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  • Question 1 - Which of the following statements is true regarding the Wrights Respirometer? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is true regarding the Wrights Respirometer?

      Your Answer: Can be used to measure the inspired and expired tidal volumes

      Correct Answer: Measures the minute volume to within an accuracy of +/- 10%

      Explanation:

      A Wrights Respirometer measures the volume of air exhaled over the course of one minute of normal breathing

      It is unidirectional and measures tidal volume and minute volume of gas flow in one direction. It is placed at the expiratory side (lower pressure than inspiratory side therefore lower chances of gas leaks)

      Slits are arranged such that incoming gas will rotate the vane at a rate of 150 revolutions per litre of flowing gas

      The Wright respirometer tends to over-read at high flow rates and under-read at low flows because of mechanical causes like friction and inertia and the accumulation of water vapour

      The ideal flow for accurate readings is 2 L/min for the respirometer. The respirometer reads the tidal volume and minute volume with a ±5€“10% accuracy within the range of 4€“24 L/min.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      38.7
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  • Question 2 - Given the following values: Expired tidal volume = 800 ml, Plateau pressure =...

    Incorrect

    • Given the following values: Expired tidal volume = 800 ml, Plateau pressure = 50 cmH2O, PEEP = 10 cmH2O. Compute for the static pulmonary compliance.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 20 ml/cmH2O

      Explanation:

      Compliance of the respiratory system describes the expandability of the lungs and chest wall. There are two types of compliance: dynamic and static.

      Dynamic compliance describes the compliance measured during breathing, which involves a combination of lung compliance and airway resistance. Defined as the change in lung volume per unit change in pressure in the presence of flow.

      Static compliance describes pulmonary compliance when there is no airflow, like an inspiratory pause. Defined as the change in lung volume per unit change in pressure in the absence of flow.

      For example, if a person was to fill the lung with pressure and then not move it, the pressure would eventually decrease; this is the static compliance measurement. Dynamic compliance is measured by dividing the tidal volume, the average volume of air in one breath cycle, by the difference between the pressure of the lungs at full inspiration and full expiration. Static compliance is always a higher value than dynamic

      Static compliance can be computed using the formula:

      Cstat = Tidal volume/Plateau pressure – PEEP

      Substituting the values given,

      Cstat = 800/50-10
      Cstat = 20 ml/cmH2O

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
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  • Question 3 - A new proton pump inhibitor (PPI) is being evaluated in elderly patients who...

    Incorrect

    • A new proton pump inhibitor (PPI) is being evaluated in elderly patients who are taking aspiring. Study designed has 120 patients receiving the PPI, while a control group of 240 individuals is given the standard PPI. Over a span of 6 years, 24 of the group receiving the new PPI had an upper GI bleed compared to 60 individuals who received the standard PPI. How would you calculate the absolute risk reduction?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 5%

      Explanation:

      Absolute risk reduction = (Control event rate) – (Experimental event rate)

      Experimental event rate = 24 / 120 = 0.2

      Control event rate = 60 / 240 = 0.25

      Absolute risk reduction = 0.25 – 0.2 = 0.05 = 5% reduction

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
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  • Question 4 - An experiment is designed to investigate that how three diets having different sugar...

    Incorrect

    • An experiment is designed to investigate that how three diets having different sugar content affect the body weight to a different level. Which one of the following test will determine a statistically significant difference among the diets?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: ANOVA

      Explanation:

      Chi-square test is used to determine the statistically significant different between categorical variables. It also determines the difference between expected frequencies and the observed frequencies.

      Mann Whitney U test is used to determine the statistically significant different between two independent groups.

      Wilcoxon’s test is the test of dependency. it determines the statistically significant difference between two dependent groups.

      Student t-test is one of the most commonly used method to test the hypothesis. It determines the significant difference between the means of two different groups.

      ANOVA (analysis of variance) is similar to student’s t-test.

      ANOVA is a statistical method used to determines the statistically significant difference between the mean of more than two group. In this experiment as we are dealing with three different group, ANOVA is most suitable test to determine the difference between each groups.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
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  • Question 5 - A subject in a study is to take 100 mg of tramadol tablets...

    Incorrect

    • A subject in a study is to take 100 mg of tramadol tablets for the next eight hours. Urine samples will be taken during the 8-hour course, which will undergo analysis via liquid chromatography. Given the following metabolites, which one would have the highest analgesic property?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mono-O-desmethyl-tramadol

      Explanation:

      Tramadol is a centrally acting analgesic with a multimode of action. It acts on serotonergic and noradrenergic nociception, while its metabolite O-desmethyltramadol acts on the mu opioid receptor. Its analgesic potency is claimed to be about one tenth that of morphine. Tramadol is used to treat both acute and chronic pain of moderate to (moderately) severe intensity.

      Tramadol exists as the racemic (1:1) mixture of the (+) and (-)-enantiomer. It has a multimodal mechanism of action as on the one hand the (+) and (-)-enantiomer act on the serotonin and noradrenaline reuptake, and on the other hand the O-desmethyl metabolite of tramadol (called M1 or ODT) acts on the µ-opioid receptor. This implies that the analgesic mechanism of action of tramadol includes both non-opioid components, i.e., noradrenergic and serotonergic components, and opioid components. The (+)-enantiomer of tramadol contributes to analgesia by inhibiting the reuptake of serotonin, the (-)-enantiomer by inhibiting the reuptake of
      noradrenaline, and the O-desmethyl metabolite by binding with relative high affinity (compared to tramadol) to the µ-opioid receptor.

      (+/-)-Tramadol binds with low affinity to the human µ-opioid receptor with an affinity constant (Ki) of 2.4 µM.42 This affinity is approximately 4000-fold less than that of morphine (Ki = 0.34 nM). The affinity of tramadol for the δ- and κ-opioid receptors is even less. The (+/-)-O-desmethyl metabolite (M1) of tramadol, on the other hand, shows about 400-fold higher affinity for the µ-opioid receptor (Ki = 5.4 nM) than the parent compound, but still with much lower affinity than morphine. The affinity of M1 for the µ-opioid receptor is due to the (R) (+)-enantiomer (Ki = 3.4 nM) and not the (S) (-)-enantiomer (Ki = 240 nM). The affinity of the (R) (+)-enantiomer of M1 is one-tenth that of morphine for the µ-opioid receptor, and about 700 times that of (+/-)-tramadol. The metabolite (+/-)-M5 also has a higher affinity than (+/-)-tramadol for the µopioid receptor (Ki = 100 nM). However, animal studies indicate that M5 does not cross
      the blood-brain barrier and does not contribute to the anti-nociceptive effect of tramadol. The metabolites M2, M3, and M4 of tramadol have negligible affinity for the human µ-opioid receptor.

      Phase I metabolites of tramadol:

      Mono-O-desmethyl-tramadol (M1)
      Mono-N-desmethyl-tramadol (M2)
      Di-N-desmethyl-tramadol (M3)
      Tri-N,O-desmethyl-tramadol (M4)
      Di-N,O-desmethyl-tramadol (M5)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 6 - An individual who recently moved his residence from the plains to the mountains...

    Incorrect

    • An individual who recently moved his residence from the plains to the mountains will experience immediately which physiologic response to high altitude and hypoxia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increased cardiac output

      Explanation:

      A person remaining at high altitudes for days, weeks, or years becomes more and more acclimatized to the low PO2, so it causes fewer deleterious effects on the body.

      After acclimatization, it becomes possible for the person to work harder without hypoxic effects or to ascend to still higher altitudes. The principal means by which acclimatization comes about are (1) a great increase in pulmonary ventilation, (2) increased numbers of red blood cells, (3) diffusing capacity of the lungs, (4) increased vascularity of the peripheral tissues, and (5) increased ability of the tissue cells to use oxygen despite low PO2.

      The cardiac output often increases as much as 30% immediately after a person ascends to high altitude but then decreases back toward normal over a period of weeks as the blood haematocrit increases, so the amount of oxygen transported to the peripheral body tissues remains about normal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
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  • Question 7 - A 49-year-old female has presented to her physician with complaints of a lump...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old female has presented to her physician with complaints of a lump in her groin area. The lump is painless and is more prominent in coughing. On examination, the lump's location is inferior and lateral to the pubic tubercle. This points towards the diagnosis of femoral hernia, where part of her intestines has entered the femoral canal, causing a bulge in the femoral triangle. The femoral triangle is an anatomical region in the upper thigh. Name the structures found in the femoral triangle, laterally to medially.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Femoral nerve, femoral artery, femoral vein, empty space, lymphatics

      Explanation:

      The femoral triangle is a wedge-shaped area found within the superomedial aspect of the anterior thigh. It is a passageway for structures to leave and enter the anterior thigh.

      Superior: Inguinal ligament
      Medial: Adductor longus
      Lateral: Sartorius
      Floor: Iliopsoas, adductor longus and pectineus

      The contents include: (medial to lateral)
      Femoral vein
      Femoral artery-pulse palpated at the mid inguinal point
      Femoral nerve
      Deep and superficial inguinal lymph nodes
      Lateral cutaneous nerve
      Great saphenous vein
      Femoral branch of the genitofemoral nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 8 - One of the following neuromuscular blocking agents is the most potent: ...

    Incorrect

    • One of the following neuromuscular blocking agents is the most potent:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vecuronium

      Explanation:

      The measure of drug potency or therapeutic response is the ED95. This is defined as the dose of a neuromuscular blocking drug required to produce a 95% depression of muscle twitch height. The ED50 and ED90 describe a depression of twitch height by 50% and 90% respectively.

      The ED95 (mg/kg) of the commonly used neuromuscular blocking agents are:

      suxamethonium: 0.27
      rocuronium: 0.31
      vecuronium: 0.04
      pancuronium: 0.07
      cisatracurium: 0.04
      mivacurium: 0.08

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 9 - Regarding a drug whose elimination exhibits first-order kinetics, which of the following statements...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding a drug whose elimination exhibits first-order kinetics, which of the following statements is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The rate of elimination is proportional to plasma concentration

      Explanation:

      The elimination of phenytoin follows first order kinetics. Plasma concentrations determine the rate of elimination. The relationship between drug X plasma concentration and time is described by an exponential process in the following equation used to describe the rate of elimination:

      C = C0. e-kt

      C=drug concentration, C0= drug concentration at time zero (extrapolated), k = rate constant and t=time

      As enzyme systems become saturated when phenytoin concentrations are above the usual range, clearance of the medication becomes zero-order. The medication is metabolised at a constant pace, regardless of its plasma levels. Aspirin and ethyl alcohol are two more significant examples of medications that operate in this way.

      A plot of drug concentration with time is a washout exponential curve.

      A graph of concentration with time is a straight line i.e. Zero-order kinetics

      The amount eliminated per unit time is constant defines the point at which zero order kinetics commences.

      Elimination involves a rate-limiting reaction operating at its maximal velocity is incorrect.

      The half life of the drug is proportional to the drug concentration in the plasma corresponds to a definition of first-order kinetics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 10 - Which of the following statement regarding Adrenaline (Epinephrine) is not true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statement regarding Adrenaline (Epinephrine) is not true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inhibits glycolysis in muscle

      Explanation:

      Adrenaline acts on α1, α2, β1, and β2 receptors and also on dopamine receptors (D1, D2) and have sympathomimetic effects.

      Natural catecholamines are Adrenaline, Noradrenaline, and Dopamine

      Adrenaline is a sympathomimetic amine with both alpha and beta-adrenergic stimulating properties.
      Adrenaline is the drug of choice for anaphylactic shock
      Adrenaline is also used in patients with cardiac arrest. The preferred route is i.v. followed by the intra-osseous and endotracheal route.

      Adrenaline is released by the adrenal glands, acts on α 1 and 2, β 1 and 2 receptors, and is responsible for fight or flight response.

      It acts on β 2 receptors in skeletal muscle vessels-causing vasodilation.

      It acts on α adrenergic receptors to inhibit insulin secretion by the pancreas. It also stimulates glycogenolysis in the liver and muscle, stimulates glycolysis in muscle.

      It acts on β adrenergic receptors to stimulate glucagon secretion in the pancreas
      It also stimulates Adrenocorticotrophic Hormone (ACTH) and stimulates lipolysis by adipose tissue

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 11 - Which of the following is correct regarding nitric oxide? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is correct regarding nitric oxide?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Is produced by both inducible and constitutive forms of nitric oxide synthetase

      Explanation:

      Nitric oxide is generated from L-arginine by nitric oxide synthase. It is produced in response to haemodynamic stress by the vascular endothelium, and it produces both smooth muscle relaxation and reduced vascular resistance.

      Nitric oxide may be inactivated through interaction with other oxygen free radicals, (e.g. oxidised low-density lipoprotein (LDL)).

      Nitric oxide causes the production of the second messenger, cyclic guanosine monophosphate (cGMP).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
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  • Question 12 - Concerning the intercostal nerves, which one of the following is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Concerning the intercostal nerves, which one of the following is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Each is connected to a ganglion of the sympathetic trunk

      Explanation:

      The intercostal nerves arise from the ventral rami of the first 11 thoracic spinal nerves. they course along the costal groove on the lower margin of the rib.

      The twelfth intercoastal nerve is called the subcostal nerve. This is because it is below the 12th rib.

      Each intercostal nerve is connected to a ganglion of the sympathetic trunk from which it carries preganglionic and postganglionic fibres that innervate blood vessels, sweat glands, and muscles.

      The lateral and medial pectoral nerves innervates pectoralis major muscle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 13 - A 64-year-old man is admitted to the critical care unit. He has a...

    Incorrect

    • A 64-year-old man is admitted to the critical care unit. He has a recent medical history of faecal peritonitis for which a laparotomy was performed. His vitals have been monitored using an invasive pulmonary artery flotation catheter. His vital readings are: Temperature: 38.1°C. Blood pressure: 79/51 mmHg (mean 58 mmHg), Pulmonary artery pressure: 19/6 mmHg (mean 10 mmHg). Pulmonary capillary occlusion pressure: 5 mmHg, Central venous pressure: 12 mmHg, Cardiac output: 5 L/min, Mixed venous oxygen saturation: 82%. Calculate his approximate pulmonary vascular resistance. Note: A correction factor of 80 is require to convert mmHg to dynes·s·cm-5

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 80 dynes·s·cm-5

      Explanation:

      Pulmonary vascular resistance (PVR) refers to the resistance to blood flow to the left atrium from the pulmonary artery.
      It is derived mathematically by:

      PVR = MPAP – PCWP
      CO
      where,
      MPAP: Mean pulmonary artery pressure
      PCWP: Pulmonary capillary occlusion pressure
      CO: Cardiac output

      For this patient:
      PVR = 10 – 5 = 1mmHg
      5

      Remember, multiply by correction factor 80 to change units:

      PVR = 1mmHg x 80 = 80 dynes·s·cm-5

      Normal values range between 20-130 dynes·s·cm-5.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
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  • Question 14 - Metabolization of many drugs used in anaesthesia involves the cytochrome P450 (CYP) isoenzymes....

    Incorrect

    • Metabolization of many drugs used in anaesthesia involves the cytochrome P450 (CYP) isoenzymes. The CYP enzyme most likely to be subject to genetic variability and thus cause adverse drug reactions is which of these?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: CYP2D6

      Explanation:

      Approximately 25% of phase-1 drug reactions is made responsible by CYP2D6.

      As much as a 1,000-fold difference in the ability to metabolise drugs by CYP2D6 can happen between phenotypes, and this may result in adverse drug reactions (ADRs).

      The metabolism of antiemetics, beta-blockers, codeine, tramadol, oxycodone, hydrocodone, tamoxifen, antidepressants, neuroleptics, and antiarrhythmics is also as a result of CYP2D6.

      Patients who take drugs that are metabolised by CYP2D6 but have poor CYP2D6 metabolism are more likely to have ADRs. People with ultra-rapid CYP2D6 metabolism may have a decreased drug effect due to low plasma concentrations of these drugs.

      All the other CYP enzymes are subject to genetic polymorphism. Variants are less likely to lead to adverse drug reactions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
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  • Question 15 - The plateau phase of the myocardial action potential is as a result of:...

    Incorrect

    • The plateau phase of the myocardial action potential is as a result of:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Slow influx of calcium

      Explanation:

      Cardiac conduction

      Phase 0 – Rapid depolarization. Opening of fast sodium channels with large influx of sodium

      Phase 1 – Rapid partial depolarization. Opening of potassium channels and efflux of potassium ions. Sodium channels close and influx of sodium ions stop

      Phase 2 – Plateau phase with large influx of calcium ions. Offsets action of potassium channels. The absolute refractory period

      Phase 3 – Repolarization due to potassium efflux after calcium channels close. Relative refractory period

      Phase 4 – Repolarization continues as sodium/potassium pump restores the ionic gradient by pumping out 3 sodium ions in exchange for 2 potassium ions coming into the cell. Relative refractory period

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
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  • Question 16 - A 77-year-old man is admitted to hospital for colorectal surgery. He is scheduled...

    Incorrect

    • A 77-year-old man is admitted to hospital for colorectal surgery. He is scheduled to undergo a preoperative assessment, which includes cardiopulmonary exercise test (CPX). During the CPX, his maximum oxygen consumption (VO2 max) is determined to be 2,100 mL/minute. His weight is measured to be 100 kg. Calculate the metabolic equivalent (MET) that is the best estimate for his VO2 max.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 6 METs

      Explanation:

      Metabolic equivalent (MET) measures the energy expenditure of an individual.

      It is calculated mathematically by:

      MET = (VO2 max/weight)/3.5 = 21/3.5 = 6 METs

      Where 1 MET = 3.5 mL O2/kg/minute is utilized by the body.

      Note:

      1 MET Eating
      Dressing
      Use toilet
      Walking slowly on level ground at 2-3 mph
      2 METs Playing a musical instrument
      Walking indoors around house
      Light housework
      4 METs Climbing a flight of stairs
      Walking up hill
      Running a short distance
      Heavy housework, scrubbing floors, moving heavy furniture
      Walking on level ground at 4 mph
      Recreational activity, e.g. golf, bowling, dancing, tennis
      6 METs Leisurely swimming
      Leisurely cycling along the flat (8-10 mph)
      8 METs Cycling along the flat (10-14 mph)
      Basketball game
      10 METs Moderate to hard swimming
      Competitive football
      Fast cycling (14-16 mph).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
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  • Question 17 - While administering a general anaesthetic to a 65-year-old man booked for a hip...

    Incorrect

    • While administering a general anaesthetic to a 65-year-old man booked for a hip hemiarthroplasty, with a weight 70 kg, and an ASA 1 score, you give 1 g of paracetamol IV but notice that he had received the same dose on the ward one hour prior. What is the most appropriate subsequent management of this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Do nothing and give the next doses of paracetamol at standard 6 hour intervals

      Explanation:

      After ingestion of more than 150 mg/kg paracetamol within 24 hours, hepatotoxicity can occur but can also develop rarely after ingestion of doses as low as 75 mg/kg within 24 hours. Hepatocellular damage will not occur in this patient and therefore no need to engage management pathway for paracetamol overdose. If his weight was <33 kg or he already had a history of impaired liver function, then the management would bde different.

      Subsequent post-operative doses will be a standard dose of 1 g 6 hourly.

      This is a drug administration error and should be reported as an incident even though the patient will not be harmed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 18 - Which of the following statements most accurately describes a drug's efficacy or intrinsic...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements most accurately describes a drug's efficacy or intrinsic activity?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Describes the ability of a drug to produce a therapeutic effect

      Explanation:

      An agonist is a molecule with intrinsic efficacy and affinity for a receptor. The ability of a drug-receptor interaction to produce a maximal response is referred to as intrinsic efficacy or activity. Efficacy also refers to a drug’s ability to have a therapeutic or beneficial effect. Although the potencies of morphine and fentanyl differ, they both have the same intrinsic efficacy.

      The amount of drug required to produce a given effect is referred to as potency. If drug X is effective in a dose of 100 mcg, its potency is greater than if drug Y is effective in a dose of 10 mg.

      The therapeutic index, also known as the margin of safety, is a ratio of the lethal or serious side effect dose of a drug divided by the therapeutic dose of the same drug.

      The term bioavailability refers to the ability of a substance to be absorbed. The area under a curve (AUC) of a graphic plot of plasma concentration and time is used to calculate oral bioavailability. It’s used to figure out how much of a drug to take and when to take it.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 19 - Which of the following is not used in the treatment of Neuroleptic Malignant...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not used in the treatment of Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Olanzapine

      Explanation:

      The neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) is a rare complication in response to neuroleptic or antipsychotic medication.

      The main features are:
      – Elevated creatinine kinase
      – Hyperthermia and tachycardia
      – Altered mental state
      – Increased white cell count
      – Insidious onset over 1-3 days
      – Extrapyramidal dysfunction (muscle rigidity, tremor, dystonia)
      – Autonomic dysfunction (Labile blood pressure, sweating, salivation, urinary incontinence)

      Management is supportive of ICU care, anticholinergic drugs, increasing dopaminergic activity with Amantadine, L-dopa, and dantrolene, and non- depolarising neuromuscular blockade drugs.

      Since Olanzapine is a potential cause of NMS it is not a treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 20 - A 40 year old female is planned for an critical appendicectomy. A fast...

    Incorrect

    • A 40 year old female is planned for an critical appendicectomy. A fast arrangements inductance is organized. The patient has had a preoperative respiratory tract evaluation and there are no adverse features. The patient is ideally positioned and preoxygenated. The anaesthetic applied cricoid pressure of 10 N. Acceptance of anaesthesia is at that point carried out with 250 mg thiopentone and 100 mg suxamethonium with 30 N of cricoid pressure. Initial laryngoscopy shows a review of grade 4. Three endeavours are made at putting a estimate 7 mm ID tracheal tube; two with a standard laryngoscope and one with a McCoy edge and bougie. Then one advance attempt is made employing a video laryngoscope. At this point the suxamethonium is starts to wear off. Oxygen immersion is 95%. Which one of the following treatment option is the another most suitable arrange of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Maintain oxygenation and anaesthesia and declare a failed intubation

      Explanation:

      Firstly, always call for an early help. This understanding is at hazard of gastro-oesophageal reflux, the reason a fast arrangement acceptance has been picked for within the first place. The patient isn’t pregnant and the critical surgery isn’t immediate.

      The scheme A is to perform a fast arrangement acceptance under ideal conditions and effectively secure the respiratory tract with a tracheal tube.

      Whilst no more than three attempts with coordinate laryngoscope (+ 1 endeavour with video laryngoscope) ought to be made to intubate the trachea, the reality is that the suxamethonium is wearing off ought to be borne in mind. One step is to make certain satisfactory neuromuscular blockade at this level, if oxygenation can be kept up by bag-mask ventilation, this might involve the administration of a non-depolarising relaxant. As the surgery isn’t prompt there should be a baseline to stop scheme A at intubation and resort to scheme B.

      An elective procedure can be planned at that time.

      The first most vital step is to report a failed intubation as this will halt you from continuing to intubate and notify your collaborator that scheme A has failed. Keeping up oxygenation and anaesthesia is additionally critical earlier to the initiation of scheme B.

      Do not administer another dose of suxamethonium. If there’s collapse of oxygenation and failure to preserve satisfactory ventilation, then insert a supraglottic airway. Plan D takes after the affirmation of a CICO.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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