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  • Question 1 - A 65-year-old female presents to you with a complaint of urinary incontinence whenever...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old female presents to you with a complaint of urinary incontinence whenever she coughs or sneezes. She has a history of obesity and has given birth to five children, four of which were vaginal deliveries and one by caesarean section. A negative urinary dipstick is noted, but a vaginal examination reveals some muscle weakness without prolapse. The most probable diagnosis is stress incontinence. What is the most appropriate initial management option for this patient?

      Your Answer: Pelvic muscle floor training

      Explanation:

      First-line treatment for urinary incontinence is bladder retraining for urge incontinence and pelvic floor muscle training for stress incontinence. Surgery is a later option. Toileting aids and decreasing fluid intake should not be advised. Patients should drink 6-8 glasses of water per day.

      Urinary incontinence is a common condition that affects approximately 4-5% of the population, with elderly females being more susceptible. There are several risk factors that can contribute to the development of urinary incontinence, including advancing age, previous pregnancy and childbirth, high body mass index, hysterectomy, and family history. The condition can be classified into different types, such as overactive bladder, stress incontinence, mixed incontinence, overflow incontinence, and functional incontinence.

      Initial investigation of urinary incontinence involves completing bladder diaries for at least three days, performing a vaginal examination to exclude pelvic organ prolapse, and conducting urine dipstick and culture tests. Urodynamic studies may also be necessary. Management of urinary incontinence depends on the predominant type of incontinence. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining and bladder stabilizing drugs such as antimuscarinics are recommended. For stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training and surgical procedures may be necessary. Duloxetine, a combined noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor, may also be offered to women who decline surgical procedures.

      In summary, urinary incontinence is a common condition that can be caused by various risk factors. It can be classified into different types, and management depends on the predominant type of incontinence. Initial investigation involves completing bladder diaries, performing a vaginal examination, and conducting urine tests. Treatment options include bladder retraining, bladder stabilizing drugs, pelvic floor muscle training, surgical procedures, and duloxetine.

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      • Reproductive System
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  • Question 2 - A 40-year-old woman who has given birth twice visits her doctor due to...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old woman who has given birth twice visits her doctor due to a two-week history of white vaginal discharge. She reports no other symptoms and feels generally healthy. She recently switched to a different soap and wonders if this could be the cause. She is taking birth control pills and is in a stable relationship with her spouse.

      During the examination, a strong fishy odor is present, and a gray discharge is visible that does not stick to the vaginal lining. The rest of the exam is normal.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Bacterial vaginosis

      Explanation:

      Bacterial Vaginosis and Other Causes of Vaginal Discharge

      Vaginal discharge is a common concern among women, and bacterial vaginosis (BV) is the most common non-STI-related cause. BV occurs when there is an imbalance in the normal flora of the vaginal mucosa, which is mostly made up of Lactobacilli. These bacteria produce hydrogen peroxide, which helps to maintain a healthy pH level in the vagina by killing off anaerobes. However, disruptions to the normal flora, such as the use of new products or hormonal imbalances, can lead to the death of Lactobacilli and an increase in pH. This creates an environment where anaerobes like Gardnerella vaginalis can thrive and cause BV.

      Candidiasis, caused by the fungus Candida albicans, is the second most common cause of non-STI-related vaginal discharge. It is characterized by thick white curds attached to the vaginal mucosa and is often associated with vulval itching. However, this patient does not describe these symptoms.

      It is important to note that sexually transmitted infections like chlamydia, gonorrhoeae, and trichomoniasis can also cause vaginal discharge. However, there is no indication in this patient’s clinical history that she may be affected by any of these infections. the causes of vaginal discharge can help women identify when they need to seek medical attention and receive appropriate treatment.

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      • Reproductive System
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  • Question 3 - You are working in the emergency department. A 27-year-old woman comes in with...

    Correct

    • You are working in the emergency department. A 27-year-old woman comes in with vomiting and abdominal pain. On examination, she is tender on palpation at all lower quadrants of the abdomen. Her temperature is 38ºC. On ultrasound, there is fluid in the rectouterine pouch.

      What anatomical structure would a needle be passed via to extract this fluid?

      Your Answer: Posterior fornix of the vagina

      Explanation:

      To obtain fluid from the rectouterine pouch, a needle is inserted through the posterior fornix of the vagina.

      The anterior fornix of the vagina is situated nearer to the bladder than the rectouterine pouch in terms of anatomical position.

      Similarly, the bladder is closer to the anterior fornix than the rectouterine pouch.

      The round ligament is positioned above the rectouterine pouch.

      The urethra connects to the bladder and is not in proximity to the rectouterine pouch.

      Anatomy of the Uterus

      The uterus is a female reproductive organ that is located within the pelvis and is covered by the peritoneum. It is supplied with blood by the uterine artery, which runs alongside the uterus and anastomoses with the ovarian artery. The uterus is supported by various ligaments, including the central perineal tendon, lateral cervical, round, and uterosacral ligaments. The ureter is located close to the uterus, and injuries to the ureter can occur when there is pathology in the area.

      The uterus is typically anteverted and anteflexed in most women. Its topography can be visualized through imaging techniques such as ultrasound or MRI. Understanding the anatomy of the uterus is important for diagnosing and treating various gynecological conditions.

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      • Reproductive System
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  • Question 4 - A 32-year-old woman visits her GP after receiving a positive pregnancy test result....

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman visits her GP after receiving a positive pregnancy test result. During her pregnancy, she will require regular blood tests due to the potential risk of haemolytic disease of the newborn. What is the underlying pathology of this condition?

      Your Answer: Maternal production of IgG antibodies against fetal red blood cells

      Explanation:

      The development of haemolytic disease of the newborn is caused by the production of IgG antibodies by the mother against the red blood cells of the fetus, which then cross the placenta and attack the fetal red blood cells. This condition is not caused by antibodies to platelets or the bone marrow, and it is the maternal antibodies that are the problem, not the fetal antibodies.

      Rhesus negative mothers can develop anti-D IgG antibodies if they deliver a Rh +ve child, which can cause haemolysis in future pregnancies. Prevention involves testing for D antibodies and giving anti-D prophylaxis at 28 and 34 weeks. Anti-D should also be given in various situations, such as delivery of a Rh +ve infant or amniocentesis. Tests include cord blood FBC, blood group, direct Coombs test, and Kleihauer test. Affected fetuses may experience oedema, jaundice, anaemia, hepatosplenomegaly, heart failure, and kernicterus, and may require transfusions and UV phototherapy.

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      • Reproductive System
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  • Question 5 - A 58-year-old woman is admitted under the gynaecology team with vaginal bleeding. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old woman is admitted under the gynaecology team with vaginal bleeding. She has a history of breast cancer and is taking letrozole 2.5 mg.

      What is the mechanism of action of letrozole?

      Your Answer: Selective oestrogen receptor degrader (SERD)

      Correct Answer: Reduces peripheral oestrogen synthesis

      Explanation:

      Anti-oestrogen drugs are used in the management of oestrogen receptor-positive breast cancer. Selective oEstrogen Receptor Modulators (SERM) such as Tamoxifen act as an oestrogen receptor antagonist and partial agonist. However, Tamoxifen may cause adverse effects such as menstrual disturbance, hot flushes, venous thromboembolism, and endometrial cancer. On the other hand, aromatase inhibitors like Anastrozole and Letrozole reduce peripheral oestrogen synthesis, which is important in postmenopausal women. Anastrozole is used for ER +ve breast cancer in this group. However, aromatase inhibitors may cause adverse effects such as osteoporosis, hot flushes, arthralgia, myalgia, and insomnia. NICE recommends a DEXA scan when initiating a patient on aromatase inhibitors for breast cancer.

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      • Reproductive System
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  • Question 6 - A woman in her early pregnancy is diagnosed with anaemia during a routine...

    Correct

    • A woman in her early pregnancy is diagnosed with anaemia during a routine check-up. She is informed that this is a common occurrence. What causes anaemia to develop during pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Haemodilution by the increased plasma volume

      Explanation:

      Anaemia in pregnancy results from a greater increase in plasma volume compared to haemoglobin concentration, leading to a dilution of haemoglobin levels. It is important to note that haemoglobin levels actually increase during pregnancy. Drinking more water does not cause anaemia, as any excess water would be eliminated by the kidneys. Additionally, reduced secretion of ADH does not occur during pregnancy and would result in diuresis rather than anaemia.

      During pregnancy, women are checked for anaemia twice – once at the initial booking visit (usually at 8-10 weeks) and again at 28 weeks. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has set specific cut-off levels to determine if a woman requires oral iron therapy. For the first trimester, the cut-off is less than 110 g/L, for the second and third trimesters, it is less than 105 g/L, and for the postpartum period, it is less than 100 g/L. If a woman falls below these levels, she should receive oral ferrous sulfate or ferrous fumarate. Treatment should continue for three months after iron deficiency is corrected to allow for the replenishment of iron stores.

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      • Reproductive System
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  • Question 7 - A 55-year-old woman is experiencing symptoms of menopause such as hot flushes, mood...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman is experiencing symptoms of menopause such as hot flushes, mood swings, and infrequent periods. To confirm the diagnosis, her physician orders a blood test. What test result would suggest that she is going through menopause?

      Your Answer: Low FSH, LH and oestrogen

      Correct Answer: High FSH and LH, and low oestrogen

      Explanation:

      During menopause, there is a decrease in oestrogen levels due to the ovaries responding poorly to FSH and LH. This leads to an increase in both FSH and LH levels as there is less negative feedback from oestrogen. Therefore, any response indicating high levels of one hormone and low levels of the other is incorrect.

      Understanding Menopause and Contraception

      Menopause is a natural biological process that marks the end of a woman’s reproductive years. It typically occurs when a woman reaches the age of 51 in the UK. However, prior to menopause, women may experience a period known as the climacteric. During this time, ovarian function starts to decline, and women may experience symptoms such as hot flashes, mood swings, and vaginal dryness.

      It is important for women to understand that they can still become pregnant during the climacteric period. Therefore, it is recommended to use effective contraception until a certain period of time has passed. Women over the age of 50 should use contraception for 12 months after their last period, while women under the age of 50 should use contraception for 24 months after their last period. By understanding menopause and the importance of contraception during the climacteric period, women can make informed decisions about their reproductive health.

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      • Reproductive System
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  • Question 8 - A 26-year-old female presents to the emergency department with a 2-day history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old female presents to the emergency department with a 2-day history of suprapubic pain and fever. She has no significant medical or surgical history but takes a daily combined oral contraceptive pill and multivitamin. The surgical team orders a CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis, which shows pelvic fat stranding and free fluid in the pouch of Douglas. What is the most probable causative organism?

      Your Answer: Neisseria gonorrhoeae

      Correct Answer: Chlamydia trachomatis

      Explanation:

      Pelvic inflammatory disease can be a challenging diagnosis for emergency practitioners, as it presents with vague abdominal pain that can be mistaken for a surgical or gynecological issue. While CT scans are not ideal for young patients due to the risk of radiation exposure to the sex organs, they can reveal common findings for pelvic inflammatory disease, such as free fluid in the pouch of Douglas, pelvic fat stranding, tubo-ovarian abscesses, and fallopian tube thickening of more than 5 mm. In contrast, CT scans for appendicitis may show appendiceal dilatation, thickening of the caecal apex with a bar sign, periappendiceal fat stranding and phlegmon, and focal wall nonenhancement in cases of gangrenous appendix. The most common cause of pelvic inflammatory disease is Chlamydia trachomatis, followed by Neisseria gonorrhoeae and Mycobacterium tuberculosis. In cases of appendicitis, Escherichia coli is the most likely causative organism, with rare cases caused by other organisms.

      Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is a condition where the female pelvic organs, including the uterus, fallopian tubes, ovaries, and surrounding peritoneum, become infected and inflamed. It is typically caused by an infection that spreads from the endocervix. The most common causative organism is Chlamydia trachomatis, followed by Neisseria gonorrhoeae, Mycoplasma genitalium, and Mycoplasma hominis. Symptoms of PID include lower abdominal pain, fever, dyspareunia, dysuria, menstrual irregularities, vaginal or cervical discharge, and cervical excitation.

      To diagnose PID, a pregnancy test should be done to rule out an ectopic pregnancy, and a high vaginal swab should be taken to screen for Chlamydia and gonorrhoeae. However, these tests may often be negative, so consensus guidelines recommend having a low threshold for treatment due to the potential complications of untreated PID. Management typically involves oral ofloxacin and oral metronidazole or intramuscular ceftriaxone, oral doxycycline, and oral metronidazole. In mild cases of PID, intrauterine contraceptive devices may be left in, but the evidence is limited, and removal of the IUD may be associated with better short-term clinical outcomes according to recent guidelines.

      Complications of PID include perihepatitis (Fitz-Hugh Curtis Syndrome), which occurs in around 10% of cases and is characterized by right upper quadrant pain that may be confused with cholecystitis, infertility (with a risk as high as 10-20% after a single episode), chronic pelvic pain, and ectopic pregnancy.

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  • Question 9 - A 28-year-old woman presents to her GP with milky discharge from her breasts....

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman presents to her GP with milky discharge from her breasts. Her periods have also become very irregular and she has not menstruated in the past 4 months. On further questioning, she reports not being sexually active since having a miscarriage 9 months ago which required surgical management. On examination, there are no palpable masses in her breasts bilaterally, she demonstrates a small amount of milky white discharge from her left nipple which is collected for microscopy, culture, and sensitivity. She has no focal neurological deficits, cardiac, and respiratory examination is unremarkable, and her abdominal examination is unremarkable.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Sheehan's syndrome

      Correct Answer: Prolactinoma

      Explanation:

      The likely cause of this patient’s amenorrhoea and galactorrhoea is a prolactinoma, which inhibits the secretion of GnRH and leads to low levels of oestrogen. Further tests, including a urinary pregnancy test and blood tests for various hormones, should be conducted to confirm the diagnosis. Asherman’s syndrome, intraductal papilloma, and pregnancy are less likely causes, as they do not present with the same symptoms or do not fit the patient’s reported history.

      Understanding Amenorrhoea: Causes, Investigations, and Management

      Amenorrhoea is a condition characterized by the absence of menstrual periods. It can be classified into two types: primary and secondary. Primary amenorrhoea occurs when menstruation fails to start by the age of 15 in girls with normal secondary sexual characteristics or by the age of 13 in girls with no secondary sexual characteristics. On the other hand, secondary amenorrhoea is the cessation of menstruation for 3-6 months in women with previously normal and regular menses or 6-12 months in women with previous oligomenorrhoea.

      The causes of amenorrhoea vary depending on the type. Primary amenorrhoea may be caused by gonadal dysgenesis, testicular feminization, congenital malformations of the genital tract, functional hypothalamic amenorrhoea, congenital adrenal hyperplasia, imperforate hymen, hypothalamic amenorrhoea, polycystic ovarian syndrome, hyperprolactinemia, premature ovarian failure, and thyrotoxicosis. Meanwhile, secondary amenorrhoea may be caused by stress, excessive exercise, PCOS, Sheehan’s syndrome, Asherman’s syndrome, and other underlying medical conditions.

      To diagnose amenorrhoea, initial investigations may include pregnancy tests, full blood count, urea & electrolytes, coeliac screen, thyroid function tests, gonadotrophins, prolactin, and androgen levels. Management of amenorrhoea involves treating the underlying cause. For primary amenorrhoea, it is important to investigate and treat any underlying cause. For secondary amenorrhoea, it is important to exclude pregnancy, lactation, and menopause and treat the underlying cause accordingly. Women with primary ovarian insufficiency due to gonadal dysgenesis may benefit from hormone replacement therapy to prevent osteoporosis and other complications.

      In conclusion, amenorrhoea is a condition that requires proper diagnosis and management. Understanding the causes and appropriate investigations can help in providing the necessary treatment and care for women experiencing this condition.

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      • Reproductive System
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  • Question 10 - Which of the following breast tumors is most commonly linked to the risk...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following breast tumors is most commonly linked to the risk of spreading to the opposite breast?

      Your Answer: Invasive ductal carcinoma

      Correct Answer: Invasive lobular carcinoma

      Explanation:

      A classic characteristic of invasive lobular carcinoma is the possibility of metastasis to the opposite breast.

      Understanding Lobular Carcinoma of the Breast

      Lobular carcinoma of the breast is a less common type of breast cancer that presents differently from ductal carcinoma. The mass is usually more diffuse and less obvious on imaging tests like ultrasound and mammography, which can result in inadequate treatment if the disease is understaged. For women with invasive lobular carcinoma, an MRI scan of the breast is usually recommended before breast conserving surgery is performed to ensure the safest approach.

      Lobular carcinomas are also more likely to be multifocal and metastasize to the opposite breast. In some cases, lobular carcinoma in situ may be diagnosed incidentally on core biopsies. Unlike ductal carcinoma in situ, lobular carcinoma in situ is less strongly associated with foci of invasion and is usually managed through close monitoring. Understanding the differences between lobular and ductal carcinoma can help healthcare professionals provide the best possible care for patients with breast cancer.

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      • Reproductive System
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