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  • Question 1 - A 58-year-old woman presents with symptoms of a lower respiratory tract infection and...

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    • A 58-year-old woman presents with symptoms of a lower respiratory tract infection and is prescribed a course of amoxicillin. She comes back after 2 weeks with complaints of dysuria, pruritus vulvae, and a white vaginal discharge.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Vulvovaginal candidiasis

      Explanation:

      Understanding and Treating Vulvovaginal Candidiasis

      Vulvovaginal candidiasis is a common condition that affects approximately 75% of women in their reproductive years. It is caused by an overgrowth of yeast in the vaginal area and can be triggered by various factors such as pregnancy, diabetes, and the use of broad-spectrum antibiotics. While routine culture is not necessary for diagnosis, it is important to rule out underlying conditions such as type 2 diabetes in older women.

      Treatment for vulvovaginal candidiasis typically involves the use of topical or oral antifungal medications such as azoles or triazoles. In cases where an azole has failed, nystatin may be more effective, especially if the infection is caused by Candida glabrata rather than Candida albicans. It is also important to note that approximately 10% of women with vulvovaginal candidiasis have a mixed infection with bacteria, which may require additional testing and treatment.

      Overall, understanding the causes and treatment options for vulvovaginal candidiasis can help women effectively manage this common condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 2 - A 68-year-old alcoholic man comes to the clinic complaining of cough with occasional...

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    • A 68-year-old alcoholic man comes to the clinic complaining of cough with occasional haemoptysis, fever, night sweats and weight loss that has been going on for 2 months. His CXR reveals extensive bilateral apical cavitation.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Tuberculosis

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis and Treatment of Cavitating Tuberculosis

      Cavitating tuberculosis is the likely diagnosis for a patient presenting with symptoms such as cough, fever, weight loss, and haemoptysis, along with a chest X-ray appearance. Although lung cancer could be a possible alternative diagnosis, the symptoms strongly suggest a tuberculous infection.

      The recommended treatment for the initial phase of cavitating tuberculosis is a daily combination of isoniazid, rifampicin, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol. These drugs should be continued for two months. After the initial phase, treatment should continue for an additional four months with isoniazid and rifampicin. Combination preparations are available to make compliance easier for the patient. It is important to follow the prescribed treatment plan to ensure successful recovery from cavitating tuberculosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 3 - The practice nurse is seeking advice on malaria prophylaxis for a 26-year-old female...

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    • The practice nurse is seeking advice on malaria prophylaxis for a 26-year-old female patient who is currently taking the combined oral contraceptive pill for contraception and has a history of anxiety treated with sertraline two years ago. What would be the most suitable recommendation?

      Your Answer: Mefloquine may not be prescribed due to the history of anxiety

      Explanation:

      Strengthened Warnings on the Neuropsychiatric Side-Effects of Mefloquine

      Mefloquine, also known as Lariam, is a medication used for the prevention and treatment of certain types of malaria. However, there has been a long-standing concern about its potential neuropsychiatric side-effects. Recently, a review has led to the strengthening of warnings regarding these risks.

      Patients taking mefloquine may experience side-effects such as nightmares or anxiety, which could be a sign of a more serious neuropsychiatric event. There have also been reports of suicide and deliberate self-harm in patients taking this medication. Adverse reactions may persist for several months due to the long half-life of mefloquine.

      It is important to note that mefloquine should not be used in patients with a history of anxiety, depression, schizophrenia, or other psychiatric disorders. If patients experience any neuropsychiatric side-effects while taking mefloquine, they should stop the medication and seek medical advice. These warnings aim to ensure the safe use of mefloquine in the prevention and treatment of malaria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 4 - A 35-year-old man presents with a past medical history of abdominal pain and...

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    • A 35-year-old man presents with a past medical history of abdominal pain and febrile illness. His liver function tests reveal an alanine aminotransferase level of 80 IU/l and a bilirubin level of 18 µmol/l. Serological tests for hepatitis viruses indicate that he is positive for hepatitis B (HepB) surface antigen (Ag), but negative for anti-HepB core or immunoglobulin M. What do these results suggest?

      Your Answer: Carrier of hepatitis B

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hepatitis B Infection and Vaccination Status

      Hepatitis B infection can be identified through the presence of specific antigens and antibodies in the blood. In acute cases, the surface antigen appears first, followed by a highly infectious antigen. Transaminase levels may also increase. If the surface antigen persists after the acute illness, it indicates a carrier status, which occurs in 10% of cases.

      Vaccination against hepatitis B can be confirmed by the presence of antibodies to the surface antigen. However, if these antibodies are not present, it suggests that the patient has not been vaccinated.

      High levels of immunoglobulin M antibodies to the core antigen indicate an acute infection, while positive immunoglobulin G antibodies to anti-Hep B core indicate a past infection.

      Recovery from past hepatitis B infection is indicated by the clearance of the surface antigen and the development of anti-HBs antibodies.

      If a patient has hepatitis B surface antigen and core antibodies, it suggests that they have been infected with hepatitis B and do not require vaccination.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 5 - A 43-year-old man with a known HIV diagnosis visits your clinic complaining of...

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    • A 43-year-old man with a known HIV diagnosis visits your clinic complaining of a persistent cold sore despite using over-the-counter topical medication. What is the recommended next step in treatment?

      Your Answer: Oral aciclovir

      Explanation:

      If a patient experiences severe, frequent, persistent, or recurrent gingivostomatitis (a rare form of oral herpes simplex infection), antivirals may be considered as a treatment option. Immunocompromised patients may benefit from oral aciclovir for cold sore management.

      Continuing to use over-the-counter topical medication is not recommended for this patient as it has not been effective. It is important to explore other treatment options to alleviate their ongoing symptoms.

      It would be inappropriate to not offer any further treatment options to this patient as there are options available.

      Referral to dermatology is not necessary for the management of cold sores in most cases. However, if there is uncertainty about the diagnosis, a referral may be appropriate.

      The herpes simplex virus (HSV) comes in two strains: HSV-1 and HSV-2. It was once believed that HSV-1 caused cold sores and HSV-2 caused genital herpes, but there is now significant overlap between the two. Symptoms of a primary infection may include severe gingivostomatitis, while cold sores and painful genital ulceration are also common. Treatment options include oral aciclovir and chlorhexidine mouthwash for gingivostomatitis, topical aciclovir for cold sores (although the evidence for its effectiveness is limited), and oral aciclovir for genital herpes. Pregnant women with herpes should be treated with suppressive therapy, and those who experience a primary attack during pregnancy after 28 weeks gestation should have an elective caesarean section. The risk of transmission to the baby is low for women with recurrent herpes. Pap smear images can show the cytopathic effect of HSV, including multinucleation, marginated chromatin, and molding of the nuclei.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 6 - A 25-year-old nurse has a needlestick injury after taking blood from a patient...

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    • A 25-year-old nurse has a needlestick injury after taking blood from a patient known to be HIV positive.
      Select the single most appropriate immediate management after hand-washing for 10 minutes.

      Your Answer: Antiretroviral therapy

      Explanation:

      Reducing the Risk of HIV and Hepatitis B Transmission in Healthcare Workers

      Healthcare workers are at risk of occupational exposure to HIV and hepatitis B through needlestick injuries or other percutaneous and mucous membrane exposures. The average risk of HIV infection after such exposure is 0.3%, while the risk of hepatitis B transmission is higher. The risk is greatest for deep injuries, visible blood on the device, direct cannulation of blood vessels, or advanced HIV disease in the source patient.

      To reduce the risk of HIV transmission, healthcare workers should receive post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) as soon as possible after exposure. A small study showed an 80% reduction in seroconversion with zidovudine, and current recommendations include two nucleoside inhibitors and a protease inhibitor for 1 month. Nevirapine is not recommended due to adverse reactions.

      In addition to PEP, healthcare workers should receive hepatitis B immunoglobulin within 72 hours if the source is HBeAg positive or unknown, and they have negative serology. All healthcare workers should also be offered hepatitis B immunisation if they have not been immunised or are non-immune, following baseline serology testing.

      A careful risk assessment and information provision are crucial in the management of occupational exposure to HIV and hepatitis B in healthcare workers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 7 - The mother of a 4-year-old girl has contacted the GP surgery as her...

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    • The mother of a 4-year-old girl has contacted the GP surgery as her daughter was recently hospitalized with a fever and a non-blanching rash. The diagnosis was meningococcal septicaemia, but the serogroup is currently unknown. The local health protection unit has advised the mother to speak to her GP about chemoprophylaxis for herself.

      The mother is currently taking the combined oral contraceptive pill and has a sulphonamide allergy. She received the meningococcal C vaccine during childhood but did not receive the meningococcal B vaccine as it was not available at the time. What is the most appropriate treatment option for her?

      Your Answer: Oral ciprofloxacin

      Explanation:

      Prophylaxis for contacts of patients with meningococcal meningitis involves the use of oral ciprofloxacin or rifampicin. The recommended choice, according to Public Health England guidelines, is ciprofloxacin, which is taken as a single-dose treatment for both adults and children. It should be given to all close contacts of the index case during the 7 days before the onset of illness, regardless of vaccination status. Rifampicin is an alternative option but is less desirable due to its potential to reduce the effectiveness of combined oral contraceptives and the need for multiple doses. Currently, there is no role for administering a vaccine to the patient as the infection serogroup has not been identified. Even if serogroup B infection is confirmed later, the administration of meningococcal B (MenB) vaccine to close contacts is not recommended unless it is a cluster of cases, which would be determined by the local health protection team rather than the GP.

      When suspected bacterial meningitis is being investigated and managed, it is important to prioritize timely antibiotic treatment to avoid negative consequences. Patients should be urgently transferred to the hospital, and if meningococcal disease is suspected in a prehospital setting, intramuscular benzylpenicillin may be given. An ABC approach should be taken initially, and senior review is necessary if any warning signs are present. A key decision is when to attempt a lumbar puncture, which should be delayed in certain circumstances. Management of patients without indication for delayed LP includes IV antibiotics, with cefotaxime or ceftriaxone recommended for patients aged 3 months to 50 years. Additional tests that may be helpful include blood gases and throat swab for meningococcal culture. Prophylaxis needs to be offered to households and close contacts of patients affected with meningococcal meningitis, and meningococcal vaccination should be offered to close contacts when serotype results are available.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 8 - A 30-year-old man presents with a 10-day history of mucopurulent anal discharge, anal...

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    • A 30-year-old man presents with a 10-day history of mucopurulent anal discharge, anal bleeding, and pain during defecation.
      What is the MOST PROBABLE diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Gonorrhoea

      Explanation:

      Symptoms and Causes of Rectal Infections

      Rectal infections can have various symptoms and causes. Gonorrhoea, for instance, is often asymptomatic but may cause anal discharge or perianal/anal pain, pruritus, or bleeding. Primary syphilis, on the other hand, is characterized by a painless ulcer or chancre. Candidiasis is associated with a perianal intertrigenous rash, while Crohn’s disease may lead to perianal pendulous skin tags, abscesses, and fistulas. Salmonella infection, meanwhile, causes acute diarrhea, vomiting, abdominal cramps, and fever. It is important to seek medical attention if you experience any of these symptoms to receive proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 9 - A mother of a 7-month-old baby with cerebral palsy visits the GP clinic...

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    • A mother of a 7-month-old baby with cerebral palsy visits the GP clinic to inquire about influenza immunizations. What is the most suitable vaccination for her child?

      Your Answer: Annual intramuscular influenza vaccine

      Explanation:

      The annual intramuscular flu vaccination is offered to children between 6 months to 2 years who are at high risk of flu. This includes babies with cerebral palsy, who are classified as high-risk patients and are eligible for the inactivated intramuscular influenza vaccination from the age of 6 months. It is important to note that the routine immunisation schedule offers a live intranasal influenza vaccine to children from the age of 2 years.

      influenza vaccination is recommended in the UK between September and early November, as the influenza season typically starts in the middle of November. There are three types of influenza virus, with types A and B accounting for the majority of clinical disease. Prior to 2013, flu vaccination was only offered to the elderly and at-risk groups. However, a new NHS influenza vaccination programme for children was announced in 2013, with the children’s vaccine given intranasally and annually after the first dose at 2-3 years. It is important to note that the type of vaccine given to children and the one given to the elderly and at-risk groups is different, which explains the different contraindications.

      For adults and at-risk groups, current vaccines are trivalent and consist of two subtypes of influenza A and one subtype of influenza B. The Department of Health recommends annual influenza vaccination for all people older than 65 years and those older than 6 months with chronic respiratory, heart, kidney, liver, neurological disease, diabetes mellitus, immunosuppression, asplenia or splenic dysfunction, or a body mass index >= 40 kg/m². Other at-risk individuals include health and social care staff, those living in long-stay residential care homes, and carers of the elderly or disabled person whose welfare may be at risk if the carer becomes ill.

      The influenza vaccine is an inactivated vaccine that cannot cause influenza, but a minority of patients may develop fever and malaise that lasts 1-2 days. It should be stored between +2 and +8ºC and shielded from light, and contraindications include hypersensitivity to egg protein. In adults, the vaccination is around 75% effective, although this figure decreases in the elderly. It takes around 10-14 days after immunisation before antibody levels are at protective levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 10 - A 40-year-old patient comes to the clinic for a routine appointment. He has...

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    • A 40-year-old patient comes to the clinic for a routine appointment. He has a history of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) and wants to discuss the result of his recent CD4 count.
      Which statement concerning the T lymphocyte CD4 count is correct?

      Your Answer: It has a relationship with the risk of developing opportunistic infections

      Explanation:

      The Importance of CD4 Count in HIV Diagnosis and Treatment

      CD4 count plays a crucial role in the diagnosis and treatment of HIV. HIV binds to CD4 receptors on various cells, leading to immune dysfunction and increased susceptibility to opportunistic infections. A high CD4 count during the acute phase of HIV infection is common, but a count of ≤ 200 cells/mm3 is diagnosed as AIDS. CD4 tests are also used to determine the efficacy of treatment and when to initiate antiretroviral therapy. While not a direct HIV test, CD4 counts provide valuable information about a patient’s immune system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 11 - A 32-year-old woman returns from a 3-week holiday to Thailand with a 5-day...

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    • A 32-year-old woman returns from a 3-week holiday to Thailand with a 5-day history of feeling generally unwell, feverish, nauseous with a loss of appetite and right upper quadrant pain.

      Upon examination, she appears unwell with a temperature of 38.2ºC and a heart rate of 102 beats per minute. Abdominal examination reveals tender hepatomegaly.

      Blood tests are conducted, and the results are as follows:

      Hb 148 g/L Male: (135-180)
      Female: (115 - 160)
      Platelets 456 * 109/L (150 - 400)
      WBC 12.2 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
      Na+ 142 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      K+ 4.3 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      Urea 5.2 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      Creatinine 76 µmol/L (55 - 120)
      CRP 32 mg/L (< 5)

      Bilirubin 42 µmol/L (3 - 17)
      ALP 164 u/L (30 - 100)
      ALT 512 u/L (3 - 40)
      γGT 86 u/L (8 - 60)
      Albumin 38 g/L (35 - 50)

      What is the most probable diagnosis from the options below?

      Your Answer: Hepatitis A

      Explanation:

      Hepatitis A is a viral infection that affects the liver and typically presents with flu-like symptoms, nausea, fatigue, and pain in the upper right quadrant of the abdomen. The liver may also become enlarged and tender, and liver function tests may be abnormal. As the infection progresses, it can lead to significant liver inflammation and a cholestatic picture.

      While an amoebic abscess is a possibility given the patient’s history of travel and symptoms of fever and right upper quadrant pain, the blood tests do not fully support this diagnosis, as the white blood cell count and C-reactive protein are only mildly elevated, and the alanine transaminase (ALT) is significantly raised.

      Ascending cholangitis, which is characterized by fever, right upper quadrant pain, and jaundice, is less likely in this scenario, as the liver function tests show marked hepatic inflammation with the raised ALT in proportion to the slightly raised bilirubin.

      Cholecystitis, which is inflammation of the gallbladder, would not typically cause such a significant rise in ALT or the development of jaundice.

      Understanding Hepatitis A: Symptoms, Transmission, and Prevention

      Hepatitis A is a viral infection that affects the liver. It is usually a mild illness that resolves on its own, with serious complications being rare. The virus is transmitted through the faecal-oral route, often in institutions. The incubation period is typically 2-4 weeks, and symptoms include a flu-like prodrome, abdominal pain (usually in the right upper quadrant), tender hepatomegaly, jaundice, and deranged liver function tests.

      While complications are rare, there is no increased risk of hepatocellular cancer. An effective vaccine is available, and it is recommended for people travelling to or residing in areas of high or intermediate prevalence, those with chronic liver disease, patients with haemophilia, men who have sex with men, injecting drug users, and individuals at occupational risk (such as laboratory workers, staff of large residential institutions, sewage workers, and people who work with primates).

      It is important to note that the vaccine requires a booster dose 6-12 months after the initial dose. By understanding the symptoms, transmission, and prevention of hepatitis A, individuals can take steps to protect themselves and others from this viral infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 12 - At what stage of pregnancy is the ideal timing for administering the pertussis...

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    • At what stage of pregnancy is the ideal timing for administering the pertussis vaccine to protect infants prior to their initial primary immunisation?

      Your Answer: As soon as the pregnancy is confirmed

      Explanation:

      Pertussis Vaccination for Pregnant Women

      Pregnant women are now recommended to receive a pertussis vaccination during late pregnancy, between 16-32 weeks, to protect their unborn infants against pertussis. Antibody levels in adults reach their peak two weeks after the booster but then significantly decline. Therefore, immunizations given early in pregnancy would likely be less effective and could be falsely associated with any adverse effects identified at the anomaly scan. Additionally, transplacental antibody transfer is minimal after 34 weeks of pregnancy. Immunization after 16 weeks would also provide protection to infants born prematurely who may be particularly vulnerable. The vaccine can be offered up until labor, but just prior to labor is not the optimal time as antibody levels peak at two weeks after the booster. It is important for pregnant women to consider receiving the pertussis vaccine to protect their unborn infants.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 13 - A colleague of yours who is a physician requests you to recommend a...

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    • A colleague of yours who is a physician requests you to recommend a regimen of ciprofloxacin as he is planning a trip to Goa in three days. What would be the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer: Decline and suggest he consults with his regular GP

      Explanation:

      According to the GMC, doctors should refrain from treating themselves or individuals with whom they have a close personal relationship. It is recommended that doctors register with a GP outside of their family. Therefore, the most appropriate course of action would be to suggest that the colleague consults with their own GP. Discussing their medical history could create confusion regarding the doctor-patient relationship. Urging them to visit A&E is not advisable as it is not an emergency or an accident. It is worth noting that this type of request is not uncommon among colleagues, and reporting it to the GMC may be considered excessive.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 14 - A 30-year-old man presents with a 9-day history of mucopurulent anal discharge, anal...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old man presents with a 9-day history of mucopurulent anal discharge, anal bleeding, and pain during defecation. What is the MOST APPROPRIATE next step in the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Stained specimen microscopy

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis and Testing for Gonorrhoea

      Gonorrhoea is the most probable diagnosis in this case. To confirm the diagnosis, rapid testing can be done by examining Gram-stained anal specimens for Gram-negative diplococci. Culture testing is also necessary to confirm the diagnosis and determine the appropriate antimicrobial treatment. It is important to send the specimens to the laboratory as soon as possible. If there is a significant delay in getting the swabs to the laboratory, it may be advisable to refer the patient to a genito-urinary medicine clinic.

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      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 15 - A 7-year-old boy has pruritus ani. His mother has noticed what look like...

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    • A 7-year-old boy has pruritus ani. His mother has noticed what look like tiny pieces of cotton moving on his stool and around his anus.
      Select from the list the single most suitable management option.

      Your Answer: Mebendazole

      Explanation:

      Understanding Threadworm: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      Threadworm, also known as pinworm or enterobiasis, is a common nematode infection caused by Enterobius vermicularis. This infection is exclusive to humans and doesn’t affect family pets. Female worms lay eggs outside the anus, causing irritation and discomfort. The eggs can easily spread through contaminated hands, food, clothing, and bedding, leading to re-infection.

      Diagnosing threadworm involves examining adhesive tape applied to the anal area under a microscope, as stool examination is only positive in 5% of cases. Asymptomatic infection is common, so it is recommended that the entire family be treated together. Mebendazole is the preferred drug for treating threadworm in adults and children over 2 years old. It is given as a single oral dose and repeated after 2-3 weeks in case of re-infection. Piperazine, licensed for use in children as young as 3 months, paralyzes the worms but doesn’t kill them. It is often combined with senna as a powder (Pripsen) to expel the worms and is given as a single dose, repeated after 14 days.

      In conclusion, understanding the symptoms, diagnosis, and treatment of threadworm is crucial in preventing the spread of this common infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 16 - You see a 16-year-old boy with his father. They are planning on travelling...

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    • You see a 16-year-old boy with his father. They are planning on travelling to Africa to climb Mount Kenya in 3 months time. They would like you to prescribe some malaria prophylaxis as Kenya is a malaria endemic country. They were given some information from the nurse and they think they would like to take atovaquone/proguanil (brand name Malarone). They are aware that most regimens have side effects and would like to know a bit more about what to expect from this drug.

      What is a common side effect of atovaquone/proguanil that the 16-year-old boy and his father should be aware of before taking it as a malaria prophylaxis for their upcoming trip to Kenya?

      Your Answer: Gastrointestinal upset

      Explanation:

      Malaria is a serious illness caused by Plasmodium parasites that infect red blood cells and is transmitted through mosquito bites. When traveling to areas where malaria is prevalent, it is recommended to take medication to prevent infection. There are several options available, including chloroquines, proguanil, mefloquine, and doxycycline. Each medication has its own set of potential side effects, with gastrointestinal upset being the most common. Other side effects may include headaches, rash, and neuropsychiatric reactions. It is important to discuss the risks and benefits of each medication with a healthcare provider before starting prophylaxis.

      Malaria is a serious disease caused by the Plasmodium falciparum protozoa, with around 1,500-2,000 cases reported each year in patients returning from endemic countries. The majority of these cases occur in patients who did not take prophylaxis. It is important to consult up-to-date charts for recommended regimens for malaria zones before prescribing. There are several drugs available for prophylaxis, including Atovaquone + proguanil (Malarone), Chloroquine, Doxycycline, Mefloquine (Lariam), and Proguanil (Paludrine). Pregnant women and children are at higher risk of serious complications and should avoid travel to malaria endemic regions if possible. However, if travel is essential, prophylaxis should be taken, and DEET can be used to repel mosquitoes. Doxycycline is only licensed for use in children over the age of 12 years.

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      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 17 - An 80-year-old woman lives in a residential home in which some residents have...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old woman lives in a residential home in which some residents have influenza-like symptoms at the start of the influenza season. She has no chronic disease and no symptoms of influenza. The residents have not yet received seasonal influenza immunisation.
      What is the single most suitable immediate prophylactic measure?

      Your Answer: Oseltamivir

      Explanation:

      Treatment and Prevention of influenza: A Summary of NICE Recommendations

      influenza is best prevented through vaccination, but in cases where the protective response is not quick enough, antiviral medications such as oseltamivir and zanamivir can be effective. These medications work by inhibiting viral neuraminidase and reducing the replication of influenza A and B viruses. They are most effective when started within a few hours of symptom onset and can reduce the duration of symptoms by about 1-1.5 days in otherwise healthy individuals.

      Oseltamivir and zanamivir are also recommended for at-risk patients, including the elderly and those with chronic disease, to reduce the risk of complications from influenza. In addition, they can be used for post-exposure prophylaxis when influenza is circulating in the community or in exceptional circumstances when vaccination doesn’t cover the infecting strain.

      It is important to note that amantadine is not recommended for the treatment or prevention of influenza. Overall, vaccination remains the most effective way to prevent illness from influenza, but antiviral medications can be a useful tool in certain situations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 18 - A 3-year-old-boy has diarrhoea. Campylobacter is grown from a stool sample.
    Select from...

    Correct

    • A 3-year-old-boy has diarrhoea. Campylobacter is grown from a stool sample.
      Select from the list the commonest source of infection in the UK.

      Your Answer: Contaminated food

      Explanation:

      Campylobacter Enteritis: A Common Bacterial Infection of the Gut

      Campylobacter enteritis is a prevalent bacterial infection of the gut in industrialized countries, affecting people of all ages, especially young adults. In the United Kingdom alone, there are approximately 55,000 laboratory isolations reported annually, with an incidence rate of 100/100,000. However, the actual incidence rate is likely to be ten times higher than reported.

      The consumption of raw or barbecued meats, particularly poultry, carries a significant risk of infection. Broiler chickens are the most common source of Campylobacter spp, and almost all retailed chickens are contaminated. Therefore, self-infection or cross-contamination to other foods can occur if proper hygiene is not observed. Other sources of infection include unpasteurized milk, contaminated water, and pets with diarrhea. Person-to-person spread is also possible.

      Campylobacter is a notifiable disease in the UK. Although the condition is often self-limiting, antibiotic treatment may be necessary in severe cases, worsening disease, immunocompromised individuals, or symptoms lasting more than seven days. Erythromycin is the first-line antibiotic of choice, with a recommended dosage of 250-500mg for up to seven days.

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      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 19 - A 14-year-old male from France comes to the clinic complaining of feeling sick...

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    • A 14-year-old male from France comes to the clinic complaining of feeling sick for the past 2 weeks. At first, he had a sore throat but now he is having occasional joint pains in his knees, hips, and ankles. During the examination, some pink, ring-shaped lesions are observed on his trunk, and he occasionally experiences jerking movements of his face and hands. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Rheumatic fever

      Explanation:

      Rheumatic fever is a condition that occurs as a result of an immune response to a recent Streptococcus pyogenes infection, typically occurring 2-4 weeks after the initial infection. The pathogenesis of rheumatic fever involves the activation of the innate immune system, leading to antigen presentation to T cells. B and T cells then produce IgG and IgM antibodies, and CD4+ T cells are activated. This immune response is thought to be cross-reactive, mediated by molecular mimicry, where antibodies against M protein cross-react with myosin and the smooth muscle of arteries. This response leads to the clinical features of rheumatic fever, including Aschoff bodies, which are granulomatous nodules found in rheumatic heart fever.

      To diagnose rheumatic fever, evidence of recent streptococcal infection must be present, along with 2 major criteria or 1 major criterion and 2 minor criteria. Major criteria include erythema marginatum, Sydenham’s chorea, polyarthritis, carditis and valvulitis, and subcutaneous nodules. Minor criteria include raised ESR or CRP, pyrexia, arthralgia, and prolonged PR interval.

      Management of rheumatic fever involves antibiotics, typically oral penicillin V, as well as anti-inflammatories such as NSAIDs as first-line treatment. Any complications that develop, such as heart failure, should also be treated. It is important to diagnose and treat rheumatic fever promptly to prevent long-term complications such as rheumatic heart disease.

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      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 20 - A 32-year-old woman contacts the clinic as she has been advised by secondary...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman contacts the clinic as she has been advised by secondary care to seek prophylactic antibiotics. Her brother, with whom she shares a home, has been hospitalized with symptoms of meningococcal meningitis. What is the most suitable antibiotic to prescribe in this situation?

      Your Answer: Ciprofloxacin

      Explanation:

      Ciprofloxacin or rifampicin are the recommended antibiotics for prophylaxis in close contacts of patients with meningococcal meningitis, particularly those living in the same household. It is important to administer the prophylactic antibiotics as soon as possible, ideally within 24 hours. Amoxicillin is not used for prophylaxis in close contacts, but may be used in combination with cefotaxime or ceftriaxone to treat bacterial meningitis in hospitalized patients over 50 years old. Benzylpenicillin and cefotaxime are not used as prophylactic treatments for close contacts, but are used to treat suspected cases of meningococcal meningitis.

      When suspected bacterial meningitis is being investigated and managed, it is important to prioritize timely antibiotic treatment to avoid negative consequences. Patients should be urgently transferred to the hospital, and if meningococcal disease is suspected in a prehospital setting, intramuscular benzylpenicillin may be given. An ABC approach should be taken initially, and senior review is necessary if any warning signs are present. A key decision is when to attempt a lumbar puncture, which should be delayed in certain circumstances. Management of patients without indication for delayed LP includes IV antibiotics, with cefotaxime or ceftriaxone recommended for patients aged 3 months to 50 years. Additional tests that may be helpful include blood gases and throat swab for meningococcal culture. Prophylaxis needs to be offered to households and close contacts of patients affected with meningococcal meningitis, and meningococcal vaccination should be offered to close contacts when serotype results are available.

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      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 21 - A 68-year-old woman with type II diabetes mellitus has a tender erythematous rash...

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    • A 68-year-old woman with type II diabetes mellitus has a tender erythematous rash on her right leg. She has no drug allergies and no other predisposing risk factors. She has been taking flucloxacillin for seven days. The rash has been slow to respond but has not worsened. She is afebrile and feeling otherwise well.
      What is the most appropriate drug option now?

      Your Answer: Flucloxacillin

      Explanation:

      Antibiotics for Cellulitis: A Comparison of Treatment Options

      Cellulitis is a bacterial skin infection that can be caused by either Staphylococcus aureus or Streptococcus pyogenes. The choice of antibiotic treatment depends on the severity of the infection and the patient’s medical history. Here is a comparison of the most commonly used antibiotics for treating cellulitis:

      Flucloxacillin: This antibiotic is recommended as the first-line treatment for uncomplicated cellulitis because it covers both Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus pyogenes. A 7-day course is recommended, with a review after 2-3 days to ensure there is no worsening of the condition. If symptoms persist after 7 days, another 7-day course should be continued. If there is no improvement after 14 days, specialist advice or hospital admission should be considered.

      Amoxicillin: This antibiotic is recommended for patients with lymphoedema who develop cellulitis. It is not the first-line treatment for uncomplicated cellulitis.

      Clarithromycin: This antibiotic is an alternative to flucloxacillin for patients with penicillin allergy. However, if the patient has no drug allergies, flucloxacillin is the preferred treatment.

      Co-amoxiclav: This broad-spectrum antibiotic should be reserved for more severe infections to reduce the risk of antibiotic resistance. It is recommended for facial cellulitis close to the eyes or nose if intravenous treatment is not required.

      Penicillin V: This antibiotic has a narrow spectrum and mainly covers streptococcal infections. It is not resistant to penicillinase, which most staphylococci produce, leading to resistance against penicillin V. Flucloxacillin is the preferred first-line treatment for cellulitis.

      In conclusion, the choice of antibiotic treatment for cellulitis depends on the severity of the infection and the patient’s medical history. Flucloxacillin is the preferred first-line treatment for uncomplicated cellulitis, while other antibiotics may be used for specific patient populations or in more severe cases.

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  • Question 22 - A 32-year-old man with a history of intravenous drug use was found to...

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    • A 32-year-old man with a history of intravenous drug use was found to have abnormal liver function tests. His hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg) test is reported as positive.
      What is the most accurate interpretation of this finding?

      Your Answer: He has either acute hepatitis B infection or one of the chronic forms of hepatitis B

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hepatitis B: Surface Antigen and Antibodies

      The hepatitis B virus is surrounded by a coating called the surface antigen (HBsAg). If this antigen is present, it indicates a hepatitis B infection, which can be either acute or chronic. The infected person can also infect others. It usually takes 4-12 weeks for HBsAg to appear after infection. When the surface antigens disappear and surface antibodies (anti-HBs) appear, the infection is considered cleared, which typically happens within 4 months of symptoms appearing. Anti-HBs indicates immunity from either an infection or immunization. Chronic hepatitis B is diagnosed when HBsAg is present for more than 6 months. Patients with chronic active hepatitis B have persistent liver inflammation and are at risk of cirrhosis and hepatocellular cancer. Patients with the inactive form usually remain asymptomatic and have less risk of complications but remain infectious. Understanding the role of surface antigen and antibodies is crucial in diagnosing and managing hepatitis B infections.

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      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 23 - A 28-year-old individual visits the doctor complaining of vomiting and explosive diarrhoea that...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old individual visits the doctor complaining of vomiting and explosive diarrhoea that started 24 hours ago. Upon further inquiry, the patient denies any blood in their stool and has not traveled abroad recently. The patient mentions consuming rice that was kept warm in a rice cooker for multiple days. What is the probable causative agent responsible for the patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Bacillus cereus

      Explanation:

      It is probable that this young man is suffering from toxigenic food poisoning caused by Bacillus cereus, which is known to occur after consuming reheated rice. The spores of Bacillus cereus germinate in cooked rice and produce toxins if the cooked product is not adequately chilled. While S. aureus can also cause toxigenic food poisoning, the specific history of this case makes it less likely to be the underlying organism. Norwalk virus, on the other hand, can cause severe diarrhea and vomiting, but it is not associated with any particular food items. Bacterial food poisoning caused by Campylobacter and Shigella typically involves a longer history of bloody diarrhea.

      Gastroenteritis can occur either at home or while traveling abroad, which is known as travelers’ diarrhea. This type of diarrhea is characterized by at least three loose to watery stools in 24 hours, along with abdominal cramps, fever, nausea, vomiting, or blood in the stool. The most common cause of traveler’s’ diarrhea is Escherichia coli. Another type of illness is acute food poisoning, which is caused by the ingestion of a toxin and results in sudden onset of nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. Staphylococcus aureus, Bacillus cereus, and Clostridium perfringens are the typical causes of acute food poisoning.

      Different infections have stereotypical histories and presentations. Escherichia coli is common among travelers and causes watery stools, abdominal cramps, and nausea. Giardiasis results in prolonged, non-bloody diarrhea. Cholera causes profuse, watery diarrhea and severe dehydration resulting in weight loss, but it is not common among travelers. Shigella causes bloody diarrhea, vomiting, and abdominal pain. Staphylococcus aureus causes severe vomiting with a short incubation period. Campylobacter usually starts with a flu-like prodrome and is followed by crampy abdominal pains, fever, and diarrhea, which may be bloody and may mimic appendicitis. Bacillus cereus has two types of illness: vomiting within six hours, typically due to rice, and diarrheal illness occurring after six hours. Amoebiasis has a gradual onset of bloody diarrhea, abdominal pain, and tenderness that may last for several weeks.

      The incubation period for different infections varies. Staphylococcus aureus and Bacillus cereus have an incubation period of 1-6 hours, while Salmonella and Escherichia coli have an incubation period of 12-48 hours. Shigella and Campylobacter have an incubation period of 48-72 hours, while Giardiasis and Amoebiasis have an incubation period of more than seven days. The vomiting subtype of Bacillus cereus has an incubation period of 6-14 hours, while the diarrheal illness has an incubation period of more than six hours.

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  • Question 24 - At what age should a patient be vaccinated against pneumococcus? ...

    Correct

    • At what age should a patient be vaccinated against pneumococcus?

      Your Answer: A 67-year-old man who has no significant medical history of note other than gout

      Explanation:

      The pneumococcal vaccine is only necessary for asthmatics who use oral steroids at a level that significantly weakens their immune system. Having multiple sclerosis doesn’t warrant the pneumococcal vaccine. The 67-year-old man is eligible for the vaccine based on his age, not his medical background.

      The pneumococcal vaccine comes in two types: the pneumococcal conjugate vaccine (PCV) and the pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine (PPV). The PCV is given to children as part of their routine immunizations at 3 and 12-13 months. On the other hand, the PPV is offered to adults over 65 years old, patients with chronic conditions such as COPD, and those who have had a splenectomy.

      The vaccine is recommended for individuals with asplenia or splenic dysfunction, chronic respiratory disease, chronic heart disease, chronic kidney disease, chronic liver disease, diabetes mellitus, immunosuppression, cochlear implants, and patients with cerebrospinal fluid leaks. However, controlled hypertension is not an indication for vaccination. Patients with any stage of HIV infection are also included in the list of those who should be vaccinated.

      Adults usually require only one dose of the vaccine, but those with asplenia, splenic dysfunction, or chronic kidney disease need a booster every five years. It is important to note that asthma is only included if it requires the use of oral steroids at a dose sufficient to act as a significant immunosuppressant.

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  • Question 25 - One of your younger colleagues confides in you that she has just been...

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    • One of your younger colleagues confides in you that she has just been diagnosed with hepatitis B. She has not told anyone else as she is worried she may lose her job. She is currently working as a nurse in the local hospital. You try to persuade her to inform occupational health but she refuses. What is the most appropriate action?

      Your Answer: Inform your colleagues employing body

      Explanation:

      Patient safety is the top priority, as stated in the updated GMC guidelines.

      GMC Guidance on Confidentiality

      Confidentiality is a crucial aspect of medical practice that must be upheld at all times. The General Medical Council (GMC) provides extensive guidance on confidentiality, which can be accessed through a link provided. As such, we will not attempt to replicate the detailed information provided by the GMC here. It is important for healthcare professionals to familiarize themselves with the GMC’s guidance on confidentiality to ensure that they are meeting the necessary standards and protecting patient privacy.

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  • Question 26 - A 5-year-old girl has had a spasmodic cough for 6 weeks. It is...

    Correct

    • A 5-year-old girl has had a spasmodic cough for 6 weeks. It is often followed by a vomit and a whooping sound sometimes accompanies the first inspiration following the coughing spasm. She doesn't seem ill and the lungs sound clear on auscultation. She has had courses of amoxicillin and erythromycin. Most of her immunisations in infancy were missed.
      Select from the list the single most appropriate course of action for this patient.

      Your Answer: Advise the parents that the cough may last 100 days and nothing will influence it

      Explanation:

      Whooping Cough: Symptoms, Treatment, and Risks for Infants

      Whooping cough, caused by the bacterium Bordetella pertussis, is a highly contagious respiratory disease that can cause persistent coughing for up to 2-3 months. Commonly known as the 100 days’ cough, this disease is particularly severe in infants, with about 50% of cases requiring hospitalization.

      While antibiotics do not alter the course of the disease, erythromycin, clarithromycin, or azithromycin can help reduce the period of infectivity when given for 7-14 days. Codeine linctus is often prescribed, but there is no evidence for its effectiveness.

      It is important to note that the severity of whooping cough is related to the age of the patient, with morbidity and mortality being greatest in infants under 6 months of age. Therefore, it is crucial to take preventative measures, such as vaccination, and seek medical attention if symptoms arise.

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      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 27 - A 29-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner with complaints of anorexia, malaise...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner with complaints of anorexia, malaise and jaundice. Liver function tests reveal a hepatocellular pattern of liver damage, leading to suspicion of viral hepatitis.
      Which of the following choices would NOT aid in confirming the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Anti-hepatitis B surface antigen (HBs)

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hepatitis Tests

      Hepatitis is a viral infection that affects the liver. There are different types of hepatitis, including A, B, and C. To diagnose hepatitis, doctors use various tests. One of these tests is the Anti-HBs test, which indicates immunity to hepatitis B.

      Another test is the Hepatitis B surface antigen test, which can indicate an acute infection or a chronic carrier state. If a patient has acute hepatitis B virus infection, the presence of this antigen strongly suggests it. However, it doesn’t rule out chronic HBV with acute superinfection by another hepatitis virus.

      The most specific test for diagnosing acute HCV infection before antibodies have developed is the qualitative polymerase chain reaction (PCR) assay for viral particles. If all these tests are negative, doctors should consider other causes of hepatitis, such as another virus or alcohol.

      In conclusion, understanding hepatitis tests is crucial for diagnosing and treating this viral infection.

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      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 28 - A 27-year-old male presents with painful genital ulcers a few weeks after a...

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    • A 27-year-old male presents with painful genital ulcers a few weeks after a trip to Kenya.

      On examination, he has multiple eroded genital ulcers, as well as a tender, enlarged lymph node present in the right inguinal region. He is systemically well.

      Swabs of a genital ulcer are taken and a sexually-transmitted infection screen is performed. The results are shown below.

      NAAT test: negative
      Swab culture: Haemophilus ducreyi grown

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Chancroid

      Explanation:

      Chancroid is a sexually transmitted infection that causes genital ulcers in tropical regions. The ulcers are multiple, have ragged edges, and a granular base. Painful, unilateral inguinal lymphadenopathy may also be present. The bacterium Haemophilus ducreyi is responsible for this condition.

      Syphilis, on the other hand, is caused by the bacterium Treponema pallidum. Chancres, which are similar to chancroid ulcers, are painless, singular lesions with bilateral lymphadenopathy. They can heal without treatment.

      Herpes simplex virus types 1 and 2 are common causes of sexually transmitted ulceration in the UK.

      Lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV) is caused by the bacterium Chlamydia trachomatis. It presents with a singular, painless ulcer that resolves spontaneously.

      Klebsiella granulomatis is responsible for granuloma inguinale, which presents with painless genital ulceration and inguinal node abscesses.

      Understanding Chancroid

      Chancroid is a disease that is commonly found in tropical regions and is caused by a bacterium called Haemophilus ducreyi. This disease is characterized by the development of painful ulcers in the genital area, which are often accompanied by painful swelling of the lymph nodes in the groin area on one side of the body. The ulcers are typically defined by a sharp, ragged border that appears to be undermined.

      Chancroid is a sexually transmitted disease that can be easily spread through sexual contact with an infected person. Treatment typically involves a course of antibiotics, which can help to clear up the infection and prevent further spread of the disease.

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  • Question 29 - What is the correct statement about infection with Epstein-Barr virus (infectious mononucleosis)? ...

    Correct

    • What is the correct statement about infection with Epstein-Barr virus (infectious mononucleosis)?

      Your Answer: Deranged liver function is common in infectious mononucleosis

      Explanation:

      Infectious Mononucleosis: Symptoms, Transmission, and Complications

      Infectious mononucleosis, commonly known as mono, is a viral infection caused by the Epstein-Barr virus (EBV). While many patients may not show any symptoms, studies suggest that 90% of people over the age of 25 have antibodies to EBV. The virus is transmitted through droplet exchange and can continue to be excreted for several months.

      Symptoms of mono include deranged liver function, mild hepatomegaly, and splenomegaly, which can cause tenderness over the spleen. Jaundice is rare in young adults but can occur in up to 30% of infected elderly patients. It is important for patients to avoid contact sports for at least a month after infection to prevent the risk of splenic rupture.

      It is crucial to note that ampicillin and amoxicillin should not be given to any patient who may have infectious mononucleosis, as they can cause an itchy maculopapular rash. The illness is typically self-limiting and of short duration, but fatigue and myalgia may persist for several months after the acute infection has resolved.

      In conclusion, infectious mononucleosis is a viral infection that can cause various symptoms and complications. It is important to take precautions to prevent transmission and seek medical attention if symptoms persist.

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  • Question 30 - A 5-year-old girl presents in the early evening with symptoms that have progressively...

    Correct

    • A 5-year-old girl presents in the early evening with symptoms that have progressively worsened during the day. Her temperature is 39 oC and she has a cough, stridor, drooling of saliva and respiratory distress.
      Select the single most likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer: Acute epiglottitis

      Explanation:

      Acute Epiglottitis and Croup: Two Respiratory Conditions in Children

      Acute epiglottitis is a rare but life-threatening condition that causes inflammation of the epiglottis and surrounding soft tissues. It is most common in children between the ages of 2 and 8 and is often caused by Haemophilus influenza type b. Throat examination with a tongue depressor should be avoided, and urgent referral for laryngoscopy is necessary. Intubation may be required in over 30% of patients, and prophylactic intubation may be carried out in those with dyspnoea or stridor.

      Croup, on the other hand, is a relatively mild and self-limiting condition that causes a barking cough and stridor. It is typically associated with viral upper respiratory infections and affects children between 6 months and 3 years of age. Symptoms are often worse at night.

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      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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