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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old individual visits the neurology clinic with complaints of experiencing multiple instances of involuntary shaking in different limbs. They have some control over which limb is affected the most but are unable to stop the shaking. The intensity of the shaking increases gradually and then subsides in a similar manner. The patient reports that the shaking is more severe when they feel anxious. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Focal seizures with impaired awareness
Correct Answer: Pseudoseizures
Explanation:Distinguishing between pseudoseizures and true seizures can be challenging as they share some similarities. However, one key difference is that pseudoseizures tend to have a gradual onset, while true seizures have a sudden onset. Pseudoseizures are often linked to psychiatric conditions and are not voluntary, but rather compulsive and unwanted movements. It is common for individuals experiencing pseudoseizures to have some control over the location of their symptoms. While dystonia may involve shaking, it typically results in rigidity rather than gradual onset and offset.
Understanding Psychogenic Non-Epileptic Seizures
Psychogenic non-epileptic seizures, also known as pseudoseizures, are a type of seizure that is not caused by abnormal electrical activity in the brain. Instead, they are believed to be caused by psychological factors such as stress, trauma, or anxiety. These seizures can be difficult to diagnose as they often mimic true epileptic seizures, but there are certain factors that can help differentiate between the two.
Factors that may indicate pseudoseizures include pelvic thrusting, a family history of epilepsy, a higher incidence in females, crying after the seizure, and the seizures not occurring when the individual is alone. On the other hand, factors that may indicate true epileptic seizures include tongue biting and a raised serum prolactin level.
Video telemetry is a useful tool for differentiating between the two types of seizures. It involves monitoring the individual’s brain activity and behavior during a seizure, which can help determine whether it is caused by abnormal electrical activity in the brain or psychological factors.
It is important to accurately diagnose and treat psychogenic non-epileptic seizures as they can have a significant impact on an individual’s quality of life. Treatment may involve therapy to address underlying psychological factors, as well as medication to manage any associated symptoms such as anxiety or depression.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 2
Correct
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A 68-year-old man visits his doctor with his spouse, reporting a chronic cough and swelling in his neck. He has been experiencing these symptoms for several years but only sought medical attention today because his wife urged him to address his bad breath. The man's wife also notes that he makes noise while eating and drinking and occasionally has difficulty swallowing, leading to regurgitation of food. The patient has a history of hospitalization for pneumonia following one of these choking episodes. What is the most suitable course of action for managing his likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Surgical repair and resection
Explanation:Pharyngeal pouch may lead to dysphagia, aspiration pneumonia, and halitosis.
Understanding Pharyngeal Pouch or Zenker’s Diverticulum
A pharyngeal pouch, also known as Zenker’s diverticulum, is a condition where there is a posteromedial diverticulum through Killian’s dehiscence. This triangular area is found in the wall of the pharynx between the thyropharyngeus and cricopharyngeus muscles. It is more common in older patients and is five times more common in men.
The symptoms of pharyngeal pouch include dysphagia, regurgitation, aspiration, neck swelling that gurgles on palpation, and halitosis. To diagnose this condition, a barium swallow combined with dynamic video fluoroscopy is usually done.
Surgery is the most common management for pharyngeal pouch. It is important to address this condition promptly to prevent complications such as aspiration pneumonia. Understanding the symptoms and seeking medical attention early can help in the proper management of pharyngeal pouch.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 57-year-old man has been experiencing itchy skin, particularly after bathing, and headaches. He has been diagnosed with a condition that requires regular venesection and medical therapy to reduce his risk of clots. Assuming he has received lifestyle advice, what is the appropriate medical management for him?
Your Answer: Hydroxyurea
Correct Answer: Aspirin
Explanation:Aspirin is the recommended medication for patients with polycythaemia vera to lower the risk of thrombotic events caused by hyperviscosity. This patient is experiencing symptoms of hyperviscosity due to an excess of red blood cells in their serum. Aspirin works by inhibiting cyclooxygenase (COX) and reducing the production of thromboxane from arachidonic acid, which decreases platelet aggregation and lowers the risk of thrombotic events.
Apixaban is not the first-line prophylaxis for polycythaemia vera and is therefore incorrect for this patient. It is typically used for provoked or unprovoked deep vein thrombosis by directly inhibiting activated factor X (Xa) and preventing the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin.
Clopidogrel is an anti-platelet drug commonly used in acute coronary syndrome management but is not recognized as a treatment for polycythaemia vera in national guidelines, making it an incorrect option for this patient.
Hydroxyurea is a chemotherapy drug that is a recognized treatment for polycythaemia vera. However, it is not appropriate as a first-line option for thrombotic event prophylaxis, and aspirin should be the initial medication prescribed for this patient.
Polycythaemia vera is a condition where a single marrow stem cell undergoes clonal proliferation, leading to an increase in red cell volume, as well as an overproduction of neutrophils and platelets. This disorder is most commonly seen in individuals in their sixth decade of life and is characterized by symptoms such as hyperviscosity, pruritus, and splenomegaly.
The management of polycythaemia vera involves several approaches. Aspirin is often prescribed to reduce the risk of thrombotic events. Venesection is the first-line treatment to keep the haemoglobin levels within the normal range. Chemotherapy, such as hydroxyurea, may also be used, but it carries a slight increased risk of secondary leukaemia. Phosphorus-32 therapy is another option.
The prognosis for polycythaemia vera is variable. Thrombotic events are a significant cause of morbidity and mortality. Additionally, 5-15% of patients may progress to myelofibrosis, while another 5-15% may develop acute leukaemia, with the risk being increased with chemotherapy treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old man visits his GP complaining of difficult-to-control hypertension for the past 6 years. Despite trying various medications, his blood pressure remains high. He also reports experiencing muscle weakness and nocturia for many years. The patient has no significant medical history. During the examination, the patient appears healthy, but his blood pressure is measured at 162/86 mmHg. Blood tests are conducted, and the results are as follows:
- Na+ 138 mmol/L (135 - 145)
- K+ 3.2 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
- Urea 5.6 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
- Creatinine 78 µmol/L (55 - 120)
- Aldosterone:renin ratio 42 ng/dl per ng/(ml·h) (2-17)
Based on the information provided, what is the most probable cause of the patient's condition?Your Answer: Unilateral adrenal hyperplasia
Correct Answer: Bilateral idiopathic adrenal hyperplasia
Explanation:Understanding Primary Hyperaldosteronism
Primary hyperaldosteronism is a medical condition that was previously believed to be caused by an adrenal adenoma, also known as Conn’s syndrome. However, recent studies have shown that bilateral idiopathic adrenal hyperplasia is the cause in up to 70% of cases. It is important to differentiate between the two as this determines the appropriate treatment. Adrenal carcinoma is an extremely rare cause of primary hyperaldosteronism.
The common features of primary hyperaldosteronism include hypertension, hypokalaemia, and alkalosis. Hypokalaemia can cause muscle weakness, but this is seen in only 10-40% of patients. To diagnose primary hyperaldosteronism, the 2016 Endocrine Society recommends a plasma aldosterone/renin ratio as the first-line investigation. This should show high aldosterone levels alongside low renin levels due to negative feedback from sodium retention caused by aldosterone.
If the plasma aldosterone/renin ratio is high, a high-resolution CT abdomen and adrenal vein sampling are used to differentiate between unilateral and bilateral sources of aldosterone excess. If the CT is normal, adrenal venous sampling (AVS) can be used to distinguish between unilateral adenoma and bilateral hyperplasia. The management of primary hyperaldosteronism depends on the underlying cause. Adrenal adenoma is treated with surgery, while bilateral adrenocortical hyperplasia is treated with an aldosterone antagonist such as spironolactone.
In summary, primary hyperaldosteronism is a medical condition that can be caused by adrenal adenoma, bilateral idiopathic adrenal hyperplasia, or adrenal carcinoma. It is characterized by hypertension, hypokalaemia, and alkalosis. Diagnosis involves a plasma aldosterone/renin ratio, high-resolution CT abdomen, and adrenal vein sampling. Treatment depends on the underlying cause and may involve surgery or medication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 5
Correct
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A 15-year-old girl is rushed to the emergency department by ambulance after experiencing difficulty breathing during a sports event. Despite using her salbutamol inhaler, she could not catch her breath. She has a history of asthma.
Upon initial assessment, her heart rate is 110 bpm, and her respiratory rate is 28 /min. She is unable to complete full sentences, and there is a widespread wheeze on chest auscultation.
Further investigations reveal the following results:
- PEFR 52% (>75%)
- pH 7.43 (7.35-7.45)
- pO2 10.9 kPa (11-14.4)
- pCO2 4.7 kPa (4.6-6.0)
What is the classification of this patient's acute asthma episode?Your Answer: Life-threatening
Explanation:The patient’s symptoms indicate a life-threatening severity of asthma, as evidenced by their inability to complete full sentences and a PEFR measurement within the severe range. This is further supported by their normal pCO2 levels, which confirm the severity classification. The classification of moderate severity is incorrect in this case.
Management of Acute Asthma
Acute asthma is classified by the British Thoracic Society (BTS) into three categories: moderate, severe, and life-threatening. Patients with any of the life-threatening features should be treated as having a life-threatening attack. A fourth category, Near-fatal asthma, is also recognized. Further assessment may include arterial blood gases for patients with oxygen saturation levels below 92%. A chest x-ray is not routinely recommended unless the patient has life-threatening asthma, suspected pneumothorax, or failure to respond to treatment.
Admission criteria include a previous near-fatal asthma attack, pregnancy, an attack occurring despite already using oral corticosteroid, and presentation at night. All patients with life-threatening asthma should be admitted to the hospital, and patients with features of severe acute asthma should also be admitted if they fail to respond to initial treatment. Oxygen therapy should be started for hypoxaemic patients. Bronchodilation with short-acting beta₂-agonists (SABA) is recommended, and all patients should be given 40-50 mg of prednisolone orally daily. Ipratropium bromide and IV magnesium sulphate may also be considered for severe or life-threatening asthma. Patients who fail to respond require senior critical care support and should be treated in an appropriate ITU/HDU setting. Criteria for discharge include stability on discharge medication, checked and recorded inhaler technique, and PEF levels above 75% of best or predicted.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 57-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of shortness of breath and a cough with green sputum for the past week. She has no known drug allergies and is not taking any medication. Upon examination, her respiratory rate is 18/min, and her oxygen saturation is 95%. Her blood pressure is 126/74 mmHg, and her pulse rate is 84 bpm. She has a body temperature of 37.8 ºC. A chest x-ray is ordered. What is the most appropriate drug treatment for the likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Clarithromycin
Correct Answer: Amoxicillin
Explanation:Amoxicillin is the recommended first-line antibiotic for treating low-severity community-acquired pneumonia (CAP). In this case, the patient’s CRB-65 score indicates that she has low-severity CAP, making amoxicillin the appropriate choice for treatment. Clarithromycin and doxycycline are also used to treat pneumonia, but they are typically reserved for cases caused by atypical organisms. Co-amoxiclav and co-amoxiclav with clarithromycin are not recommended for low-severity CAP, as they are typically used for more severe cases. To be classified as high-severity CAP, a patient would need to meet specific criteria, such as confusion, a respiratory rate over 30 breaths/min, and being 65 years or older.
Pneumonia is a serious respiratory infection that requires prompt assessment and management. In the primary care setting, the CRB65 criteria are used to stratify patients based on their risk of mortality. Patients with a score of 0 are considered low risk and may be treated at home, while those with a score of 3 or 4 are high risk and require urgent admission to hospital. The use of a point-of-care CRP test can help guide antibiotic therapy. In the secondary care setting, the CURB65 criteria are used, which includes an additional criterion of urea > 7 mmol/L. Chest x-rays and blood and sputum cultures are recommended for intermediate or high-risk patients. Treatment for low-severity community acquired pneumonia typically involves a 5-day course of amoxicillin, while moderate and high-severity cases may require dual antibiotic therapy for 7-10 days. Discharge criteria and advice post-discharge are also provided, including information on expected symptom resolution timeframes and the need for a repeat chest x-ray at 6 weeks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old patient visits his primary care physician complaining of a recent exacerbation of his chronic cough. He reports experiencing similar episodes in the past, during which his typically yellow sputum becomes thicker and slightly tinged with blood. The patient has a history of hypertension and bronchiectasis, and has received multiple courses of antibiotics for these exacerbations. Upon examination, the patient appears relatively healthy but continues to cough. Crackles are heard upon chest auscultation. Given the patient's medical history and likely diagnosis, the physician decides to obtain a sputum sample. What organism is most likely to be observed upon culturing?
Your Answer: Streptococcus pneumoniae
Correct Answer: Haemophilus influenzae
Explanation:The most common organism associated with bronchiectasis is Haemophilus influenzae, making it the correct answer for an acute exacerbation of this condition. While Klebsiella pneumonia is also a possibility, it is less frequently seen and typically associated with pneumonia in patients with alcohol dependence. Pseudomonas aeruginosa is an incorrect answer, as it is more commonly found in patients with cystic fibrosis than bronchiectasis. Staphylococcus aureus is also less commonly isolated in bronchiectasis, and is more commonly associated with other infective conditions such as infective endocarditis and skin infections, as well as being a secondary bacterial cause of pneumonia following influenzae.
Managing Bronchiectasis
Bronchiectasis is a condition where the airways become permanently dilated due to chronic inflammation or infection. Before starting treatment, it is important to identify any underlying causes that can be treated, such as immune deficiency. The management of bronchiectasis includes physical training, such as inspiratory muscle training, which has been shown to be effective for patients without cystic fibrosis. Postural drainage, antibiotics for exacerbations, and long-term rotating antibiotics for severe cases are also recommended. Bronchodilators may be used in selected cases, and immunizations are important to prevent infections. Surgery may be considered for localized disease. The most common organisms isolated from patients with bronchiectasis include Haemophilus influenzae, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Klebsiella spp., and Streptococcus pneumoniae.
Spacing:
Bronchiectasis is a condition where the airways become permanently dilated due to chronic inflammation or infection. Before starting treatment, it is important to identify any underlying causes that can be treated, such as immune deficiency.
The management of bronchiectasis includes physical training, such as inspiratory muscle training, which has been shown to be effective for patients without cystic fibrosis. Postural drainage, antibiotics for exacerbations, and long-term rotating antibiotics for severe cases are also recommended. Bronchodilators may be used in selected cases, and immunizations are important to prevent infections. Surgery may be considered for localized disease.
The most common organisms isolated from patients with bronchiectasis include Haemophilus influenzae, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Klebsiella spp., and Streptococcus pneumoniae.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with symptoms of chest pain, palpitations, shortness of breath and dizziness. She has a medical history of depression, poorly controlled COPD and allergies. Recently, she has been taking medications such as salbutamol, sertraline, erythromycin, gentamicin and promethazine.
During the physical examination, her heart rate is 120 beats/min and her blood pressure is 83/50 mmHg. An ECG reveals ventricular tachycardia with prolonged QT intervals and rapid polymorphic QRS complexes.
Based on this information, which medication is most likely responsible for her presentation?Your Answer: Salbutamol
Correct Answer: Erythromycin
Explanation:Macrolides have the potential to cause torsades de pointes, a type of polymorphic ventricular tachycardia that is linked to a prolonged QT interval. Symptoms of torsades de pointes may include chest pain, hypotension, palpitations, shortness of breath, syncope, and tachycardia. Erythromycin is the correct answer as it is a macrolide that can lead to a prolonged QT interval and increase the risk of torsades de pointes. Other potential side effects of erythromycin include acute cholestatic hepatitis, eosinophilia, and gastrointestinal upset. Gentamicin, on the other hand, is an aminoglycoside that is not associated with torsades de pointes but can cause ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity. Promethazine is a first-generation antihistamine that can cause sedation and anticholinergic effects, but it is not linked to torsades de pointes. Similarly, salbutamol, a beta-2-agonist, can cause headaches, palpitations, and tremors, but it is not associated with torsades de pointes.
Torsades de Pointes: A Life-Threatening Condition
Torsades de pointes is a type of ventricular tachycardia that is associated with a prolonged QT interval. This condition can lead to ventricular fibrillation, which can cause sudden death. There are several causes of a prolonged QT interval, including congenital conditions such as Jervell-Lange-Nielsen syndrome and Romano-Ward syndrome, as well as certain medications like antiarrhythmics, tricyclic antidepressants, and antipsychotics. Other causes include electrolyte imbalances, myocarditis, hypothermia, and subarachnoid hemorrhage.
The management of torsades de pointes involves the administration of intravenous magnesium sulfate. This can help to stabilize the heart rhythm and prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old homeless woman is brought to the emergency department by paramedics after being found unconscious. An ECG reveals a broad complex polymorphic tachycardia, which is suggestive of torsades de pointes. What could be a potential cause of this arrhythmia in the patient?
Your Answer: Hypercalcaemia
Correct Answer: Hypothermia
Explanation:Torsades de pointes can be caused by hypothermia. Other causes include hypocalcaemia, hypokalemia, and hypomagnesaemia, but not their hyper counterparts. There is no known link between hypoglycemia or hyperthyroidism and Torsades de Pointes.
Torsades de Pointes: A Life-Threatening Condition
Torsades de pointes is a type of ventricular tachycardia that is associated with a prolonged QT interval. This condition can lead to ventricular fibrillation, which can cause sudden death. There are several causes of a prolonged QT interval, including congenital conditions such as Jervell-Lange-Nielsen syndrome and Romano-Ward syndrome, as well as certain medications like antiarrhythmics, tricyclic antidepressants, and antipsychotics. Other causes include electrolyte imbalances, myocarditis, hypothermia, and subarachnoid hemorrhage.
The management of torsades de pointes involves the administration of intravenous magnesium sulfate. This can help to stabilize the heart rhythm and prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 10
Incorrect
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You perform a home visit for an 80-year-old man diagnosed with terminal bronchial carcinoma. The patient has palliative care support in place, including anticipatory medications should he develop end-of-life symptoms. He is lucid and eating well, although unfortunately has developed shortness of breath and worsening pains from his metastases. The patient is a smoker and has a background of hypertension, ischaemic heart disease, and stage 4 chronic kidney disease.
Which medication would be the most suitable to relieve his symptoms?Your Answer: Morphine sulfate
Correct Answer: Oxycodone
Explanation:Palliative care prescribing for pain is guided by NICE and SIGN guidelines. NICE recommends starting treatment with regular oral modified-release or immediate-release morphine, with immediate-release morphine for breakthrough pain. Laxatives should be prescribed for all patients initiating strong opioids, and antiemetics should be offered if nausea persists. Drowsiness is usually transient, but if it persists, the dose should be adjusted. SIGN advises that the breakthrough dose of morphine is one-sixth the daily dose, and all patients receiving opioids should be prescribed a laxative. Opioids should be used with caution in patients with chronic kidney disease, and oxycodone is preferred to morphine in patients with mild-moderate renal impairment. Metastatic bone pain may respond to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, or radiotherapy, and all patients should be considered for referral to a clinical oncologist for further treatment. When increasing the dose of opioids, the next dose should be increased by 30-50%. Conversion factors between opioids are also provided. Opioid side-effects are usually transient, such as nausea and drowsiness, but constipation can persist. In addition to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, and radiotherapy, denosumab may be used to treat metastatic bone pain.
Overall, the guidelines recommend starting with regular oral morphine and adjusting the dose as needed. Laxatives should be prescribed to prevent constipation, and antiemetics may be needed for nausea. Opioids should be used with caution in patients with chronic kidney disease, and oxycodone is preferred in patients with mild-moderate renal impairment. Metastatic bone pain may respond to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, or radiotherapy, and referral to a clinical oncologist should be considered. Conversion factors between opioids are provided, and the next dose should be increased by 30-50% when adjusting the dose. Opioid side-effects are usually transient, but constipation can persist. Denosumab may also be used to treat metastatic bone pain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 11
Correct
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A 65-year-old male is admitted to the respiratory ward for severe community-acquired pneumonia and is being treated with amoxicillin. He has a medical history of a heart attack 2 years ago, hypertension, and type 2 diabetes. His current medications include aspirin 75 mg, atorvastatin 40 mg, ramipril 5mg, bendroflumethiazide 5mg, and metformin 500 mg BD. On the third day of treatment, the medical team noticed that the patient's creatinine levels increased from a baseline of 67 micromol/litre to 190 micromol/litre. His eGFR is found to be 25 ml/min, and he is diagnosed with acute kidney injury. Which of the patient's current medications can he continue taking in his current condition?
Your Answer: Aspirin
Explanation:In cases of acute kidney injury (AKI), it is important to identify drugs that may worsen renal function and those that can result in toxicity. AKI is defined as a 50% or greater rise in serum creatinine within the past 7 days or a fall in urine output to less than 0.5 ml/kg/hour for more than 6 hours.
For patients on aspirin for secondary prevention of acute coronary syndrome, the cardioprotective dose of 75 mg per day should be continued as there is strong evidence supporting its use. Aspirin is a COX-inhibitor that inhibits thromboxane synthesis via the COX-1 pathway, exhibiting antithrombotic effects.
Drugs that should be stopped in AKI as they may worsen renal function include diuretics, aminoglycosides, ACE inhibitors/ARBs, and NSAIDs that are not at cardioprotective doses. On the other hand, drugs that do not worsen renal function but can result in toxicity include metformin, lithium, and digoxin. A helpful mnemonic to remember the drugs to stop in AKI is DAMN AKI: Diuretics, Aminoglycosides and ACE inhibitors, Metformin, and NSAIDs.
Understanding Acute Kidney Injury: A Basic Overview
Acute kidney injury (AKI) is a condition where the kidneys experience a reduction in function due to an insult. In the past, the kidneys were often neglected in acute medicine, resulting in slow recognition and limited action. However, around 15% of patients admitted to the hospital develop AKI. While most patients recover their renal function, some may have long-term impaired kidney function due to AKI, which can result in acute complications, including death. Identifying patients at increased risk of AKI is crucial in reducing its incidence. Risk factors for AKI include chronic kidney disease, other organ failure/chronic disease, a history of AKI, and the use of drugs with nephrotoxic potential.
AKI has three main causes: prerenal, intrinsic, and postrenal. Prerenal causes are due to a lack of blood flow to the kidneys, while intrinsic causes relate to intrinsic damage to the kidneys themselves. Postrenal causes occur when there is an obstruction to the urine coming from the kidneys. Symptoms of AKI include reduced urine output, fluid overload, arrhythmias, and features of uraemia. Diagnosis of AKI is made through blood tests, urinalysis, and imaging.
The management of AKI is largely supportive, with careful fluid balance and medication review being crucial. Loop diuretics and low-dose dopamine are not recommended, but hyperkalaemia needs prompt treatment to avoid life-threatening arrhythmias. Renal replacement therapy may be necessary in severe cases. Prompt review by a urologist is required for patients with suspected AKI secondary to urinary obstruction, while specialist input from a nephrologist is necessary for cases where the cause is unknown or the AKI is severe.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old man visits his doctor with a complaint of erectile dysfunction. He reports no recent stressors or changes in his lifestyle or diet. He has a medical history of type 2 diabetes mellitus, hypertension, gastroesophageal reflux disease (GORD), and osteoarthritis. His current medications include gliclazide, indapamide, metformin, omeprazole, and paracetamol. The doctor suspects that one of his medications is responsible for his erectile dysfunction. Which medication is the most likely culprit?
Your Answer: Omeprazole
Correct Answer: Indapamide
Explanation:Indapamide, a thiazide-like diuretic, is known to cause sexual dysfunction and is the most likely medication responsible for this man’s erectile dysfunction. Gliclazide, metformin, and omeprazole, on the other hand, are not associated with sexual dysfunction. Gliclazide is used to manage diabetes mellitus and can cause gastrointestinal upset and hypoglycemia. Metformin is also used to manage diabetes mellitus and can cause nausea, vomiting, constipation, and rare adverse effects such as B12 deficiency and lactic acidosis. Omeprazole is a proton-pump inhibitor used to control excess stomach acid production and can cause gastrointestinal side-effects and electrolyte disturbances such as hyponatremia and hypomagnesemia.
Thiazide diuretics are medications that work by blocking the thiazide-sensitive Na+-Cl− symporter, which inhibits sodium reabsorption at the beginning of the distal convoluted tubule (DCT). This results in the loss of potassium as more sodium reaches the collecting ducts. While loop diuretics are better for reducing overload, thiazide diuretics have a role in the treatment of mild heart failure. Bendroflumethiazide was commonly used for managing hypertension, but recent NICE guidelines recommend other thiazide-like diuretics such as indapamide and chlorthalidone.
Like any medication, thiazide diuretics have potential adverse effects. Common side effects include dehydration, postural hypotension, and electrolyte imbalances such as hyponatraemia, hypokalaemia, and hypercalcaemia. Gout, impaired glucose tolerance, and impotence are also possible. Rare adverse effects include thrombocytopaenia, agranulocytosis, photosensitivity rash, and pancreatitis.
To manage hypertension, current NICE guidelines recommend using thiazide-like diuretics such as indapamide or chlorthalidone as first-line treatment. If blood pressure is not adequately controlled, a calcium channel blocker or ACE inhibitor can be added. If blood pressure remains high, a thiazide-like diuretic can be combined with a calcium channel blocker or ACE inhibitor. In some cases, a beta-blocker or aldosterone antagonist may also be added. Regular monitoring and adjustment of medication is necessary to ensure optimal blood pressure control.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old man presents to the emergency department with difficulty swallowing and blurred vision. He is worried about his slurred speech which started the day before. He has no past medical history or current medications.
Upon examination, the patient appears disheveled and has multiple track marks on both arms with surrounding redness. His vital signs are normal. Cranial nerve examination reveals bilateral ptosis, diplopia, impaired pupil accommodation, and impaired gag reflex. The patient's speech is also slurred. Upper limb examination shows hypotonia and 4/5 power bilaterally, while sensation is intact. Lower limb examination is unremarkable.
What is the most likely causative organism for this patient's presentation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Clostridium botulinum
Explanation:There are various bacterial infections that can cause different diseases. For example, Salmonella can cause food poisoning, while Campylobacter jejuni is a common cause of diarrhoea and can also be linked to Guillain-Barre syndrome. Additionally, Clostridium tetani infection can lead to tetanus.
Understanding Botulism: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Botulism is a rare but serious illness caused by the bacterium Clostridium botulinum. This gram-positive anaerobic bacillus produces botulinum toxin, a neurotoxin that blocks the release of acetylcholine, leading to flaccid paralysis and other symptoms. There are seven serotypes of the bacterium, labeled A-G. Botulism can result from eating contaminated food, particularly tinned food, or from intravenous drug use.
The neurotoxin produced by Clostridium botulinum often affects bulbar muscles and the autonomic nervous system, leading to symptoms such as diplopia, ataxia, and bulbar palsy. However, patients are usually fully conscious and do not experience any sensory disturbance.
Treatment for botulism involves administering botulism antitoxin and providing supportive care. It is important to note that the antitoxin is only effective if given early, as once the toxin has bound, its actions cannot be reversed. Therefore, prompt diagnosis and treatment are crucial in managing this potentially life-threatening illness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man with a history of chronic alcohol abuse presents to the Emergency Department. He appears disheveled, disoriented, and experiences frequent falls. Upon examination, you observe that he has difficulty with balance and coordination, and bilateral lateral rectus palsy with nystagmus. His sensory examination reveals a polyneuropathy, and his pulse is 90 bpm. There is no agitation or tremor noted on examination.
What is the most urgent treatment that should be administered to this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pabrinex
Explanation:Understanding Wernicke’s Encephalopathy
Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a condition that affects the brain and is caused by a deficiency in thiamine. This condition is commonly seen in individuals who abuse alcohol, but it can also be caused by persistent vomiting, stomach cancer, or dietary deficiencies. The classic triad of symptoms associated with Wernicke’s encephalopathy includes oculomotor dysfunction, gait ataxia, and encephalopathy. Other symptoms may include peripheral sensory neuropathy and confusion.
When left untreated, Wernicke’s encephalopathy can lead to the development of Korsakoff’s syndrome. This condition is characterized by antero- and retrograde amnesia and confabulation in addition to the symptoms associated with Wernicke’s encephalopathy.
To diagnose Wernicke’s encephalopathy, doctors may perform a variety of tests, including a decreased red cell transketolase test and an MRI. Treatment for this condition involves urgent replacement of thiamine. With prompt treatment, individuals with Wernicke’s encephalopathy can recover fully.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old female presents with a two-day history of right loin and supra-pubic pain, dysuria, and swinging fevers. She has a past medical history of urinary tract infections. Upon examination, she is febrile with a temperature of 39.2°C, her blood pressure is 100/60 mmHg, and her pulse is 94 bpm and regular. She appears unwell, and right renal angle and supra-pubic pain are confirmed. Laboratory tests show an elevated white blood cell count and a creatinine level of 125 µmol/L. What is the most appropriate imaging test for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: CT of the urinary tract without contrast
Explanation:Importance of CT Scan in Evaluating Ureteric Obstruction
A CT scan is necessary to rule out ureteric obstruction, such as a stone or abscess formation, even in cases where there is a significant elevation in creatinine. Although contrast nephropathy is a risk, the likelihood is low with a creatinine level of 125 µmol/L. It is important to note that iodinated contrast is the nephrotoxic component of a CT scan, and a non-contrast CT is both effective and poses minimal risk to the patient.
A plain radiograph may not detect stones that are not radio-opaque, and a micturating cystourethrogram is typically used to identify anatomical or functional abnormalities affecting the lower renal tract. If a CT scan is not feasible in the acute situation, an ultrasound may be a reasonable alternative. Overall, a CT scan is crucial in evaluating ureteric obstruction and should be considered even in cases where there is a slight risk of contrast nephropathy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man visits his GP for a regular diabetes check-up. He has a medical history of type 2 diabetes mellitus, iron-deficiency anaemia, splenectomy, depression, and chronic kidney disease stage 5, which requires haemodialysis. He is currently taking ferrous sulphate, metformin, citalopram, and amoxicillin. The HBA1c result shows 38 mmol/mol, but the GP suspects that this reading may be inaccurate. What could be the possible reasons for this?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Haemodialysis
Explanation:Haemodialysis, sickle-cell anaemia, GP6D deficiency, and hereditary spherocytosis are conditions that can cause premature red blood cell death, leading to invalid results when measuring HbA1c levels. HbA1c is a form of haemoglobin that indicates the three-month average blood sugar level. Haemodialysis, in particular, can result in lower-than-expected HbA1c levels due to its reduction of red blood cell lifespan. Amoxicillin and citalopram are not known to affect HbA1c levels, while drugs like trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole can increase erythrocyte destruction and cause inappropriately low HbA1c levels. Iron-deficiency anaemia, on the other hand, can cause higher-than-expected HbA1c levels, making it crucial to treat the condition to accurately track diabetic control.
Understanding Glycosylated Haemoglobin (HbA1c) in Diabetes Mellitus
Glycosylated haemoglobin (HbA1c) is a commonly used measure of long-term blood sugar control in diabetes mellitus. It is produced when glucose attaches to haemoglobin in the blood at a rate proportional to the glucose concentration. The level of HbA1c is influenced by the lifespan of red blood cells and the average blood glucose concentration. However, certain conditions such as sickle-cell anaemia, GP6D deficiency, and haemodialysis can interfere with accurate interpretation of HbA1c levels.
HbA1c is believed to reflect the blood glucose levels over the past 2-4 weeks, although it is generally thought to represent the previous 3 months. It is recommended that HbA1c be checked every 3-6 months until stable, then every 6 months. The Diabetes Control and Complications Trial (DCCT) has studied the complex relationship between HbA1c and average blood glucose. The International Federation of Clinical Chemistry (IFCC) has developed a new standardised method for reporting HbA1c in mmol per mol of haemoglobin without glucose attached.
The table above shows the relationship between HbA1c, average plasma glucose, and IFCC-HbA1c. By using this table, we can calculate the average plasma glucose level by multiplying HbA1c by 2 and subtracting 4.5. Understanding HbA1c is crucial in managing diabetes mellitus and achieving optimal blood sugar control.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old construction worker has had a fall from scaffolding at work and you suspect a midshaft humeral fracture. Which nerve would be most at risk in this scenario?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Extend the wrist
Explanation:Fractures in the middle of the humerus bone often result in damage to the radial nerve. Therefore, it is important to test the function of the radial nerve. Among the options given, only extending the wrist can effectively test the radial nerve as it provides innervation to the extensor muscles. If the radial nerve is affected, it can cause wrist drop.
While extending the elbow can also test the radial nerve, it may not provide as much information as wrist extension because the injury may be located proximal to the innervation of the triceps. This means that a more distal injury could be missed. Nonetheless, it is still likely to be performed as part of the testing process.
Reference:
Shao YC, Harwood P, Grotz MR, et al. (2005). Radial nerve palsy associated with fractures of the shaft of the humerus: a systematic review. J Bone Joint Surg Br; 87(12):1647-52.Anatomy and Function of the Radial Nerve
The radial nerve is a continuation of the posterior cord of the brachial plexus, with root values ranging from C5 to T1. It has both motor and sensory functions, innervating muscles in the arm and forearm, as well as providing sensation to the dorsal aspect of the hand.
The nerve follows a path from the axilla, where it lies posterior to the axillary artery on subscapularis, latissimus dorsi, and teres major, to the arm, where it enters between the brachial artery and the long head of triceps. It spirals around the posterior surface of the humerus in the groove for the radial nerve before piercing the intermuscular septum and descending in front of the lateral epicondyle. At the lateral epicondyle, it divides into a superficial and deep terminal branch, with the deep branch crossing the supinator to become the posterior interosseous nerve.
The radial nerve innervates several muscles, including triceps, anconeus, brachioradialis, and extensor carpi radialis. Damage to the nerve can result in wrist drop and sensory loss to a small area between the dorsal aspect of the 1st and 2nd metacarpals. In the forearm, the nerve innervates the supinator, extensor carpi ulnaris, extensor digitorum, extensor indicis, extensor digiti minimi, extensor pollicis longus and brevis, and abductor pollicis longus. Paralysis of these muscles can result in weakening of supination of prone hand and elbow flexion in mid prone position.
Understanding the anatomy and function of the radial nerve is important in diagnosing and treating injuries or conditions that affect its function.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 18
Incorrect
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Samantha is a 52-year-old female who visits her doctor with complaints of dysuria and increased urinary frequency for the past day. She has a medical history of hypertension and is currently taking candesartan and spironolactone. During her teenage years, she had two simple urinary tract infections. Upon examination, a urinary dipstick reveals leukocytes ++, nitrites ++ and microscopic haematuria. The doctor diagnoses her with a urinary tract infection and prescribes trimethoprim 200mg BD for three days.
After three days, Samantha returns to the clinic with improved urinary tract infection symptoms but complains of decreased urine output, nausea, and swelling in both legs. To investigate further, the doctor orders a full blood count and renal function bloods. What electrolyte disturbances might be expected to be found on Samantha's bloods?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hyperkalaemia
Explanation:Trimethoprim can lead to tubular dysfunction, which can result in hyperkalemia and an increase in serum creatinine levels.
This statement is accurate, as trimethoprim can block the ENaC channel in the distal nephron, causing a type 4 hyperkalemic distal renal tubular acidosis. In this patient’s case, the use of trimethoprim, along with her regular medications, has caused acute kidney injury. It is important to avoid using trimethoprim in patients taking renin angiotensin antagonist drugs or potassium-sparing diuretics, or to monitor renal function closely.
However, the statement that hypercalcemia is a common occurrence in acute kidney injury is incorrect. Hypocalcemia is more commonly seen in this condition. Similarly, hypernatremia is not a common finding in acute kidney injury, as hyponatremia is more frequently observed. On the other hand, hyperphosphatemia is a common occurrence in acute kidney injury due to phosphate retention.
Understanding Trimethoprim: Mechanism of Action, Adverse Effects, and Use in Pregnancy
Trimethoprim is an antibiotic that is commonly used to treat urinary tract infections. Its mechanism of action involves interfering with DNA synthesis by inhibiting dihydrofolate reductase. This can potentially interact with methotrexate, which also inhibits dihydrofolate reductase. However, the use of trimethoprim can also lead to adverse effects such as myelosuppression and a transient rise in creatinine. The drug can competitively inhibit the tubular secretion of creatinine, resulting in a temporary increase that reverses upon stopping the drug. Additionally, trimethoprim can block the ENaC channel in the distal nephron, causing a hyperkalaemic distal RTA (type 4). It can also inhibit creatinine secretion, often leading to an increase in creatinine by around 40 points, but not necessarily causing AKI.
When it comes to the use of trimethoprim in pregnancy, caution is advised. The British National Formulary (BNF) warns of a teratogenic risk in the first trimester due to its folate antagonist properties. As such, manufacturers advise avoiding the use of trimethoprim during pregnancy. It is important to understand the potential risks and benefits of using this antibiotic and to consult with a healthcare provider before taking any medication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old junior doctor presents to the Emergency department with complaints of a severe headache and neck stiffness. He reports experiencing mild diarrhoea over the past few days and some coryzal symptoms. On examination, his blood pressure is 155/82 mmHg, his pulse is 85 and regular, and his temperature is 37.8℃. He displays signs consistent with severe meningism, but there are no skin rashes or other signs of vasculitis.
The following investigations were conducted:
- Haemoglobin: 138 g/L (135-177)
- White cells: 8.9 ×109/L (4-11)
- Platelet: 183 ×109/L (150-400)
- Sodium: 141 mmol/L (135-146)
- Potassium: 4.4 mmol/L (3.5-5)
- Creatinine: 92 µmol/L (79-118)
- Lumbar puncture: lymphocytosis, slightly raised protein, normal glucose.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Enterovirus meningitis
Explanation:Enterovirus Meningitis: The Commonest Cause of Viral Meningitis in Adults
Enterovirus meningitis is the most common cause of viral meningitis in adults. The symptoms of a mild diarrhoeal illness and a runny nose, along with the lumbar puncture findings, are consistent with this diagnosis. The management of viral meningitis is conservative, with adequate hydration and analgesia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 90-year-old man is referred to the memory clinic for evaluation due to his family's concerns about his increasing forgetfulness in recent months. He scores 14/30 on the Mini Mental State Examination (MMSE). The consultant requests that you initiate treatment with an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor.
Which of the following drugs would you prescribe?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Donepezil
Explanation:Donepezil is classified as an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor and is considered a first-line treatment option for managing mild to moderate Alzheimer’s dementia, along with galantamine and rivastigmine. Memantine, on the other hand, is an NMDA receptor antagonist and is typically used as a second-line or adjunctive treatment for mild to moderate Alzheimer’s dementia, although it may be used as a first-line option for severe cases. Oxybutynin and tolterodine are anti-muscarinic medications that are commonly prescribed for urge incontinence, but immediate release oxybutynin should be avoided in frail older women, according to NICE guidelines. Finally, rotigotine is a dopamine agonist that is used to treat Parkinson’s disease and restless legs syndrome.
Managing Alzheimer’s Disease: Non-Pharmacological and Pharmacological Approaches
Alzheimer’s disease is a type of dementia that progressively affects the brain and is the most common form of dementia in the UK. To manage this condition, there are both non-pharmacological and pharmacological approaches available.
Non-pharmacological management involves offering a range of activities that promote wellbeing and are tailored to the patient’s preferences. Group cognitive stimulation therapy is recommended for patients with mild to moderate dementia, while group reminiscence therapy and cognitive rehabilitation are also options to consider.
Pharmacological management involves the use of medications. The three acetylcholinesterase inhibitors (donepezil, galantamine, and rivastigmine) are options for managing mild to moderate Alzheimer’s disease. Memantine, an NMDA receptor antagonist, is considered a second-line treatment and is recommended for patients with moderate Alzheimer’s who are intolerant of or have a contraindication to acetylcholinesterase inhibitors. It can also be used as an add-on drug to acetylcholinesterase inhibitors for patients with moderate or severe Alzheimer’s or as monotherapy in severe Alzheimer’s.
When managing non-cognitive symptoms, NICE does not recommend antidepressants for mild to moderate depression in patients with dementia. Antipsychotics should only be used for patients at risk of harming themselves or others or when the agitation, hallucinations, or delusions are causing them severe distress.
It is important to note that donepezil is relatively contraindicated in patients with bradycardia, and adverse effects may include insomnia. By utilizing both non-pharmacological and pharmacological approaches, patients with Alzheimer’s disease can receive comprehensive care and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old female presents to the emergency department with peri-umbilical pain. The pain is sharp in nature, is exacerbated by coughing and came on gradually over the past 12 hours. On examination, she is unable to stand on one leg comfortably and experiences pain on hip extension. The is no rebound tenderness or guarding. A urine pregnancy test is negative, and her temperature is 37.4ºC. The following tests are done:
Hb 135 g/L Male: (135-180)
Female: (115 - 160)
Platelets 300 * 109/L (150 - 400)
WBC 14 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
Neuts 11 * 109/L (2.0 - 7.0)
Lymphs 2 * 109/L (1.0 - 3.5)
Mono 0.8 * 109/L (0.2 - 0.8)
Eosin 0.2 * 109/L (0.0 - 0.4)
Na+ 136 mmol/L (135 - 145)
K+ 4 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
Urea 6 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
Creatinine 80 µmol/L (55 - 120)
CRP 24 mg/L (< 5)
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acute appendicitis
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis for individuals experiencing pain in the peri-umbilical region is acute appendicitis. Early appendicitis is characterized by this type of pain, and a positive psoas sign is also present. A neutrophil predominant leucocytosis is observed on the full blood count, indicating an infection. Ovarian torsion can cause sharp pain, but it is typically sudden and severe, not gradually worsening over 12 hours. Inguinal hernia pain is more likely to be felt in the groin area, not peri-umbilical, and there is no mention of a mass during the abdominal examination. Suprapubic pain and lower urinary tract symptoms such as dysuria are more likely to be associated with a lower urinary tract infection. In the absence of high fever and/or flank pain, an upper urinary tract infection is unlikely.
Understanding Acute Appendicitis
Acute appendicitis is a common condition that requires surgery and can occur at any age, but is most prevalent in young people aged 10-20 years. The pathogenesis of acute appendicitis involves lymphoid hyperplasia or a faecolith, which leads to the obstruction of the appendiceal lumen. This obstruction causes gut organisms to invade the appendix wall, leading to oedema, ischaemia, and possible perforation.
The most common symptom of acute appendicitis is abdominal pain, which is usually peri-umbilical and radiates to the right iliac fossa due to localised peritoneal inflammation. Other symptoms include mild pyrexia, anorexia, and nausea. Examination may reveal generalised or localised peritonism, rebound and percussion tenderness, guarding, and rigidity.
Diagnosis of acute appendicitis is typically based on raised inflammatory markers, compatible history, and examination findings. Imaging may be used in some cases, such as ultrasound in females where pelvic organ pathology is suspected. The treatment of choice for acute appendicitis is appendicectomy, which can be performed via an open or laparoscopic approach. Patients with perforated appendicitis require copious abdominal lavage, while those without peritonitis who have an appendix mass should receive broad-spectrum antibiotics and consideration given to performing an interval appendicectomy.
In conclusion, acute appendicitis is a common condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. Understanding the pathogenesis, symptoms, and management of acute appendicitis is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate care for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman visits her GP and experiences a convulsive episode involving her entire body while in the waiting room. She is unable to speak during the episode but can make eye contact when her name is called. Following the episode, she quickly returns to her normal state and can recall everything that occurred. Her medical history includes alcohol overuse and post-traumatic stress disorder. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Psychogenic non-epileptic seizure
Explanation:Widespread convulsions without loss of consciousness may indicate a psychogenic non-epileptic seizure (pseudoseizure), especially in a patient with psychiatric comorbidities. A focal aware seizure would not involve whole-body convulsions, while an alcohol withdrawal seizure would involve loss of consciousness. A panic attack may involve involuntary movement, but widespread convulsions would be unusual.
Understanding Psychogenic Non-Epileptic Seizures
Psychogenic non-epileptic seizures, also known as pseudoseizures, are a type of seizure that is not caused by abnormal electrical activity in the brain. Instead, they are believed to be caused by psychological factors such as stress, trauma, or anxiety. These seizures can be difficult to diagnose as they often mimic true epileptic seizures, but there are certain factors that can help differentiate between the two.
Factors that may indicate pseudoseizures include pelvic thrusting, a family history of epilepsy, a higher incidence in females, crying after the seizure, and the seizures not occurring when the individual is alone. On the other hand, factors that may indicate true epileptic seizures include tongue biting and a raised serum prolactin level.
Video telemetry is a useful tool for differentiating between the two types of seizures. It involves monitoring the individual’s brain activity and behavior during a seizure, which can help determine whether it is caused by abnormal electrical activity in the brain or psychological factors.
It is important to accurately diagnose and treat psychogenic non-epileptic seizures as they can have a significant impact on an individual’s quality of life. Treatment may involve therapy to address underlying psychological factors, as well as medication to manage any associated symptoms such as anxiety or depression.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man visits a neurovascular clinic for a check-up. He had a stroke caused by a lack of blood flow to the brain four weeks ago but has since made a remarkable recovery. However, the patient experienced severe abdominal discomfort and diarrhea when he switched from taking 300mg of aspirin daily to 75 mg of clopidogrel. Consequently, he stopped taking clopidogrel, and his symptoms have subsided.
What would be the most suitable medication(s) to recommend for preventing a secondary stroke?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aspirin 75 mg plus modified release dipyridamole
Explanation:When clopidogrel cannot be used, the recommended treatment for secondary stroke prevention is a combination of aspirin 75 mg and modified-release dipyridamole. Studies have shown that this combination is more effective than taking either medication alone. Ticagrelor is not currently recommended for this purpose by NICE, and prasugrel is contraindicated due to the risk of bleeding. Oral anticoagulants like warfarin are generally not used for secondary stroke prevention, with antiplatelets being the preferred treatment.
The Royal College of Physicians (RCP) and NICE have published guidelines on the diagnosis and management of patients following a stroke. The management of acute stroke includes maintaining normal levels of blood glucose, hydration, oxygen saturation, and temperature. Blood pressure should not be lowered in the acute phase unless there are complications. Aspirin should be given as soon as possible if a haemorrhagic stroke has been excluded. Anticoagulants should not be started until brain imaging has excluded haemorrhage. Thrombolysis with alteplase should only be given if administered within 4.5 hours of onset of stroke symptoms and haemorrhage has been definitively excluded. Mechanical thrombectomy is a new treatment option for patients with an acute ischaemic stroke. NICE recommends thrombectomy for people who have acute ischaemic stroke and confirmed occlusion of the proximal anterior circulation demonstrated by computed tomographic angiography or magnetic resonance angiography. Secondary prevention includes the use of clopidogrel and dipyridamole. Carotid artery endarterectomy should only be considered if carotid stenosis is greater than 70% according to ECST criteria or greater than 50% according to NASCET criteria.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 76-year-old male who is currently receiving end of life care and is on opioids for pain management requests some pain relief for breakthrough pain. He has a medical history of metastatic lung cancer, hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus, and chronic kidney disease. Earlier in the day, his latest blood results were as follows:
Hb 121 g/L Male: (135-180)
Female: (115 - 160)
Platelets 340 * 109/L (150 - 400)
WBC 9.7 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
Na+ 142 mmol/L (135 - 145)
K+ 4.9 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
Urea 25.7 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
Creatinine 624 µmol/L (55 - 120)
eGFR 9 mL/min/1.73m² (>90)
CRP 19 mg/L (< 5)
What is the most appropriate pain relief for this situation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sublingual fentanyl
Explanation:For palliative care patients with severe renal impairment, fentanyl or buprenorphine are the preferred opioids for pain relief. This is because they are not excreted through the kidneys, reducing the risk of toxicity compared to morphine. Fentanyl is the top choice due to its liver metabolism, making it less likely to cause harm in patients with a glomerular filtration rate (GFR) of less than 10 mL/min/1.73². Oxycodone can be used in mild to moderate renal impairment (GFR 10-50 mL/min/1.73²), but it should be avoided in severe cases as it is partially excreted through the kidneys. Ibuprofen is not recommended as it is a weaker pain reliever than opioids and is contraindicated in patients with poor renal function.
Palliative care prescribing for pain is guided by NICE and SIGN guidelines. NICE recommends starting treatment with regular oral modified-release or immediate-release morphine, with immediate-release morphine for breakthrough pain. Laxatives should be prescribed for all patients initiating strong opioids, and antiemetics should be offered if nausea persists. Drowsiness is usually transient, but if it persists, the dose should be adjusted. SIGN advises that the breakthrough dose of morphine is one-sixth the daily dose, and all patients receiving opioids should be prescribed a laxative. Opioids should be used with caution in patients with chronic kidney disease, and oxycodone is preferred to morphine in patients with mild-moderate renal impairment. Metastatic bone pain may respond to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, or radiotherapy, and all patients should be considered for referral to a clinical oncologist for further treatment. When increasing the dose of opioids, the next dose should be increased by 30-50%. Conversion factors between opioids are also provided. Opioid side-effects are usually transient, such as nausea and drowsiness, but constipation can persist. In addition to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, and radiotherapy, denosumab may be used to treat metastatic bone pain.
Overall, the guidelines recommend starting with regular oral morphine and adjusting the dose as needed. Laxatives should be prescribed to prevent constipation, and antiemetics may be needed for nausea. Opioids should be used with caution in patients with chronic kidney disease, and oxycodone is preferred in patients with mild-moderate renal impairment. Metastatic bone pain may respond to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, or radiotherapy, and referral to a clinical oncologist should be considered. Conversion factors between opioids are provided, and the next dose should be increased by 30-50% when adjusting the dose. Opioid side-effects are usually transient, but constipation can persist. Denosumab may also be used to treat metastatic bone pain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after being submerged. Upon arrival, the patient is found to be in ventricular fibrillation (VF) on ECG and has a temperature of 26 degrees centigrade. You have already administered three defibrillation shocks and initiated active and passive rewarming, but the patient remains in VF. What should be your next steps in managing this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Continue chest compressions but withhold shocks until patient's temperature >30 degrees
Explanation:When hypothermia leads to cardiac arrest, defibrillation is not as effective and should be limited to three shocks before the patient is warmed up to 30 degrees Celsius. Pacing is also ineffective until the patient reaches normal body temperature. Medications should be held off until the patient reaches 30 degrees Celsius, and then administered at double the usual intervals until the patient achieves normal body temperature or experiences the return of spontaneous circulation (ROSC).
Hypothermia is a condition where the core body temperature drops below normal levels, often caused by exposure to cold environments. It is most common in the winter and the elderly are particularly susceptible. Signs include shivering, cold and pale skin, slurred speech, and confusion. Treatment involves removing the patient from the cold environment, warming the body with blankets, securing the airway, and monitoring breathing. Rapid re-warming should be avoided as it can lead to peripheral vasodilation and shock. Certain actions, such as putting the person in a hot bath or giving them alcohol, should be avoided.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old patient presents with central chest pain and is diagnosed with non-ST elevation myocardial infarction. Aspirin and fondaparinux are administered. What is the mode of action of fondaparinux?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Activates antithrombin III
Explanation:Fondaparinux operates in a comparable manner to low-molecular weight heparin.
Parenteral Anticoagulation: Fondaparinux and Direct Thrombin Inhibitors
Parenteral anticoagulants are used to prevent venous thromboembolism and manage acute coronary syndrome. While unfractionated heparin and low molecular weight heparin are commonly used, fondaparinux and direct thrombin inhibitors are also effective options. Fondaparinux activates antithrombin III, which enhances the inhibition of coagulation factors Xa. It is administered subcutaneously. On the other hand, direct thrombin inhibitors like bivalirudin are typically given intravenously. Dabigatran is a type of direct thrombin inhibitor that can be taken orally and is classified as a direct oral anticoagulant (DOAC).
Overall, these parenteral anticoagulants are essential in preventing and managing blood clots. Fondaparinux and direct thrombin inhibitors work by targeting specific factors in the coagulation cascade, making them effective options for patients who cannot tolerate other anticoagulants. It is important to note that these medications require careful monitoring and dosing adjustments to prevent bleeding complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man visits his doctor with complaints of fatigue and lower back pain. Upon conducting a thorough examination and taking a complete medical history, the physician orders blood tests. The results are as follows:
- Hemoglobin (Hb): 101 g/L (normal range for males: 135-180; females: 115-160)
- Platelets: 138 * 109/L (normal range: 150-400)
- White blood cells (WBC): 4.9 * 109/L (normal range: 4.0-11.0)
- Sodium (Na+): 132 mmol/L (normal range: 135-145)
- Potassium (K+): 3.7 mmol/L (normal range: 3.5-5.0)
- Bicarbonate: 27 mmol/L (normal range: 22-29)
- Urea: 8.4 mmol/L (normal range: 2.0-7.0)
- Creatinine: 142 µmol/L (normal range: 55-120)
- Calcium: 3.2 mmol/L (normal range: 2.1-2.6)
- Phosphate: 1.4 mmol/L (normal range: 0.8-1.4)
- Magnesium: 1.0 mmol/L (normal range: 0.7-1.0)
What is the recommended first-line imaging for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Whole body MRI
Explanation:Understanding Multiple Myeloma: Features and Investigations
Multiple myeloma is a type of blood cancer that occurs due to genetic mutations in plasma cells. It is commonly diagnosed in individuals over the age of 70. The disease is characterized by the acronym CRABBI, which stands for Calcium, Renal, Anaemia, Bleeding, Bones, and Infection. Patients with multiple myeloma may experience hypercalcemia, renal damage, anaemia, bleeding, bone pain, and increased susceptibility to infections. Other symptoms may include amyloidosis, carpal tunnel syndrome, neuropathy, and hyperviscosity.
To diagnose multiple myeloma, doctors may perform a variety of tests, including blood tests, protein electrophoresis, bone marrow aspiration, and imaging studies. Blood tests may reveal anaemia, elevated levels of M protein in the blood or urine, and renal failure. Protein electrophoresis can detect raised concentrations of monoclonal IgA/IgG proteins in the serum or urine. Bone marrow aspiration confirms the diagnosis if the number of plasma cells is significantly raised. Imaging studies, such as whole-body MRI or X-rays, can detect osteolytic lesions or the characteristic raindrop skull pattern.
The diagnostic criteria for multiple myeloma require one major and one minor criteria or three minor criteria in an individual who has signs or symptoms of the disease. Major criteria include plasmacytoma, 30% plasma cells in a bone marrow sample, and elevated levels of M protein in the blood or urine. Minor criteria include 10% to 30% plasma cells in a bone marrow sample, minor elevations in the level of M protein in the blood or urine, osteolytic lesions, and low levels of antibodies not produced by the cancer cells in the blood.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man of black African origin presents to his GP for a review of his home blood pressure monitoring diary. The diary shows an average blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg, while his clinic reading today is 145/92 mmHg. The patient has a medical history of type two diabetes mellitus (T2DM) and takes metformin. He has no allergies and is not on any other medications. What is the best course of action for managing his blood pressure?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prescribe losartan
Explanation:For black TD2M patients diagnosed with hypertension, the first-line antihypertensive should be an angiotensin II receptor blocker, such as Losartan. This is because ARBs are more effective at reducing blood pressure in black African or African-Caribbean patients with diabetes compared to ACE inhibitors. Amlodipine, bendroflumethiazide, and doxazosin are not recommended as first-line antihypertensives for this patient population. Thiazide-like diuretics are only used if blood pressure remains uncontrolled despite treatment with an ACE inhibitor or ARB and a calcium-channel blocker. Alpha-blockers are not used unless blood pressure is not controlled with multiple antihypertensive medications.
NICE updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022, reflecting advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. The first-line drug of choice remains metformin, which should be titrated up slowly to minimize gastrointestinal upset. HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients and checked every 3-6 months until stable, with consideration for relaxing targets on a case-by-case basis. Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates and controlling intake of foods containing saturated fats and trans fatty acids. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease. Only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin, with atorvastatin 20 mg as the first-line choice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man presents to a rural medical assessment unit with recurrent episodes of syncope. He is admitted into the hospital in the cardiology ward for a work-up.
After two hours of admission, he experiences dizziness and mild disorientation. Upon examination, his airway is clear, he is breathing at a rate of 15 breaths per minute, his oxygen saturation is 96% on air, his blood pressure is 90/50 mmHg, and his heart rate is 40 beats per minute. It is noted that he has a documented anaphylactic allergy to atropine.
What is the most appropriate management option?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Adrenaline
Explanation:An adrenaline infusion can be used as an alternative treatment for symptomatic bradycardia if transcutaneous pacing is not available. In this case, the patient requires rapid intervention to address their haemodynamic instability. Atropine infusion is not appropriate due to the patient’s allergy and potential to worsen their condition. Amiodarone is not useful in this situation, as it is typically used for other arrhythmias. Digoxin is not helpful in bradycardia and can actually reduce AV conduction speed. Glucagon is reserved for cases of cardiovascular failure caused by beta-blocker overdose, which is not the case for this patient.
Management of Bradycardia in Peri-Arrest Rhythms
The 2021 Resuscitation Council (UK) guidelines highlight that the management of bradycardia in peri-arrest rhythms depends on two factors. Firstly, identifying adverse signs that indicate haemodynamic compromise, such as shock, syncope, myocardial ischaemia, or heart failure. Secondly, identifying the potential risk of asystole, which can occur in patients with complete heart block with broad complex QRS, recent asystole, Mobitz type II AV block, or ventricular pause > 3 seconds.
If adverse signs are present, Atropine (500 mcg IV) is the first line treatment. If there is an unsatisfactory response, interventions such as atropine (up to a maximum of 3mg), transcutaneous pacing, or isoprenaline/adrenaline infusion titrated to response may be used. Specialist help should be sought for consideration of transvenous pacing if there is no response to the above measures.
Even if there is a satisfactory response to atropine, specialist help is indicated to consider the need for transvenous pacing in patients with risk factors for asystole. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can effectively manage bradycardia in peri-arrest rhythms and improve patient outcomes.
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old man from Ghana presents to the neurology outpatient department with a one-month history of progressive weakness following a recent diarrheal illness. Upon examination, there is 4/5 power at hip flexion and knee extension, which improves to 5/5 after a brief period of exercise. Knee reflexes are absent, but facial muscles and cranial nerves are normal. Creatinine kinase levels are elevated at 420 U/L (40-320), and EMG testing shows an increment in muscle action potentials after exercise. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lambert-Eaton syndrome
Explanation:Lambert-Eaton syndrome is a possible diagnosis for this patient’s symptoms. It is a rare disorder that can affect both the upper and lower motor neurons, causing proximal muscle weakness. It can occur as a paraneoplastic syndrome in a small percentage of cases, but it can also be an idiopathic autoimmune disorder in younger patients. Unlike Guillain-Barré syndrome, the weakness in LES does not improve with exercise, and the EMG shows an increment in muscle action potentials after exercise. Inclusion body myositis is unlikely as it typically affects the finger flexors rather than the hip flexors and the weakness is distal rather than proximal. Myasthenia gravis is also a differential diagnosis, but the weakness in this disorder worsens with exercise, whereas in LES, it does not.
Understanding Lambert-Eaton Syndrome
Lambert-Eaton syndrome is a rare neuromuscular disorder that is often associated with small cell lung cancer, breast cancer, and ovarian cancer. However, it can also occur independently as an autoimmune disorder. This condition is caused by an antibody that attacks the presynaptic voltage-gated calcium channel in the peripheral nervous system.
The symptoms of Lambert-Eaton syndrome include limb-girdle weakness, hyporeflexia, and autonomic symptoms such as dry mouth, impotence, and difficulty micturating. Unlike myasthenia gravis, ophthalmoplegia and ptosis are not commonly observed in this condition. Although repeated muscle contractions can lead to increased muscle strength, this is only seen in 50% of patients and muscle strength will eventually decrease following prolonged muscle use.
To diagnose Lambert-Eaton syndrome, an incremental response to repetitive electrical stimulation is observed during an electromyography (EMG) test. Treatment options include addressing the underlying cancer, immunosuppression with prednisolone and/or azathioprine, and the use of 3,4-diaminopyridine, which blocks potassium channel efflux in the nerve terminal to increase the action potential duration. Intravenous immunoglobulin therapy and plasma exchange may also be beneficial.
In summary, Lambert-Eaton syndrome is a rare neuromuscular disorder that can be associated with cancer or occur independently as an autoimmune disorder. It is characterized by limb-girdle weakness, hyporeflexia, and autonomic symptoms. Treatment options include addressing the underlying cancer, immunosuppression, and the use of 3,4-diaminopyridine, intravenous immunoglobulin therapy, and plasma exchange.
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