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  • Question 1 - A patient who has a nerve injury has sparing of the upper half...

    Correct

    • A patient who has a nerve injury has sparing of the upper half of the orbicularis oculi muscle but not the lower half. Which branch of the facial nerve supplies the lower half of the orbicularis oculi?

      Your Answer: Zygomatic branch

      Explanation:

      The facial nerve divides into five terminal branches once in the parotid gland. 1. The temporal branch innervates muscles in the temple, forehead and supraorbital areas.2. The zygomatic branch innervates muscles in the infraorbital area, the lateral nasal area and the upper lip.3. The buccal branch innervates muscles in the cheek, the upper lip and the corner of the mouth. 4. The marginal mandibular branch innervates muscles of the lower lip and chin. 5. The cervical branch innervates the platysma muscle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Cranial Nerve Lesions
      31.6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which of the following blood groups is the universal donor: ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following blood groups is the universal donor:

      Your Answer: O

      Explanation:

      Blood group O has no antigens, but both anti-A and anti-B antibodies and thus is the universal donor.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immune Responses
      • Pathology
      4.4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 44-year-old man with an acute episode of gout presents to you and...

    Incorrect

    • A 44-year-old man with an acute episode of gout presents to you and you discuss treatment plan with him.Which one of these statements concerning the treatment of acute gout is true?

      Your Answer: Colchicine acts by reducing uric acid synthesis

      Correct Answer: A common first-line treatment is Naproxen as a stat dose of 750 mg followed by 250 mg TDS

      Explanation:

      High-dose NSAIDs are the first-line treatment for acute gout. In the absence of any contraindications, Naproxen 750 mg as a stat dose followed by 250 mg TDS is commonly used.Aspirin is contraindicated in gout. It reduces the urinary clearance of urate and also interferes with the action of uricosuric agents. Colchicine is preferred in patients with heart failure or in those who are intolerant of NSAIDs. It is as effective as NSAIDs in relieving acute attacks.Colchicine acts on the neutrophils, binding to tubulin to prevent neutrophil migration into the joint. Where Allopurinol is not tolerated, it has a role in prophylactic treatment of gout.Allopurinol should not be started in the acute phase of gout as it increases the severity and duration of symptoms. It is used as a prophylaxis in preventing future attacks and acts by reducing serum uric acid levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      62.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - The fluid in contact with a tube is dragged by frictional forces to...

    Correct

    • The fluid in contact with a tube is dragged by frictional forces to the tube's sidewalls. This creates a velocity gradient in which the fluid flow is greatest in the tube's centre.Which of the following terms most accurately characterizes this flow pattern? 

      Your Answer: Laminar flow

      Explanation:

      The fluid in contact with a tube is dragged by frictional forces at the tube’s sidewalls. This creates a velocity gradient in which the fluid flow is greatest in the tube’s centre.This is known as laminar flow, and it characterizes the flow in most circulatory and respiratory systems when they are at rest.The velocity of the fluid flow can fluctuate erratically at high velocities, particularly within big arteries and airways, disrupting laminar flow. As a result, resistance increases significantly.This is known as turbulent flow, and symptoms include heart murmurs and asthmatic wheeze.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Cellular Physiology
      • Physiology
      22.3
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Oculomotor (CN III) palsy with sparing of the pupillary reflex is most likely...

    Incorrect

    • Oculomotor (CN III) palsy with sparing of the pupillary reflex is most likely caused by which of the following:

      Your Answer: Brainstem metastases

      Correct Answer: Diabetes mellitus

      Explanation:

      Compressive causes of CN III palsy cause early pupillary dilatation because the parasympathetic fibres run peripherally in the nerve and are easily compressed. In diabetes mellitus the lesions are ischaemic rather than compressive and therefore typically affect the central fibres resulting in pupillary sparing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Cranial Nerve Lesions
      32.9
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - The following are all examples of type III hypersensitivity EXCEPT for: ...

    Correct

    • The following are all examples of type III hypersensitivity EXCEPT for:

      Your Answer: Goodpasture's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Examples of type III reactions include:Extrinsic allergic alveolitisSystemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritisReactive arthritisRheumatoid arthritis

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immune Responses
      • Pathology
      9.5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - You've been requested to give a discussion to a group of medical students...

    Incorrect

    • You've been requested to give a discussion to a group of medical students about cardiovascular physiology. One of them inquires about cardiac output and asks if you can explain it.Which of the following statements is correct?

      Your Answer: An average resting cardiac output in a man is 7 L/min

      Correct Answer: An average resting cardiac output in a woman is 5 L/min

      Explanation:

      The terminology cardiac output refers to the amount of blood pumped by the heart in one minute. Women’s rates are around 5 L/min, whereas men’s rates are somewhat higher, around 5.5 L/min.Cardiac output (CO) is calculated by multiplying stroke volume (SV) by heart rate (HR):CO = HR x SVAs a result, both stroke volume and heart rate are exactly proportional to cardiac output. There will be an increase in cardiac output if the stroke volume or heart rate increases, and a reduction in cardiac output if the stroke volume or heart rate lowers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Physiology
      • Physiology
      22.6
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which of these is NOT a lithium side effect: ...

    Correct

    • Which of these is NOT a lithium side effect:

      Your Answer: Peptic ulcer disease

      Explanation:

      Adverse Effects of lithium IncludeLeucocytosis (most patients)Polyuria/polydipsia (30-50%)Dry mouth (20-50%)Hand tremor (45% initially, 10% after 1 year of treatment)Confusion (40%)Decreased memory (40%)Headache (40%)Muscle weakness (30% initially, 1% after 1 year of treatment)Electrocardiographic (ECG) changes (20-30%)Nausea, vomiting, diarrhoea (10-30% initially, 1-10% after 1-2 years of treatment)Hyperreflexia (15%)Muscle twitch (15%)Vertigo (15%)Extrapyramidal symptoms, goitre (5%)Hypothyroidism (1-4%)Acne (1%)Hair thinning (1%)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Central Nervous System
      • Pharmacology
      11.9
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - You've been asked to give a discussion to a group of medical students...

    Correct

    • You've been asked to give a discussion to a group of medical students about skeletal muscle physiology and its use in clinical medicine. They pose a series of difficult questions to you.Which of the following definitions for the A-band of the sarcomere is correct?

      Your Answer: A band that contains the entire length of a single thick filament (myosin)

      Explanation:

      Myofibrils, which are around 1 m in diameter, make up each myofiber. The cytoplasm separates them and arranges them in a parallel pattern along the cell’s long axis. These myofibrils are made up of actin and myosin filaments that are repeated in sarcomeres, which are the myofiber’s basic functional units.Myofilaments are the filaments that make up myofibrils, and they’re made mostly of proteins. Myofilaments are divided into three categories:Myosin filaments are thick filaments made up mostly of the protein myosin.Actin filaments are thin filaments made up mostly of the protein actin.Elastic filaments are mostly made up of the protein titin.The sarcomere is a Z-line segment that connects two adjacent Z-lines.The I-bands are thin filament zones that run from either side of the Z-lines to the thick filament’s beginning.Between the I-bands is the A-band, which spans the length of a single thick filament.The H-zone is a zone of thick filaments that is not overlaid by thin filaments in the sarcomere’s centre. The H-zone keeps the myosin filaments in place by surrounding them with six actin filaments each.The M-band (or M-line) is a disc of cross-connecting cytoskeleton elements in the centre of the H-zone.The thick filament is primarily made up of myosin. The thin filament is primarily made up of actin. Actin, tropomyosin, and troponin are found in a 7:1:1 ratio in thin filaments.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Cellular Physiology
      • Physiology
      78
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - The most important nerves for inversion of the foot are: ...

    Correct

    • The most important nerves for inversion of the foot are:

      Your Answer: Tibial and deep fibular nerve

      Explanation:

      Inversion of the foot is achieved by the tibialis anterior which is innervated by the deep fibular nerves, and the tibialis posterior muscles which is innervated by the tibial nerve respectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      63.2
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Which of the following statements is correct regarding the lymphatic system? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements is correct regarding the lymphatic system?

      Your Answer: Lymphatic vessels contain both smooth muscle and unidirectional valves.

      Explanation:

      Fluid filtration out of the capillaries is usually slightly greater than fluid absorption into the capillaries. About 8 L of fluid per day is filtered by the microcirculation and returns to the circulation by the lymphatic system. Lymphatic capillaries drain into collecting lymphatics, then into larger lymphatic vessels. Both of these containing smooth muscle and unidirectional valves. From this point, lymph is propelled by smooth muscle constriction and vessel compression by body movements into afferent lymphatics. It then goes to the lymph nodes where phagocytes remove bacteria and foreign materials. It is here that most fluid is reabsorbed by capillaries, and the remainder returns to the subclavian veins via efferent lymphatics and the thoracic duct. The lymphatic system has a major role to play in the body’s immune defence and also has a very important role in the absorption and transportation of fats.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      44.9
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A patient is sent in by her GP with suspected ectopic pregnancy. Tubal...

    Incorrect

    • A patient is sent in by her GP with suspected ectopic pregnancy. Tubal ectopic pregnancies occur most commonly in which part of the uterine tube:

      Your Answer: Isthmus

      Correct Answer: Ampulla

      Explanation:

      Ectopic pregnancy most commonly occurs in the ampulla (70% of cases).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      22
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Which of the following side effects is more common of etomidate than other...

    Correct

    • Which of the following side effects is more common of etomidate than other intravenous induction agents:

      Your Answer: Extraneous muscle movements

      Explanation:

      Etomidate is associated with a high incidence of extraneous muscle movements, which can be minimised by an opioid analgesic or a short-acting benzodiazepine given prior to induction. Etomidate causes less hypotension than thiopental sodium and propofol during induction. Etomidate is associated with rapid recovery without a hangover effect. The rate of respiratory depression and tachycardia is not higher in etomidate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia
      • Pharmacology
      16.2
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Regarding the hard palate, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the hard palate, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer: The blood supply to the palate is derived from branches of the internal carotid artery.

      Correct Answer: Lymphatic vessels from the palate usually drain into deep cervical lymph nodes.

      Explanation:

      Lymphatic vessels from the pharynx and palate drain into the deep cervical lymph nodes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head And Neck
      66.2
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 42-year-old woman presents with face swelling prominently affecting her upper lip and...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old woman presents with face swelling prominently affecting her upper lip and hands. She has previously been diagnosed with hereditary angioedema.Which of these is the most appropriate management option for this acute attack?

      Your Answer: Fresh frozen plasma

      Explanation:

      Hereditary angioedema is inherited as an autosomal dominant disorder and is caused by deficiency of C1 esterase inhibitor, a protein that forms part of the complement system.Attacks can be precipitated by stress and minor surgical procedures. Clinical features of hereditary angioedema include oedema of the skin and mucous membranes commonly affecting the face, tongue and extremities.Angioedema and anaphylaxis due to a deficiency of C1 esterase inhibitor are resistant to adrenaline, steroids and antihistamines. Treatment is with fresh frozen plasma or C1 esterase inhibitor concentrate, which contains C1 esterase inhibitor.Short-term prophylaxis for events that may precipitate angioedema attack is achieved with C1 esterase inhibitor or fresh frozen plasma infusions before the event while long-term prophylaxis can be achieved with antifibrinolytic drugs (tranexamic acid) or androgenic steroids.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      • Respiratory Pharmacology
      19.8
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - All of the following are actions of insulin except: ...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following are actions of insulin except:

      Your Answer: Decreased lipolysis

      Correct Answer: Increased gluconeogenesis

      Explanation:

      Major Actions of Insulin:↑ Glucose uptake into cells↑ Glycogenesis↓ Glycogenolysis↓ Gluconeogenesis↑ Protein synthesis↓ Protein degradation↑ Fat deposition↓ Lipolysis↓ Ketoacid production↑ K+ uptake into cellsMajor Actions of Glucagon:↓ Glycogenesis↑ Glycogenolysis↑ Gluconeogenesis↓ Fatty acid synthesis↑ Lipolysis↑ Ketoacid production

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Physiology
      31.1
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 45-year-old man, a known case of epilepsy, visits his neurologist with complaints...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man, a known case of epilepsy, visits his neurologist with complaints of red, swollen gums.Which of the following medications is most likely responsible for his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Sodium valproate

      Correct Answer: Phenytoin

      Explanation:

      Phenytoin is a commonly used antiepileptic drug. A well-recognized side-effect of phenytoin is gingival enlargement and occurs in about 50% of patients receiving phenytoin. It is believed that reduced folate levels may cause this, and evidence suggests that folic acid supplementation may help prevent this in patients starting phenytoin. As evidence suggests, drug-induced gingival enlargement may also improve by substituting with other anticonvulsant drugs and reinforcing a good oral hygiene regimen. Surgical excision of hyperplastic gingiva is often necessary to correct the aesthetic and functional impairment associated with this condition to manage it successfully.Phenytoin is also the only anticonvulsant therapy associated with the development of Dupuytren’s contracture.Other side effects are:1. Ataxia2. Drug-induced lupus3. Hirsutism4. Pruritic rash5. Megaloblastic anaemia6. Nystagmus

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • CNS Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      26.9
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - If the ejection fraction increases, there will be a decrease in: ...

    Incorrect

    • If the ejection fraction increases, there will be a decrease in:

      Your Answer: Heart rate

      Correct Answer: End-systolic volume

      Explanation:

      An increase in ejection fraction means that a higher fraction of the end-diastolic volume is ejected in the stroke volume (e.g. because of the administration of a positive inotropic agent). When this situation occurs, the volume remaining in the ventricle after systole, the end-systolic volume, will be reduced. Cardiac output, stroke volume, and mean arterial pressure will be increased.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      28.5
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding the Na+/K+ATPase pump? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding the Na+/K+ATPase pump?

      Your Answer: The Na + /K + ATPase pump moves 3 Na + ions into the cell for every 2 K + ions out.

      Explanation:

      In order for primary active transport to pump ions against their electrochemical gradient, chemical energy is used in the form of ATP. The Na+/K+-ATPase antiporter pump uses metabolic energy to move 3 Na+ions out of the cell for every 2 K+ions in, against their respective electrochemical gradients. As a result, the cell the maintains a high intracellular concentration of K+ions and a low concentration of Na+ions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Cellular
      • Physiology
      55.8
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - The term cardiac output refers to the amount of blood pumped by the...

    Correct

    • The term cardiac output refers to the amount of blood pumped by the heart in one minute. The rate in women is around 5 L/min, whereas in men is somewhat higher, around 5.5 L/min.Which of the equations below best describes cardiac output?

      Your Answer: Stroke volume x heart rate

      Explanation:

      Cardiac output (CO) is calculated by multiplying stroke volume (SV) by heart rate (HR):CO = HR x SVAs a result, both stroke volume and heart rate are exactly proportional to cardiac output. There will be an increase in cardiac output if the stroke volume or heart rate increases, and a reduction in cardiac output if the stroke volume or heart rate lowers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Physiology
      • Physiology
      16.6
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Which of the following nerves supply the superficial head of the flexor pollicis...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following nerves supply the superficial head of the flexor pollicis brevis muscle?

      Your Answer: The deep branch of the ulnar nerve

      Correct Answer: The recurrent branch of the median nerve

      Explanation:

      The two heads of the flexor pollicis brevis usually differ in their innervation. The superficial head of flexor pollicis muscle receives nervous supply from the recurrent branch of the median nerve, whereas the deep head receives innervation from the deep branch of the ulnar nerve, derived from spinal roots C8 and T1.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      33.2
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Which of the following neurotransmitter and receptor combinations is present at the neuromuscular...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following neurotransmitter and receptor combinations is present at the neuromuscular junction:

      Your Answer: Acetylcholine acting at muscarinic receptors

      Correct Answer: Acetylcholine acting at nicotinic receptors

      Explanation:

      At the neuromuscular junction, acetylcholine is released from the prejunctional membrane which acts on cholinergic nicotinic receptors on the postjunctional membrane.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Cellular
      • Physiology
      45.1
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 28-year-old female arrives after taking an unknown chemical in excess. She is tired...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old female arrives after taking an unknown chemical in excess. She is tired and her speech is slurred. The following are her observations and results: HR 118, BP 92/58, SaO2 96%HR 118,  11/15  The following are the results  of his arterial blood gas (ABG):pH: 7.24 pO 2 : 9.4 kPa PCO2 : 3.3 kPa HCO 3 -: 22 mmol/l Na + : 143 mmol/l Cl – : 99 mmol/l Lactate: 5 IU/lWhich of the following statements about this patient is TRUE?

      Your Answer: Her anion gap is elevated

      Explanation:

      The interpretation of arterial blood gas (ABG) aids in the measurement of a patient’s pulmonary gas exchange and acid-base balance. The normal values on an ABG vary a little depending on the analyser, but they are roughly as follows:Variable RangepH 7.35 – 7.45PaO2 10 – 14 kPaPaCO2 4.5 – 6 kPaHCO3- 22 – 26 mmol/lBase excess -2 – 2 mmol/lThe patient’s history indicates that she has taken an overdose in this case. Because her GCS is 11/15 and she can communicate with slurred speech, she is clearly managing her own airway, there is no current justification for intubation.The following are the relevant ABG findings:Hypoxia (mild)pH has been lowered (acidaemia)PCO2 levels are low.bicarbonate in its natural stateLactate levels have increasedThe anion gap represents the concentration of all the unmeasured anions in the plasma. It is the difference between the primary measured cations and the primary measured anions in the serum. It can be calculated using the following formula:Anion gap = [Na+] – [Cl-] – [HCO3-]The reference range varies depending on the technique of measurement, but it is usually between 8 and 16 mmol/L.The following formula can be used to compute her anion gap:Anion gap = [143] – [99] – [22]Anion gap = 22As a result, it is clear that she has a metabolic acidosis with an increased anion gap.The following are some of the causes of type A and type B lactic acidosis:Type A lactic acidosisType B lactic acidosisShock (including septic shock)Left ventricular failureSevere anaemiaAsphyxiaCardiac arrestCO poisoningRespiratory failureSevere asthma and COPDRegional hypoperfusionRenal failureLiver failureSepsis (non-hypoxic sepsis)Thiamine deficiencyAlcoholic ketoacidosisDiabetic ketoacidosisCyanide poisoningMethanol poisoningBiguanide poisoning

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal Physiology
      120.5
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Thyroid cancer has spread to the regional lymph nodes of a patient as...

    Correct

    • Thyroid cancer has spread to the regional lymph nodes of a patient as seen in a staging CT scan. The lymph from the thyroid gland will drain directly to which of the following nodes?

      Your Answer: Deep lateral cervical lymph nodes

      Explanation:

      Lymphatic drainage of the thyroid gland involves the lower deep cervical, prelaryngeal, pretracheal, and paratracheal nodes. The paratracheal and lower deep cervical nodes, specifically, receive lymphatic drainage from the isthmus and the inferior lateral lobes. The superior portions of the thyroid gland drain into the superior pretracheal and cervical nodes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head And Neck
      22.8
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - In patients who are not at risk of hypercapnic respiratory failure but are...

    Incorrect

    • In patients who are not at risk of hypercapnic respiratory failure but are requiring oxygen, the oxygen saturations should be maintained at which of the following?

      Your Answer: 97 - 99%

      Correct Answer: 94 - 98%

      Explanation:

      Oxygen saturation should be 94 – 98% in most acutely ill patients with a normal or low arterial carbon dioxide (PaCO2). In some clinical situations, however, like cardiac arrest and carbon monoxide poisoning, it is more appropriate to aim for the highest possible oxygen saturation until the patient is stable.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      • Respiratory
      19.6
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - The following structures all lie anteriorly to the oesophagus EXCEPT for the: ...

    Correct

    • The following structures all lie anteriorly to the oesophagus EXCEPT for the:

      Your Answer: Thoracic duct

      Explanation:

      Posterior to the oesophagus, the thoracic duct is on the right side inferiorly but crosses to the left more superiorly (at T5).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      26.4
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A clinical audit cycle comprises of 5 steps. Each of these processes are...

    Correct

    • A clinical audit cycle comprises of 5 steps. Each of these processes are listed below:Which is the correct order that these should occur?1. Observation of practice and collection of data2. Identification of the problem3. Implementation of change4. Definition of criteria and setting of standards5. Analysis of data and comparison of performance with the criteria and standards

      Your Answer: 2,4,1,5,3

      Explanation:

      An audit assesses if a certain aspect of health care is attaining a recognized standard. This lets care providers and patients know where their service is doing well, and where there could be improvements. The aim is to achieve quality improvement and improve outcomes for patients.Audits are a quality improvement measure and one of the 7 pillars of clinical governance. It allows organizations to continually work toward improving quality of care by showing them where they are falling short, allows them to implement improvements, and reaudit or close the audit cycle to see if beneficial change has taken place.Clinical audits are a cycle with several steps:1. Identification of the problem2. Definition of criteria and setting of standards3. Observation of practice and collection of data4. Analysis of data and comparison of performance with the criteria and standards5. Implementation of change

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Medicine
      91.8
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 35-year-old man suffers an open fracture of his forearm. The nerve that...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man suffers an open fracture of his forearm. The nerve that innervates the pronator quadratus muscle is damaged as a consequence of this injury.Which of the following nerves has been damaged in this case? Select ONE answer only.

      Your Answer: The musculocutaneous nerve

      Correct Answer: The anterior interosseous nerve

      Explanation:

      Pronator quadratus is a small, square-shaped muscle that lies in the anterior compartment of the forearm. It arises from the distal fourth of the anterior surface of the ulna and inserts into the distal fourth of the anterior surface of the radius.Pronator quadratus is innervated by the anterior interosseous nerve. It receives its blood supply from the anterior interosseous artery, which is a branch of the common interosseous artery, which in turn is a branch of the ulnar artery.The main action of pronator quadratus is to assist pronator teres with pronation of the forearm. The deep fibres bind the radius and ulna together.The pronator quadratus muscle highlighted in blue (adapted from Gray’s Anatomy)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      19.7
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Which of the following is NOT a typical effect caused by adrenaline: ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is NOT a typical effect caused by adrenaline:

      Your Answer: Bronchoconstriction

      Explanation:

      Actions of adrenaline:Cardiovascular system- Increased rate and force of cardiac contraction- Vasoconstriction of vessels in skin, mucous membranes and splanchnic bed- Vasodilation of skeletal muscle vessels- Increased cardiac output and blood pressureRespiratory system- Bronchodilation- Increased ventilation rateGastrointestinal system- Smooth muscle relaxation- Contraction of sphincters- Metabolism- Decreased insulin release- Increased glucagon release- Increased thermogenesis- Increased glycolysis- Increased lipolysisEye- Pupillary dilation

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Physiology
      32.4
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 76-year-old man presents with complaints of double vision. Upon physical examination, it...

    Incorrect

    • A 76-year-old man presents with complaints of double vision. Upon physical examination, it was observed that he exhibits left-sided hemiplegia and left-sided loss of joint position sense, vibratory sense and discriminatory touch. In addition, he has the inability to abduct his right eye and is holding his head towards the right side. A CT scan was ordered and showed that he has suffered a right-sided stroke. Branches of which of the following arteries are most likely implicated in the case?

      Your Answer: Posterior cerebral artery

      Correct Answer: Basilar artery

      Explanation:

      Inferior medial pontine syndrome, also known as Foville syndrome, is one of the brainstem stroke syndromes which occurs when there is infarction of the medial inferior aspect of the pons due to occlusion of the paramedian branches of the basilar artery.It is characterized by ipsilateral sixth nerve palsy, facial palsy, contralateral hemiparesis, contralateral loss of proprioception and vibration, ipsilateral ataxia, ipsilateral facial weakness, and lateral gaze paralysis and diplopia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      48.7
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - A patient complains of stomach ache. You see a midline scar in the...

    Incorrect

    • A patient complains of stomach ache. You see a midline scar in the epigastric area when you examine the abdomen. Upon further interrogation, the patient reveals that she had a subtotal gastrectomy for recurring stomach ulcers several years ago. The stomach mucosa secretes a variety of vital compounds, and her ability to secrete some of these molecules has been harmed as a result of his surgery.The gastric ECL cells secrete which of the following substances?

      Your Answer: Pepsinogen

      Correct Answer: Histamine

      Explanation:

      Enterochromaffin-like cells (ECL cells) are a type of neuroendocrine cell located beneath the epithelium in the stomach glands. They’re most typically located near the parietal cells of the stomach. The ECL cells’ primary role is to produce histamine, which stimulates the formation of stomach acid by the parietal cells.The table below summarizes the many cell types found in the stomach, as well as the substances secreted by each cell type and the function of the secretion:Cell type/ Substance secreted/ Function of secretionParietal cells/ Hydrochloric acid/ Kills microbes and activates pepsinogenParietal cells/ Intrinsic factor/Binds to vitamin B12 and facilitates its absorptionChief cells/ Pepsinogen/ Protein digestionChief cells/ Gastric lipase/ Fat digestionG-cells/ Gastrin/ Stimulates gastric acid secretionEnterochromaffin-like cells (ECL cells) /Histamine/ Stimulates gastric acid secretionMucous-neck cells/ Mucous and bicarbonate/ Protects stomach epithelium from acidD-cells/ Somatostatin/ Inhibits gastric acid secretion

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal Physiology
      • Physiology
      47.3
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - A GP is considering prescribing a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory (NSAID) for pain relief for...

    Incorrect

    • A GP is considering prescribing a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory (NSAID) for pain relief for a patient with a knee injuryWhich of these statements about NSAIDs is NOT true?

      Your Answer: It can take 21 days for the full anti-inflammatory effect to become apparent

      Correct Answer: Side effects are less commonly seen with indomethacin than naproxen

      Explanation:

      Most NSAIDs act as non-selective inhibitors of the enzyme cyclo-oxygenase (COX). They inhibit both COX-1 and COX-2 isoenzymes. Only about 60% of patients will respond to any given NSAID.It can take 21 days of treatment for a clinically appreciable reduction in inflammation to be apparent. If no improvement is seen after 21 days, the NSAID should be changed.The use of NSAIDs in the 3rd trimester of pregnancy is associated with the following risks: delayed onset of labour, premature closure of ductus arteriosus and foetal kernicterus.Side effects are lowest in Ibuprofen and highest in indomethacin. so side effects are more commonly seen with indomethacin than naproxen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      60
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - A newborn baby is rushed to the neonatal ICU 4 hours after birth...

    Correct

    • A newborn baby is rushed to the neonatal ICU 4 hours after birth due to sudden onset severe jaundice and generalised oedema. Family history reveals that this is the second baby, while blood testing shows that the mother has an Rh-negative blood group while the baby is Rh-positive. A diagnosis of haemolytic disease of the newborn is established. Which one of the following hypersensitivity reactions have occurred in this case?

      Your Answer: Type II hypersensitivity reaction

      Explanation:

      Hepatitis A usually doesn’t pose a special risk to a pregnant woman or her baby. Maternal infection doesn’t result in birth defects, and a mother typically doesn’t transmit the infection to her baby. HAV is almost always transmitted by the faecal-oral route and is usually acquired through close personal contact or via contaminated food.When a woman has chickenpox in the first 20 weeks of pregnancy, there is a 1 in 50 chance for the baby to develop a set of birth defects. This is called the congenital varicella syndrome. It includes scars, defects of muscle and bone, malformed and paralyzed limbs, small head size, blindness, seizures, and intellectual disability.TORCH Syndrome refers to infection of a developing foetus or newborn by any of a group of infectious agents. “TORCH” is an acronym meaning (T)oxoplasmosis, (O)ther Agents, (R)ubella (also known as German Measles), (C)ytomegalovirus, and (H)erpes Simplex.Infection with any of these agents may cause a constellation of similar symptoms in affected newborns. These may include fever; difficulties feeding; small areas of bleeding under the skin, causing the appearance of small reddish or purplish spots; enlargement of the liver and spleen (hepatosplenomegaly); yellowish discoloration of the skin, whites of the eyes, and mucous membranes (jaundice); hearing impairment; abnormalities of the eyes; and other symptoms and findings.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Pathology
      • Pathology
      33.8
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - Regarding beta-thalassaemia, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding beta-thalassaemia, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer: The anaemia of beta-thalassaemia major is usually apparent from birth.

      Correct Answer: Beta-thalassaemia trait is associated with a raised HbA2.

      Explanation:

      Beta-thalassaemia major is caused by a complete or almost complete failure of β-globin chain synthesis, severe imbalance of α:β-chains with deposition of α-chains in erythroblasts, ineffective erythropoiesis and extramedullary haemopoiesis. The severe anaemia becomes apparent at 3 – 6 months when the switch from γ-chain to β-chain synthesis normally occurs. Beta-thalassaemia minor is a variable syndrome, milder than thalassaemia major, with later onset and characterised by moderate hypochromic microcytic anaemia with raised haemoglobin A2. Beta-thalassaemia trait is characterised by mild hypochromic, microcytic anaemia with raised red cell count and raised haemoglobin A2.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      60.3
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - Which of the following statements is correct regarding the neuronal action potential? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements is correct regarding the neuronal action potential?

      Your Answer: Initial depolarisation occurs as a result of a Na + influx.

      Explanation:

      The resting potential in most neurons has a value of approximately -70 mV. The threshold potential is generally around -55 mV. Initial depolarisation when there is Na+influx through ligand-gated Na+channels. Action potential is an all or nothing response. The size of the action potential is constant and so, the intensity of the stimulus is coded by the frequency of firing of a neuron. K+efflux is responsible for repolarisation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Cellular
      • Physiology
      146
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - While on morning rounds in the medical ward, the attending physician asks a...

    Correct

    • While on morning rounds in the medical ward, the attending physician asks a medical student about the differences between transudates and exudates and their causes. The student explains that a transudate is an excess fluid that leaks out of an intravascular compartment due to an imbalance between oncotic and hydrostatic pressures. Which ONE of the following conditions will he mention as the cause of a transudate?

      Your Answer: Meig’s syndrome

      Explanation:

      Transudative effusions are caused due to systemic causes leading to increased hydrostatic pressure or decreased oncotic pressure. These include:1) Meig’s Syndrome (Ovarian tumour causing ascites and pleural effusion)2) Congestive heart failure3) Nephrotic Syndrome4) Myxoedema5) Cirrhosis6) SarcoidosisAn exudate is caused by local inflammation and results from increased vascular permeability. Causes include:1) Rheumatoid arthritis2) Pneumonia leading to empyema3) Malignancies4) Pericarditis

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Pathology
      • Pathology
      86.1
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - Which of the following statements concerning hepatitis D is TRUE: ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements concerning hepatitis D is TRUE:

      Your Answer: It can only be transmitted with, or to somebody who is infected with, Hepatitis B.

      Explanation:

      Hepatitis D virus (HDV) is an RNA virus that was discovered in 1977 and is structurally unrelated to the hepatitis A (HAV), hepatitis B (HBV), and hepatitis C (HCV) viruses. HDV causes a unique infection that requires the assistance of HBV viral particles to replicate and infect hepatocytes. Its clinical course is varied and ranges from acute, self-limited infection to acute, fulminant liver failure. Chronic liver infection can lead to end-stage liver disease and associated complications (including accelerated fibrosis, liver decompensation, and hepatocellular carcinoma).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathogens
      46.2
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - Regarding skeletal muscle contraction, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding skeletal muscle contraction, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer: The force of contraction of a muscle is controlled by increasing the strength of contraction of muscle fibres.

      Correct Answer: The force of contraction of a muscle can be controlled by increasing recruitment of motor units.

      Explanation:

      Each motor unit contracts in an all or nothing fashion, i.e. if a motor unit is excited, it will stimulate all of its muscle fibres to contract. The force of contraction of a muscle is controlled by varying the motor unit recruitment (spatial summation), and by varying the firing rate of the motor units (temporal summation). During a gradual increase in contraction of a muscle, the first units start to discharge and increase their firing rate, and, as the force needs to increase, new units are recruited and, in turn, also increase their firing rate. For most motor units, the firing rate for a steady contraction is between 5 and 8 Hz. Because the unitary firing rates for each motor unit are different and not synchronised, the overall effect is a smooth force profile from the muscle. Increasing the firing rate of motor units is temporal summation where the tension developed by the first action potential has not completely decayed when the second action potential and twitch is grafted onto the first and so on. If the muscle fibres are stimulated repeatedly at a faster frequency, a sustained contraction results where it is not possible to detect individual twitches. This is called tetanus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Cellular
      • Physiology
      60.3
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - In the foetus at 4 months gestation, where does haematopoiesis mainly occur? ...

    Incorrect

    • In the foetus at 4 months gestation, where does haematopoiesis mainly occur?

      Your Answer: Lymph nodes

      Correct Answer: Liver and spleen

      Explanation:

      The first place that haematopoiesis occurs in the foetus is in the yolk sac. Later on, it occurs in the liver and spleen, which are the major hematopoietic organs from about 6 weeks until 6 – 7 months gestation. At this point, the bone marrow becomes the most important site. Haemopoiesis is restricted to the bone marrow in normal childhood and adult life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Cellular
      • Physiology
      20.7
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - You proceed to administer lorazepam intravenously to a 21-year-old patient with status epilepticus....

    Correct

    • You proceed to administer lorazepam intravenously to a 21-year-old patient with status epilepticus. Which of the following best describes lorazepam's action?

      Your Answer: Potentiates effect of GABA

      Explanation:

      Lorazepam is a type of benzodiazepine. Benzodiazepines are gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) receptor agonists with sedative, hypnotic, anxiolytic, anticonvulsant, and muscle relaxant characteristics that promote inhibitory synaptic transmission across the central nervous system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Central Nervous System
      • Pharmacology
      14.7
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - Which of the following is an action of glucagon: ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is an action of glucagon:

      Your Answer: Stimulates glycogenolysis

      Explanation:

      Glucagon is a peptide hormone that is produced and secreted by alpha cells of the islets of Langerhans, which are located in the endocrine portion of the pancreas. The main physiological role of glucagon is to stimulate hepatic glucose output, thereby leading to increases in glycaemia. It provides the major counter-regulatory mechanism to insulin in maintaining glucose homeostasis.Hypoglycaemia is the principal stimulus for the secretion of glucagon but may also be used as an antidote in beta-blocker overdose and in anaphylaxis in patients on beta-blockers that fail to respond to adrenaline. Glucagon then causes:GlycogenolysisGluconeogenesisLipolysis in adipose tissueThe secretion of glucagon is also stimulated by:AdrenalineCholecystokininArginineAlanineAcetylcholineThe secretion of glucagon is inhibited by:InsulinSomatostatinIncreased free fatty acidsIncreased urea productionGlycolysis is the metabolic pathway that converts glucose into pyruvate. The free energy released by this process is used to form ATP and NADH. Glycolysis is inhibited by glucagon, and glycolysis and gluconeogenesis are reciprocally regulated so that when one cell pathway is activated, the other is inactive and vice versa.Glucagon has a minor effect of enhancing lipolysis in adipose tissue. Lipolysis is the breakdown of lipids and involves the hydrolysis of triglycerides into glycerol and free fatty acids. It makes fatty acids available for oxidation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Pharmacology
      21.9
      Seconds
  • Question 42 - A 22-year-old man comes to the emergency department with a human bite injury to...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old man comes to the emergency department with a human bite injury to his hand received from a punch during a fight 3 hours earlier outside a bar. On closer inspection, you discover bite marks on his first and second knuckles. Which of the following is the best treatment option for this patient:

      Your Answer: Nil antibiotics at this stage

      Correct Answer: Oral co-amoxiclav for 7 days

      Explanation:

      Even if there is no evidence of infection, prophylactic antibiotics should be administered for all human bite wounds that are less than 72 hours old. The first-line therapy is 7 days of co-amoxiclav. In penicillin-allergic people, metronidazole + doxycycline is an option. Streptococcus spp., Staphylococcus aureus, Haemophilus spp., Eikenella corrodens, Bacteroides spp., and other anaerobes are the most prevalent organisms found in human bites.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infections
      • Microbiology
      31
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - Which of the following would you NOT expect from a deep fibular nerve...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following would you NOT expect from a deep fibular nerve palsy:

      Your Answer: Loss of extension of the toes

      Correct Answer: Loss of sensation over heel

      Explanation:

      Damage to the deep fibular nerve results in loss of dorsiflexion of the ankle, with resultant foot drop with high-stepping gait, loss of toe extension, weakness of foot inversion and loss of sensation over the webspace between the 1st and 2nd toes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      103.7
      Seconds
  • Question 44 - A 64-year-old lady attends the emergency department with a known brain tumour. Her...

    Correct

    • A 64-year-old lady attends the emergency department with a known brain tumour. Her left eye is directed outwards and downwards, she can't open it, and her pupil is fixed and dilated. The tumour is most likely compressing which of the following structures:

      Your Answer: Oculomotor nerve

      Explanation:

      The oculomotor nerve is the third cranial nerve. It is the main source of innervation to the extraocular muscles and also contains parasympathetic fibres which relay in the ciliary ganglion. Damage to the third cranial nerve may cause diplopia, pupil mydriasis, and/or upper eyelid ptosis. The clinical manifestations of third cranial nerve dysfunction reflect its constituent parts.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Cranial Nerve Lesions
      57.8
      Seconds
  • Question 45 - Which of the following corticosteroids has the most potent mineralocorticoid effect: ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following corticosteroids has the most potent mineralocorticoid effect:

      Your Answer: Fludrocortisone

      Explanation:

      Fludrocortisone has the most potent mineralocorticosteroid activity, making it ideal for mineralocorticoid replacement in adrenal insufficiency.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Pharmacology
      14.9
      Seconds
  • Question 46 - Which of the following statements is correct regarding gentamicin? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements is correct regarding gentamicin?

      Your Answer: Gentamicin is ineffective against anaerobic bacteria.

      Explanation:

      Gentamicin is the aminoglycoside of choice in the UK and is a parenterally administered, broad spectrum antibiotic typically used for moderate to severe gram negative infections. However, it is inactive against anaerobes. There is poor activity against haemolytic streptococci and pneumococci. It is usually given in conjunction with a penicillin or metronidazole (or both) when used for the blind treatment of undiagnosed serious infections. Nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity are the main toxic effects due to damage to the vestibulocochlear nerve (CN VIII).It is contraindicated in myasthenia gravis and should be used with great care in renal disease as it may result in accumulation and a higher risk of toxic side effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infections
      • Pharmacology
      34.2
      Seconds
  • Question 47 - A 67-year-old man complains of chest pain and goes to the emergency room....

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old man complains of chest pain and goes to the emergency room. He takes several medications, including amiodarone.Which of the following is amiodarone mechanism of action?

      Your Answer: Blocks Na + and K + channels and beta-adrenoreceptors in the heart

      Explanation:

      Amiodarone is an anti-arrhythmic medication that can be used to treat both ventricular and atrial arrhythmias. It’s a class III anti-arrhythmic that works by blocking a variety of channels, including Na+ and K+ channels, as well as beta-adrenoreceptors. As a result, it slows conduction through the SA and AV nodes and prolongs phase 3 of the cardiac action potential (slowing repolarisation).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      12.3
      Seconds
  • Question 48 - A 58-year-old man presented to the emergency room complaining of a chest pain...

    Correct

    • A 58-year-old man presented to the emergency room complaining of a chest pain that has been going on for the past 12 hours. Upon further investigation, a troponin test was ordered and the results came back negative. He was given a discharge order from the emergency department.Which of the following aspects of this test is considered the most significant in the decision made that it was safe to send the patient home?

      Your Answer: Likelihood ratio

      Explanation:

      The Likelihood Ratio (LR) is the likelihood that a given test result would be expected in a patient with the target disorder compared to the likelihood that that same result would be expected in a patient without the target disorder.The LR is used to assess how good a diagnostic test is and to help in selecting an appropriate diagnostic tests or sequence of tests. They have advantages over sensitivity and specificity because they are less likely to change with the prevalence of the disorder, they can be calculated for several levels of the symptom/sign or test, they can be used to combine the results of multiple diagnostic test and they can be used to calculate post-test probability for a target disorder.A LR greater than 1 produces a post-test probability which is higher than the pre-test probability. An LR less than 1 produces a post-test probability which is lower than the pre-test probability. When the pre-test probability lies between 30 and 70 per cent, test results with a very high LR (say, above 10) rule in disease. An LR below 1 produces a post-test probability les than the pre-test probability. A very low LR (say, below 0.1) virtually rules out the chance that the patient has the disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Medicine
      60.6
      Seconds
  • Question 49 - The extensor digitorum longus is supplied by which nerve? ...

    Incorrect

    • The extensor digitorum longus is supplied by which nerve?

      Your Answer: Tibial nerve

      Correct Answer: Deep peroneal nerve

      Explanation:

      The extensor digitorum longus is innervated by the deep fibular nerve (L5, S1), a branch of the common fibular nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      36.7
      Seconds
  • Question 50 - Glucagon is the main catabolic hormone of the body and raises the concentration...

    Correct

    • Glucagon is the main catabolic hormone of the body and raises the concentration of glucose and fat in the bloodstream.Which pancreatic islet cells secretes glucagon?

      Your Answer: Alpha

      Explanation:

      Glucagon, secreted from the pancreatic islet alpha cells, is considered to be the main catabolic hormone of the body. It raises the concentration of glucose and fat in the bloodstreamThere are five different pancreatic islet cells:Alpha cells (20%) – produce glucagonBeta cells (70%) – produce insulin and amylinDelta cells (<10%) – produce somatostatinGamma cells (<5%) – produce pancreatic polypeptideEpsilon cells (<1%) – produce ghrelin

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Physiology
      • Physiology
      4.9
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Anatomy (5/13) 38%
Cranial Nerve Lesions (2/3) 67%
Immune Responses (2/2) 100%
Pathology (4/5) 80%
Musculoskeletal Pharmacology (0/2) 0%
Pharmacology (8/12) 67%
Basic Cellular Physiology (2/2) 100%
Physiology (9/16) 56%
Cardiovascular Physiology (1/2) 50%
Central Nervous System (2/3) 67%
Lower Limb (1/3) 33%
Cardiovascular (1/2) 50%
Abdomen (0/1) 0%
Anaesthesia (1/1) 100%
Head And Neck (1/2) 50%
Respiratory Pharmacology (1/1) 100%
Endocrine (3/4) 75%
CNS Pharmacology (0/1) 0%
Basic Cellular (2/5) 40%
Upper Limb (0/2) 0%
Renal Physiology (1/1) 100%
Respiratory (0/1) 0%
Thorax (1/1) 100%
Evidence Based Medicine (2/2) 100%
Gastrointestinal Physiology (0/1) 0%
General Pathology (2/2) 100%
Haematology (0/1) 0%
Microbiology (1/2) 50%
Pathogens (1/1) 100%
Infections (1/2) 50%
Cardiovascular Pharmacology (1/1) 100%
Endocrine Physiology (1/1) 100%
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