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Question 1
Correct
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A 35-year-old man arrives at the Emergency Department after smoking excessive amounts of heroin. He is unresponsive and exhibits pinpoint pupils and symptoms of respiratory depression.
What is the most suitable antidote for this patient?Your Answer: Naloxone
Explanation:Antidotes for Overdose: Understanding the Correct Treatment for Different Types of Overdose
Overdose can be a life-threatening situation that requires immediate medical attention. Different types of overdose require different antidotes for effective treatment. Here is a breakdown of some common antidotes and their uses:
Naloxone: This is the first-line treatment for opioid overdose. It works by binding to opioid receptors in the brain and reversing the effects of opioids. Naloxone can be given intravenously, intramuscularly, subcutaneously, or intranasally.
Vitamin K: This antidote is used for patients with severe bleeding on anticoagulation therapy or those who are vitamin K-deficient. Vitamin K takes time to take effect, with the maximum effect occurring 6-24 hours after administration.
Lithium: This medication is not used as an antidote for overdose. It is commonly used for mania and bipolar disorder.
Flumazenil: This is the first-line treatment for benzodiazepine overdose. It works by competing with benzodiazepines for receptor binding sites. Flumazenil should only be given in cases of known benzodiazepine overdose.
N-acetylcysteine (NAC): This is the first-line antidote for paracetamol overdose. It works by replenishing depleted glutathione reserves in the liver and enhancing non-toxic metabolism of acetaminophen.
In conclusion, understanding the correct antidote for different types of overdose is crucial for effective treatment. Naloxone for opioid overdose, vitamin K for severe bleeding, flumazenil for benzodiazepine overdose, and NAC for paracetamol overdose are some common examples of antidotes used in clinical practice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 7-year-old girl was brought to the Emergency Department by her parents. Her lips were swollen; she had stridor and was short of breath, and she was sweaty and clammy. She has a known allergy to shellfish and had eaten some seafood at a family gathering.
What is the appropriate course of action?Your Answer: 500 mcg of 1 : 1000 adrenaline im
Correct Answer: 300 mcg of 1 : 1000 adrenaline im
Explanation:Correct Doses and Administration of Adrenaline for Anaphylaxis
Adrenaline is a crucial medication for treating anaphylaxis, and it is always administered intramuscularly (im) at a concentration of 1:1000. However, it is essential to know the correct doses and volumes for different age groups, as vials can vary.
For adults and children over 12 years old, the appropriate dose is 500 mcg or 0.5 ml. For children aged 6-12 years, the correct dose is 300 mcg or 0.3 ml. For children under 6 years old, the recommended dose is 150 mcg or 0.15 ml.
It is crucial to administer the correct dose for the patient’s age and weight to avoid adverse effects. Additionally, it is essential to administer adrenaline im and not intravenously (iv) to prevent complications. By following these guidelines, healthcare providers can ensure safe and effective treatment of anaphylaxis with adrenaline.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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Question 3
Correct
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You see a 92-year-old gentleman who has been admitted following a fall. He had been discovered lying on the floor of his home by a neighbour. He has a diagnosis of dementia and cannot recall how long ago he had fallen. His observations are normal and he is apyrexial. A pelvic X-ray, including both hips, shows no evidence of bony injury. A full blood count is normal.
His biochemistry results are as follows:
Investigation Result Normal value
Creatinine 210 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
Urea 22.0 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
Sodium 133 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium 4.9 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
C-reactive protein (CRP) 8 mg/l 0–10 mg/l
What is the most appropriate investigation to request next?Your Answer: Creatine kinase
Explanation:Investigating the Cause of Renal Failure: Importance of Creatine Kinase
Renal failure can have various causes, including dehydration, sepsis, and rhabdomyolysis. In this case, the patient’s normal observations and inflammatory markers suggest rhabdomyolysis as the most serious potential cause. A raised creatine kinase would confirm the diagnosis. Elderly patients are particularly at risk of rhabdomyolysis following a prolonged period of immobility. A falls screen, including routine bloods, blood glucose, resting electrocardiogram, urinalysis, and lying-standing blood pressure, would be appropriate. While a catheter urine specimen may be helpful in diagnosing sepsis, it is less likely in this case. Liver function tests and upper gastrointestinal endoscopy are unlikely to provide useful information. A plain chest X-ray is also not necessary for investigating the cause of renal failure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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Question 4
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department following a fall off a ladder. She was witnessed to have lost consciousness at the scene and remained confused with the ambulance personnel. She is complaining of a headache and has vomited three times. Her eyes are open to voice and she is able to squeeze your hand using both hands, when asked, and wiggle her toes. She is confused about what has happened and does not remember falling. Her pupils are equal and reactive.
How would you manage this patient?Your Answer: Computed tomography (CT) head scan within 1 h
Explanation:Management of Head Injury: Importance of CT Scan and Neuro Observation
Head injury is a serious medical condition that requires prompt and appropriate management. The current imaging modality used to investigate brain injury is CT. According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) head injury guidelines, patients who sustained a head injury and have any of the following risk factors should be scanned within 1 hour: GCS <13 on initial assessment in the Emergency Department, GCS <15 at 2 hours after the injury on assessment in the Emergency Department, suspected open or depressed skull fracture, any sign of basal skull fracture, post-traumatic seizure, focal neurological deficit, and more than one episode of vomiting. A provisional radiology report should be given to the requesting clinician within 1 hour of the scan performed to aid immediate clinical management. While waiting for the CT scan, the patient should be monitored using a neuro observation chart, and any deterioration needs to be immediately reported to the responsible clinician for the patient’s care. Admitting the patient for neuro observation is crucial to ensure prompt management of any changes in the patient’s condition. There is no indication to discuss the patient with the neurosurgical department at present. Once the imaging has been performed and if new surgically significant intracranial pathology is detected, then discussion of the care plan should take place with the local neurosurgical team. Discussion of the care plan with a neurosurgeon is warranted, regardless of imaging, if any of the following is present: GCS 8 or less persisting despite initial resuscitation, unexplained confusion lasting >4 hours, deterioration in GCS score after admission, progressing focal neurological signs, a seizure without full recovery, CSF leak, suspected/definitive.
In conclusion, the immediate CT scan and neuro observation are crucial steps in the management of head injury. Discharging a patient with a high-risk head injury is inappropriate and can lead to serious consequences.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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Question 5
Correct
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Mrs Johnson is a 79-year-old lady who has been admitted with a urinary tract infection. She has a past medical history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), for which she takes inhalers. Her abbreviated mental test score (AMTS) was 8/10 on admission. A midstream urine sample was sent for microbiology and the report indicates a pure growth of Escherichia coli sensitive to trimethoprim and co-amoxiclav. After receiving 48 hours of intravenous co-amoxiclav, she is now on appropriate oral antibiotic therapy.
You are called to the ward at 0100 h as Mrs Johnson is increasingly agitated and confused. She now has an AMTS of 2/10 and is refusing to stay in bed. Her vital signs are normal, and respiratory, cardiovascular, abdominal and neurological examinations reveal some fine crepitations at both lung bases, but no other abnormality. Her Glasgow Coma Score (GCS) is 14.
What is the most appropriate next management option?Your Answer: Advise nursing in a well-lit environment with frequent reassurance and reorientation
Explanation:Managing Acute Delirium in Mrs Smith: Nursing in a Well-Lit Environment with Frequent Reassurance and Reorientation
Acute delirium is a common condition that can be caused by various factors, including sepsis, metabolic problems, hypoxia, intracranial vascular insults, and toxins. When assessing a patient with acute delirium, it is crucial to exclude life-threatening or reversible causes through a thorough history, clinical examination, and appropriate investigations.
In the case of Mrs Smith, who has new confusion with preserved consciousness, there is no evidence of acute clinical illness, and she is receiving appropriate treatment for a urinary tract infection. Therefore, the most appropriate management is to nurse her in a well-lit environment with frequent reassurance and reorientation. Sedating medication, such as lorazepam or haloperidol, should only be considered as a last resort if the patient is at risk of harm due to delirium.
It is not necessary to arrange an urgent CT head or a full septic screen unless there are specific indications. Instead, optimizing the patient’s environment can help resolve delirium and improve outcomes. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can effectively manage acute delirium in patients like Mrs Smith.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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Question 6
Correct
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A 55-year-old woman is admitted unresponsive to the Emergency Department. She is not breathing and has no pulse. The ambulance crew had initiated cardiopulmonary resuscitation before arrival. She is known to have hypertension and takes ramipril.
She had routine bloods at the General Practice surgery three days ago:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin (Hb) 134 g/l 115–155 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 3.5 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Sodium (Na+) 134 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 6.1 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Urea 9.3 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
Creatinine (Cr) 83 µmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
Estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) > 60
The Ambulance Crew hand you an electrocardiogram (ECG) strip which shows ventricular fibrillation (VF).
What is the most likely cause of her cardiac arrest?Your Answer: Hyperkalaemia
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for Cardiac Arrest: Hyperkalaemia as the Most Likely Cause
The patient’s rhythm strip shows ventricular fibrillation (VF), which suggests hyperkalaemia as the most likely cause of cardiac arrest. The blood results from three days ago and the patient’s medication (ramipril) support this diagnosis. Ramipril can increase potassium levels, and the patient’s K+ level was already high. Therefore, it is recommended to suspend ramipril until the K+ level comes down.
Other potential causes of cardiac arrest were considered and ruled out. There is no evidence of hypernatraemia, hypovolaemia, or hypoxia in the patient’s history or blood results. While pulmonary thrombus cannot be excluded, it is unlikely to result in VF arrest and usually presents as pulseless electrical activity (PEA).
In summary, hyperkalaemia is the most likely cause of the patient’s cardiac arrest, and appropriate measures should be taken to manage potassium levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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Question 7
Correct
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An adolescent recovering from a first-time anaphylactic reaction to shellfish is being discharged.
What should be done at discharge?Your Answer: Discharge with two adrenaline autoinjectors
Explanation:Discharge and Follow-Up of Anaphylactic Patients: Recommendations and Advice
When it comes to discharging and following up with patients who have experienced anaphylaxis, there are certain recommendations and advice that healthcare professionals should keep in mind. Here are some key points to consider:
Recommendations and Advice for Discharging and Following Up with Anaphylactic Patients
– Give two adrenaline injectors as an interim measure after emergency treatment for anaphylaxis, before a specialist allergy service appointment. This is especially important in the event the patient has another anaphylactic attack before their specialist appointment.
– Auto-injectors are given to patients at an increased risk of a reaction. They are not usually necessary for patients who have suffered drug-induced anaphylaxis, unless it is difficult to avoid the drug.
– Advise that one adrenaline auto-injector will be prescribed if the patient has a further anaphylactic reaction.
– Arrange for a blood test after one week for serum tryptase, immunoglobulin E (IgE) and histamine levels to assess biphasic reaction. Discharge and follow-up of anaphylactic patients do not involve a blood test. Tryptase sample timings, measured while the patient is in hospital, should be documented in the patient’s records.
– Patients who have suffered from anaphylaxis should be given information about the potential of biphasic reactions (i.e. the reaction can recur hours after initial treatment) and what to do if a reaction occurs again.
– All patients presenting with anaphylaxis should be referred to an Allergy Clinic to identify the cause, and thereby reduce the risk of further reactions and prepare the patient to manage future episodes themselves. All patients should also be given two adrenaline injectors in the event the patient has another anaphylactic attack.By following these recommendations and providing patients with the necessary information and resources, healthcare professionals can help ensure the best possible outcomes for those who have experienced anaphylaxis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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Question 8
Correct
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A 25-year-old backpacker had embarked on a climbing expedition to Mount Everest. He had flown from the United Kingdom the previous day. To avoid the predicted bad weather, he and his team left the base camp the following day. They reached an altitude of 6000 m on day four. He complained of occasional dull headaches and feeling light-headed, which he attributed to his dehydration. The next day, he set off alone, but was discovered by the search party ten hours later. He was found to be confused, unable to walk in a straight line, irritable, and extremely fatigued. His symptoms significantly improved after receiving dexamethasone and resting in a portable hyperbaric chamber.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: High-altitude cerebral oedema (HACE)
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for High-Altitude Illness in a Patient with AMS Symptoms
High-altitude cerebral oedema (HACE) is a serious complication of acute mountain sickness (AMS) that can lead to ataxia, confusion, and even coma. In this patient, the symptoms progressed from mild AMS to HACE, as evidenced by the alleviation of symptoms following dexamethasone and hyperbaric treatment. Hypoglycaemia can mimic HACE symptoms, but the rapid ascent to high altitude and progression of symptoms point to a diagnosis of HACE. Alcohol intoxication can also mimic AMS and HAPE symptoms, but the patient’s response to treatment excludes this differential diagnosis. High-altitude pulmonary oedema (HAPE) is another potential complication, but the absence of respiratory symptoms rules it out in this case. Overall, a careful differential diagnosis is necessary to accurately diagnose and treat high-altitude illness in patients with AMS symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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Question 9
Correct
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You are alone walking in the countryside when an elderly man collapses in front of you. There is nobody else around. You look, listen and feel, ensuring his airway is open. He is not breathing and is unresponsive. You phone for an ambulance.
What is the next step that you would take while waiting for the ambulance to arrive?Your Answer: Begin chest compressions at a rate of 100–120 per minute, giving two rescue breaths after every 30 compressions
Explanation:How to Perform Chest Compressions and Rescue Breaths in Basic Life Support
When faced with a non-responsive person who is not breathing, it is important to act quickly and perform basic life support. Begin by confirming that the person is not breathing and calling for an ambulance. Then, kneel by the person’s side and place the heel of one hand in the centre of their chest, with the other hand on top, interlocking fingers. Apply pressure to the sternum to a depth of 5-6 cm at a rate of 100-120 compressions per minute. After 30 compressions, open the airway and give two rescue breaths. Pinch the nose closed and blow steadily into the mouth, watching for the chest to rise. Repeat chest compressions and rescue breaths until help arrives.
Note: The previous recommendation of two rescue breaths before chest compressions has been replaced with immediate chest compressions. Do not delay potentially life saving resuscitation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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Question 10
Correct
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A 21-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department after near-drowning. This occurred after he fell from a boat into a lake, while intoxicated with alcohol. He has no medical history. He is drowsy, with a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 9; his oxygen saturations are 80% on an inspired fraction of oxygen (FiO2) of 1.0 via a non-rebreather face mask.
Which of the following is part of the treatment algorithm for drowning?Your Answer: Warming strategies for hypothermia
Explanation:Warming and Treatment Strategies for Hypothermia and Drowning
Hypothermia and drowning are serious medical emergencies that require prompt intervention to prevent further complications. In cases of hypothermia, the severity of the condition will determine the appropriate intervention. For mild cases, passive rewarming through heated blankets and warm fluids may be sufficient. However, for more severe cases, blood rewarming through the use of a haemodialysis machine or warm intravenous fluids may be necessary. Airway rewarming using humidified oxygen may also be used.
In cases of drowning, support for shock is crucial, and patients should be managed with warming, IV fluids, and airway support. Diuresis should be avoided in shocked patients. Oxygenation is critical in treating post-drowning patients, and intubation and mechanical ventilation may be required in cases of moderate to severe hypoxia. Prophylactic antibiotics are unproven, but may be given if fever develops or there is grossly contaminated aspirated water. Treatment should be targeted towards likely pathogens, with route of administration depending on the patient’s condition. Pneumonia can be a major complication, and atypical organisms should be considered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old is brought to the Emergency Department after being found at home on the floor by her daughter. Her daughter tried to rouse her but had no response. She has a laceration to her head and her daughter believes she may have had a fall. You notice she has a sudden decrease in consciousness in the department. You are unable to get the patient to make any vocalisation. When you apply supraorbital pressure, she briefly opens her eyes and withdraws from the pain.
Which one of the following is the best immediate management option for this patient?Your Answer: Urgent CT brain scan
Correct Answer: Insert Guedel airway
Explanation:Management of a Patient with Low Glasgow Coma Scale Score
The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is a tool used to assess the level of consciousness in patients. A patient with a GCS score below 8 requires urgent referral to critical care or the anaesthetist on-call for appropriate management. In this case, the patient has a GCS score of 7 (E2, V1, M4) and needs immediate attention.
Airway management is the top priority in patients with a low GCS score. The patient may need invasive ventilation if they lose the capacity to maintain their own airway. Once the airway is secured, a referral to the neurosurgical registrar may be necessary, and investigations such as a CT brain scan should be carried out to determine the cause of the low GCS score.
A neurological observation chart is also needed to detect any deteriorating central nervous system function. A medication review can be done once the patient is stabilised and an intracranial bleed has been ruled out. This will help identify medications that could cause a fall and stop unnecessary medication.
In summary, a patient with a low GCS score requires urgent attention to secure their airway, determine the cause of the low score, and monitor for any neurological deterioration. A medication review can be done once the patient is stable.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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Question 12
Correct
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A 32-year-old patient is brought in by ambulance to Accident and Emergency. He is unresponsive, and therefore obtaining a medical history is not possible. He is breathing on his own, but his respiratory rate (RR) is low at 10 breaths per minute and his oxygen saturation is at 90% on room air. His arterial blood gas (ABG) reveals respiratory acidosis, and his pupils are constricted.
What would be the most suitable medication for initial management in this case?Your Answer: Naloxone
Explanation:Antidote Medications: Uses and Dosages
Naloxone:
Naloxone is a medication used to reverse the effects of opioid overdose. It works by blocking the opioid receptors in the brain, which can cause respiratory depression and reduced consciousness. It is administered in incremental doses every 3-5 minutes until the desired effect is achieved. However, full reversal may cause withdrawal symptoms and agitation.N-acetyl-L-cysteine (NAC):
NAC is an antidote medication used to treat paracetamol overdose. Paracetamol overdose can cause liver damage and acute liver failure. NAC is administered if the serum paracetamol levels fall to the treatment level on the nomogram or if the overdose is staggered.Flumazenil:
Flumazenil is a specific reversal agent for the sedative effects of benzodiazepines. It works by competing with benzodiazepines for the same receptors in the brain. However, it is not effective in treating pupillary constriction caused by benzodiazepine toxicity.Adrenaline:
Adrenaline is used in the treatment of cardiac arrest and anaphylaxis. It has no role in the treatment of opiate toxicity. The dosage of adrenaline varies depending on the indication, with a stronger concentration required for anaphylaxis compared to cardiac arrest.Atropine:
Atropine is a medication used to treat symptomatic bradycardia, where the patient’s slow heart rate is causing hemodynamic compromise. However, it can cause agitation in the hours following administration. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman is admitted to the Emergency Department with vomiting. She has vague abdominal pain, and a particularly keen junior surgeon takes her to theatre for an appendectomy; the appendix is removed and is normal. In recovery, she becomes hypotensive and tachycardic and does not respond as expected to fluid replacement. On examination, she is very well tanned and slim; her blood pressure is 90/65 mmHg, with a pulse rate of 100 bpm.
Investigations:
Investigation Result Normal value
Potassium (K+) 6.2 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Sodium (Na+) 127 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Urea 9.1 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
Creatinine 165 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
Haemoglobin 98 g/l (normochromic normocytic) 115–155 g/l
Free T4 6.2 pmol/l (low) 11–22 pmol/l
Which of the following fits best with this clinical scenario?Your Answer: Further fluid replacement will be most effective in improving her condition
Correct Answer: iv hydrocortisone is the initial treatment of choice
Explanation:The recommended initial treatment for patients experiencing an adrenal crisis is intravenous hydrocortisone. This is because the adrenal glands are not producing enough cortisol, which can lead to severe adrenal insufficiency. The most common causes of an adrenal crisis include undiagnosed adrenal insufficiency with associated major stress, abrupt cessation of glucocorticoid therapy, and bilateral infarction of the adrenal glands. Symptoms of an adrenal crisis can include hyperkalemia, hyponatremia, renal impairment, and normochromic normocytic anemia, as well as non-specific symptoms such as vomiting, abdominal pain, weakness, fever, and lethargy. The patient’s tan may be due to increased melanocyte activity caused by raised levels of adrenocorticotrophic hormone. Intravenous T3 replacement may be effective in treating the patient’s low free T4 levels, which are likely a result of adrenal insufficiency. Fluid replacement alone will not be sufficient to treat the patient’s shock, which is the main manifestation of an adrenal crisis. Normochromic normocytic anemia can be treated with corticosteroid replacement, and the patient’s deranged renal function is likely a result of sepsis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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Question 14
Correct
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A 32-year-old nurse suddenly falls ill in the break room during her lunch break. She has a known severe shellfish allergy. She appears pale and agitated, with a respiratory rate of 60 breaths/minute, audible wheezing, a pulse rate of 130 bpm, and a blood pressure of 80/50 mmHg. Some of her coworkers are present. Anaphylaxis is suspected.
What is the initial emergency intervention that should be given by her colleagues?Your Answer: 0.5 mg of 1 in 1000 adrenaline intramuscular (IM) injection
Explanation:Treatment Algorithm for Anaphylaxis: Medications and IV Fluids
Anaphylaxis is a severe and potentially life-threatening allergic reaction that requires immediate treatment. The following medications and IV fluids are part of the treatment algorithm for anaphylaxis:
1. 0.5 mg of 1 in 1000 adrenaline intramuscular (IM) injection: This should be given to treat anaphylaxis, repeated after five minutes if the patient is no better. An IV injection should only be used by experienced practitioners.
2. Hydrocortisone 200 mg intravenous (IV): Once adrenaline has been administered, IV access should be obtained to administer steroids, fluids and antihistamines.
3. 1 mg of 1 in 10 000 adrenaline im injection: The recommended initial dose of adrenaline is 0.5 mg im of 1 in 1000 strength.
4. IV fluids through a wide-bore cannula: Once adrenaline has been administered, IV access should be obtained to administer steroids, fluids and antihistamines.
5. Promethazine 50 mg IV: Once adrenaline has been administered, IV access should be obtained to administer steroids, fluids and antihistamines.
It is important to note that administration of adrenaline should not be delayed and the patient’s airway, breathing, and circulation should be assessed before administering any medication. IV access should also be obtained as soon as possible to administer the necessary medications and fluids.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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Question 15
Correct
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Your consultant asks you to monitor a 93-year-old woman on a General Medical Ward admitted with a lower respiratory tract infection who the nurses say becomes really confused at night. She scores 28/30 on Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE) on two occasions in the daytime. Between these two results, on a night when you are on call, you completed the examination and found she scored only 18/30. She also complained of animals running around the room.
What is the most likely reason for her cognitive impairment?Your Answer: Delirium
Explanation:Interpreting MMSE Scores and Differential Diagnosis for Confusion in an Elderly Patient
A MMSE score of 28/30 suggests no significant cognitive impairment, while a score of 18/30 indicates impairment. However, educational attainment can affect results, and the MMSE is not recommended for those with learning disabilities. Fluctuating confusion with increased impairment at night and visual hallucinations in an elderly person with an infection suggests delirium. Mild or moderate dementia is suggested if the MMSE score is over 26 in the daytime on two occasions, but confusion is at night, suggestive of delirium over dementia. Normal pressure hydrocephalus is unlikely without ataxic gait or urinary incontinence, and cerebral abscess is unlikely without persistent confusion or temperature.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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Question 16
Correct
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A middle-aged woman is brought to the Emergency Department (ED), after being found unconscious in the town centre by members of the police. She is poorly kept, and a police handover reports that she has no fixed abode. She is well known to various members of ED. On arrival in ED, she is still unconscious. Her airway is patent; she is saturating at 94% on room air, with a respiratory rate of 10 breaths/min. She is haemodynamically stable, with a temperature of 35.6 °C and small, constricted pupils. There appears to be an area of minor external bleeding and a scalp haematoma on the back of her head.
What is the most appropriate initial course of action?Your Answer: Naloxone 400 μg intramuscularly (IM)
Explanation:Treatment Priorities for Opioid Overdose: A Case Vignette
In cases of suspected opioid overdose, the priority is to address respiratory compromise with the administration of naloxone. The British National Formulary recommends an initial dose of 400 μg, with subsequent doses of 800 μg at 1-minute intervals if necessary, and a final dose of 2 mg if there is still no response. Naloxone acts as a non-selective and competitive opioid receptor antagonist, and is a relatively safe drug.
In the case of an unkempt man with a low respiratory rate and pinpoint pupils, the priority is to administer naloxone. High-flow oxygen is not necessary if the patient is maintaining saturations of 94%. A CT head scan or neurosurgical referral may be necessary in cases of head injury, but in this case, the priority is to address the opioid overdose.
Flumazenil, a benzodiazepine receptor antagonist, is not the correct choice for opioid overdose. Benzodiazepine overdose presents with CNS depression, ataxia, and slurred speech, but not pupillary constriction. Naloxone is the appropriate antidote for opioid overdose.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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Question 17
Correct
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An 81-year-old man, who is confused and aggressive, is admitted to the Medical Admission Unit. He is unable to give any history due to confusion. His wife had taken him to the general practice surgery yesterday due to increased confusion, and trimethoprim was prescribed to treat a urinary tract infection. From a previous discharge letter, you ascertain that he has a background of Alzheimer’s dementia, atrial fibrillation (AF), ischaemic heart disease and osteoarthritis. His wife reports that he is normally forgetful but is much more confused than usual.
On examination, his pulse is 124 bpm (irregularly irregular), blood pressure 134/74 mmHg, oxygen saturation (SaO2) 95% (on 28% oxygen), respiratory rate 22 breaths per minute and temperature 38.4 °C. He has crepitations and increased vocal resonance at the right lung base, with an area of bronchial breathing above this. Neurological examination of the upper and lower limbs is normal.
Chest X-ray (CXR): focal consolidation, right base
Electrocardiogram (ECG): AF with rapid ventricular response
Urine dip: protein ++, otherwise NAD
Blood results are pending.
What is the most likely cause of this patient's acute deterioration?Your Answer: Community-acquired pneumonia
Explanation:Diagnosing Acute Deterioration in Elderly Patients: Community-Acquired Pneumonia as the Likely Cause
Elderly patients with underlying dementia often present with non-specific symptoms, making it challenging to diagnose the cause of acute deterioration. In this case, the patient presented with acute confusion, and potential causes included community-acquired pneumonia, urinary tract infection, atrial fibrillation with rapid ventricular response, and progression of Alzheimer’s disease. However, clinically and radiologically, the patient showed evidence of community-acquired pneumonia, making it the most likely diagnosis.
Urinary tract infection and Alzheimer’s disease were ruled out based on urinalysis findings and chest findings, respectively. Atrial fibrillation with rapid ventricular response could have been a cause of the patient’s confusion, but the clinical findings suggested pneumonia as the primary cause. Myocardial infarction was also a possibility, but the chest findings made it less likely.
In conclusion, diagnosing acute deterioration in elderly patients with underlying dementia requires a thorough evaluation of potential causes. In this case, community-acquired pneumonia was the most likely diagnosis, highlighting the importance of considering multiple pathologies that can coexist in elderly patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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Question 18
Correct
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You are called to attend a 35-year-old man who is in cardiac arrest on one of the wards. On arrival, the patient has defibrillator pads attached and someone is performing cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR). A rhythm strip displays ventricular fibrillation during a CPR pause.
What is the most appropriate management?Your Answer: Safely DC shock immediately
Explanation:Proper Steps for Responding to a Shockable Rhythm
When responding to a shockable rhythm, such as ventricular fibrillation, it is important to follow the proper steps to ensure the safety and effectiveness of the resuscitation efforts. The first step is to immediately deliver a safe direct current (DC) shock, followed by one round of CPR and another safe DC shock. It is not appropriate to give drugs at this stage.
After the second shock, continue CPR at a rate of 30 compressions to 2 breaths with interval checks. It is important to note that CPR is appropriate on both sides of the Advanced Life Support (ALS) algorithm initially, but once the pads are attached and the rhythm has been observed, the appropriate pathway should be followed.
Under no circumstances should resuscitation be stopped if a shockable rhythm is observed. Instead, adrenaline 1:1000 IV should be administered only after the appropriate steps have been taken and the patient’s condition has been reassessed. By following these steps, responders can increase the chances of a successful resuscitation and potentially save a life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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Question 19
Correct
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A 72-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department from a nursing home with confusion, fever and flank pain. Her temperature is 38.5 °C, blood pressure 82/48 mmHg, pulse rate 123 bpm and respiration rate 27 breaths per minute. Physical examination reveals dry mucous membranes and flank tenderness. Urinalysis shows 50–100 leukocytes and many bacteria per high-powered field.
Which of the following is most likely to improve survival for this patient?Your Answer: Aggressive fluid resuscitation
Explanation:The Importance of Timing in Fluid Resuscitation for Severe Sepsis: Debunking Myths about Haemodynamic Monitoring, Albumin Infusion, and Haemoglobin Levels
When it comes to treating severe sepsis, timing is crucial. Aggressive fluid resuscitation within the first six hours can significantly improve a patient’s chances of survival. This was demonstrated in a landmark study by Rivers and colleagues, which found that early goal-directed therapy resulted in higher survival rates than delayed resuscitation attempts.
However, not all interventions are equally effective. Haemodynamic monitoring with a pulmonary artery catheter, for example, has not been shown to increase survival in septic patients. Similarly, there is no evidence that albumin infusion reduces mortality, and in fact, some studies have shown increased mortality rates in patients who received albumin solutions.
Maintaining a haemoglobin level above 120 g/l is also not supported by evidence. While giving blood may be part of resuscitation for anaemic patients in shock, aiming for a specific haemoglobin level is not necessary.
Finally, there is no data to support the idea that maintaining a lower Pa(CO2) would increase survival in septic patients. In summary, aggressive fluid resuscitation within the first six hours is crucial for treating severe sepsis, but not all interventions are equally effective or supported by evidence.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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Question 20
Correct
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A 49-year-old man with severe acute pancreatitis is transferred from the surgical ward to the Intensive Care Unit with rapidly worsening shortness of breath. He has a history of heavy smoking and alcohol use.
On examination, in the Intensive Care Unit, he is maintaining saturations of 91% only on the ‘non-rebreather’ mask. There is cyanosis around the lips; bilateral crackles are present on auscultation of the lungs.
Investigations:
Investigation Result Normal value
pH 7.32 7.35–7.45
pO2 8.1 kPa (on oxygen) 10.5–13.5 kPa
pCO2 4.8 kPa 4.6–6.0 kPa
Chest X-ray Bilateral pulmonary infiltrates
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this case?Your Answer: Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)
Explanation:Understanding Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS) and Differential Diagnoses
Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is a severe condition that can be caused by various factors, including trauma, acute sepsis, and severe medical illnesses. It is characterized by a diffuse, acute inflammatory response that leads to increased vascular permeability of the lung parenchyma and loss of aerated tissue. Symptoms typically occur within 6-72 hours of the initiating event and progress rapidly, requiring high-level care. Hypoxia is difficult to manage, and pulmonary infiltrates are seen on chest X-ray. Careful fluid management and ventilation are necessary, as mortality rates can be as high as 30%. Corticosteroids may reduce late-phase damage and fibrosis.
While secondary pneumonia may be included in the differential diagnosis, the acute deterioration and bilateral infiltrates suggest ARDS. Unilateral radiographic changes are more commonly associated with pneumonia. Viral pneumonitis is another possible diagnosis, but the rapid onset of ARDS distinguishes it from viral pneumonitis. Fibrosing alveolitis, a chronic interstitial lung disease, is unlikely to present acutely. Cardiac failure is also unlikely, as there are no cardiac abnormalities described on examination and the chest radiograph does not demonstrate cardiomegaly, pulmonary venous congestion, Kerley B lines, or pulmonary effusions that are suggestive of a cardiac cause. Echocardiography may be helpful in assessing cardiac functionality.
In summary, ARDS is a serious condition that requires prompt and careful management. Differential diagnoses should be considered, but the acute onset and bilateral infiltrates seen on chest X-ray are suggestive of ARDS.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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Question 21
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A 35-year-old patient arrives by ambulance after developing breathing difficulties. She is otherwise healthy but had recently been prescribed amoxicillin by her doctor for a lower respiratory tract infection.
During examination, she is unable to speak and has harsh upper airway sounds on inspiration. She also has a noticeable rash. Her pulse is 160 bpm and her blood pressure is 80/40. Her oxygen saturation is 90% on high-flow oxygen.
What is the initial step in managing this patient?Your Answer: Administer 0.5 ml of 1 : 1000 adrenaline solution intramuscularly (im)
Explanation:Management of Anaphylaxis: Initial Steps and Common Mistakes
Anaphylaxis is a life-threatening emergency that requires prompt and appropriate management. The initial steps in managing anaphylaxis follow the ABCDE approach, which includes securing the airway, administering high-flow oxygen, and giving adrenaline intramuscularly (IM). The recommended dose of adrenaline is 0.5 ml of 1 : 1000 solution, which can be repeated after 5 minutes if necessary. However, administering adrenaline via the intravenous (IV) route should only be done during cardiac arrest or by a specialist experienced in its use for circulatory support.
While other interventions such as giving a 500-ml bolus of 0.9% sodium chloride IV, administering 10 mg of chlorphenamine IV, and administering 200 mg of hydrocortisone IV are important parts of overall management, they should not be the first steps. Giving steroids, such as hydrocortisone, may take several hours to take effect, and anaphylaxis can progress rapidly. Similarly, administering IV fluids and antihistamines may be necessary to treat hypotension and relieve symptoms, but they should not delay the administration of adrenaline.
One common mistake in managing anaphylaxis is administering IV adrenaline in the wrong dose and route. This can lead to fatal complications and should be avoided. Therefore, it is crucial to follow the recommended initial steps and seek expert help if necessary to ensure the best possible outcome for the patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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Question 22
Correct
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An 80-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department from a nursing home with fever and a non-healing infected ulcer in his leg. He has a history of obesity and type 2 diabetes. He reports that his leg was extremely painful but now is no longer painful. On clinical examination, his temperature is 38.6 °C, heart rate 110 bpm and blood pressure 104/69 mmHg. Peripheral pulses are palpable on examining his legs. There is tense oedema, dusky blue/purple plaques and haemorrhagic bullae on his right leg, with an underlying venous ulcer. Palpation reveals crepitus. After taking blood cultures, treatment is commenced with intravenous (IV) antibiotics and fluids.
What is the next and most important step in management?Your Answer: Surgical debridement in theatre
Explanation:Treatment Options for Necrotising Fasciitis
Necrotising fasciitis (NF) is a serious medical emergency that requires immediate surgical intervention. Antimicrobial therapy and support alone have shown to have a mortality rate of almost 100%. The primary goal of surgical intervention is to remove all necrotic tissue until healthy, viable tissue is reached. This can be done through surgical debridement in theatre or bedside wound debridement by a plastic surgeon in an aseptic environment.
Hyperbaric oxygen (HBO) treatment is believed to increase the bactericidal effects of neutrophils and can be useful in treating synergistic infections. However, access to HBO units with appropriate staffing and chambers large enough for intensive care patients is limited.
IV immunoglobulin (IVIG) has shown potential benefits in group A streptococcal (GAS) infections, but further studies are needed to determine its exact benefits in NF.
While X-ray, MRI, and CT scans can aid in the diagnosis of NF, surgical treatment should never be delayed for these tests. Immediate surgical intervention is crucial in treating this life-threatening condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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Question 23
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A 25-year-old woman has been experiencing fatigue and sluggishness for the past three weeks, along with discomfort in the left upper quadrant of her abdomen. She had a UTI not long ago, which was treated with amoxicillin. However, she ceased taking the medication due to a rash that spread throughout her body. What is the probable cause of her exhaustion?
Your Answer: Glandular fever
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis: Glandular Fever, Chronic Fatigue Syndrome, Chronic Renal Failure, Chronic Depression, Iron Deficiency
Glandular Fever: A Possible Diagnosis
The patient in question is likely suffering from glandular fever, also known as infectious mononucleosis. This condition is caused by the Epstein-Barr virus, which is transmitted through saliva. Symptoms typically include a sore throat, fever, and swollen lymph nodes in the neck. However, other symptoms such as fatigue, arthritis, and hepatitis may also occur. The patient’s left upper quadrant pain and tiredness are consistent with this diagnosis. A characteristic rash may also develop following treatment with certain antibiotics.Other Possible Diagnoses
Chronic fatigue syndrome is a chronic condition characterized by extreme fatigue and functional impairment. However, given the short time frame of the symptoms and association with amoxicillin, this diagnosis is unlikely. Chronic renal failure is associated with fatigue and anaemia, but there is no evidence of a history of this condition. Chronic depression may cause fatigue, but the duration of symptoms would be longer than three weeks and not associated with an infection or abdominal pain. Iron deficiency is a common cause of fatigue in women of reproductive age and should also be considered. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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Question 24
Correct
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A 35-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department (ED) with a fever of 40 °C, vomiting and diarrhea, and is extremely restless. He has hyperthyroidism but is known to not take his medication regularly. The ED registrar suspects that he is experiencing a thyroid storm.
What is the most probable statement about a thyrotoxic crisis (thyroid storm)?Your Answer: Fluid resuscitation, propranolol and carbimazole are used in the management of a thyroid storm
Explanation:When managing a patient with a thyroid storm, it is important to first stabilize them by addressing their presenting symptoms. This may involve fluid resuscitation, a nasogastric tube if vomiting, and sedation if necessary. Beta-blockers are often used to reduce the effects of excessive thyroid hormones on end-organs, and high-dose digoxin may be used with close cardiac monitoring. Antithyroid drugs, such as carbimazole, are then used. Tepid sponging is used to manage excessive hyperthermia, and active warming may be used in cases of myxoedema coma. Men are actually more commonly affected by thyroid storms than women. Precipitants of a thyroid storm include recent thyroid surgery, radioiodine, infection, myocardial infarction, and trauma. Levothyroxine is given to replace low thyroxine levels in cases of hypothyroidism, while hydrocortisone or dexamethasone may be given to prevent peripheral conversion of T4 to T3 in managing a patient with a thyroid storm.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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Question 25
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A 65-year-old patient in the Intensive Care Unit has been on ventilatory support for the last two weeks after a significant traumatic brain injury. A decision has to be made about whether they are taken off life support and whether or not the patient has irreversible brain damage.
In which of the following circumstances can brain death be diagnosed?Your Answer: A ventilator-supported patient
Explanation:Understanding the Factors that Affect Brain Death Diagnosis
Brain death diagnosis is a critical process that determines the cessation of brain function, which is irreversible and leads to the death of an individual. However, several factors can affect the accuracy of this diagnosis, and they must be excluded before confirming brain death.
One of the primary conditions for brain death diagnosis is the patient’s inability to maintain their own heartbeat and ventilation, requiring the support of a ventilator. However, this condition alone is not sufficient, and two other factors must be present, including unconsciousness and clear evidence of irreversible brain damage.
Hypothermia is one of the factors that can confound the examination of cortical and brainstem function, making it difficult to diagnose brain death accurately. Similarly, encephalopathy secondary to hepatic failure and severe hypophosphataemia can also impact cortical and brainstem function, leading to inaccurate brain death diagnosis.
Finally, sedation by anaesthetic or neuroparalytic agents can depress the neurological system, making it appear as if the patient is brain dead when they are not. Therefore, it is crucial to consider all these factors and exclude them before confirming brain death diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner (GP) with a 1-week history of productive cough and fever. She has had no sick contacts or foreign travel. She has a background history of mild intermittent asthma and is a non-smoker. She has been taking paracetamol and salbutamol. On clinical examination, her respiratory rate is 16 breaths per minute, oxygen saturations 96% (on room air), blood pressure 136/82 mmHg and temperature 38.2 °C. On chest auscultation, there is mild expiratory wheeze and coarse crackles in the right lung base.
What is the most appropriate management of this woman?Your Answer: Arrange a chest X-ray
Correct Answer: Prescribe amoxicillin 500 mg three times daily for five days
Explanation:Management of Community-Acquired Pneumonia in a Woman with a CRB-65 Score of 0
When managing a woman with community-acquired pneumonia (CAP) and a CRB-65 score of 0, the recommended treatment is amoxicillin 500 mg three times daily for five days. If there is no improvement after three days, the duration of treatment should be extended to seven to ten days.
If the CRB-65 score is 1 or 2, dual therapy with amoxicillin 500 mg three times daily and clarithromycin 500 mg twice daily for 7-10 days, or monotherapy with doxycycline for 7-10 days, should be considered. However, in this case, the CRB-65 score is 0, so this is not necessary.
Admission for intravenous (IV) antibiotics and steroids is not required for this woman, as she is relatively well with mild wheeze and a CRB-65 score of 0. A chest X-ray is also not necessary, as she is younger and a non-smoker.
Symptomatic management should be continued, and the woman should be advised to return in three days if there is no improvement. It is important to prescribe antibiotics for people with suspected CAP, unless this is not appropriate, such as in end-of-life care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man presents with oral and genital ulcers and a red rash, parts of which have started to blister. On examination, he is noted to have red eyes. He had been treated with antibiotics ten days ago for a chest infection.
What is the most probable reason behind these symptoms?Your Answer: Pemphigus vulgaris
Correct Answer: Stevens-Johnson syndrome
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis: Stevens-Johnson Syndrome and Other Skin Conditions
Stevens-Johnson syndrome is a severe medical condition that requires immediate recognition and treatment. It is characterized by blistering of the skin and mucosal surfaces, leading to the loss of the skin barrier. This condition is rare and is part of a spectrum of diseases that includes toxic epidermal necrolysis. Stevens-Johnson syndrome is the milder end of this spectrum.
The use of certain drugs can trigger the activation of cytotoxic CD8+ T-cells, which attack the skin’s keratinocytes, leading to blister formation and skin sloughing. It is important to note that mucosal involvement may precede cutaneous manifestations. Stevens-Johnson syndrome is associated with the use of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, allopurinol, antibiotics, carbamazepine, lamotrigine, phenytoin, and others.
Prompt treatment is essential, as the condition can progress to multi-organ failure and death if left untreated. Expert clinicians and nursing staff should manage the treatment to minimize skin shearing, fluid loss, and disease progression.
Other skin conditions that may present similarly to Stevens-Johnson syndrome include herpes simplex, bullous pemphigoid, pemphigus vulgaris, and graft-versus-host disease. Herpes simplex virus infection causes oral and genital ulceration but does not involve mucosal surfaces. Bullous pemphigoid is an autoimmune blistering condition that affects the skin but not the mucosa. Pemphigus vulgaris is an autoimmune condition that affects both the skin and mucosal surfaces. Graft-versus-host disease is unlikely in the absence of a history of transplantation.
In conclusion, Stevens-Johnson syndrome is a severe medical condition that requires prompt recognition and treatment. It is essential to differentiate it from other skin conditions that may present similarly to ensure appropriate management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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Question 28
Correct
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A 60-year-old man received a two unit blood transfusion 1 hour ago. He reports feeling a strange sensation in his chest, like his heart is skipping a beat. You conduct an ECG which reveals tall tented T waves in multiple leads.
An arterial blood gas (ABG) test shows:
Na+: 136 mmol/l (normal 135–145 mmol/l)
K+: 7.1 mmol/l (normal 3.5–5.0 mmol/l)
Cl–: 96 mmol/l (normal 95–105 mmol/l).
What immediate treatment should be administered based on these findings?Your Answer: Calcium gluconate
Explanation:Treatment Options for Hyperkalaemia: Calcium Gluconate, Normal Saline Bolus, Calcium Resonium, Insulin and Dextrose, Dexamethasone
Understanding Treatment Options for Hyperkalaemia
Hyperkalaemia is a condition where the potassium levels in the blood are higher than normal. This can lead to ECG changes, palpitations, and a high risk of arrhythmias. There are several treatment options available for hyperkalaemia, each with its own mechanism of action and benefits.
One of the most effective treatments for hyperkalaemia is calcium gluconate. This medication works by reducing the excitability of cardiomyocytes, which stabilizes the myocardium and protects the heart from arrhythmias. However, calcium gluconate does not reduce the potassium level in the blood, so additional treatments are necessary.
A normal saline bolus is not an effective treatment for hyperkalaemia. Similarly, calcium resonium, which removes potassium from the body via the gastrointestinal tract, is slow-acting and will not protect the patient from arrhythmias acutely.
Insulin and dextrose are commonly used to treat hyperkalaemia. Insulin shifts potassium intracellularly, which decreases serum potassium levels. Dextrose is needed to prevent hypoglycaemia. This treatment reduces potassium levels by 0.6-1.0 mmol/L every 15 minutes and is effective in treating hyperkalaemia. However, it does not acutely protect the heart from arrhythmias and should be given following the administration of calcium gluconate.
Dexamethasone is not a treatment for hyperkalaemia and should not be used for this purpose.
In conclusion, calcium gluconate is an effective treatment for hyperkalaemia and should be administered first to protect the heart from arrhythmias. Additional treatments such as insulin and dextrose can be used to reduce potassium levels, but they should be given after calcium gluconate. Understanding the different treatment options for hyperkalaemia is essential for providing appropriate care to patients with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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Question 29
Correct
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A 32-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner (GP) with a lateral ankle injury. This injury occurred while playing basketball the previous day. He continued playing but noted some discomfort at the time and thereafter. He is able to weight-bear with minor discomfort. On examination, there is some swelling over the ankle, a small amount of bruising and minimal tenderness on palpation. There is full range of movement in the ankle joint. He has not taken any analgesia.
What is the best management of this man’s injury?Your Answer: Advise rest, ice, compression and elevation of the ankle for one to two days, followed by early mobilisation
Explanation:Managing Ankle Ligament Sprains: Rest, Ice, Compression, Elevation, and Early Mobilisation
Ankle ligament sprains can be managed conservatively with rest, ice, compression, elevation, and analgesia. For minor sprains, pain-free stretching should be undertaken as soon as possible, followed by progressive weight-bearing and resistance exercises. Severe sprains or ruptures may require backslab immobilisation for ten days, followed by rehabilitation. Ankle X-rays are only required if there is pain in the malleolar zone and any of the Ottawa ankle rules findings. Orthopaedic referral is only necessary for dislocations or fractures. Prolonged immobilisation should be avoided, and passive stretches should be commenced as soon as possible.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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Question 30
Incorrect
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You are on call overnight on orthopaedics when you receive a bleep to see a patient you are not familiar with. The patient had a left total hip replacement procedure 2 days ago and is now exhibiting signs of drowsiness and confusion. Upon examination, you observe that the patient is tachycardic, and an electrocardiogram (ECG) shows peaked T-waves and a wide QRS complex. You decide to take an arterial blood gas (ABG) which reveals a potassium level of 6.4 mmol (normal 5–5.0 mmol/l). What would be the most appropriate initial management action for this patient?
Your Answer: Give 50 ml of 15% calcium gluconate by slow IV injection
Correct Answer: Give 10 ml of 10% calcium gluconate by slow intravenous (IV) injection
Explanation:Managing Hyperkalaemia: Treatment Options and Considerations
Hyperkalaemia is a life-threatening condition that requires immediate management. The first step is to administer 10 ml of 10% calcium gluconate by slow IV injection to protect the cardiac myocytes from excess potassium. Following this, 10 units of Actrapid® in 100 ml of 20% glucose can be given to draw potassium intracellularly. Salbutamol nebulisers may also be helpful. Calcium resonium 15g orally or 30 g rectally can be used to mop up excess potassium in the gastrointestinal tract, but it is not effective in the acute setting.
It is important to note that this condition requires urgent attention and cannot wait for a registrar to arrive. Once the patient is stabilised, senior support may be called for.
It is crucial to administer the correct dosage and concentration of medications. Giving 50 ml of 15% calcium gluconate by slow IV injection is not the correct volume and concentration. Careful consideration and attention to detail are necessary in managing hyperkalaemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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