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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man with known bronchial carcinoma presents to hospital with confusion. A computed tomography (CT) scan of the brain was reported as normal: no evidence of metastases. His serum electrolytes were as follows:
Investigation Result Normal value
Sodium (Na+) 114 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 3.9 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Urea 5.2 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
Creatinine 82 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
Urinary sodium 54 mmol/l
Which of the subtype of bronchial carcinoma is he most likely to have been diagnosed with?Your Answer: Adenocarcinoma
Correct Answer: Small cell
Explanation:Different Types of Lung Cancer and Their Association with Ectopic Hormones
Lung cancer is a complex disease that can be divided into different types based on their clinical and biological characteristics. The two main categories are non-small cell lung cancers (NSCLCs) and small cell lung cancer (SCLC). SCLC is distinct from NSCLCs due to its origin from amine precursor uptake and decarboxylation (APUD) cells, which have an endocrine lineage. This can lead to the production of various peptide hormones, causing paraneoplastic syndromes such as the syndrome of inappropriate secretion of antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) and Cushing syndrome.
Among NSCLCs, squamous cell carcinoma is commonly associated with ectopic parathyroid hormone, leading to hypercalcemia. Large cell carcinoma and bronchoalveolar cell carcinoma are NSCLCs that do not produce ectopic hormones. Adenocarcinoma, another type of NSCLC, also does not produce ectopic hormones.
Understanding the different types of lung cancer and their association with ectopic hormones is crucial for proper management and treatment of the disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman presents to the hospital with shortness of breath and lethargy for the past two weeks.
On clinical examination, there are reduced breath sounds, dullness to percussion and decreased vocal fremitus at the left base.
Chest X-ray reveals a moderate left-sided pleural effusions. A pleural aspirate is performed on the ward. Analysis is shown:
Aspirate Serum
Total protein 18.5 g/l 38 g/l
Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) 1170 u/l 252 u/l
pH 7.37 7.38
What is the most likely cause of the pleural effusion?Your Answer: Pneumonia
Correct Answer: Hypothyroidism
Explanation:Understanding Pleural Effusions: Causes and Criteria for Exudates
Pleural effusions, the accumulation of fluid in the pleural space surrounding the lungs, can be classified as exudates or transudates using Light’s criteria. While the traditional cut-off value of >30 g/l of protein to indicate an exudate and <30 g/l for a transudate is no longer recommended, Light's criteria still provide a useful framework for diagnosis. An exudate is indicated when the ratio of pleural fluid protein to serum protein is >0.5, the ratio of pleural fluid LDH to serum LDH is >0.6, or pleural fluid LDH is greater than 2/3 times the upper limit for serum.
Exudate effusions are typically caused by inflammation and disruption to cell architecture, while transudates are often associated with systematic illnesses that affect oncotic or hydrostatic pressure. In the case of hypothyroidism, an endocrine disorder, an exudative pleural effusion is consistent with overstimulation of the ovaries.
Other conditions that can cause exudative pleural effusions include pneumonia and pulmonary embolism. Mesothelioma, a type of cancer associated with asbestos exposure, can also cause an exudative pleural effusion, but is less likely in the absence of chest pain, persistent cough, and unexplained weight loss.
Understanding the causes and criteria for exudative pleural effusions can aid in the diagnosis and treatment of various medical conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old male graduate student comes to the clinic complaining of shortness of breath during physical activity for the past two months. He denies any other symptoms and is a non-smoker. Upon examination, there are no abnormalities found, and his full blood count and chest x-ray are normal. What diagnostic test would be most useful in confirming the suspected diagnosis?
Your Answer: Spirometry before and after administration of bronchodilators
Correct Answer: Spirometry before and after exercise
Explanation:Confirming Exercise-Induced Asthma Diagnosis
To confirm the suspected diagnosis of exercise-induced asthma, the most appropriate investigation would be spirometry before and after exercise. This patient is likely to have exercise-induced asthma, which means that his asthma symptoms are triggered by physical activity. Spirometry is a lung function test that measures how much air a person can inhale and exhale. By performing spirometry before and after exercise, doctors can compare the results and determine if there is a significant decrease in lung function after physical activity. If there is a significant decrease, it confirms the diagnosis of exercise-induced asthma. This test is important because it helps doctors develop an appropriate treatment plan for the patient. With the right treatment, patients with exercise-induced asthma can still participate in physical activity and lead a healthy lifestyle.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 4
Correct
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A 55-year-old woman presents with 6 months of recurrent episodes of shortness of breath. She describes it as ‘coming on suddenly without warning’. They have woken her at night before. She describes the attacks as a ‘tightness’ in the chest and says that they are associated with tingling in her fingers. The episodes resolve in a few minutes by themselves. She is otherwise medically fit and well. She smokes 15 cigarettes per day and has a family history of asthma. Examination is normal, and the peak expiratory flow rate is normal for her age and height.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Panic attacks
Explanation:Differentiating between possible causes of acute shortness of breath: A medical analysis
When a patient presents with acute shortness of breath, it is important to consider a range of possible causes. In this case, the patient’s symptoms suggest panic attacks rather than left ventricular failure, acute asthma attacks, COPD, or anaemia.
Panic attacks are characterized by sudden onset and spontaneous resolution, numbness of extremities, and normal examination and peak flow measurement. They can be triggered or occur unexpectedly, and may be due to a disorder such as panic disorder or post-traumatic stress disorder, or secondary to medical problems such as thyroid disease. Treatment includes psychological therapies, breathing exercises, stress avoidance, and pharmacological therapies such as selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors.
Left ventricular failure, on the other hand, would cause respiratory problems due to pulmonary congestion, leading to reduced pulmonary compliance and increased airway resistance. Examination of someone with left ventricular failure would reveal pulmonary crackles and possibly a small mitral regurgitation murmur. However, it is unlikely that a woman would experience acute episodes such as these due to heart failure.
Acute asthma attacks are typically triggered by inhaled allergens or other factors such as cold/dry air, stress, or upper respiratory tract infections. The absence of triggers in this case suggests that asthma is not the diagnosis.
COPD is a possible differential due to the patient’s smoking history, but it is unlikely to have worsened so acutely and resolved in a matter of minutes. The normal peak expiratory flow rate also suggests that COPD is not the cause.
Finally, anaemia would not account for acute episodes of shortness of breath, which are present normally on exertion in anaemic patients. Signs of anaemia such as pallor, tachycardia, cardiac dilation, or oedema are not mentioned in the patient’s history.
In conclusion, a careful analysis of the patient’s symptoms and medical history can help differentiate between possible causes of acute shortness of breath, leading to appropriate treatment and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old call centre operator with a 6-year history of sarcoidosis presents with worsening shortness of breath during his visit to Respiratory Outpatients. This is his fifth episode of this nature since his diagnosis. In the past, he has responded well to tapered doses of oral steroids. What initial test would be most useful in evaluating his current pulmonary condition before prescribing steroids?
Your Answer: Serum angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) level
Correct Answer: Pulmonary function tests with transfer factor
Explanation:Pulmonary Function Tests with Transfer Factor in Sarcoidosis: An Overview
Sarcoidosis is a complex inflammatory disease that can affect multiple organs, with respiratory manifestations being the most common. Pulmonary function tests with transfer factor are a useful tool in assessing the severity of sarcoidosis and monitoring response to treatment. The underlying pathological process in sarcoidosis is interstitial fibrosis, leading to a restrictive pattern on pulmonary function tests with reduced transfer factor. While steroids are often effective in treating sarcoidosis, monitoring transfer factor levels can help detect exacerbations and assess response to treatment. Other diagnostic tests, such as arterial blood gas, chest X-ray, serum ACE levels, and HRCT of the chest, may also be useful in certain situations but are not always necessary as an initial test. Overall, pulmonary function tests with transfer factor play a crucial role in the management of sarcoidosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old teacher visits her GP as she has noticed that she is becoming increasingly breathless whilst walking. She has always enjoyed walking and usually walks 5 times a week. Over the past year she has noted that she can no longer manage the same distance that she has been accustomed to without getting breathless and needing to stop. She wonders if this is a normal part of ageing or if there could be an underlying medical problem.
Which of the following are consistent with normal ageing with respect to the respiratory system?Your Answer: Peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) <200 l/min
Correct Answer: Reduction of forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1) by 20–30%
Explanation:Age-Related Changes in Respiratory Function and Abnormalities to Watch For
As we age, our respiratory system undergoes natural changes that can affect our lung function. By the age of 80, it is normal to experience a reduction in forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1) and forced vital capacity (FVC) by about 25-30%. Peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) also decreases by approximately 30% in both men and women. However, if these changes are accompanied by abnormal readings such as PaO2 levels below 8.0 kPa, PaCO2 levels above 6.5 kPa, or O2 saturation levels below 91% on air, it may indicate hypoxemia or hypercapnia, which are not consistent with normal aging. It is important to monitor these readings and seek medical attention if abnormalities are detected.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 7
Correct
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A 50-year-old woman has a small cell lung cancer. Her serum sodium level is 128 mmol/l on routine testing (136–145 mmol/l).
What is the single most likely cause for the biochemical abnormality?Your Answer: Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH)
Explanation:Understanding the Causes of Hyponatraemia: Differential Diagnosis
Hyponatraemia is a condition characterized by low levels of sodium in the blood. There are several possible causes of hyponatraemia, including the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH), primary adrenal insufficiency, diuretics, polydipsia, and vomiting.
SIADH is a common cause of hyponatraemia, particularly in small cell lung cancer patients. It occurs due to the ectopic production of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), which leads to impaired water excretion and water retention. This results in hyponatraemia and hypo-osmolality.
Primary adrenal insufficiency, also known as Addison’s disease, can also cause hyponatraemia, hyperkalaemia, and hypotension. However, there is no indication in the question that the patient has this condition.
Diuretics, particularly loop diuretics and bendroflumethiazide, can also cause hyponatraemia. However, there is no information to suggest that the patient is taking diuretics.
Polydipsia, or excessive thirst, can also lead to hyponatraemia. However, there is no indication in the question that the patient has this condition.
Vomiting is another possible cause of hyponatraemia, but there is no information in the question to support this as a correct answer.
In summary, hyponatraemia can have several possible causes, and a thorough differential diagnosis is necessary to determine the underlying condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 8
Correct
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A 65-year-old known alcoholic is brought by ambulance after being found unconscious on the road on a Sunday afternoon. He has a superficial laceration in the right frontal region. He is admitted for observation over the weekend. The admission chest X-ray is normal. Before discharge on Tuesday morning, he is noted to be febrile and dyspnoeic. Blood tests reveal a neutrophilia and elevated C-reactive protein (CRP). A chest X-ray demonstrates consolidation in the lower zone of the right lung.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Aspiration pneumonia
Explanation:Aspiration pneumonia is a type of pneumonia that typically affects the lower lobes of the lungs, particularly the right middle or lower lobes or left lower lobe. It is often seen in individuals who have consumed alcohol and subsequently vomited, leading to the aspiration of the contents into the lower bronchi. If an alcoholic is found unconscious with a lower zone consolidation, aspiration pneumonia should be considered when prescribing antibiotics. Hospital-acquired pneumonia (HAP) is unlikely to occur within the first 48 hours of admission. Tuberculosis (TB) is a rare diagnosis in this case as it typically affects the upper lobes and the patient’s chest X-ray from two days earlier was normal. Staphylococcal pneumonia may be seen in alcoholics but is characterized by cavitating lesions and empyema. Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia is common in immunosuppressed individuals and presents with bilateral perihilar consolidations and possible lung cyst formation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 9
Correct
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A 50-year-old woman is admitted to hospital with fever, dyspnoea and consolidation at the left lower base. She is commenced on antibiotics. A few days later, she deteriorates and a chest X-ray reveals a large pleural effusion, with consolidation on the left side.
What is the most important investigation to perform next?Your Answer: Pleural aspiration
Explanation:Appropriate Investigations for a Unilateral Pleural Effusion
When a patient presents with a unilateral pleural effusion, the recommended first investigation is pleural aspiration. This procedure allows for the analysis of the fluid, including cytology, biochemical analysis, Gram staining, and culture and sensitivity. By classifying the effusion as a transudate or an exudate, further management can be guided.
While a blood culture may be helpful if the patient has a fever, pleural aspiration is still the more appropriate next investigation. A CT scan may be useful at some point to outline the extent of the consolidation and effusion, but it would not change management at this stage.
Bronchoscopy may be necessary if a tumour is suspected, but it is not required based on the information provided. Thoracoscopy may be used if pleural aspiration is inconclusive, but it is a more invasive procedure. Therefore, pleural aspiration should be performed first.
In summary, pleural aspiration is the recommended first investigation for a unilateral pleural effusion, as it provides valuable information for further management. Other investigations may be necessary depending on the specific case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 41-year-old man presents with wheezing and shortness of breath. He reports no history of smoking or drug use. An ultrasound reveals cirrhosis of the liver, and he is diagnosed with alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency. He undergoes a liver transplant. What type of emphysema is he now at higher risk of developing?
Your Answer: Interstitial
Correct Answer: Panacinar
Explanation:Different Types of Emphysema and Their Characteristics
Emphysema is a lung condition that has various forms, each with its own distinct characteristics. The four main types of emphysema are panacinar, compensatory, interstitial, centriacinar, and paraseptal.
Panacinar emphysema affects the entire acinus, from the respiratory bronchiole to the distal alveoli. It is often associated with α-1-antitrypsin deficiency.
Compensatory emphysema occurs when the lung parenchyma is scarred, but it is usually asymptomatic.
Interstitial emphysema is not a true form of emphysema, but rather occurs when air penetrates the pulmonary interstitium. It can be caused by chest wounds or alveolar tears resulting from coughing and airway obstruction.
Centriacinar emphysema is characterized by enlargement of the central portions of the acinus, specifically the respiratory bronchiole. It is often caused by exposure to coal dust and tobacco products.
Paraseptal emphysema is associated with scarring and can lead to spontaneous pneumothorax in young patients. It is more severe when it occurs in areas adjacent to the pleura, where it can cause the development of large, cyst-like structures that can rupture into the pleural cavity.
In summary, understanding the different types of emphysema and their characteristics is important for proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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