What is the next best treatment option for this gentleman?

      Your Answer: Organise a 24 hour ambulatory blood pressure monitoring

      Explanation:

      NICE Guidelines for Blood Pressure Monitoring

      The latest NICE guidelines recommend ambulatory blood pressure monitoring (ABPM) or home blood pressure monitoring (HBPM) before starting therapy, except for patients with severe hypertension (BP 180/120 mmHg). If the clinic blood pressure is 140/90 mmHg or higher, ABPM should be offered to confirm the diagnosis of hypertension. When using ABPM to confirm hypertension, it is important to take at least two measurements per hour during the person’s usual waking hours (e.g., between 08:00 and 22:00). To confirm a diagnosis of hypertension, the average value of at least 14 measurements taken during the person’s usual waking hours should be used. These guidelines aim to improve the accuracy of hypertension diagnosis and ensure appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      36.3
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - You receive a call from a nursing home about a 90-year-old male resident....

    Correct

    • You receive a call from a nursing home about a 90-year-old male resident. The staff are worried about his increasing unsteadiness on his feet in the past few months, which has led to several near-falls. They are also concerned that his DOAC medication puts him at risk of a bleed if he falls and hits his head.

      His current medications include amlodipine, ramipril, edoxaban, and alendronic acid.

      What steps should be taken in this situation?

      Your Answer: Calculate her ORBIT score

      Explanation:

      It is not enough to withhold anticoagulation solely based on the risk of falls or old age. To determine the risk of stroke or bleeding in atrial fibrillation, objective measures such as the CHA2DS2-VASc and ORBIT scores should be used. The ORBIT score, rather than HAS-BLED, is now recommended by NICE for assessing bleeding risk. A history of falls doesn’t factor into the ORBIT score, but age does. Limiting the patient’s mobility by suggesting she only mobilizes with staff is impractical. There is no rationale for switching the edoxaban to an antiplatelet agent, as antiplatelets are not typically used in atrial fibrillation management unless there is a specific indication. Stopping edoxaban without calculating the appropriate scores could leave the patient at a high risk of stroke.

      Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a condition that requires careful management, including the use of anticoagulation therapy. The latest guidelines from NICE recommend assessing the need for anticoagulation in all patients with a history of AF, regardless of whether they are currently experiencing symptoms. The CHA2DS2-VASc scoring system is used to determine the most appropriate anticoagulation strategy, with a score of 2 or more indicating the need for anticoagulation. However, it is important to ensure a transthoracic echocardiogram has been done to exclude valvular heart disease, which is an absolute indication for anticoagulation.

      When considering anticoagulation therapy, doctors must also assess the patient’s bleeding risk. NICE recommends using the ORBIT scoring system to formalize this risk assessment, taking into account factors such as haemoglobin levels, age, bleeding history, renal impairment, and treatment with antiplatelet agents. While there are no formal rules on how to act on the ORBIT score, individual patient factors should be considered. The risk of bleeding increases with a higher ORBIT score, with a score of 4-7 indicating a high risk of bleeding.

      For many years, warfarin was the anticoagulant of choice for AF. However, the development of direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) has changed this. DOACs have the advantage of not requiring regular blood tests to check the INR and are now recommended as the first-line anticoagulant for patients with AF. The recommended DOACs for reducing stroke risk in AF are apixaban, dabigatran, edoxaban, and rivaroxaban. Warfarin is now used second-line, in patients where a DOAC is contraindicated or not tolerated. Aspirin is not recommended for reducing stroke risk in patients with AF.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      27.3
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 60-year-old gentleman is seen for review. He had a myocardial infarction 10...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old gentleman is seen for review. He had a myocardial infarction 10 months ago and was started on atorvastatin 80 mg daily. His latest lipid profile shows that he has not managed to reduce his non-HDL cholesterol by 40%.

      Which of the following is the most appropriate 'add-on' treatment to be considered at this stage?

      Your Answer: Omega 3 fatty acids

      Correct Answer: Ezetimibe

      Explanation:

      Add-on Therapy for Non-HDL Reduction with Statin Therapy

      NICE guidance suggests that if the target non-HDL reduction is not achieved with statin therapy, the addition of ezetimibe can be considered. However, other options such as bile acid sequestrants, fibrates, nicotinic acid, or omega-3 fatty acid compounds should not be recommended as add-on therapy in this situation. NICE guidelines specifically state that the combination of these drugs with a statin for the primary or secondary prevention of CVD should not be offered. It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure the best possible outcomes for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      10.5
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - You have a scheduled telephone consultation with Mrs. O'Brien, a 55-year-old woman who...

    Correct

    • You have a scheduled telephone consultation with Mrs. O'Brien, a 55-year-old woman who has been undergoing BP monitoring with the health-care assistant. The health care assistant has arranged the appointment as her readings have been consistently around 150/90 mmHg. Upon reviewing her records, you see that she was prescribed amlodipine due to her Irish ethnicity, and she is taking 10 mg once a day. Her only other medication is atorvastatin 20 mg. The health care assistant has noted in the record that the patient confirms she takes her medications as directed.

      As per NICE guidelines, what is the next step in managing hypertension in Mrs. O'Brien, taking into account her ethnic background?

      Your Answer: Angiotensin II receptor blocker

      Explanation:

      For patients of black African or African–Caribbean origin who are taking a calcium channel blocker for hypertension and require a second medication, it is recommended to consider an angiotensin receptor blocker instead of an ACE inhibitor. An alpha-blocker is typically not a first-line option, while spironolactone may be considered as a fourth-line option. However, the 2019 update to the NICE guidelines on hypertension recommends an ARB as the preferred choice for this patient population.

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.

      Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.

      Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.

      The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.

      If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      22.8
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - The following patients all attend for a medication review in your afternoon clinic....

    Correct

    • The following patients all attend for a medication review in your afternoon clinic. They all have atrial fibrillation (AF) and are taking multiple medications.

      Which patient should discontinue anticoagulation?

      Your Answer: An 80-year-old man who has undergone left atrial appendage closure, surgically preventing clots from entering the bloodstream

      Explanation:

      Even after undergoing catheter ablation for atrial fibrillation, patients must continue taking anticoagulants for an extended period based on their CHA2DS2-VASc score.

      Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a heart condition that requires prompt management. The management of AF depends on the patient’s haemodynamic stability and the duration of the AF. For haemodynamically unstable patients, electrical cardioversion is recommended. For haemodynamically stable patients, rate control is the first-line treatment strategy, except in certain cases. Medications such as beta-blockers, calcium channel blockers, and digoxin are commonly used to control the heart rate. Rhythm control is another treatment option that involves the use of medications such as beta-blockers, dronedarone, and amiodarone. Catheter ablation is recommended for patients who have not responded to or wish to avoid antiarrhythmic medication. The procedure involves the use of radiofrequency or cryotherapy to ablate the faulty electrical pathways that cause AF. Anticoagulation is necessary before and during the procedure to reduce the risk of stroke. The success rate of catheter ablation varies, with around 50% of patients experiencing an early recurrence of AF within three months. However, after three years, around 55% of patients who have undergone a single procedure remain in sinus rhythm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      27.9
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Which one of the following statements regarding calcium channel blockers is accurate? ...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following statements regarding calcium channel blockers is accurate?

      Your Answer: Short-acting formulations of nifedipine should not be used for angina or hypertension

      Explanation:

      The BNF cautions that the use of short-acting versions of nifedipine can result in significant fluctuations in blood pressure and trigger reflex tachycardia.

      Calcium channel blockers are a class of drugs commonly used to treat cardiovascular disease. These drugs target voltage-gated calcium channels found in myocardial cells, cells of the conduction system, and vascular smooth muscle. The different types of calcium channel blockers have varying effects on these areas, making it important to differentiate their uses and actions.

      Verapamil is used to treat angina, hypertension, and arrhythmias. It is highly negatively inotropic and should not be given with beta-blockers as it may cause heart block. Side effects include heart failure, constipation, hypotension, bradycardia, and flushing.

      Diltiazem is used to treat angina and hypertension. It is less negatively inotropic than verapamil, but caution should still be exercised when patients have heart failure or are taking beta-blockers. Side effects include hypotension, bradycardia, heart failure, and ankle swelling.

      Nifedipine, amlodipine, and felodipine are dihydropyridines used to treat hypertension, angina, and Raynaud’s. They affect peripheral vascular smooth muscle more than the myocardium, which means they do not worsen heart failure but may cause ankle swelling. Shorter acting dihydropyridines like nifedipine may cause peripheral vasodilation, resulting in reflex tachycardia. Side effects include flushing, headache, and ankle swelling.

      According to current NICE guidelines, the management of hypertension involves a flow chart that takes into account various factors such as age, ethnicity, and comorbidities. Calcium channel blockers may be used as part of the treatment plan depending on the individual patient’s needs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      5.7
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - An 18-year-old patient visits his General Practitioner with worries about the appearance of...

    Correct

    • An 18-year-old patient visits his General Practitioner with worries about the appearance of his chest wall. He is generally healthy but mentions that his father passed away 10 years ago due to heart problems. Upon examination, he is 195 cm tall (>99th centile) and slender, with pectus excavatum and arachnodactyly. The doctor suspects that he may have Marfan syndrome. What is the most prevalent cardiovascular abnormality observed in adults with Marfan syndrome? Choose ONE answer only.

      Your Answer: Aortic root dilatation

      Explanation:

      Cardiac Abnormalities in Marfan Syndrome

      Marfan syndrome is an inherited connective tissue disorder that affects various systems in the body. The most common cardiac complication is aortic root dilatation, which occurs in 70% of patients. Mitral valve prolapse is the second most common abnormality, affecting around 60% of patients. Beta-blockers can help reduce the rate of aortic dilatation and the risk of rupture. Aortic dissection, although not the most common abnormality, is a major diagnostic criterion of Marfan syndrome and can result from weakening of the aortic media due to root dilatation. Aortic regurgitation is less common than mitral regurgitation but can occur due to progressive aortic root dilatation and connective tissue abnormalities. Mitral annular calcification is more frequent in Marfan syndrome than in the general population but is not included in the diagnostic criteria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 18 - Which of the following is not a common side effect of amiodarone therapy?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not a common side effect of amiodarone therapy?

      Your Answer: Hyperthyroidism

      Correct Answer: Hypokalaemia

      Explanation:

      Adverse Effects and Drug Interactions of Amiodarone

      Amiodarone is a medication used to treat irregular heartbeats. However, its use can lead to several adverse effects. One of the most common adverse effects is thyroid dysfunction, which can manifest as either hypothyroidism or hyperthyroidism. Other adverse effects include corneal deposits, pulmonary fibrosis or pneumonitis, liver fibrosis or hepatitis, peripheral neuropathy, myopathy, photosensitivity, a slate-grey appearance, thrombophlebitis, injection site reactions, bradycardia, and lengthening of the QT interval.

      It is also important to note that amiodarone can interact with other medications. For example, it can decrease the metabolism of warfarin, leading to an increased INR. Additionally, it can increase digoxin levels. Therefore, it is crucial to monitor patients closely for adverse effects and drug interactions when using amiodarone. Proper management and monitoring can help minimize the risks associated with this medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      16.5
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  • Question 19 - A 67-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a 3-day history of...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a 3-day history of pain and swelling in her left lower leg. She denies any recent injury.

      Upon examination, you observe that her left calf is swollen and red, measuring 3 cm larger in diameter than the right side. She experiences localised tenderness along the deep venous system.

      Based on your clinical assessment, you suspect a deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and order blood tests, which reveal a D-Dimer level of 900 ng/mL (< 400).

      You initiate treatment with therapeutic doses of apixaban and schedule a proximal leg ultrasound for the next day.

      However, the ultrasound doesn't detect any evidence of a proximal leg DVT.

      What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Stop apixaban and repeat ultrasound in 7 days

      Explanation:

      Most isolated calf DVTs do not require treatment and resolve on their own, but in some cases, the clot may extend into the proximal veins and require medical intervention.

      Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and management. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidelines in 2020, recommending the use of direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) as first-line treatment for most people with VTE, including as interim anticoagulants before a definite diagnosis is made. They also recommend the use of DOACs in patients with active cancer, as opposed to low-molecular weight heparin as was previously recommended. Routine cancer screening is no longer recommended following a VTE diagnosis.

      If a patient is suspected of having a DVT, a two-level DVT Wells score should be performed to assess the likelihood of the condition. If a DVT is ‘likely’ (2 points or more), a proximal leg vein ultrasound scan should be carried out within 4 hours. If the result is positive, then a diagnosis of DVT is made and anticoagulant treatment should start. If the result is negative, a D-dimer test should be arranged. If a proximal leg vein ultrasound scan cannot be carried out within 4 hours, a D-dimer test should be performed and interim therapeutic anticoagulation administered whilst waiting for the proximal leg vein ultrasound scan (which should be performed within 24 hours).

      The cornerstone of VTE management is anticoagulant therapy. The big change in the 2020 guidelines was the increased use of DOACs. Apixaban or rivaroxaban (both DOACs) should be offered first-line following the diagnosis of a DVT. Instead of using low-molecular weight heparin (LMWH) until the diagnosis is confirmed, NICE now advocate using a DOAC once a diagnosis is suspected, with this continued if the diagnosis is confirmed. If neither apixaban or rivaroxaban are suitable, then either LMWH followed by dabigatran or edoxaban OR LMWH followed by a vitamin K antagonist (VKA, i.e. warfarin) can be used.

      All patients should have anticoagulation for at least 3 months. Continuing anticoagulation after this period is partly determined by whether the VTE was provoked or unprovoked. If the VTE was provoked, the treatment is typically stopped after the initial 3 months (3 to 6 months for people with active cancer). If the VTE was

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 20 - A 56-year-old man collapses after complaining of palpitations and is admitted to the...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old man collapses after complaining of palpitations and is admitted to the Emergency Department (ED). He is found to be in ventricular tachycardia and is successfully cardioverted. Further investigations reveal an underlying long QT syndrome, and an implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD) is inserted. The man works as an HGV driver. What advice should be given regarding his ability to drive HGV vehicles?

      Your Answer: Permanent bar

      Explanation:

      Regardless of the circumstances, the loss of HGV licence is indicated by ICD.

      DVLA Guidelines for Cardiovascular Disorders and Driving

      The DVLA has specific guidelines for individuals with cardiovascular disorders who wish to drive a car or motorcycle. For those with hypertension, driving is permitted unless the treatment causes unacceptable side effects, and there is no need to notify the DVLA. However, if the individual has Group 2 Entitlement, they will be disqualified from driving if their resting blood pressure consistently measures 180 mmHg systolic or more and/or 100 mm Hg diastolic or more.

      Individuals who have undergone elective angioplasty must refrain from driving for one week, while those who have undergone CABG or acute coronary syndrome must wait four weeks before driving. If an individual experiences angina symptoms at rest or while driving, they must cease driving altogether. Pacemaker insertion requires a one-week break from driving, while implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD) implantation results in a six-month driving ban if implanted for sustained ventricular arrhythmia. If implanted prophylactically, the individual must cease driving for one month, and Group 2 drivers are permanently barred from driving with an ICD.

      Successful catheter ablation for an arrhythmia requires a two-day break from driving, while an aortic aneurysm of 6 cm or more must be reported to the DVLA. Licensing will be permitted subject to annual review, but an aortic diameter of 6.5 cm or more disqualifies patients from driving. Finally, individuals who have undergone a heart transplant must refrain from driving for six weeks, but there is no need to notify the DVLA.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 21 - A 73-year-old man who underwent bioprosthetic aortic valve replacement three years ago is...

    Correct

    • A 73-year-old man who underwent bioprosthetic aortic valve replacement three years ago is being evaluated. What type of antithrombotic treatment is he expected to be receiving?

      Your Answer: Aspirin

      Explanation:

      For patients with prosthetic heart valves, antithrombotic therapy varies depending on the type of valve. Bioprosthetic valves typically require aspirin, while mechanical valves require a combination of warfarin and aspirin.

      Prosthetic Heart Valves: Options and Considerations

      Prosthetic heart valves are commonly used to replace damaged or diseased valves in the heart. The two main options for replacement are biological (bioprosthetic) or mechanical valves. Bioprosthetic valves are usually derived from bovine or porcine sources and are preferred for older patients. However, they have a major disadvantage of structural deterioration and calcification over time. On the other hand, mechanical valves have a low failure rate but require long-term anticoagulation due to the increased risk of thrombosis. Warfarin is still the preferred anticoagulant for patients with mechanical heart valves, and the target INR varies depending on the valve location. Aspirin is only given in addition if there is an additional indication, such as ischaemic heart disease.

      It is important to consider the patient’s age, medical history, and lifestyle when choosing a prosthetic heart valve. While bioprosthetic valves may not require long-term anticoagulation, they may need to be replaced sooner than mechanical valves. Mechanical valves, on the other hand, may require lifelong anticoagulation, which can be challenging for some patients. Additionally, following the 2008 NICE guidelines, antibiotics are no longer recommended for common procedures such as dental work for prophylaxis of endocarditis. Therefore, it is crucial to weigh the benefits and risks of each option and make an informed decision with the patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 22 - A 58-year-old male with stable angina complains of muscle aches and pains. He...

    Correct

    • A 58-year-old male with stable angina complains of muscle aches and pains. He has been on simvastatin 40 mg daily, atenolol 50 mg daily, and aspirin 75 mg daily for two years. He was recently hospitalized for acute coronary syndrome and additional therapies were added. His CPK concentration is 820 IU/L (50-200). What is the most probable cause of his statin-related myopathy?

      Your Answer: Omega-3 fatty acids

      Explanation:

      Statin-Associated Myopathy and Drug Interactions

      Statin-associated myopathy is a potential side effect that affects up to 5% of individuals taking statins. This condition can be exacerbated by the co-prescription of certain drugs, including calcium channel blockers, macrolide antibiotics, fibrates, amiodarone, and grapefruit juice. Even patients who tolerate statins well may experience myopathy or rhabdomyolysis when these agents are added to their treatment regimen.

      It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these potential drug interactions and to monitor patients closely for signs of myopathy. Additionally, NICE guidance on Myocardial infarction: secondary prevention (NG185) advises against the use of omega-3 capsules to prevent another MI. By staying informed and following evidence-based guidelines, healthcare providers can help ensure the safety and well-being of their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      15.7
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  • Question 23 - A man of 65 comes to see you with a suspected fungal nail...

    Incorrect

    • A man of 65 comes to see you with a suspected fungal nail infection.

      You notice he has not had his blood pressure taken for many years. The lowest reading observed is 175/105 mmHg. Fundoscopy is normal and his pulse is of normal rate and rhythm. He is otherwise well.

      With reference to the latest NICE guidance on Hypertension (NG136), what is your next action?

      Your Answer: Arrange ambulatory blood pressure monitoring

      Correct Answer: Repeat his blood pressure in a month

      Explanation:

      Management of Hypertension in Primary Care

      Referring a patient to the hospital for hypertension without suspicion of accelerated hypertension is inappropriate. According to the updated NICE guidelines on Hypertension (NG136) in September 2019, immediate treatment should only be considered if the blood pressure is equal to or greater than 180/120 mmHg. In this case, it is recommended to bring the patient back for ambulatory monitoring or record their home blood pressure readings for at least four days. Repeating blood pressure with the nurse is no longer preferred, as ambulatory or home readings are considered better. The presence of a fungal nail infection is irrelevant, but it may be necessary to check the patient’s fasting blood sugar or HbA1c to rule out diabetes. When answering AKT questions, it is important to consider the bigger picture and remember that the questions test knowledge of national guidance and consensus opinion, not just the latest NICE guidance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      39.1
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  • Question 24 - Which patient with cardiac issues would you deem suitable for air travel? ...

    Correct

    • Which patient with cardiac issues would you deem suitable for air travel?

      Your Answer: Patient who had an uncomplicated myocardial infarction (MI) two days ago

      Explanation:

      Understanding Fitness to Fly Guidelines for Medical Conditions

      Fitness to fly can be a complex topic, and it is important to advise patients to consult their airline for specific policies regarding their medical condition. The UK Civil Aviation Authority’s aviation health unit has produced guidelines for healthcare professionals to clarify fitness to fly for various medical conditions. These guidelines provide a concise overview of key points that are commonly encountered in general practice.

      When it comes to cardiovascular contraindications for commercial airline flights, there are several factors to consider. For example, patients who have had an uncomplicated myocardial infarction within the last seven days or a coronary artery bypass graft within the last ten days are not fit to travel. However, patients who have undergone percutaneous coronary intervention/stenting may be fit to travel after a minimum of five days, but they require medical assessment. Additionally, patients with unstable angina or uncontrolled cardiac arrhythmia should not fly.

      It is important to note that different sources may provide slightly different guidance on fitness to fly. However, the CAA guidelines are considered the closest to national guidance and are likely to be used in examination questions. Examining bodies may also choose answers that fall within the reference range of multiple accredited sources to avoid controversial answers. Overall, understanding fitness to fly guidelines for medical conditions is crucial for ensuring the safety and well-being of patients during air travel.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 25 - A 62-year-old male smoker comes to see you. His BMI is 35 and...

    Correct

    • A 62-year-old male smoker comes to see you. His BMI is 35 and has a 60-pack/year smoking history. His uncle and father both died in their 50s of a myocardial infarction.

      He is found to have a blood pressure of 146/92 mmHg in the clinic. He has no signs of end organ damage on examination and bloods, ACR, urine dip and ECG are normal. His 10-year cardiovascular risk is >10%. He has ambulatory monitoring which shows a blood pressure average of 138/86 mmHg.

      As per the latest NICE guidance, what is the most appropriate action?

      Your Answer: Discuss treatment with a calcium antagonist

      Explanation:

      Understanding NICE Guidelines on Hypertension for the AKT Exam

      The NICE guidelines on Hypertension (NG136) published in September 2019 provide important information for general practitioners on the management of hypertension. However, it is important to remember that these guidelines have attracted criticism from some clinicians for being over complicated and insufficiently evidence-based. While it is essential to have an awareness of NICE guidance, it is also important to have a balanced view and consider other guidelines and consensus opinions.

      One example of a question that may be asked in the AKT exam relates to the cut-offs for high blood pressure on ambulatory monitoring. According to the NICE guidelines, stage 1 hypertension is defined as a blood pressure of 135-149/85-94 mmHg and should be treated if there is end organ damage, diabetes, or a 10-year CVD risk of 10% or more. Stage 2 hypertension is defined as blood pressure equal to or greater than 150/95 mmHg and should be treated.

      In the exam, you may be asked to determine the appropriate treatment for a patient with stage 1 hypertension. The NICE guidance suggests a calcium channel blocker in patients above 55 or Afro-Caribbean. However, it is important to note that lifestyle factors are also crucial in risk reduction.

      While it is unlikely that you will be asked to select answers that contradict NICE guidance, it is essential to remember that the AKT exam tests your knowledge of national guidance and consensus opinion, not just the latest NICE guidance. Therefore, it is important to have a broader understanding of the subject matter and consider other guidelines and opinions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 26 - A 59-year-old man comes to your clinic with hypertension. His initial investigations, including...

    Correct

    • A 59-year-old man comes to your clinic with hypertension. His initial investigations, including blood tests, electrocardiogram, and urine dip, all come back normal. His QRisk2 score is 18%. His blood pressure readings are consistently above 150/100. He has no significant medical history, but there is a family history of high blood pressure. Despite making lifestyle changes, his blood pressure remains elevated, and you both agree on treatment.

      What is your plan for managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Prescribe a calcium channel blocker

      Explanation:

      First Step in Managing Hypertension

      Having diagnosed hypertension, the first step in management involves considering several key factors in the patient’s history. One important factor is whether the patient has diabetes, as this influences the choice of antihypertensive medication. In diabetic patients, ACE inhibitors or ARBs are preferred over calcium antagonists due to their secondary benefits in managing diabetes.

      Another important factor is the patient’s age, with a threshold of 55 years indicating the preference for a calcium antagonist over an ACE inhibitor or ARB in step 1. This is because these medications are less effective in older individuals. Other age thresholds, such as 40 and 80 years, are also important in diagnosis and monitoring.

      While not relevant to this question, it is important to note that in patients under 80 years of age, the target blood pressure should be below 140/90 in clinic or below 135/85 in home or ambulatory monitoring. Additionally, a statin may be considered for patients with a QRisk2 score above 10.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      34.8
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  • Question 27 - A 35-year-old woman with familial hypercholesterolaemia presents for a check-up. She is considering...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman with familial hypercholesterolaemia presents for a check-up. She is considering starting a family and seeks guidance on medication, as she is currently taking 80 mg of atorvastatin. What would be the most suitable recommendation?

      Your Answer: Stop atorvastatin before trying to conceive

      Explanation:

      To avoid the possibility of congenital defects, it is recommended that women discontinue the use of statins at least 3 months prior to conception.

      Familial Hypercholesterolaemia: Causes, Diagnosis, and Management

      Familial hypercholesterolaemia (FH) is a genetic condition that affects approximately 1 in 500 people. It is an autosomal dominant disorder that results in high levels of LDL-cholesterol, which can lead to early cardiovascular disease if left untreated. FH is caused by mutations in the gene that encodes the LDL-receptor protein.

      To diagnose FH, NICE recommends suspecting it as a possible diagnosis in adults with a total cholesterol level greater than 7.5 mmol/l and/or a personal or family history of premature coronary heart disease. For children of affected parents, testing should be arranged by age 10 if one parent is affected and by age 5 if both parents are affected.

      The Simon Broome criteria are used for clinical diagnosis, which includes a total cholesterol level greater than 7.5 mmol/l and LDL-C greater than 4.9 mmol/l in adults or a total cholesterol level greater than 6.7 mmol/l and LDL-C greater than 4.0 mmol/l in children. Definite FH is diagnosed if there is tendon xanthoma in patients or first or second-degree relatives or DNA-based evidence of FH. Possible FH is diagnosed if there is a family history of myocardial infarction below age 50 years in second-degree relatives, below age 60 in first-degree relatives, or a family history of raised cholesterol levels.

      Management of FH involves referral to a specialist lipid clinic and the use of high-dose statins as first-line treatment. CVD risk estimation using standard tables is not appropriate in FH as they do not accurately reflect the risk of CVD. First-degree relatives have a 50% chance of having the disorder and should be offered screening, including children who should be screened by the age of 10 years if there is one affected parent. Statins should be discontinued in women 3 months before conception due to the risk of congenital defects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 28 - You are evaluating a 75-year-old patient who has just been diagnosed with heart...

    Correct

    • You are evaluating a 75-year-old patient who has just been diagnosed with heart failure after an echocardiogram revealed a left ventricular ejection fraction of 35%. He has been experiencing mild shortness of breath during physical activity and has no other known medical conditions. He is not currently taking any medications.

      What is the most suitable recommendation to provide?

      Your Answer: Yearly influenza and one off pneumococcal vaccines

      Explanation:

      It is recommended that patients diagnosed with heart failure receive an annual influenza vaccine and a single pneumococcal vaccine.

      The Department of Health recommends that people over the age of 65 and those with certain medical conditions receive an annual influenza vaccination. These medical conditions include chronic respiratory disease, chronic heart disease, chronic kidney disease, chronic liver disease, chronic neurological disease, diabetes mellitus, immunosuppression, asplenia or splenic dysfunction, and pregnancy. Additionally, health and social care staff, those living in long-stay residential care homes, and carers of the elderly or disabled may also be considered for vaccination at the discretion of their GP.

      The pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine is recommended for all adults over the age of 65 and those with certain medical conditions. These medical conditions include asplenia or splenic dysfunction, chronic respiratory disease, chronic heart disease, chronic kidney disease, chronic liver disease, diabetes mellitus, immunosuppression, cochlear implants, and patients with cerebrospinal fluid leaks. Asthma is only included if it requires the use of oral steroids at a dose sufficient to act as a significant immunosuppressant. Controlled hypertension is not an indication for vaccination.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 29 - A 56-year-old man with a history of smoking, obesity, prediabetes, and high cholesterol...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old man with a history of smoking, obesity, prediabetes, and high cholesterol visits his GP complaining of chest pains that occur during physical activity or climbing stairs to his office. The pain is crushing in nature and subsides with rest. The patient is currently taking atorvastatin 20 mg and aspirin 75 mg daily. He has no chest pains at the time of the visit and is otherwise feeling well. Physical examination reveals no abnormalities. The GP prescribes a GTN spray for the chest pains and refers the patient to the rapid access chest pain clinic.

      What other medication should be considered in addition to the GTN?

      Your Answer: Bisoprolol

      Explanation:

      For the patient with stable angina, it is recommended to use a beta-blocker or a calcium channel blocker as the first-line treatment to prevent angina attacks. In this case, a cardioselective beta-blocker like bisoprolol or atenolol, or a rate-limiting calcium channel blocker such as verapamil or diltiazem should be considered while waiting for chest clinic assessment.

      As the patient is already taking aspirin 75 mg daily, there is no need to prescribe dual antiplatelet therapy. Aspirin is the preferred antiplatelet for stable angina.

      Since the patient is already taking atorvastatin, a fibrate like ezetimibe may not be necessary for lipid modification. However, if cholesterol levels or cardiovascular risk remain high, increasing the atorvastatin dose or encouraging positive lifestyle interventions like weight loss and smoking cessation can be helpful.

      It is important to note that nifedipine, a dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker, is not recommended as the first-line treatment for angina management as it has limited negative inotropic effects. It can be used in combination with a beta-blocker if monotherapy is insufficient for symptom control.

      Angina pectoris can be managed through lifestyle changes, medication, percutaneous coronary intervention, and surgery. In 2011, NICE released guidelines for the management of stable angina. Medication is an important aspect of treatment, and all patients should receive aspirin and a statin unless there are contraindications. Sublingual glyceryl trinitrate can be used to abort angina attacks. NICE recommends using either a beta-blocker or a calcium channel blocker as first-line treatment, depending on the patient’s comorbidities, contraindications, and preferences. If a calcium channel blocker is used as monotherapy, a rate-limiting one such as verapamil or diltiazem should be used. If used in combination with a beta-blocker, a longer-acting dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker like amlodipine or modified-release nifedipine should be used. Beta-blockers should not be prescribed concurrently with verapamil due to the risk of complete heart block. If initial treatment is ineffective, medication should be increased to the maximum tolerated dose. If a patient is still symptomatic after monotherapy with a beta-blocker, a calcium channel blocker can be added, and vice versa. If a patient cannot tolerate the addition of a calcium channel blocker or a beta-blocker, long-acting nitrate, ivabradine, nicorandil, or ranolazine can be considered. If a patient is taking both a beta-blocker and a calcium-channel blocker, a third drug should only be added while awaiting assessment for PCI or CABG.

      Nitrate tolerance is a common issue for patients who take nitrates, leading to reduced efficacy. NICE advises patients who take standard-release isosorbide mononitrate to use an asymmetric dosing interval to maintain a daily nitrate-free time of 10-14 hours to minimize the development of nitrate tolerance. However, this effect is not seen in patients who take once-daily modified-release isosorbide mononitrate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 30 - A 45-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department following a fall. He...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department following a fall. He recalled rushing for the train before feeling dizzy. His father recently died suddenly because of a heart problem. On examination, he has a ‘jerky’ pulse, a thrusting apex beat with double impulse and a late ejection systolic murmur which diminishes on squatting.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

      Explanation:

      Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is a genetic heart condition that is the leading cause of sudden cardiac death in young people. It is characterized by an enlarged left ventricle, which can cause obstruction of blood flow. A jerky pulse and an intensifying systolic murmur during activities that decrease blood volume in the left ventricle are common examination findings. Aortic stenosis, Brugada syndrome, mitral regurgitation, and mitral valve prolapse are other heart conditions that have different symptoms and examination findings.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      21.6
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Cardiovascular Health (26/30) 87%
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