-
Question 1
Incorrect
-
Which of the following is NOT a side effect of phenytoin:
Your Answer: Gum hypertrophy
Correct Answer: Ototoxicity
Explanation:Adverse effects of phenytoin include:Nausea and vomitingDrowsiness, lethargy, and loss of concentrationHeadache, dizziness, tremor, nystagmus and ataxiaGum enlargement or overgrowthCoarsening of facial features, acne and hirsutismSkin rashesBlood disorders
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Central Nervous System
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 2
Correct
-
You assess a patient that has suffered a nerve injury that has paralysed her left latissimus dorsi muscle.Latissimus dorsi receives its innervation from which of the following nerves? Select ONE answer only.
Your Answer: Thoracodorsal nerve
Explanation:Latissimus dorsi originates from the lower part of the back, where it covers a wide area. It lies underneath the inferior fibres of trapezius superiorly, and trapezius is the most superficial back muscle.Superficial muscles of the back showing latissimus dorsi (from Gray’s Anatomy)Latissimus dorsi has a broad origin, arising from the spinous processes of T6-T12, the thoracolumbar fascia, the iliac crest and the inferior 3 or 4 ribs. The fibres converge into a tendon that inserts into the intertubercular groove of the humerus.Latissimus dorsi is innervated by the thoracodorsal nerve.Latissimus dorsi acts to extend, adduct and medially rotate the humerus. It, therefore, raises the body towards the arm during climbing.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
-
-
Question 3
Incorrect
-
Which of the following is NOT a typical clinical feature of beta-thalassaemia major:
Your Answer: Osteoporosis
Correct Answer: Increased bleeding tendency
Explanation:Features include:- severe anaemia (becoming apparent at 3 – 6 months when the switch from gamma-chain to beta-chain production takes place)- failure to thrive- hepatosplenomegaly (due to excessive red cell destruction, extramedullary haemopoiesis and later due to transfusion related iron overload)- expansion of bones (due to marrow hyperplasia, resulting in bossing of the skull and cortical thinning with tendency to fracture)- increased susceptibility to infections (due to anaemia, iron overload, transfusion and splenectomy)- osteoporosis- hyperbilirubinaemia and gallstones- hyperuricaemia and gout- other features of haemolytic anaemia- liver damage and other features of iron overload
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Pathology
-
-
Question 4
Correct
-
Pre-oxygenation is done prior to intubation to extend the ‘safe apnoea time’.Which lung volume or capacity is the most important store of oxygen in the body?
Your Answer: Functional residual capacity
Explanation:The administration of oxygen to a patient before intubation is called pre-oxygenation and it helps extend the ‘safe apnoea time’. The Functional residual capacity (FRC) is the volume of gas that remains in the lungs after normal tidal expiration. It is the most important store of oxygen in the body. The aim of pre-oxygenation is to replace the nitrogen in the FRC with oxygen. Apnoea can be tolerated for longer periods before critical hypoxia develops if the FRC is large. Patients with reduced FRC reach critical hypoxia more rapidly.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
- Respiratory Physiology
-
-
Question 5
Correct
-
You review a 34-year-old man with lower back pain and plan to prescribe him ibuprofen and codeine phosphate. His only past medical history of note is depression, for which he takes fluoxetine.Which of the following scenarios would prompt you to consider the co-prescription of a PPI for gastro-protection? Select ONE answer only.
Your Answer: Co-prescription of fluoxetine
Explanation:Patients at risk of gastro-intestinal ulceration (including the elderly) who need NSAID treatment should receive gastroprotective treatment. The current recommendations by NICE suggest that gastro-protection should be considered if patients have ≥1 of the following:Using maximum recommended dose of an NSAIDAged 65 or olderHistory of peptic ulcer or GI bleedingConcomitant use of medications that increase risk:Low dose aspirinAnticoagulantsCorticosteroidsAnti-depressants including SSRIs and SNRIsRequirements for prolonged NSAID usage:Patients with OA or RA at any ageLong-term back pain if older than 45It is suggested that if required, either omeprazole 20 mg daily or lansoprazole 15-30 mg daily should be the PPIs of choice.This patient is on 400 mg of ibuprofen TDS, but the maximum recommended dose of ibuprofen is 2.4 g daily. Co-prescription of codeine, raised BMI, and a family history of peptic ulceration would also not prompt gastro-protection.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Pharmacology
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 6
Correct
-
A 78-year-old male presents to the Orthopaedic clinic with lower back pain for the past month. His past medical history reveals a history of cancer. After examination, you diagnose Metastatic Spinal Cord Compression (MSCC). Which one of the following cancers is this patient most likely to have had?
Your Answer: Prostate cancer
Explanation:Compression of the thecal sac causes metastatic Spinal Cord Compression (MSCC) due to a Metastatic tumour and its components. It can cause symptoms of limb weakness, sensory disturbances and back pain depending on the extent and level of Compression. The most common source of a tumour causing MSCC is a prostate carcinoma that metastasized to the spinal cord via the vertebral venous plexus.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Pathology
- Pathology
-
-
Question 7
Incorrect
-
Calcium-channel blockers can be divided into two categories: dihydropyridines and non-dihydropyridines. The basic chemical structure of these two classes differs, as does their relative selectivity for cardiac versus vascular L-type calcium channels. The phenylalkylamine class and the benzothiazepine class are two subgroups of non-dihydropyridines.A phenylalkylamine calcium-channel blocker is, for example, which of the following?
Your Answer: Diltiazem
Correct Answer: Verapamil
Explanation:Calcium-channel blockers, also known as calcium antagonists, stop calcium from entering cells through the L-type calcium channel. This causes vascular smooth muscle in vessel walls to relax, resulting in a decrease in peripheral vascular resistance. They can be used for a variety of things, including:HypertensionAnginaAtrial fibrillationMigraineCalcium-channel blockers can be divided into two categories: dihydropyridines and non-dihydropyridines. The basic chemical structure of these two classes differs, as does their relative selectivity for cardiac versus vascular L-type calcium channels.Dihydropyridines have a high vascular selectivity and lower systemic vascular resistance and blood pressure. As a result, they’re frequently used to treat hypertension. Modified release formulations are also used to treat angina, but their powerful systemic vasodilator and pressure-lowering effects can cause reflex cardiac stimulation, resulting in increased inotropy and tachycardia, which can counteract the beneficial effects of reduced afterload on myocardial oxygen demand.The suffix -dpine distinguishes dihydropyridines from other pyridines. Examples of dihydropyridines that are commonly prescribed include:AmlodipineFelodipineNifedipineNimodipineThe phenylalkylamine class and the benzothiazepine class are two subgroups of non-dihydropyridines.Phenylalkylamines are less effective as systemic vasodilators because they are relatively selective for the myocardium. This group of drugs lowers myocardial oxygen demand and reverses coronary vasospasm, making them useful in the treatment of angina. They are also occasionally used to treat arrhythmias. A phenylalkylamine calcium-channel blocker like verapamil is an example.In terms of selectivity for vascular calcium channels, benzothiazepines fall somewhere between dihydropyridines and phenylalkylamines. They can lower arterial pressure without producing the same level of reflex cardiac stimulation as dihydropyridines because they have both cardiac depressant and vasodilator effects. Diltiazem is the only benzothiazepine currently in clinical use.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Pharmacology
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 8
Correct
-
Which of the following clinical features is most suggestive of a lesion of the temporal lobe:
Your Answer: Receptive dysphasia
Explanation:Damage to the Wernicke’s speech area in the temporal lobe can result in a receptive dysphasia. Hemispatial neglect is most likely to occur in a lesion of the parietal lobe. Homonymous hemianopia is most likely to occur in a lesion of the occipital lobe. Expressive dysphasia is most likely to occur in a lesion of the Broca speech area in the frontal lobe. Conjugate eye deviation towards the side of the lesion is most likely to occur in a lesion of the frontal lobe.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Central Nervous System
-
-
Question 9
Correct
-
Identify the type of graph described below:A graph wherein the frequency distribution is represented by adjoining vertical bars and cases are stacked in adjoining columns. It can be used for continuous quantitative data, such as to analyse outbreak data to show an epidemic curve.
Your Answer: Histogram
Explanation:A histogram is used to demonstrate the distribution of continuous quantitative data. It is a very familiar graphical display device for representing the distribution of a single batch of data. The range of the data is divided into class intervals or bins, and the number of values falling into each interval is counted. The histogram then consists of a series of rectangles whose widths are defined by the class limits implied by the binwidths, and whose heights depend on the number of values in each bin. Histograms quickly reveal such attributes of the data distribution as location, spread, and symmetry. If the data are multimodal (i.e., more than one “hump” in the distribution of the data), this is quickly evident as well.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Medicine
-
-
Question 10
Correct
-
You proceed to administer lorazepam intravenously to a 21-year-old patient with status epilepticus. Which of the following best describes lorazepam's action?
Your Answer: Potentiates effect of GABA
Explanation:Lorazepam is a type of benzodiazepine. Benzodiazepines are gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) receptor agonists with sedative, hypnotic, anxiolytic, anticonvulsant, and muscle relaxant characteristics that promote inhibitory synaptic transmission across the central nervous system.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Central Nervous System
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 11
Correct
-
A 6-year-old child presents with profuse watery diarrhoea and dehydration. Which of the following statements is considered correct regarding infective diarrhoea?
Your Answer: E.Coli can cause diarrhoea and renal failure
Explanation:E. coli may cause several different gastrointestinal syndromes. Based on virulence factors, clinical manifestation, epidemiology, and different O and H serotypes, there are five major categories of diarrheagenic E. coli, enterotoxigenic E. coli (ETEC), enteroinvasive E. coli (EIEC), enteropathogenic E. coli (EPEC), enterohemorrhagic E. coli (EHEC), and enteroadherent, which includes diffusely adherent E. coli (DAEC) and enteroaggregative E. coli (EAEC). These five categories are sometimescollectively referred to as enterovirulent E. coli or diarrheagenic E. coli.Norwalk virus is part of the Caliciviridae family of viruses which are single-stranded RNA viruses and are the most common cause of infectious gastroenteritis in the US.Rotaviruses are the most common cause of viral gastroenteritisin infants and children. With the introduction in 2006 of a human-bovine rotavirus vaccine (RV5; RotaTeq, Merck), a delay in the onset of rotavirusseason was seen. RotaTeq is a series of three oral vaccines beginning at 6 to 12 weeks of age. A second vaccine, Rotarix (RV1; GlaxoSmithKline, Middlesex, England), was approved in June 2008.Cryptosporidium causes an illness characterized by abdominal cramping, watery diarrhoea, vomiting, fever, and anorexia. This organism is resistant to chlorine, so public swimming pools can be the source of an outbreak.G. lamblia has a worldwide distribution and has frequently been identified as the causative agent of outbreaks of gastroenteritis and traveller’s diarrhoea.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Specific Pathogen Groups
-
-
Question 12
Correct
-
Gastric emptying is increased by all of the following EXCEPT for:
Your Answer: Secretin
Explanation:Gastric emptying is increased by:Distension of the pyloric antrumA fall in the pH of chyme in the stomachParasympathetic stimulation (via vagus)GastrinThe hormones secretin, cholecystokinin and gastric inhibitory polypeptide (GIP) inhibit gastric emptying.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Physiology
-
-
Question 13
Incorrect
-
A 58-year-old woman presents with symptoms of increase in weight, proximal muscular weakening and withering, easy bruising, and acne. You notice that she has a full, plethoric aspect to her face, as well as significant supraclavicular fat pads, when you examine her. She has previously been diagnosed with Cushing's syndrome.Which of the following biochemical profiles best supports this diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypokalaemic metabolic alkalosis
Explanation:Cushing’s syndrome is a group of symptoms and signs brought on by long-term exposure to high amounts of endogenous or exogenous glucocorticoids. Cushing’s syndrome affects about 10-15 persons per million, and it is more common in those who have had a history of obesity, hypertension, or diabetes.A typical biochemical profile can help establish a diagnosis of Cushing’s syndrome. The following are the primary characteristics:HypokalaemiaAlkalosis metabolique
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine Physiology
- Physiology
-
-
Question 14
Incorrect
-
A 62 year old man has sustained a penetrating injury to the submandibular triangle. On examination, his tongue is weak and when protruded deviates to the left. Which of the following nerves has most likely been injured:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Left hypoglossal nerve
Explanation:Damage to the hypoglossal nerve results in weakness of the tongue, with deviation of the tongue towards the weak side on protrusion.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Cranial Nerve Lesions
-
-
Question 15
Incorrect
-
Which of the following nerves supply the superficial head of the flexor pollicis brevis muscle?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The recurrent branch of the median nerve
Explanation:The two heads of the flexor pollicis brevis usually differ in their innervation. The superficial head of flexor pollicis muscle receives nervous supply from the recurrent branch of the median nerve, whereas the deep head receives innervation from the deep branch of the ulnar nerve, derived from spinal roots C8 and T1.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
-
-
Question 16
Incorrect
-
What is the interquartile range of the following data set: 5, 10, 15, 20, 25, 30, 35, 40, 45, 50, 60, 70
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 30
Explanation:5, 10, 15 /20, 25, 30 /35, 40, 45 /50, 60, 70Sample size (n) = 12Median = [(n+1)/2]th value = (12+1)/2 = 6.5 = halfway between 6th and 7th value = (30 +35)/2 = 32.5The lower (first) quartile = halfway between 15 and 20 = 17.5The upper (third) quartile = halfway between 45 and 50 = 47.5The interquartile range is the difference between the upper quartile and lower quartile = 47.5 – 17.5 = 30
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Medicine
- Statistics
-
-
Question 17
Incorrect
-
A 70-year-old patient develops bacteraemia following peripheral cannulation.Which of these bacteria is the most likely cause of the infection?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Staphylococcus epidermidis
Explanation:The commonest implicated organisms in hospital-acquired bacteraemia following cannulation are Staphylococcus aureus and Staphylococcus epidermidis. The risk is directly proportional to the length of time in-situ. Peripheral cannula should be replaced after 48 hours.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Principles Of Microbiology
-
-
Question 18
Incorrect
-
Regarding platelets, which of the following statements is CORRECT:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Platelets are produced in the bone marrow by fragmentation of the cytoplasm of megakaryocytes.
Explanation:Platelets are produced in the bone marrow by fragmentation of the cytoplasm of megakaryocytes, derived from the common myeloid progenitor cell. The time interval from differentiation of the human stem cell to the production of platelets averages 10 days. Thrombopoietin is the major regulator of platelet formation and 95% of this is produced by the liver. The normal platelet count is approximately 150 – 450 x 109/L and the normal platelet lifespan is 10 days. Under normal circumstances, about one-third of the marrow output of platelets may be trapped at any one time in the normal spleen.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Cellular
- Physiology
-
-
Question 19
Incorrect
-
A 66-year-old female with a history of stroke one year ago presents to the Family Medicine clinic complaining of fatigue, weight loss, and tongue discolouration. On examination, she seems malnourished, her tongue is beefy red, and an ataxic gait pattern is noticed. Which ONE of the following conditions does this patient most likely have?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vitamin B12 deficiency
Explanation:A history of stroke and poor nutritional status points towards a nutritional deficiency as the most likely cause of her symptoms. The examination would differentiate between Vitamin B12 and Folic acid deficiency as in the former. The patient has a beefy red tongue and symptoms indicating peripheral nervous system involvement or subacute combined spinal cord degeneration. The patient may also have a lemon-yellow skin colour, loss of proprioception and vibratory sense and oral ulceration. Investigations in B12 deficiency can reveal the following:1. Macrocytic anaemia2. Neutropoenia3. Thrombocytopaenia4. Blood film: anisocytosis, poikilocytosis5. Low serum B126. Raised serum bilirubin (haemolysis)7. Intrinsic factor antibodies8. Positive Schilling test
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Pathology
-
-
Question 20
Incorrect
-
Regarding a case-control study, which of the following statements is INCORRECT:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The usual outcome measure is the relative risk.
Explanation:A case-control study is a longitudinal, retrospective, observational study which investigates the relationship between a risk factor and one or more outcomes. This is done by selecting patients who already have a specific disease (cases), matching them to patients who do not (controls) and then collecting data from the patients to compare past exposure to a possible risk factor. The usual outcome measure is the odds ratio.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Medicine
- Study Methodology
-
-
Question 21
Incorrect
-
Surface area of the absorptive surface in the small intestine is increased by all but which of the following:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Teniae coli
Explanation:Factors increasing the surface area include:The small intestine is very long – about 5 m in length.The inner wall of the small intestine is covered by numerous folds of mucous membrane called plicae circulares.The lining of the small intestine is folded into many finger-like projections called villi.The surface of the villi is covered with a layer of epithelial cells which, in turn, have many small projections called microvilli that project towards the lumen of the intestine (forming the brush border).
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Physiology
-
-
Question 22
Incorrect
-
Question 23
Incorrect
-
A 68-year-old patient shows Low calcium levels and is on dialysis for chronic kidney disease.What percentage of total serum calcium is in the form of free or ionised Ca 2+?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 50%
Explanation:Approximately half of total serum calcium is in the free or ionised Ca2+ state, 40% is attached to plasma proteins (mostly albumin), and the remaining 10% is in complexes with organic ions like citrate and phosphate. The ionized form is the only one that works.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine Physiology
- Physiology
-
-
Question 24
Incorrect
-
A 36-year-old man presented to the emergency room with a two-week history of shortness of breath, fevers, and malaise. A chest X-ray was ordered and the results confirmed the diagnosis of a right middle lobe pneumonia. Which of the following structures of the heart lies closest to the consolidation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Right atrium
Explanation:In its typical anatomical orientation, the heart has 5 surfaces formed by different internal divisions of the heart:Anterior (or sternocostal) – Right ventriclePosterior (or base) – Left atriumInferior (or diaphragmatic) – Left and right ventriclesRight pulmonary – Right atriumLeft pulmonary – Left ventricleThe silhouette sign of Felson is with respect to the right middle lobe. The right heart border should have a distinct appearance due to the right atrium abutting aerated right middle lobe. The consolidation in the right middle lobe has resulted in loss of this silhouette.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Thorax
-
-
Question 25
Incorrect
-
An 80-year-old woman with history of hypertension, diabetes, and ischemic stroke, presents with left-sided hemiplegia of the face, tongue, and limbs and right-sided deficits in motor eye activity. A CT scan was ordered and showed a right-sided stroke. Branches of which of the following arteries are most likely implicated in the case?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Basilar artery
Explanation:Weber syndrome is a midbrain stroke characterized by crossed hemiplegia along with oculomotor nerve deficits and it occurs with the occlusion of the median and/or paramedian perforating branches of the basilar artery. Typical clinical findings include ipsilateral CN III palsy, ptosis, and mydriasis (such as damage to parasympathetic fibres of CN III) with contralateral hemiplegia.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Central Nervous System
-
-
Question 26
Incorrect
-
Which of the following virulence factors of E. coli is important for attachment to host epithelial cells in the pathogenesis of urinary tract infections:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pili
Explanation:Escherichia coli is the most common cause of urinary tract infection. Uropathic strains are characterised by pili with adhesion proteins that bind to specific receptors on the urinary tract epithelium. The motility of E. coli aids its ability to ascend the urethra into the bladder or ascend the ureter into the kidney.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Pathogens
-
-
Question 27
Incorrect
-
Which of the following is NOT a common side effect of amiodarone:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Blue/green teeth discolouration
Explanation:Common side effects of amiodarone include: Bradycardia, Nausea and vomiting, Thyroid disorders – hypothyroidism and hyperthyroidism, Persistent slate grey skin discoloration, Photosensitivity, Pulmonary toxicity (including pneumonitis and fibrosis), Hepatotoxicity, Corneal microdeposits (sometimes with night glare), Peripheral neuropathy and Sleep disorders.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 28
Incorrect
-
Regarding atracurium, which of the following statements is CORRECT:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Effects such as flushing, tachycardia and hypotension can occur due to significant histamine release.
Explanation:Cardiovascular effects such as flushing, tachycardia, hypotension and bronchospasm are associated with significant histamine release; histamine release can be minimised by administering slowly or in divided doses over at least 1 minute. Atracurium undergoes non-enzymatic metabolism which is independent of liver and kidney function, thus allowing its use in patients with hepatic or renal impairment. Atracurium has no sedative or analgesic effects. All non-depolarising drugs should be used with care in patients suspected to be suffering with myasthenia gravis or myasthenic syndrome, as patients with these conditions are extremely sensitive to their effects and may require a reduction in dose.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 29
Incorrect
-
Regarding acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL), which of the following statements is CORRECT:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: ALL is the most common malignancy of childhood.
Explanation:Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL) is caused by an accumulation of lymphoblasts in the bone marrow and is the most common malignancy of childhood. The incidence of ALL is highest at 3 – 7 years, with 75% of cases occurring before the age of 6. 85% of cases are of B-cell lineage. Haematological investigations reveal a normochromic normocytic anaemia with thrombocytopenia in most cases. The total white cell count may be decreased, normal or increased. The blood film typically shows a variable number of blast cells. The bone marrow is hypercellular with >20% blast cells.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Pathology
-
-
Question 30
Incorrect
-
A patient is diagnosed as having a glucagonoma. Her blood serum glucagon concentration is 1246 pg/mL.Glucagon is produced in which of the following cells? Select ONE answer only.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Alpha-cells in the pancreas
Explanation:Glucagon is a peptide hormone that is produced and secreted by alpha cells of the islets of Langerhans, which are located in the endocrine portion of the pancreas. The main physiological role of glucagon is to stimulate hepatic glucose output, thereby leading to increases in glycaemia. It provides the major counter-regulatory mechanism to insulin in maintaining glucose homeostasis.Hypoglycaemia is the principal stimulus for the secretion of glucagon but may also be used as an antidote in beta-blocker overdose and in anaphylaxis in patients on beta-blockers that fail to respond to adrenaline. Glucagon then causes:GlycogenolysisGluconeogenesisLipolysis in adipose tissueThe secretion of glucagon is also stimulated by:AdrenalineCholecystokininArginineAlanineAcetylcholineThe secretion of glucagon is inhibited by:InsulinSomatostatinIncreased free fatty acidsIncreased urea productionGlycolysis is the metabolic pathway that converts glucose into pyruvate. The free energy released by this process is used to form ATP and NADH. Glycolysis is inhibited by glucagon, and glycolysis and gluconeogenesis are reciprocally regulated so that when one cell pathway is activated, the other is inactive and vice versa.Glucagon has a minor effect of enhancing lipolysis in adipose tissue. Lipolysis is the breakdown of lipids and involves the hydrolysis of triglycerides into glycerol and free fatty acids. It makes fatty acids available for oxidation.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine Physiology
- Physiology
-
SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY
