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  • Question 1 - A 50-year-old woman visits her doctor with complaints of hot flashes and vaginal...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman visits her doctor with complaints of hot flashes and vaginal dryness. She reports no menstrual bleeding in the past year and has no significant medical or surgical history. Despite trying lifestyle changes for 6 months, she desires hormone replacement therapy (HRT) for symptom relief. What HRT preparation should be recommended to her?

      Your Answer: Estradiol with norethisterone

      Explanation:

      Women with a uterus taking HRT need a preparation with a progestogen to prevent excess growth and cancer risk. Estradiol with norethisterone is the correct option. Depo-Provera is a progesterone-only contraceptive and estradiol is given to women without a uterus. Norethisterone alone has no effect on menopause symptoms.

      Hormone Replacement Therapy: Uses and Varieties

      Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is a treatment that involves administering a small amount of estrogen, combined with a progestogen (in women with a uterus), to alleviate menopausal symptoms. The indications for HRT have changed significantly over the past decade due to the long-term risks that have become apparent, primarily as a result of the Women’s Health Initiative (WHI) study.

      The most common indication for HRT is vasomotor symptoms such as flushing, insomnia, and headaches. Other indications, such as reversal of vaginal atrophy, should be treated with other agents as first-line therapies. HRT is also recommended for women who experience premature menopause, which should be continued until the age of 50 years. The most important reason for giving HRT to younger women is to prevent the development of osteoporosis. Additionally, HRT has been shown to reduce the incidence of colorectal cancer.

      HRT generally consists of an oestrogenic compound, which replaces the diminished levels that occur in the perimenopausal period. This is normally combined with a progestogen if a woman has a uterus to reduce the risk of endometrial cancer. The choice of hormone includes natural oestrogens such as estradiol, estrone, and conjugated oestrogen, which are generally used rather than synthetic oestrogens such as ethinylestradiol (which is used in the combined oral contraceptive pill). Synthetic progestogens such as medroxyprogesterone, norethisterone, levonorgestrel, and drospirenone are usually used. A levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine system (e.g. Mirena) may be used as the progestogen component of HRT, i.e. a woman could take an oral oestrogen and have endometrial protection using a Mirena coil. Tibolone, a synthetic compound with both oestrogenic, progestogenic, and androgenic activity, is another option.

      HRT can be taken orally or transdermally (via a patch or gel). Transdermal is preferred if the woman is at risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE), as the rates of VTE do not appear to rise with transdermal preparations.

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      • General Principles
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  • Question 2 - Which of the following medications used in the treatment of hyperlipidemia is most...

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    • Which of the following medications used in the treatment of hyperlipidemia is most likely to cause flushing?

      Your Answer: Nicotinic acid

      Explanation:

      Side-effects of drugs used in hyperlipidaemia

      Hyperlipidaemia is a condition characterized by high levels of lipids in the blood. Drugs used to treat this condition have different mechanisms of action and can cause various adverse effects. Statins, which are HMG CoA reductase inhibitors, work by reducing the production of cholesterol in the liver. However, they can cause myositis (muscle inflammation) and deranged liver function tests (LFTs). Ezetimibe, on the other hand, decreases cholesterol absorption in the small intestine, but it can cause headaches. Nicotinic acid decreases hepatic VLDL secretion, but it can cause flushing and myositis. Fibrates, which are agonists of PPAR-alpha and increase lipoprotein lipase expression, can cause myositis, pruritus, and cholestasis. Cholestyramine decreases bile acid reabsorption in the small intestine, upregulating the amount of cholesterol that is converted to bile acid, but it can cause gastrointestinal side-effects. It is important to weigh the benefits and risks of each drug when choosing a treatment for hyperlipidaemia.

      Overall, the table above summarizes the different mechanisms of action and adverse effects of drugs used in hyperlipidaemia. It is important to note that each drug has its own set of benefits and risks, and patients should discuss their options with their healthcare provider to determine the best course of treatment. Proper monitoring and management of adverse effects can help ensure the safety and effectiveness of these medications.

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      • General Principles
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  • Question 3 - Which of the following is most impacted by the frequency of a condition?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is most impacted by the frequency of a condition?

      Your Answer: Specificity

      Correct Answer: Positive predictive value

      Explanation:

      Precision, sensitivity, accuracy, and specificity remain consistent regardless of the prevalence of the condition as they are inherent qualities. However, the positive predictive value may be impacted in situations where the prevalence of the condition is low. This is because a decrease in true positives results in a smaller numerator, leading to a lower PPV.

      Precision refers to the consistency of a test in producing the same results when repeated multiple times. It is an important aspect of test reliability and can impact the accuracy of the results. In order to assess precision, multiple tests are performed on the same sample and the results are compared. A test with high precision will produce similar results each time it is performed, while a test with low precision will produce inconsistent results. It is important to consider precision when interpreting test results and making clinical decisions.

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  • Question 4 - Which one of the following cell types is least likely to be found...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following cell types is least likely to be found in a wound 2 weeks following injury?

      Your Answer: Macrophages

      Correct Answer: Myofibroblasts

      Explanation:

      Myofibroblasts, which contain actin filaments in their cytoskeleton, are specialized fibroblasts that aid in wound contraction and are a characteristic feature of a fully healed wound. They are typically absent in wounds that are less than a month old.

      The Four Phases of Wound Healing

      Wound healing is a complex process that involves four distinct phases: haemostasis, inflammation, regeneration, and remodelling. During the haemostasis phase, the body works to stop bleeding by constricting blood vessels and forming a clot. This is followed by the inflammation phase, during which immune cells migrate to the wound site to fight infection and release growth factors that stimulate the production of new tissue. Fibroblasts, which are cells that produce collagen, also migrate to the wound site during this phase.

      The regeneration phase is characterized by the production of new tissue, including blood vessels and collagen. This phase can last several weeks and is critical for the formation of granulation tissue, which is a type of tissue that forms at the wound site and helps to promote healing. Finally, during the remodelling phase, the body works to remodel the new tissue and form a scar. This phase can last up to a year or longer and involves the differentiation of fibroblasts into myofibroblasts, which help to facilitate wound contraction.

      Overall, wound healing is a complex process that involves multiple phases and a variety of different cell types. By understanding these phases, researchers and clinicians can develop new treatments and therapies to help promote healing and reduce the risk of complications.

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      • General Principles
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  • Question 5 - A 55-year-old woman presents to the medical ward with lower abdominal pain, fevers,...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman presents to the medical ward with lower abdominal pain, fevers, and nausea. She has a history of recurrent urinary tract infections and type 2 diabetes. A urine culture is ordered, and pink colonies are observed on MacConkey agar. What is the probable causative organism?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Escherichia coli

      Explanation:

      Escherichia coli is a lactose-fermenting bacteria that produces pink colonies on MacConkey agar. It is a gram-negative bacillus and a common cause of urinary tract infections. MacConkey’s agar contains lactose, which is utilized by lactose-fermenting bacteria like Escherichia coli to produce acid as a by-product. The acid produced lowers the pH of the agar, resulting in the formation of pink colonies.

      Proteus vulgaris, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, and Salmonella enterica are all non-lactose fermenting bacteria and would produce clear-coloured colonies on MacConkey agar.

      Culture Requirements for Common Organisms

      Different microorganisms require specific culture conditions to grow and thrive. The table above lists some of the culture requirements for the more common organisms. For instance, Neisseria gonorrhoeae requires Thayer-Martin agar, which is a variant of chocolate agar, and the addition of Vancomycin, Polymyxin, and Nystatin to inhibit Gram-positive, Gram-negative, and fungal growth, respectively. Haemophilus influenzae, on the other hand, grows on chocolate agar with factors V (NAD+) and X (hematin).

      To remember the culture requirements for some of these organisms, some mnemonics can be used. For example, Nice Homes have chocolate can help recall that Neisseria and Haemophilus grow on chocolate agar. If I Tell-U the Corny joke Right, you’ll Laugh can be used to remember that Corynebacterium diphtheriae grows on tellurite agar or Loeffler’s media. Lactating pink monkeys can help recall that lactose fermenting bacteria, such as Escherichia coli, grow on MacConkey agar resulting in pink colonies. Finally, BORDETella pertussis can be used to remember that Bordetella pertussis grows on Bordet-Gengou (potato) agar.

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      • General Principles
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  • Question 6 - A 19-year-old female comes to the clinic complaining of an itchy rash surrounding...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old female comes to the clinic complaining of an itchy rash surrounding her belly button. She reports that the rash appeared a few days after getting her navel pierced. Upon examination, there is a vesicular rash with an erythematous base.

      What are the primary cells involved in the disease affecting this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Th1 lymphocytes

      Explanation:

      Th1 cells play a role in the cell mediated response, which is seen in contact dermatitis, a type 4 delayed hypersensitivity reaction. This reaction occurs due to the activation of Th1 lymphocyte cells and presents as a delayed reaction after exposure to the allergen.

      Th2 lymphocytes, on the other hand, are involved in the humoral (antibody) process and activate B-cells.

      Antigen presenting cells, such as macrophages and dendritic cells, process antigenic material and present them to lymphocytes.

      The classical complement pathway is activated by antigen-antibody complexes (IgM/IgG). In systemic diseases like systemic lupus erythematosus, anti-glomerular basement membrane (anti-GBM) disease, and anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic autoantibody (ANCA)-associated glomerulonephritis, the presence of autoantibodies and the autoantibody-mediated involvement of the classical pathway of the complement cascade is the cause of glomerulonephritis.

      T-Helper Cells: Two Major Subsets and Their Functions

      T-Helper cells are a type of white blood cell that play a crucial role in the immune system. There are two major subsets of T-Helper cells, each with their own specific functions. The first subset is Th1, which is involved in the cell-mediated response and delayed (type IV) hypersensitivity. Th1 cells secrete cytokines such as IFN-gamma, IL-2, and IL-3, which help activate other immune cells and promote inflammation.

      The second subset is Th2, which is involved in mediating humoral (antibody) immunity. Th2 cells are responsible for stimulating the production of antibodies, such as IgE in asthma. They secrete cytokines such as IL-4, IL-5, IL-6, IL-10, and IL-13, which help activate B cells and promote the production of antibodies.

      Understanding the functions of these two subsets of T-Helper cells is important for developing treatments for various immune-related disorders. For example, drugs that target Th1 cells may be useful in treating autoimmune diseases, while drugs that target Th2 cells may be useful in treating allergies and asthma.

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  • Question 7 - During your placement on the paediatric ward, you are examining the chest x-ray...

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    • During your placement on the paediatric ward, you are examining the chest x-ray of a 9-year-old boy from Ghana. He came to the UK 2 months ago and was hospitalized after falling from the monkey bars and breaking his collarbone. Despite being in good health, he has not experienced any chest pain or shortness of breath. Upon reviewing the radiologist's report, you notice that a Ghon complex is present. What medical condition does this suggest?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: TB

      Explanation:

      Childhood respiratory infection is the typical manifestation of primary TB, which is often asymptomatic and leads to the formation of a Ghon focus and mediastinal lymphadenopathy. These two conditions together are known as the Ghon complex. The infection usually resolves on its own with minimal symptoms.

      Understanding Tuberculosis: The Pathophysiology and Risk Factors

      Tuberculosis is a bacterial infection caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis. The pathophysiology of tuberculosis involves the migration of macrophages to regional lymph nodes, forming a Ghon complex. This complex leads to the formation of a granuloma, which is a collection of epithelioid histiocytes with caseous necrosis in the center. The inflammatory response is mediated by a type 4 hypersensitivity reaction. While healthy individuals can contain the disease, immunocompromised individuals are at risk of developing disseminated (miliary) TB.

      Several risk factors increase the likelihood of developing tuberculosis. These include having lived in Asia, Latin America, Eastern Europe, or Africa for years, exposure to an infectious TB case, and being infected with HIV. Immunocompromised individuals, such as diabetics, patients on immunosuppressive therapy, malnourished individuals, or those with haematological malignancies, are also at risk. Additionally, silicosis and apical fibrosis increase the likelihood of developing tuberculosis. Understanding the pathophysiology and risk factors of tuberculosis is crucial in preventing and treating this infectious disease.

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  • Question 8 - A 31-year-old man, who has recently moved from India to the United States,...

    Incorrect

    • A 31-year-old man, who has recently moved from India to the United States, comes to the clinic with complaints of haemoptysis, weight loss and fevers that have been going on for several months.

      During the examination, widespread crackles are detected. Following a chest X-ray, the patient is diagnosed with tuberculosis and prescribed a combination of antibiotics, including rifampicin.

      What is the mode of action of rifampicin?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inhibition of RNA synthesis

      Explanation:

      Rifampicin is a type of antibiotic that inhibits the synthesis of RNA. It specifically targets the DNA-dependent RNA polymerase in bacteria, which blocks the elongation process and prevents the translation of proteins.

      Other antibiotics that inhibit DNA synthesis include metronidazole, sulphonamides, and quinolones like ciprofloxacin. Beta-lactam antibiotics, such as cephalosporins and penicillins, inhibit the formation of cell walls by blocking the cross-linking of peptidoglycan.

      Trimethoprim is an antibiotic that inhibits the synthesis of folate by targeting dihydrofolate reductase. This prevents the reduction of dihydrofolic acid to tetrahydrofolic acid, which is an essential precursor in the thymidine synthesis pathway.

      Several antibiotics work by inhibiting protein synthesis, including aminoglycosides like gentamicin, macrolides like erythromycin, tetracyclines, and fusidic acid.

      The mechanism of action of antibiotics can be categorized into inhibiting cell wall formation, protein synthesis, DNA synthesis, and RNA synthesis. Beta-lactams such as penicillins and cephalosporins inhibit cell wall formation by blocking cross-linking of peptidoglycan cell walls. Antibiotics that inhibit protein synthesis include aminoglycosides, chloramphenicol, macrolides, tetracyclines, and fusidic acid. Quinolones, metronidazole, sulphonamides, and trimethoprim inhibit DNA synthesis, while rifampicin inhibits RNA synthesis.

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      • General Principles
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  • Question 9 - A 6-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department by her mother after...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department by her mother after she began experiencing increasing dyspnoea.

      On examination, she is cyanotic, drooling, and refuses to lie back, opting instead to crouch forwards with one arm out.

      A lateral X-ray radiograph of the neck displays thumb sign.

      What is the most likely causative pathogen in this presentation, given the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Haemophilus influenzae

      Explanation:

      Acute epiglottitis is commonly caused by Haemophilus influenzae type B, although cases are now rare in the UK due to the Hib vaccine. It is crucial to not miss this condition as it can be fatal. Haemophilus haemolyticus is not associated with acute epiglottitis as it is a non-pathogenic bacteria. Parainfluenza virus causes croup, which is a differential diagnosis for acute epiglottitis but has a more gradual onset. Streptococcus pyogenes can be associated with epiglottitis, but it is a rarer cause than H. influenzae and is usually linked to other conditions such as impetigo, cellulitis, tonsillitis, scarlet fever, rheumatic fever, and post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis. However, it is not typically linked with acute epiglottitis.

      Acute epiglottitis is a rare but serious infection caused by Haemophilus influenzae type B. It is important to recognize and treat it promptly as it can lead to airway obstruction. Although it was once considered a disease of childhood, it is now more common in adults in the UK due to the immunization program. The incidence of epiglottitis has decreased since the introduction of the Hib vaccine. Symptoms include a rapid onset, high temperature, stridor, drooling of saliva, and a tripod position where the patient leans forward and extends their neck to breathe easier.

      Diagnosis is made by direct visualization, but only by senior or airway trained staff. X-rays may be done if there is concern about a foreign body. A lateral view in acute epiglottitis will show swelling of the epiglottis, while a posterior-anterior view in croup will show subglottic narrowing, commonly called the steeple sign.

      Immediate senior involvement is necessary, including those able to provide emergency airway support such as anaesthetics or ENT. Endotracheal intubation may be necessary to protect the airway. If suspected, do NOT examine the throat due to the risk of acute airway obstruction. Oxygen and intravenous antibiotics are also important in management.

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  • Question 10 - A 32-year-old motorcyclist is admitted to the emergency department following a collision with...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old motorcyclist is admitted to the emergency department following a collision with a car. Upon secondary survey, a deep penetrating injury is discovered in the patient's left lateral thigh. The wound is surgically debrided and the patient is subsequently admitted to the neurological intensive care unit.

      After a few days, the patient develops a fever and experiences significant swelling in the affected area. Upon applying pressure, crackling sounds are heard, leading to a suspected diagnosis of gas gangrene.

      What is the mechanism behind the bacterial toxin responsible for the patient's clinical symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Degradation of phospholipids

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is degradation of phospholipids. Gas gangrene, which is characterized by deep tissue crepitus surrounding a penetrating wound, is caused by Clostridium perfringens, an organism that releases an alpha-toxin, a lecithinase enzyme that degrades phospholipids.

      The mechanisms of diphtheria toxin and pseudomonas exotoxin A involve ADP-ribosylation of elongation factor II, which inhibits protein synthesis in human cells but does not cause gas gangrene.

      Protein A, a virulence factor of Staphylococcus aureus, binds the Fc region of IgA, but infection with Staphylococcus aureus is not associated with gas gangrene.

      The tetanus toxin inhibits presynaptic GABA release, causing trismus and opisthotonus rather than gas gangrene.

      Exotoxins vs Endotoxins: Understanding the Differences

      Exotoxins and endotoxins are two types of toxins produced by bacteria. Exotoxins are secreted by bacteria, while endotoxins are only released when the bacterial cell is lysed. Exotoxins are typically produced by Gram-positive bacteria, with some exceptions like Vibrio cholerae and certain strains of E. coli.

      Exotoxins can be classified based on their primary effects, which include pyrogenic toxins, enterotoxins, neurotoxins, tissue invasive toxins, and miscellaneous toxins. Pyrogenic toxins stimulate the release of cytokines, resulting in fever and rash. Enterotoxins act on the gastrointestinal tract, causing either diarrheal or vomiting illness. Neurotoxins act on the nerves or neuromuscular junction, causing paralysis. Tissue invasive toxins cause damage to tissues, while miscellaneous toxins have various effects.

      On the other hand, endotoxins are lipopolysaccharides that are released from Gram-negative bacteria like Neisseria meningitidis. These toxins can cause fever, sepsis, and shock. Unlike exotoxins, endotoxins are not actively secreted by bacteria but are instead released when the bacterial cell is lysed.

      Understanding the differences between exotoxins and endotoxins is important in diagnosing and treating bacterial infections. While exotoxins can be targeted with specific treatments like antitoxins, endotoxins are more difficult to treat and often require supportive care.

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