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  • Question 1 - A 56-year-old Caucasian man presents to his General Practitioner (GP) for routine health...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old Caucasian man presents to his General Practitioner (GP) for routine health screening. He has a background history of obesity (BMI 31 kg/m2), impaired glucose tolerance and he used to smoke. His blood pressure is 162/100 mmHg. It is the same in both arms. There is no renal bruit and he does not appear cushingoid. He does not take regular exercise. At his previous appointment his blood pressure was 168/98 mm/Hg and he has been testing his BP at home. Average readings are 155/95 mmHg. He does not drink alcohol. His father had a heart attack at age 58. Blood results are listed below:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      HbA1C 46 mmol/l < 53 mmol/mol (<7.0%)
      Potassium 4.1 mmol/l 3.5–5 mmol/l
      Urea 7 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
      Creatinine 84 µmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Total cholesterol 5.2 mmol/l < 5.2 mmol/l
      High-density lipoprotein (HDL) 1.1 mmol/l > 1.0 mmol/l
      Low density-lipoprotein (LDL) 3 mmol/l < 3.5 mmol/l
      Triglycerides 1.1 mmol/l 0–1.5 mmol/l
      Thyroid Stimulating Hormone (TSH) 2 µU/l 0.17–3.2 µU/l
      Free T4 16 pmol/l 11–22 pmol/l
      What is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?

      Your Answer: Commence ACE inhibitor

      Explanation:

      Treatment for Stage 2 Hypertension: Commencing ACE Inhibitor

      Stage 2 hypertension is a serious condition that requires prompt treatment to reduce the risk of a cardiac event. According to NICE guidelines, ACE inhibitors or ARBs are the first-line treatment for hypertension. This man, who has multiple risk factors for hypertension, including age, obesity, and physical inactivity, should commence pharmacological treatment. Lifestyle advice alone is not sufficient in this case.

      It is important to note that beta blockers are not considered first-line treatment due to their side-effect profile. Spironolactone is used as fourth-line treatment in resistant hypertension or in the setting of hyperaldosteronism. If cholesterol-lowering treatment were commenced, a statin would be first line. However, in this case, the patient’s cholesterol is normal, so a fibrate is not indicated.

      In summary, commencing an ACE inhibitor is the appropriate course of action for this patient with stage 2 hypertension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      82.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 28-year-old female presents with palpitations, chest pain, and shortness of breath that...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old female presents with palpitations, chest pain, and shortness of breath that radiates to her left arm. These symptoms began six weeks ago after she witnessed her father's death from a heart attack. Over the past decade, she has undergone various investigations for abdominal pain, headaches, joint pains, and dyspareunia, but no significant cause has been identified for these symptoms. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Generalised anxiety disorder

      Correct Answer: Somatisation disorder

      Explanation:

      Somatisation Disorder as the Most Likely Diagnosis

      Somatisation disorder is the most probable diagnosis for the given scenario, although it lacks sufficient criteria for a complete diagnosis. This disorder is characterised by recurring pains, gastrointestinal, sexual, and pseudo-neurologic symptoms that persist for years. To meet the diagnostic criteria, the patient’s physical complaints must not be intentionally induced and must result in medical attention or significant impairment in social, occupational, or other important areas of functioning. Typically, the first symptoms appear during adolescence, and the full criteria are met by the age of 30.

      Among the other disorders, factitious disorder is the least likely explanation. The other three disorders are possible explanations, but they are not as likely as somatisation disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      16.9
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  • Question 3 - A 48-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with chest tightness. His blood...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with chest tightness. His blood pressure is 200/105 mmHg and heart rate is 70 bpm. His femoral pulses cannot be felt. Echocardiography reveals cardiomegaly and a left-ventricular ejection fraction of 34%. The patient also has a N-terminal pro-brain natriuretic peptide (NT-proBNP) of 25,000 pg/mL. As a result of the patient’s hypertension and high levels of NT-proBNP, he undergoes coronary angiography to exclude cardiac ischaemia. There is no evidence of myocardial ischaemia, but there are significant arterial findings.
      Which of the following is most likely to be seen on coronary angiography of this patient?

      Your Answer: Patent foramen ovale

      Correct Answer: Stenotic arteries

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Arterial Conditions: Understanding the Symptoms and Causes

      When it comes to arterial conditions, it is important to understand the symptoms and causes in order to make an accurate diagnosis. Here, we will explore several potential conditions and how they may present in a patient.

      Stenotic Arteries:
      Coarctation of the aorta is a potential condition to consider in younger adults with poorly controlled hypertension. Symptoms may include weak or absent femoral pulses, heart failure, and left-ventricular hypertrophy. Angiography may reveal stenosis in the middle and proximal segments of the left anterior descending artery, as well as in the left circumflex artery.

      Thickened Arteries:
      Atherosclerosis, or the build-up of plaque in the arteries, is a risk factor for heart attacks and stroke. However, it is unlikely to explain persistently high blood pressure or an absent femoral pulse.

      Aortic Aneurysm:
      While chronic high blood pressure can increase the risk of an aortic aneurysm, sudden, intense chest or back pain is a more common symptom. Additionally, a patient with an aneurysm would likely have low blood pressure and an elevated heart rate, which is inconsistent with the vitals seen in this presentation.

      Calcified Arteries:
      Calcification of arteries is caused by elevated lipid content and increases with age. While it can increase the risk of heart attack and stroke, it would not explain the absence of a femoral pulse or extremely high blood pressure.

      Patent Foramen Ovale:
      This condition, which predisposes patients to paradoxical emboli, is typically diagnosed on an echocardiogram and is unlikely to cause hypertension. It should be considered in patients who have had a stroke before the age of 50.

      In summary, understanding the symptoms and causes of arterial conditions is crucial for accurate diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      60.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 40-year-old male patient complains of shortness of breath, weight loss, and night...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old male patient complains of shortness of breath, weight loss, and night sweats for the past six weeks. Despite being generally healthy, he is experiencing these symptoms. During the examination, the patient's fingers show clubbing, and his temperature is 37.8°C. His pulse is 88 beats per minute, and his blood pressure is 128/80 mmHg. Upon listening to his heart, a pansystolic murmur is audible. What signs are likely to be found in this patient?

      Your Answer: Splinter haemorrhages

      Explanation:

      Symptoms and Diagnosis of Infective Endocarditis

      This individual has a lengthy medical history of experiencing night sweats and has developed clubbing of the fingers, along with a murmur. These symptoms are indicative of infective endocarditis. In addition to splinter hemorrhages in the nails, other symptoms that may be present include Roth spots in the eyes, Osler’s nodes and Janeway lesions in the palms and fingers of the hands, and splenomegaly instead of cervical lymphadenopathy. Cyanosis is not typically associated with clubbing and may suggest idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis or cystic fibrosis in younger individuals. However, this individual has no prior history of cystic fibrosis and has only been experiencing symptoms for six weeks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      34.8
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  • Question 5 - A 68-year-old man presents to the Cardiology Clinic with worsening central crushing chest...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old man presents to the Cardiology Clinic with worsening central crushing chest pain that only occurs during physical activity and never at rest. He is currently taking bisoprolol 20 mg per day, ramipril, omeprazole, glyceryl trinitrate (GTN), and atorvastatin. What is the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer: Commence isosorbide mononitrate and arrange an outpatient angiogram

      Explanation:

      Management of Stable Angina: Adding Isosorbide Mononitrate and Arranging Outpatient Angiogram

      For a patient with stable angina who is already taking appropriate first-line medications such as bisoprolol and GTN, the next step in management would be to add a long-acting nitrate like isosorbide mononitrate. This medication provides longer-term vasodilation compared to GTN, which is only used when required. This can potentially reduce the frequency of angina symptoms.

      An outpatient angiogram should also be arranged for the patient. While stable angina does not require an urgent angiogram, performing one on a non-urgent basis can provide more definitive management options like stenting if necessary.

      Increasing the dose of ramipril or statin is not necessary unless there is evidence of worsening hypertension or high cholesterol levels, respectively. Overall, the management of stable angina should be tailored to the individual patient’s needs and risk factors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      14.2
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 60-year-old man presents to cardiology outpatients after being lost to follow-up for...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old man presents to cardiology outpatients after being lost to follow-up for 2 years. He has a significant cardiac history, including two previous myocardial infarctions, peripheral vascular disease, and three transient ischemic attacks. He is also a non-insulin-dependent diabetic. During examination, his JVP is raised by 2 cm, and he has peripheral pitting edema to the mid-calf bilaterally and bilateral basal fine inspiratory crepitations. His last ECHO, performed 3 years ago, showed moderately impaired LV function and mitral regurgitation. He is currently taking bisoprolol, aspirin, simvastatin, furosemide, ramipril, and gliclazide. Which medication, if added, would provide prognostic benefit?

      Your Answer: Spironolactone

      Explanation:

      Heart Failure Medications: Prognostic and Symptomatic Benefits

      Heart failure is a prevalent disease that can be managed with various medications. These medications can be divided into two categories: those with prognostic benefits and those with symptomatic benefits. Prognostic medications help improve long-term outcomes, while symptomatic medications provide relief from symptoms.

      Prognostic medications include selective beta-blockers, angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors, angiotensin II antagonists, and spironolactone. In the RALES trial, spironolactone was shown to reduce all-cause mortality by 30% in patients with heart failure and an ejection fraction of less than 35%.

      Symptomatic medications include loop diuretics, digoxin, and vasodilators such as nitrates and hydralazine. These medications provide relief from symptoms but do not improve long-term outcomes.

      Other medications, such as nifedipine, sotalol, and naftidrofuryl, are used to manage other conditions such as angina, hypertension, and peripheral and cerebrovascular disorders, but are not of prognostic benefit in heart failure.

      Treatment for heart failure can be tailored to each individual case, and heart transplant remains a limited option for certain patient groups. Understanding the benefits and limitations of different medications can help healthcare providers make informed decisions about the best course of treatment for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      28.6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 70-year-old male presents with abdominal pain.

    He has a past medical history...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old male presents with abdominal pain.

      He has a past medical history of stroke and myocardial infarction. During examination, there was noticeable distension of the abdomen and the stools were maroon in color. The lactate level was found to be 5 mmol/L, which is above the normal range of <2.2 mmol/L.

      What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Acute mesenteric ischaemia

      Explanation:

      Acute Mesenteric Ischaemia

      Acute mesenteric ischaemia is a condition that occurs when there is a disruption in blood flow to the small intestine or right colon. This can be caused by arterial or venous disease, with arterial disease further classified as non-occlusive or occlusive. The classic triad of symptoms associated with acute mesenteric ischaemia includes gastrointestinal emptying, abdominal pain, and underlying cardiac disease.

      The hallmark symptom of mesenteric ischaemia is severe abdominal pain, which may be accompanied by other symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, abdominal distention, ileus, peritonitis, blood in the stool, and shock. Advanced ischaemia is characterized by the presence of these symptoms.

      There are several risk factors associated with acute mesenteric ischaemia, including congestive heart failure, cardiac arrhythmias (especially atrial fibrillation), recent myocardial infarction, atherosclerosis, hypercoagulable states, and hypovolaemia. It is important to be aware of these risk factors and to seek medical attention promptly if any symptoms of acute mesenteric ischaemia are present.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      25.7
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A foundation year 1 (FY1) doctor on the cardiology wards is teaching a...

    Correct

    • A foundation year 1 (FY1) doctor on the cardiology wards is teaching a group of first year medical students. She asks the students to work out the heart rate of a patient by interpreting his ECG taken during an episode of tachycardia.
      What is the duration, in seconds, of one small square on an ECG?

      Your Answer: 0.04 seconds

      Explanation:

      Understanding ECG Time Measurements

      When reading an electrocardiogram (ECG), it is important to understand the time measurements represented on the grid paper. The horizontal axis of the ECG represents time, with each small square measuring 1 mm in length and representing 40 milliseconds (0.04 seconds). A large square on the ECG grid has a length of 5 mm and represents 0.2 seconds. Five large squares covering a length of 25 mm on the grid represent 1 second of time. It is important to note that each small square has a length of 1 mm and equates to 40 milliseconds, not 4 seconds. Understanding these time measurements is crucial for accurately interpreting an ECG.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      6.1
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  • Question 9 - A 42-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with severe central chest pain....

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with severe central chest pain. The pain is exacerbated by lying down, relieved by sitting forward, and radiates to the left shoulder. He has recently undergone two cycles of radiotherapy for prostate cancer. Upon examination, his blood pressure is 96/52 mmHg (normal <120/80 mmHg), his jugular venous pressure (JVP) is elevated, and his pulse is 98 bpm, which appears to fade on inspiration. Heart sounds are faint. The electrocardiogram (ECG) reveals low-voltage QRS complexes.
      What is the most appropriate initial management for this condition?

      Your Answer: Fluid challenge with 1litre sodium chloride STAT

      Correct Answer: Urgent pericardiocentesis

      Explanation:

      The patient is experiencing cardiac tamponade, which is caused by fluid in the pericardial sac compressing the heart and reducing ventricular filling. This is likely due to pericarditis caused by recent radiotherapy. Beck’s triad of low blood pressure, raised JVP, and muffled heart sounds are indicative of tamponade. Urgent pericardiocentesis is necessary to aspirate the pericardial fluid using a 20 ml syringe and 18G needle under echocardiographic guidance. An ECG should be obtained to rule out MI and PE. GTN spray is used to manage MI, but it is not part of the treatment for tamponade. DC cardioversion is used for unstable cardiac arrhythmias, not tamponade. A fluid challenge with 1 liter of sodium chloride is not recommended as it may worsen the tamponade. LMWH is used to manage pulmonary embolus, but it is not appropriate for tamponade and may worsen the condition if the cause is haemopericardium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      49.1
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  • Question 10 - An 80-year-old man with aortic stenosis came for his annual check-up. During the...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old man with aortic stenosis came for his annual check-up. During the visit, his blood pressure was measured at 110/90 mmHg and his carotid pulse was slow-rising. What is the most severe symptom that indicates a poor prognosis in aortic stenosis?

      Your Answer: Syncope

      Explanation:

      Symptoms and Mortality Risk in Aortic Stenosis

      Aortic stenosis is a serious condition that can lead to decreased cerebral perfusion and potentially fatal outcomes. Here are some common symptoms and their associated mortality risks:

      – Syncope: This is a major concern and indicates the need for valve replacement, regardless of valve area.
      – Chest pain: While angina can occur due to reduced diastolic coronary perfusion time and increased left ventricular mass, it is not as significant as syncope in predicting mortality.
      – Cough: Aortic stenosis typically does not cause coughing.
      – Palpitations: Unless confirmed to be non-sustained ventricular tachycardia, palpitations do not increase mortality risk.
      – Orthostatic dizziness: Mild decreased cerebral perfusion can cause dizziness upon standing, but this symptom alone does not confer additional mortality risk.

      It is important to be aware of these symptoms and seek medical attention if they occur, as aortic stenosis can be a life-threatening condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      14.4
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Cardiology (7/10) 70%
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